Ibps It-Officer Model Test Paper-1

Engistan.com [IBPS IT-OFFICER MODEL TEST PAPER-1]

IBPS CWE SO (IT-Officer) Model Test Paper - 1

Duration: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200

This Paper Contains Four Sections having 50 Questions Each.

Sections No. of

Questions Maximum

Marks Total Time

Reasoning 50 50

120 Minutes

Quantitative Aptitude 50 50 Professional Knowledge 50 75

English Language 50 25 Total 200 200

REASONING

Q. 1-5. Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing outside the centre. F is third to the right of C and second to the left of H. D is not an immediate neighbour of C and H. E is to the immediate right of A, who is second to the right of G.

Q.1. Who is second to the left of C?

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) None of these

Q.2. Who is third to the right of D?

(1) A (2) F (3) E (4) H (5) None of these

Q.3. Which of the following group of persons represents immediate neighbour of G?

(1) DH (2) FH (3) AF (4) EH (5) None of these

Q.4. How many persons are sitting between C to H if we counted anticlockwise direction?

(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four (5) More than Four

Q.5. Which of the following is the correct position of B with respect to H?

(a) Second to the right Engistan.com | Engineer’s Community

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(b) Fourth to the right

(c) Fourth to the left

(d) Second to the left

(1) Only a (2) Only b (3) Only c (4) b and c (5) None of these

Q. 6-10. Each of the question below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and

Give answer (1) if the data in statement 1 alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement 2 alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (2) if the data in statement 2 alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement 1 alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (3) if the data in statement 1 alone or in statement 2 alone are sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (4) if the data in both the statement 1 and 2 alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (5) if the data in both the statement 1 and 2 together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.6. Who reached the station first among P, T, Q, R & D if no two persons reached together?

I. T reached only after Q & R.

II. P reached before D.

Q.7. Tower P is in which direction with respect to Tower Q?

I. P is to the East of H, which is to the north of Q.

II. F is to the East of Q and south of P.

Q.8. What is Smita’s rank from top in the class?

I. In the class of 42 children, Smita is 29th from the bottom.

II. Smita is ten ranks below Samir.

Q.9. What is the code for ‘to’ in the code language?

I. In the code language ‘she walks fast’ is written as ‘he ka to’.

II. In the code language ‘she learns fast’ is written as ‘jo ka he’.

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Q.10. How N is related to K?

I. N is the brother of M who is the daughter of K.

II. F is the husband of K.

Q.11. Read the following equations carefully –

5 + 3 + 2 = 15 10 12 9 + 2 + 4 = 18 36 62 8 + 6 + 3 = 48 24 66

Based on the above rule, find out the answer of the following question –

7 + 2 +5 =?

(1) 14 35 24 (2) 14 10 35 (3) 14 35 42 (4) 14 35 04 (5) None of these

Q. 12-16. Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F and G are here. They belong to seven different cities Lucknow, Lakhimpur, Ahmedabad, Patna, Kanpur, Pune and Delhi and they like different colours Red, Green, Blue, Yellow, White, Orange and Black not necessarily in the same order.

A belongs to Delhi and does not like Orange or Green. G likes blue. One who likes Yellow belongs to Kanpur. F belongs to either Kanpur or Ahmedabad and likes Yellow. One who belongs to Lakhimpur likes blue. D neither belongs to Pune nor Lucknow and likes Green. E likes Black and belongs to Patna. B neither likes Red nor Orange. The one who likes Orange belong to Lucknow.

Q.12. Who among the following belongs to Patna?

(1) A (2) C (3) B (4) G (5) None of these

Q.13. Which one is correct?

(1) G belongs to Lakhimpur. (2) C likes Red. (3) A belongs to Patna.

(4) G likes Red. (5) None of these.

Q.14. Which pairs correctly matches?

(1) A-Patna-Green (2) C-Pune-Red (3) F-Kanpur-Orange

(4) G-Lakhimpur-White (5) None of these

Q.15. C likes which colour?

(1) Red (2) Green (3) White (4) Orange (5) None of these

Q.16. F belongs to which city?


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(1) Patna (2) Lucknow (3) Kanpur (4) Ahmedabad (5) None of these

Q.17. R is the grandfather of T, who is the brother of D. Q has two sons A and B. A is the father of D, whose mother is O. How B is related to D?

(1) Father (2) Paternal Uncle (3) Son (4) Brother

(5) None of these

Q. 18-20. Study the following information to answer the given questions.

‘ABSENT’ is related to ‘DMSBCT’ and ‘COUPLE’ is related to ‘OKDDPV’.

Q.18. SECOND is related to

(1) TFDNMC (2) NMCDET (3) TNFMDC (4) NMCTFD

(5) NDMFCT

Q.19. MATTER is related to

(1) SDQNBU (2) UBNQDS (3) SQBDNU (4) QNDBSU

(5) SUDBQN

Q.20 PERSON is related to

(1) RNFSQM (2) RQNFMS (3) SRNFQM (4) NRSRMQ

(5) RNMQFS

Q. 21-27. Study the following information to answer the below questions.

Six games are played in a year starting from January and ending to July of the same year. Basketball is not played in February and June. Football is immediately played after Hockey. In the month of May, Cricket is not played and there is one month gap between Cricket and Tennis game. One month prior to the schedule of Polo, there is no game (as that month is the ‘off’ month and January is not the ‘off’ month).

Q.21. Which of the following is the last game scheduled?

(1) Cricket (2) Tennis (3) Football (4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

Q.22. If march is the ‘off’ month, the code would be 2-4, if April was the ‘off’ month, the code would be 3-3. Taking into account the ‘off’ month, which of the following is correct?

(1) Cannot be determined (2) 5-1 (3) 3-3


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(4) 4-2 (5) None of these

Q.23. Which game is scheduled in the month of May?

(1) Polo (2) Football (3) Basketball

(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

Q.24. How many games were scheduled between Polo and Football?

(1) One (2) Two (3) Three


Q.25. Which month is basketball scheduled?

(1) January (2) March (3) April


Q.26. Which month is the ‘off’ month?

(1) February (2) March (3) May


Q.27. If somebody wants to attend only two games out of Football, Tennis and Basketball but wants the two months to be successive (only after the other) then which game – combination may be selected?

(1) Tennis, Basketball

(2) Football, Basketball

(3) Football, Tennis

(4) Any two of the tree is possible

(5) With the combination of successive months, it is not possible.

