Human Resource Management

Multiple Choice Questions 1. Dee works in the human resources area of a large organization. As part of her duties, she identifies the required tasks, knowledge and skills necessary for performing jobs in her organization. What does she do? A. Job identification. B. Job clarification. C. Job analysis. D. Position description. E. Position strategy description. 2. During a job analysis, all of these tasks are performed except A. promotion patterns and succession plans are identified. B. a description of what happens on a job is provided. C. skills and knowledge necessary to perform a job are precisely identified. D. duties and responsibilities of a job are defined. E. conditions under which a job should be performed are described. 3. Which statement best compares job specifications and job descriptions? A. Job description and job specification have both been made obsolete by job evaluation. B. Job description focuses on qualifications for job holders. Job specification focuses on what the jobholder does. C. Job specification focuses on qualifications for job holders. Job description focus on what the jobholder does. D. Job description is the same as job specification. E. Job specification occurs after job analysis. Job description occurs before job analysis. 4. Your school is hiring a new professor to teach this human resource course. Which one of the following pieces of recruiting information would be most likely to assure that the woman is a good teacher? A. The person is relocating to the area because of a spouse. B. She graduated from an excellent school. C. An excellent teacher recommended her. D. The spouse placed the initial inquiry call. E. A current employee was a grade school friend of the woman

5. John is in the final interview stages as an applicant for a midlevel manager position in an IT firm. He has talked to technical experts, filled out application forms, and taken a programmer test. Now he’s talking to a senior vice president who just asked him if he’s leaving his old firm because he is being forced out. The vice president continues, “Rumor has it that the huge loss last quarter was your fault, John.” What is going on?

A. John is being harassed. He should file charges with the EEOC. B. John is in a stress interview. C. John is in a panel interview. D. John is receiving a realistic job preview. E. John is in an impression interview. 6. Jill’s first day on the job in a .com startup consisted of stopping in her supervisor’s office, meeting the other five members of the development team, and setting up her desk. One of her co-workers showed her the coffee machine, the rest room, and the supply room. He said he’d come over when it was time for lunch. When should Jill receive her formal new orientation program?

A. There may be no more orientation than what she has just experienced. B. Her formal orientation program occurred earlier, as part of the selection process. C. Most .companies wait and orient all new employees on a quarterly basis. She will have to wait until the start of the next quarter. D. If she doesn’t ask to be sent to the program, she won’t receive it. E. Work team indoctrination has replaced formal orientation in all information technology organizations. 7 . Sharon, a secretary, has just received her first performance appraisal in a major manufacturing firm. Her manager told her that her mathematical and analytical skills were excellent, but that she needed to show up to work on time and follow the company regulations for lunch hours, breaks, personal phone calls, and leaving her work station. Her performance would be evaluated again in 30 days. What was the outcome of this appraisal process?

A. Sharon was fired - very nicely. B. Sharon received career development from her manager. C. Sharon received no