Q. 28-34. In each question given below three statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and decide which logically follows from the two given statements disregarding commonly known facts:

(1) If only conclusion I follows

(2) If only conclusion II follows

(3) If either conclusion I and II follows


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(4) If neither conclusion I nor II follows

(5) If both conclusion I and II follow

Q.28 Statement: All Monday are Tuesday. No Tuesday is Wednesday.

All Tuesday are Sunday.

Conclusion: (I) Some Wednesday are Sunday (II) No Wednesday is Sunday.

Q.29. Statement: Some watch are pen. All pens are knife.

Some knifes are telephones.

Conclusion: (I) Some watch are knife. (II) All watch are telephone

Q. 30-31. Statement: All Chemistry are Physics Some Physics are Economics.

All Economics are Sanskrit

Q.30. Conclusion: (I) Some Chemistry are Sanskrit. (II) No Chemistry is Sanskrit

Q.31. Conclusion: (I) Some Physics are Sanskrit (II) All Economics are Physics

Q. 32- 34. Statement: Some Cricket are Hockey. All Hockey are Football

Some Football are Basketball

Q.32. Conclusion: (I) Some Hockey are not Football (II) Some Football are not Basketball

Q.33 Conclusion: (I) All Hockey are Basketball (II) Some Hockey are not Football

Q.34. Conclusion: (I) Some Cricket are Basketball (II) No Cricket is Basketball.

Q. 35-38. Study the information to answer the given questions.

In a certain code Ta Ka Se means these are books, Re Ta Ti means books take there and Ti Ha means take them.

Q.35. Ti Re Ha Ta may represent?

(1) there them take books

(2) take these take books

(3) these are take books

(4) are there take books


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(5) there are these books

Q.36. Which of the following is the code of books?

(1) Ti (2) Re (3) Ka (4) Se (5) Ta

Q.37. these are them can be coded as –

(1) Se Ha Ka (2) Ta Se Re (3) Ta Se Ta (4) Ta Ha Re

(5) None of these

Q.38. Ha may be represent as –

(1) take (2) books (3) them (4) these

(5) are

Q.39. Early morning after sunrise Rajesh was standing in front of his house in such a way that his shadow was falling exactly behind him. He starts walking straight and walks 5 meters He turns to his left and walks 3 meters and again turning to his left walks 2 meters. Now in which direction is he from his starting point?

(1) South (2) West (3) South-East (4) South-West

(5) North-East

Q.40. In a certain code ‘TORCH’ is coded as ‘IDSNS’ and ‘PISTA’ is coded as ‘BUTHO’. How will ‘BLINK’ be coded in the same code?

(1)LOJKA (2) LKJOA (3) AOJKL (4) LOKJA

(5) AKJOL

Q.41. What should come next in the following letter series –

ACFHKMPRUW?

(1) Z (2) Y (3) U (4) V

(5) T

Q.42. M is the brother of K. P is the sister of K. R is the father of P. How is K related to R?

(1) Son (2) daughter (3) Son or Daughter (4) Data inadequate

(5) None of these

Q. 43-47. In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the


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information given in the statement, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.

Give answer

(1) If only I follows

(2) If only II follows

(3) If either I or II follows

(4) If neither I nor II follows

(5) If both I and II follow.

Q.43. Statement: A large number of people in ward X of the city are diagnosed to be suffering from a fatal malaria type.

Courses of Action:

I. The city municipal authority should take immediate steps to carry out extensive fumigation in ward X.

II. The people in the area should be advised to take steps to avoid mosquito bites.

Q.44. Statement: Severe drought is reported to have set in several parts of the country.

Courses of Action:

I. Government should immediately make arrangement for providing financial assistance to those affected.

II. Food, water and fodder should immediately be sent to all these areas to save the people and cattle.

Q.45. Statement: Exporters in the capital are alleging that commercial banks are violating a Reserve Bank of India directive to operate a post shipment export credit denominated in foreign currency at international rates from January this year.

Courses of Action:

I. The officers concerned in the commercial banks are to be suspended.

II. The RBI should be asked to stop giving such directives to commercial banks.

Q.46. Statement: A large number of people die every year due to drinking polluted water during the summer.


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Courses of Action:

I. The government should make adequate arrangements to provide safe drinking water to all its citizens.

II. The people should be educated about the dangers of drinking polluted water.

Q.47. Statement: The Asian Development Bank has approved a $285 million loan to finance a project to construct coal ports by Paradip and Madras Port Trusts.

Courses of Action:

I. India should use financial assistance from other international financial organisations to develop such ports in other places.

II. India should not seek such financial assistance from the international financial agencies.

Q.48. Vishnu ranks 16th from the top and 49th from the bottom in a class. How many students are there in the class?

(1) 66 (2) 65 (3) 64 (4) 63

(5) 67

Q.49. Find out the next term in the given series

34, 18, 10, 6, 4, ...

(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 0

(5) -1

Q.50. DWH:WDS :: FUL: .........

(1) ELV (2) OFU (3) UFO (4) FOU

(5) None of these


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Quantitative Aptitude

Q.51. The sum of a two-digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the digits is 110.The difference between the digits is 4.What is the number?

(1)73 (2)37 (3)65

(4)Can’t be determined (5)None of these

Q.52. 46% of 750 – ? = 284

(1)63 (2)61 (3)67

(4)70 (5)62

Q 53. The area of a rectangle is 15 times of the sum of its length and breadth.If length is 40m, What is the perimeter of the rectangle ?

(1)64m (2)256m (3)126m

(4)128m (5) None of these

Q 54. Anshul purchased a chair at three-fourth of its cost price and sold it at 20% more than its purchasing price.What is the profit percen of Anshul ?

(1)45 (2)60 (3)75

(4)20 (5)None of these

Q 55. Manish is 15 years elder to Nikunj and after 5 years, the Nikunj’s age will be 10 years. What is the present age of Manish?

(1)20 years (2)25 years (3)15 years

(4)12 years (5)None of these

Q 56. If 25% of two-third of a number is 10,what is the number?

(1)40 (2)20 (3)60


Q 57. The Circumference of a circle is 132m.What is the area of the circle?

(1)66 (2)693 (3)1268


Q 58. The population of a city at present is 80000. If it increase by 5% per year, What will be the population after 3 years?


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(1)88200 (2)84000 (3)92610


Q.59-63. What value will come in place of question mark (?) in number-series given below-

Q.59. 276, ? , 414,1242,621,1863

(1)552 (2)138 (3)828


Q.60. 204,196,223,159,284,?

(1)126 (2)68 (3)272


Q.61. 125,63,64,97.5, ? ,495

(1)198 (2)197 (3)196


Q.62. 16,15,26,69,260,?

(1)520 (2)1300 (3)1040


Q. 63. 144,73,38.5,22.25, ? ,12.5625

(1)18.125 (2)14.225 (3)12.725

(4)15.125 (5)None of these

Q.64-68. Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below-

1000 students appeared in an examination. Out of which 275 students passed in physics, 320 students passed in chemistry and 350 students passed in mathematics. 84 students passed in both chemistry and mathematics, 60 students passed in both physics and mathematics, 50 students passed in both physics and chemistry and 34 students passed in all the subjects.

Q. 64. What is the percentage of students who did not pass?

(1)28.3 (2)21.5 (3)28.28


Q. 65. What is the percentage of students who passed in only one subject?


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(1)52 (2)66 (3)69.3


Q. 66. What is the number of students who passed in at least two subjects?

(1)126 (2)127 (3)128


Q. 67. The number of students passed in all the three subjects is what percent of the number of students passed only in two subjects?

(1)36.95 (2)26.98 (3)32.14


Q. 68. What is the ratio of students passed in physics and mathematics to the number of students passed in physics and chemistry?

(1)5:6 (2)2:3 (3)6:5

(4)3:2 (5)None of these

Q.69. An article was purchased for Rs. 78,350/-. Its price was marked up by 30%. It was sold at a

discount of 20% on the marked up price. What was the profit percent on the cost price?

(1) 4 (2) 7 (3) 5

(4) 3 (5) 6

Q.70. In a box, there are 8 red, 7 blue and 6 green balls. One ball is picked up randomly. What is

the probability that it is neither red nor green?

(1)2/3 (2)3/4 (3)7/19

(4)7/21 (5)None of these

Q.71. Tickets numbered 1 to 20 are mixed up and then a ticket is drawn at random. What is the

probability taht the ticket drawn has a number which is a multiple of 3 or 5?

(1)9/20 (2)2/5 (3)8/15

(4)1/2 (5)None of these


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Q.72. 2500 students appeared in an examination in which 1/5 of the total students are girls and

remaining are boys. 15% boys and 40% girls are failed.What is the percentage of passed students?

(1)85 (2)86 (3)88


Q.73-77. Study the following table and answer the questions based on it.

Expenditures of a Company (in Lakh Rupees) per Annum Over the given Years.

Year Item of Expenditure

Salary Fuel and Transport Bonus Interest on Loans Taxes

1998 288 98 3.00 23.4 83

1999 342 112 2.52 32.5 108

2000 324 101 3.84 41.6 74

2001 336 133 3.68 36.4 88

2002 420 142 3.96 49.4 98

Q.73. What is the average amount of interest per year which the company had to pay during this period?

(1)Rs. 32.43 lakhs (2)Rs. 33.72 lakhs (3)Rs. 34.18 lakhs

(4)Rs. 36.66 lakhs (5)None of these Q.74. The total amount of bonus paid by the company during the given period is approximately what percent of the total amount of salary paid during this period? (1)0.1% (2)0.5% (3)1% (4)1.25% (5)None of these Q.75. Total expenditure on all these items in 1998 was approximately what percent of the total expenditure in 2002? (1)62% (2)66% (3)69% (4)71% (5)None of these


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Q.76. The total expenditure of the company over these items during the year 2000 is?

(1)Rs. 544.44 lakhs (2)Rs. 501.11 lakhs (3)Rs. 446.46 lakhs

(4)Rs. 478.87 lakhs (5)None of these

Q.77. The ratio between the total expenditure on Taxes for all the years and the total expenditure on Fuel and Transport for all the years respectively is approximately?

(1)4:7 (2)10:13 (3)15:18

(4)5:8 (5)None of these

Q.78. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘FLEECED’ be arranged ? (1)840 (2)2520 (3)1680


Q.79. 4 men, 5 women and 3 children together can complete a piece of work in 16 days. In how many days can 10 women alone can complete the piece of work if 10 men alone complete the work in 24 days ? (1)18 (2)15 (3)12 (4)Cannot be determined (5)None of these

Q.80. The cost of 8 kg of almonds is equal to the cost of 50 kg of apples. The cost of 19 kg of

mangoes is Rs. 456. The cost of 1 kg of apples is twice the cost of 2 kg of mangoes. What is the

total cost of 3 kg of almonds and 4 kg of apples together?

(1) Rs. 2,168 (2) Rs. 2,248 (3) Rs. 2,184

(4) Rs. 2,264 (5) None of these Q.81. If 37/13 = 2+1/(x+1/(y+1/z)),where x,y,z are natural numbers,then x,y,z are: (1)1,2,5 (2) 1,5,2 (c) 5,2,11 (4) 11,2,5 (5)None of these Q.82. What is the least number which should be subtracted from 0.000326 to make it a perfect square? (1)0.000002 (2)0.000004 (3)0.02


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(4)0.04 (5)None of these Q.83. The average of 3 children in a family is 20% of the average age of the father and the eldest child. The total age of the mother and the youngest child is 39 years.If the father’s age is 26 years, what is the age of second child ? (1)15 years (2)18 years (3) 20 years (4)Cannot be determined (5)None of these Q.84. Rajan got married 8 years ago.His present age is 6/5 times his age at the time of his marriage. Rajan’s sister was 10 years younger to him at the time of his marriage. The age of Rajan’s sister is: (1)32 years (2)36 years (3)38 years (4)40 years (5)None of these Q.85. In an election between two candidates,one got 55% of the total valid votes,20% of the votes were invalid. If the total number of votes was 7500,the number of valid votes that the other candidate got,was: (1)2700 (2)2900 (3)3000 (4)3100 (5)None of these Q.86. A trader marked his goods at 20% above the cost price. He sold half the stock at the marked price, one quarter at a discount of 20% on the marked price and the rest at a discount of 40% on the marked price. His total gain is : (1)2% (2)4.5% (3)13.5% (4)15% (5)None of these Q.87. Two friends P and Q started a business investing in the ratio of 5:6.R joined them after six months investing an amount equal to that of Q’s.At the end of the year,20% profit was earned which was equal to Rs. 98,000.What was the amount invested by R ? (1)Rs. 1,05,000 (2)Rs. 1,75,000 (3)Rs. 2,10,000 (4)Data inadequate (5)None of these Q.88. 10 men and 15 women together can complete a work in 6 days. It takes 100 days for one man alone to complete the same work. How many days will be required for one woman alone to complete the same work ?


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(1)90 (2)125 (3)145 (4)150 (5)None of these Q.89. A train X starts from Meerut at 4 p.m. and reaches Ghaziabad at 5 p.m. While another train Y starts from Ghaziabad at 4.p.m and reaches Meerut at 5.30 p.m. The two trains will cross each other at : (1)4.36p.m. (2)4.42p.m. (3)4.48p.m. (4)4.50p.m. (5)None of these Q.90. A sum of money amounts to Rs. 9800 after 5 years and Rs. 12005 after 8 years at the same rate of simple interest. The rate of interest per annum is : (1)5% (2)8% (3)12% (4)15% (5)None of these Q.91.A man saves Rs. 200 at the end of each year and lends the money at 5% compound interest. How much will it become at the end of 3 years ? (1)Rs. 565.25 (2)Rs. 635 (3)Rs. 662.02 (4)Rs. 666.50 (5)None of these Q.92. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 6 hours and 4 hours respectively. If they are opened on alternate hours and if pipe A is opened first,in how many hours,the tank shall be full ? (1)4 (2)9/2 (3)5 (4)11/2 (5)None of these Q.93. The speed of a boat in still water is 10 km/hr. If it can travel 26 km downstream and 14 km upstream at the same time, the speed of the stream is : (1)2 km/hr (2)2.5 km/hr (3)3 km/hr (4)4 km/hr (5)None of these Q.94. The greatest number that exactly divides 105,1001 and 2436 is : (1)3 (2)7 (3)11 (4)21 (5) None of these


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Q.95. Kamya purchased an item of Rs. 46,000 and sold it at loss of 12 per cent. With that amount she purchased another item and sold it at a gain of 12 per cent. What was her overall gain/loss?

(1)Loss of Rs. 662.40 (2) Profit of Rs. 662.40 (3) Loss of Rs. 642.80

(4)Profit Rs. 642.80 (5) None of these

Q.96. Call rate of a sim company-A is 1 paisa for every 3 seconds. Another sim company-B charges 45 paisa per minute. A man talked 591 seconds from Sim Company-A and 780 seconds from sim company-B. What would be the total amount he spent?

(1)Rs. 7.80 (2)Rs. 7.40 (3)Rs. 7.46

(4)Rs. 7.82 (5)Rs. 8.46

Q.97. The length of a rectangle is three-fifths of the side of a square. The radius of a circle is equal to side of the square. The circumference of the circle is 132 cm. What is the area of the rectangle if the breadth of the rectangle is8 cm?

(1)112.4 sq. cm (2)104.2 sq. cm (3)100.8 sq. cm

(4)Cannot be determined (5) None of these

Q.98. Dinesh's monthly income is four times Suresh's monthly income. Suresh's monthly income is Twenty per cent more than Jyoti's monthly income. Jyoti's monthly income is Rs. 22,000. What is Dinesh's monthly income?

(1)Rs. 1, 06, 500 (2)Rs. 1, 05, 600 (3)Rs. 1, 04, 500

(4)Rs. 1, 05, 400 (5)None of these

Q.99. Raju runs 1250 metre on Monday and Friday. Another days he runs 1500 metre except for Sunday (He does not run on Sunday). How many kilometres will he run in 3 weeks (first day starting from Monday)?

1)12.5km 2)20.5km 3)8.5km

4)25.5km 5)None of these

Q.100. The sum of nine consecutive odd numbers of Set A is 621. What is the sum of a different set of six consecutive even numbers whose lowest number is 15 more than the lowest number of Set A?

(1)498 (2)468 (C)478

(4)488 (5) None of these


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Professional Knowledge

Q.101. An interconnected collection of autonomous computers –

(1) Computer Network (2) Multi-Computer (3) LAN

(4) Network (5) None of these

Q. 102. Point to point protocol is used in which layer?

(1) Physical Layer (2) Data link Layer (3) Network Layer

(4) Application Layer (5) None of these

Q. 103. Function definition void check (int i, char*j) is –

(1) call by value (2) call by reference (3) Both 1 and 2

(4) invalid function definition (5) None of these

Q. 104. Which of the following calls never returns an error?

(1) getpid (2) fork (3) icot1

(4) open (5) None of these

Q. 105. Thrashing –

(1) is set when the page fault occur

(2) is reset when the page is accessed by a program

(3) is set when the page is accessed by a program

(4) is never set

(5) None of these

Q. 106. The smallest element of an array’s index is called its –

(1) smallest bound (2) lower bound (3) first bound

(4) higher bound (5) None of these

Q. 107. A hard copy would be prepared on a –

(1) Typewriter terminal (2) Line printer (3) Plotter

(4) All of the above (5) None of these


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Q. 108. A communication device is that combines transmissions from several I/O devices into one line is called –

(1) Concentrator (2) Modifier (3) Multiplexer

(4) Full-duplex line (5) None of these

Q. 109. Pointer is used in –

(1) Direct Addressing (2) Indirect Addressing (3) Indexed Mode

(4) Immediate Addressing (5) None of these

Q.110. DES –

(1) Data Encryption Standard was widely adopted by the industry for use in security products

(2) It is no longer secure in its original form, but in a modified form it is still useful.

(3) Plain text is encrypted in blocks of 64 bits

(4) All of the above

(5) None of these

Q. 111. How many transistors has a LSI?

(1) more than 100 (2) more than 1000 (3) more than 10

(4) more than 10000 (5) None of these

Q.112. It is always appropriate to represent a queue using –

(1) A circular list (2) Doubly linked list (3) Array

(4) Linear linked list (5) None of these

Q. 113. Which of the following is a type of system testing?

(1) Recovery testing (2) Security testing (3) Stress testing


Q. 114. Each item in a linked list is called as –

(1) Element (2) Information (3) Data

(4) Node (5) None of these

Q. 115. Multiprogramming systems –


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(1) are easier to develop than single programming systems

(2) execute each job faster

(3) execute more jobs in the same time

(4) are used only on large main frame computers

(5) None of these

Q. 116. Communication between computers is almost always –

(1) serial (2) parallel (3) direct

(4) symmetrical (5) None of these

Q. 117. Subnet mask of Class A is –

(1) 255.0.0.0 (2) 192.0.0.0 (3) 255.0.0.1

(4) 224.0.0.0 (5) None of these

Q. 118. By relation cardinality, we mean –

(1) number of items in a relationship

(2) number of relationships in which an entity can appear

(3) number of items in an entity

(4) number of entity sets which may be related to a given entity

(5) None of these

Q. 119. For 1st Normal form –

(1) the values in the domain of each attribute of the relation are atomic

(2) only one value is associated with each attribute

(3) value is not a set of values or list of values


(5) None of these

Q. 120. Point to Point Protocol used for which purpose?

(1) Error Detection (2) Authentication (3) Both 1 and 2

(4) Either 1 or 2 (5) None of these


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Q. 121. Which is not the basic transformation function?

(1) Translation (2) Rotating (3) Scaling

(4) Reflection (5) None of these

Q. 122. Which of the following C++ statement is correct?

(1) int*p=new int (2) int new=*p (3) int*new=*p

(4) int*p=int new (5) None of these

Q. 123. Which of the following operators can be overloaded in C++?

(1) Scope resolution operator (2) Size of operator (3) Conditional operator

(4) Arithmetic operator (5) None of these

Q. 124. Which of the following is different from the group?

(1) Private (2) Protected (3) Public

(4) Friend (5) None of these

Q. 125. A deterministic finite automata is –

(1) a type of operating system (2) a simple language recognition device

(3) computer algorithm and programs (4) All of the above

(5) None of these

Q. 126. Real-time systems are –

(1) Primarily used on mainframe computers

(2) Used for monitoring events as they occur

(3) Used for program analysis

(4) Used for real-time interactive users

(5) None of these

Q. 127. Which of the following term is related to STACK?

(1) TOP (2) PUSH (3) POP

(4) All of these (5) None of these

Q. 128. Which of the following is not a type of graph?


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(1) Euler (2) Hamiltonian (3) Tree

(4) Path (5) None of these

Q. 129. In OOP, the synthetic unit is –

(1) Table (2) Module (3) Class

(4) Algorithm (5) None of these

Q. 130. A video editing system for Linux –

(1) DVDL (2) LIVES (3) VSL

(4) LVS (5) None of thes

Q. 131. A large computer information system maintains many different computer files. Which amongst them is called as a perpetual file?

(1) Specialized file (2) Log file (3) Master file

(4) History file (5) None of these

Q. 132. To discard all pending data changes –

(1) COMMIT (2) ROLLBACK (3) SAVEPOINT

(4) LOCK (5) None of these

Q. 133. Intel 8085 is a –

(1) 8 bit microprocessor (2) 4 bit microprocessor

(3) 16 bit microprocessor (4) 32 bit microprocessor (5) None of these

Q. 134. Microprogramming is –

(1) assembly language programming (2) programming of minicomputers

(3) control unit programming (4) macro programming of microcomputers

(5) None of these

Q. 135. Which protocol is used to read email?

(1) SMNP (2) SMTP (3) FTP

(4) NNTP (5) None of these

Q. 136. The rule for implicit type conversion in C is –


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(1) int < unsigned < float < double

(2) unsigned < int < float < double

(3) int < signed < double < float

(4) unsigned < int < double < float

(5) None of these

Q. 137. Unix is –

(1) multiuser operating system (2) a real time operating system

(3) a multitasking operating system (4) Both 1 and 3

(5) None of these

Q. 138. Which of the following is not a logical database structure?

(1) Tree (2) Relational (3) Network

(4) Chain (5) None of these

Q. 139. An assembler is a –

(1) program (2) person who assembles the parts

(3) symbol (4) language

(5) None of these

Q. 140. The address of the first element of array is called as –

(1) First address (2) Base address (3) Initial address

(4) Location address (5) None of these

Q. 141. Which is the component of CBS?

(1) Data Centre (2) Network connectivity

(3) Delivery channels (4) Disaster recovery suite


Q. 142. CBR is –

(1) Constant Bit rate (2) Constant Byte rate

(3) Consumer Bit rate (4) Consumer Byte rate


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(5) None of these

Q. 143. Recently which operating system launched its Hindi version?

(1) MINIX (2) LINUX (3) DOS

(4) All of these (5) None of these

Q. 144. Which of the following is not a type of UNIX shell?

(1) KORN shell (2) BOURNE shell (3) C shell

(4) JOIN shell (5) None of these

Q. 145. To collect multiples cells together and send them together –

(1) Transmission (2) Multiplexing (3) Signalling

(4) Trunks (5) None of these

Q. 146. Which of the following statement is false regarding SQL statement?

(1) SQL statements are not case sensitive

(2) SQL statements can be on one or more lines

(3) Keywords can be abbreviated or split across lines

(4) Clauses are usually placed on separate lines

(5) None of these

Q. 147. In C++, a function contained in a class is called as –

(1) Member function (2) An operator (3) A class function

(4) A method (5) None of these

Q. 148. Which of the following is used with databases?

(1) Data mining (2) EDI (3) Credit cards


Q. 149. HTML code for image file is –

(1) <IMG SRC=”URL”> (2) <IMG SRC=URL>

(3) <IMG SRC>=<URL> (4) <IMG SRC>=<”URL”>

(5) None of these


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Q. 150. Software design is –

(1) Process (2) Model (3) Both 1 and 2

(4) Either 1 or 2 (5) None of these

English Language

Read the passage and answer the following questions

The pioneers of the teaching of science imagined that its introduction into education would remove the conventionality, artificiality, and backward-lookingness which were characteristic; of classical studies, but they were gravely disappointed. So, too, in their time had the humanists thought that the study of the classical authors in the original would banish at once the dull pedantry and superstition of mediaeval scholasticism. The professional schoolmaster was a match for both of them, and has almost managed to make the understanding of chemical reactions as dull and as dogmatic an affair as the reading of Virgil's Aeneid.

The chief claim for the use of science in education is that it teaches a child something about the actual universe in which he is living, in making him acquainted with the results of scientific discovery, and at the same time teaches him how to think logically and inductively by studying scientific method. A certain limited success has been reached in the first of these aims, but practically none at all in the second. Those privileged members of the community who have been through a secondary or public school education may be expected to know something about the elementary physics and chemistry of a hundred years ago, but they probably know hardly more than any bright boy can pick up from an interest in wireless or scientific hobbies out of school hours.

As to the learning of scientific method, the whole thing is palpably a farce. Actually, for the convenience of teachers and the requirements of the examination system, it is necessary that the pupils not only do not learn scientific method but learn precisely the reverse, that is, to believe exactly what they are told and to reproduce it when asked, whether it seems nonsense to them or not. The way in which educated people respond to such quackeries as spiritualism or astrology, not to say more dangerous ones such as racial theories or currency myths, shows that fifty years of education in the method of science in Britain or Germany has produced no visible effect whatever.

The only way of learning the method of science is the long and bitter way of personal experience, and, until the educational or social systems are altered to make this possible, the best we can expect is the production of a minority of people who are able to acquire some of the techniques of science and a still smaller minority who are able to use and develop them.


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151. The author implies that the 'professional schoolmaster' has

A. no interest in teaching science

B. thwarted attempts to enliven education

C. aided true learning

D. supported the humanists

E. been a pioneer in both science and humanities.

152. The author’s attitude to secondary and public school education in the sciences is

A. ambivalent

B. neutral

C. supportive

D. satirical

E. contemptuous

153. The word ‘palpably’ most nearly means

A. empirically

B. obviously

C. tentatively

D. markedly

E. ridiculously

154. If the author were to study current education in science to see how things have changed since he wrote the piece, he would probably be most interested in the answer to which of the following questions?

A. Do students know more about the world about them?

B. Do students spend more time in laboratories?

C. Can students apply their knowledge logically? Engistan.com | Engineer’s Community

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D. Have textbooks improved?

E. Do they respect their teachers?

155. Astrology is mentioned as an example of

A. a science that needs to be better understood

B. a belief which no educated people hold

C. something unsupportable to those who have absorbed the methods of science

D. the gravest danger to society

E. an acknowledged failure of science

Directions (156 -170): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

As the price of gasoline spiked to record highs in 2007 and 2008, interest in alternatives to fossil fuels, and electric transportation in particular, also spiked. It raised however, many questions about the true environmental impact of electric cars. The electric car is being upheld as an ethical, green, nifty and cheap alternative to the carbon dioxide-emitting automobiles clogging city roads around the world today. Though electric cars are not a popular choice, the industry’s future plans are riding high on the hope that on improving certain factors, (which are currently deficient) such, as, effective marketing, a growing public awareness of the need for clean air and the increase in demand, the prices would eventually be driven down.

However, battery powered vehicles may still fail to completely replace liquid fuel-fed ones but with more electric and hybrid vehicles on the road, there is greater scope for makeover in the way environment is impacted by the automobiles. However, if the power to charge the battery-operated vehicle is to be sourced from grids using conventional coal-fired power plants, the electric car wouldn’t really be all that green. These would actually cause an increase in demand on the power plant’s energy production causing them to produce more power and thus more pollution, unless greener ways of energy production are used. But as of now the bulk of the electricity used to charge the batteries of electric vehicles is generated by fossil fuel burning power stations and only 12% by the clean methods. Also the amount of energy used by coal fired power stations to create the electricity to recharge electric vehicles makes them half as efficient as diesel cars. Recent studies indicate that carbon emissions may reduce only by an insignificant level even if there is a sudden Surge in demand for electric cars.


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Other factors making the rechargeable cars less include the amount of electricity lost in the journey between the coal fired power stations which generate it and the point where it recharges the car, and the energy lost by the faulty first-generation batteries and motors. The researchers calculated that of the energy burned in a power station, only a quarter reaches an electric car after leakages and losses along the supply chain, giving the vehicle an energy efficiency score of 24%. These amounts to more than 75% energy loss much before the car is even put on ignition: A modern diesel engine, by contrast, achieves 45% efficiency. This suggests that if fossil fuels are to be burned, it is much more efficient to do it within the engine of a vehicle rather than at a power station’ and then try to send it via the National Grid, where a lot of energy is wasted, and finally to store it in a battery which in itself might leak power.

Electric cars may still survive since the cars emissions would be far · less polluting than those that run on fossil fuels. ‘With very minor emissions of sulfur caused when the batteries charge and discharge, when compared to current emissions standards, electric cars are zero emissions.

The gasoline engine by comparison does not fare as well. Gasoline and diesel fuel burned in internal combustion engines for transportation-account for 54 percent of nitrites of oxygen, 89 percent of carbon monoxide and 28 percent of carbon dioxide pollution produced. Switching to electric vehicles drops those percentages to zero, and only slightly increases sulfur emissions. So even when the power plants burn dirty fuel, the amount of pollution is less than an oil burning car would create. And this picture is improving all the time, as clean energy sources are added to the grid.

The goal should be to make more electric cars with greater incentives for consumers and producers, as well as feeding grids with more power from renewable resources as per the objectives stated in the numerous plans on Climate Change. And till this goal is achieved, the debate whether controlling emission at a few power plants is more convenient than controlling emission at millions of tailpipes is, would continue.

156. Why does the author fear that the electric cars may eventually not be very Eco-friendly?

a) The exhausts of these cars emit as much pollutions as the oil fueled cars.

b) Electric cars though have lesser quantity of other emissions, the sulfur emissions will rise substantially, thus harming the environment.

c) The electricity for charging the batteries of these cars comes from power plants using pollution causing fossil fuels.

d) Only a) and c)

e) None of these


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157. What according to the author, needs to be done in order to make the electric cars more Eco friendly?

a) Encouraging power plants to generate electricity using the Eco-friendly methods.

b) Setting certain emissions standards for electric cars is done for the oil consuming cars.

c) Controlling sulfur emissions which are one of the major contributors to environmental pollution at present.

d) Making, provisions for easy availability of recharging sockets at all the places.

e) None of these

158. Which of the following suggestions does the author make in order to popularize the electric cars?

a) Discontinue the use of fuel powered cars completely.

b) Optimize the benefits of using electric cars to both consumers as well as the producers.

c) To supply grids with renewable sources of energy for the production of electricity.

d) Only b) and c)

e) None of these

159. Why, according to the author, are electric cars not a popular option among the people?

(A) The recharging points are not easily available everywhere.

(B) Effective marketing of the Eco-friendly cars has been lacking.

(C) Lack of appreciation among the people for the need of unpolluted air.

a) Only A and C

b) Only B and C


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c) Only A and B

d) All A, B and C

e) None of these

160. Why, according to the author, may the electric cars survive despite all their current deficiencies?

(A) Electric cars will by subsidized and this world prove to be cost efficient

(B) An increasing number of grids are shifting to alternate forms of energy production.

(C) In the future, incentives would be provided to those driving electric cars.

(D) Pollution caused by the electric cars is far less as compared to the fossil fuel driven cars.

a) Only A

b) Only C and D

c) Only B and D

d) Only A and 8

e) None of these

161. Which of the following can be the most appropriate title for the given passage?

a) The failure of the power grids.

b) The rise and fall of cars using fossil fuels.

c) The adverse effects of pollution caused by the power grids.

d) The growing popularity of the electric cars.

e) Why Eco-friendliness of electric cars is a fiction at present.

162. Which of the following can be inferred from the given passage?


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a) Electric cars may completely replace the fossil fuel powered cars one day.

b) Electric cars have brought about a drastic improvement in the pollution levels at present.

c) Electric cars have universally been accepted as the environment friendly cars.

d) All a), b) and c) are true.

e) None of these

163. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in context of the given passage?

a) Nearly three-fourth of the total energy generated for powering electric cars is wasted.

b) The interest in electric cars increased during the last year when most of the power grids shifted to clean sources of fuel.

c) Electric car engines do not produce any carbon emissions.

d) There would not be any noticeable improvement in the pollution level if the oil burning cars are shifted to electric cars at present.

e) None of these

164. Why, according to the author, is the efficiency of the electric cars low even to the buyers before they actually hit the roads?

(A) A lot of energy is lost during the transit of electricity from the grid to the recharge point.

(B) The manufacturing cost of the electric cars is much higher than that of the other cars.

(C) The batteries and the motors of the electric cars are still relatively new and waste a lot of power.

a) Only A and C

b) Only B and C

c) Only B

d) Only A and B

e) None of these


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Directions (165-167): Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

165. PICTURE

a) Situation

b) Photograph

c) Representation

d) Art work

e) Idea

166. FEEDING

a) Eating

b) Supplying

c) Consuming

d) Encouraging

e) Nourishing

167. SURGE

a) Alteration

b) Modification

c) Intensification

d) Increase

e) Evolution

Directions (168-170): Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.


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168. SLIGHTLY

a) Adequately

b) Miserly

c) Certainly

d) Remotely

e) Substantially

169. SWITCHING

a) Prolonging

b) Withdrawing

c) Continuing

d) Exchanging

e) Alternating

170. INCENTIVES

a) Deterrents

b) Preventions

c) Disadvantages

d) Prohibitions

e) Liability

Q. 171-178. Fill up to blanks in the following Questions from 11 to 18 picking out from the choices.

Q. 171. Mahesh _____ me coming to his table, he smiled and ___ me a chair. (a) looked, gave (b) welcomed, took (c) saw, offered


33


(d) found, signaled (e) met, sat Q. 172. The counter Clerk was very busy and ____ not pay any ___ to Sohan’s request. (a) did, attention (b) had, cash (c) could, respect (d) can, help (e) Certainly, acceptance Q. 173. We are ___ to have him ____ here to make this function a great success (a) happy, arrive (b) wonderful, again (c) sure, come (d) pleased, over (e) proud, leave Q. 174. Satyam ___ another feather ___ his cap by his performance in one day match. (a) created, by (b) took, in (c) captured, from (d) kept, in (e) added, to Q. 175. The state Govt. staff ___ threatened to launch an indefinite strike from next month to ___ their demands. (a) have, press


34


(b) did, get (c) were, meet (d) nearly, fulfill (e) has, press Q. 176. The speech ___ with subtle threats has resulted in ___ tension. (a) full, escalating (b) started, reduced (c) followed, continuous (d) replete, increased (e) forced, dissolving Q. 177. By long queues and bad weather the voters__ their way to the polling stations ___ a lot. (a) undaunted, made (b) making, suffered (c) encouraged, prepared (d) going, dropped (e) satisfied, turned Q. 178. The CM ____ the house that ____ action would be taken against all those involved in corruption. (a) instructed, preventive (b) called, stick (c) assured, stringent (d) reiterated, strictly (e) informed, constructive Q. 179-185. In each of the following questions , a part of sentence is given with underline. Below each


35


sentence, four choices numbered (a), (b), (c), (d) are given which can substitute the part of the sentence printed with underline. Find out the choice which can correctly substitute that part of the sentence. The number of that choice is the answer. If No correction needed is your answer, the choice is (e). Q.179. He has received no other message than an urgent telegram asking him to rush village soon. (a) asked him to rush his village (b) asking him to have to his village (c) asking him to rush to his village (d) asking him rushing at his village (e) No correction required Q. 180. We must take it granted that Anju will not come for today’s function. (a) take it for granted (b) taking it granted (c) took it as granted (d) have it granted (e) Non correction required Q. 181. I earnestly believes that you will visit our relatives during your trip to Mumbai. (a) had hardly believe that (b) sincerely believe (c) certainly believing that (d) could not believe (e) No correction required Q. 182. The train will leave at 8.30 pm, we have been ready by 7.30 pm so that we can reach the station in time. (a) were (b) must be


36


(c) are (d) should have (e) No correction required Q. 183. Binita unnecessarily picked up a quarrel with Sanjay and left the party. (a) has picked up (b) picked on (c) picked (d) picking up (e) No correction required Q. 184. Raja has the guts to rise from the occasion and come out successfully. (a) in rising from (b) to raise with (c) to rise against (d) to rise to (e) No correction required Q. 185. I need not offer any explanation, my behaviour is speaking itself. (a) will speak to itself (b) speaks for itself (c) has been speaking (d) speaks about itself (e) No correction required Q. 186- 190. In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in the begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences. Q. 186. S1: There is only one monkey we can thoroughly recommend as an indoor pet.


37


P: They quickly die from colds and coughs after the first winter fogs. Q: It is beautiful and intelligent Capuchin monkey. R: The lively little Capuchins, however, may be left for years in an English house without the least danger to their health. S: The Marmosets, it is true, are more beautiful than a Capuchins and just as pleasing, but they are too delicate for the English climate S6: Finally let me say that no other monkey has a better temper or winning ways. The Proper sequence should be: (a) PQRS (b) QRPS (c) QSPR (d) RPSQ (e) None of these

Q. 187. S1: The path of Venus lies inside the path of the Earth.

P: When at its farthest from the Earth, Venus is 160 million away

Q: With such a wide range between its greatest and leat distances it is natural that at

sometimes Venus appears much brighter than at others.

R: No other body ever comes so near the Earth, with the exception of the Moon and occasional

comet or asteroid.

S: When Venus is at its nearest to the earth it is only 26 million miles away.

S6: When at its brightest, it is easily seen with the naked eye in broad daylight.

The Proper sequence should be:

(a) SRPQ (b) SQRP (c) PSQR

(d) QPRS (e) None of these

Q. 188. S1: A gentleman who lived alone always had two plates placed on the table at dinner

time.

P: One day just as he sat down to dine, the cat rushed in to the room.


38


Q: One plate was for himself and other was for his cat.

R: She drooped a mouse into her own plate and another into her master plate.

S: He used to give the cat a piece of meat from his own plate.

S6: In this way the cat showed her gratitude to her master.


(a) QSPR (b) PSRQ (c) QRSP

(d) RPQS (e) None of these

Q. 189. S1: Forecasting the weather has always been a difficult business.

P: During a period of drought, streams and rivers dried up, the cattle died from thirst and were

ruined.

Q: Many different things affect the weather and we have to study them carefully to make accurate

forecast.

R: Ancient Egyptians had no need of weather in the Nile Valley hardly ever changes.

S: In early times, when there were no instruments, such as thermometer or the barometer, man

looked for tell-tale signs in the sky.

S6: He made his forecasts by watching flights of the birds or the way smoke rose from fire.


(a) PRQS (b) QPRS (c) QRPS

(d) SPQR (e) None of these

Q.190. S1: A father having offered to take the baby out in a perambulator, was tempted by the sunny

morning to slip into a pub for a glass of beer.

P: Indignant at her husband's behaviour, she decided to teach him a lesson.

Q: She wheeled away the pram.

R: A little later, his wife came by, where to her horror, she discovered her sleeping baby.

S: Leaving the pram outside, he disappeared inside the bar.


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S6: She waited for him, anticipating the white face and quivering lips which would soon appear with

the news that the baby had been stolen.


(a) SRPQ (b) RQPS (c) SPQR

(d) PQSR (e) None of these

Q. 191-195. Rearrange the following six sentences in proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions given below.

1. Chandrakanth was shocked when he realised that the leg had lost sensation.

2. when he tried to get up, he felt his leg was very heavy.

3. He had to lie down hopelessly, till he saw a flash light

4. It was an odd night time and hence nobody heard his voice.

5. Due to sudden sprain chandrakanth fell down.

6. Nervous with this realisation, he called out for help.

Q. 191. Which of the following should be the third sentence ?

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3

(d) 4 (e) 5

Q. 192. Which of the following should be the first sentence ?

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3

(d )4 (e) 5

Q. 193. Which of the following should be the second sentence ?

(a) 1 (b)2 (c) 3

(d) 4 (e) 5

Q. 194. Which of the following should be the sixth sentence ?

(a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 4

(d) 3 (e) 2

Q. 195.Which of the following should be the fourth sentence ?


40


(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 6

(d) 4 (e) 5

Q. 196-200. Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

Q. 196. The ruling party will have to put its own house ...... order.

(a) in (b) on (c) to

(d) into (e) for

Q. 197. If negotiations are to prove fruitful, there must not only be sincerity on each side, but there must also be ...... in the sincerity of the other side.

(a) faith (b) belief (c) substance

(d) certainty (e) None of these

Q. 198. Some regions of our country still remain ...... to the average man.

(a) inaccessible (b) impossible (c) impermeable

(d) impenetrable (e) None of these

Q. 199. He became enamored ...... her grace when he first saw her dance.

(a) with (b) of (c) by

(d) in (e) None of these

Q.200. Many areas of the city were ...... into darkness for several hours.

(a) spread (b) plunged (c) merged

(d) deep (e) None of these


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Answer Key

Reasoning Ability:

1. 1 2. 4 3. 2 4. 2 5. 4

6. 4 7. 3 8. 1 9. 5 10. 1

11. 3 12. 3 13. 1 14. 5 15. 4

16. 3 17. 2 18. 4 19. 1 20. 5

21. 5 22. 2 23. 5 24. 3 25. 3

26. 5 27. 1 28. 3 29. 1 30. 3

31. 1 32. 4 33. 3 34. 4 35. 1

36. 5 37. 1 38. 3 39. 5 40. 1

41. 1 42. 3 43. 5 44. 2 45. 4

46. 5 47. 1 48. 3 49. 1 50. 3

Quantitative Aptitude:

51. 4 52. 2 53. 4 54. 4 55. 1

56. 3 57. 5 58. 3 59. 3 60. 2

61. 2 62. 4 63. 4 64. 2 65. 4

66. 1 67. 1 68. 3 69. 1 70. 4

71. 1 72. 4 73. 4 74. 3 75. 3

76. 1 77. 2 78. 1 79. 4 80. 3

81. 2 82. 1 83. 4 84. 3 85. 1

86. 1 87. 3 88. 5 89. 1 90. 3

91. 3 92. 3 93. 3 94. 2 95. 1

96. 4 97. 3 98. 2 99. 4 100. 5


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Professional Knowledge:

101. 1 102. 2 103. 3 104. 1 105. 3

106. 2 107. 4 108. 3 109. 2 110. 4

111. 2 112. 1 113. 4 114. 4 115. 3

116. 2 117. 1 118. 2 119. 4 120. 3

121. 4 122. 1 123. 4 124. 4 125. 2

126. 2 127. 4 128. 4 129. 4 130. 2

131. 3 132. 2 133. 1 134. 3 135. 2

136. 4 137. 4 138. 4 139. 1 140. 2

141. 5 142. 1 143. 2 144. 4 145. 2

146. 3 147. 1 148. 1 149. 1 150. 3

English:

151. B 152. E 153. B 154. C 155. C

156. C 157. A 158. D 159. B 160. C

161. E 162. A 163. D 164. D 165. A

166. B 167. D 168. E 169. B 170. C

171. C 172. A 173. D 174. E 175. A

176. D 177. B 178. C 179. A 180. A

181. B 182. B 183. E 184. D 185. B

186. B 187. A 188. A 189. B 190. A

191. A 192. E 193. B 194. D 195. C

196. A 197. A 198. A 199. B 200. B


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Ibps It-Officer Model Test Paper-1

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Transcript of Ibps It-Officer Model Test Paper-1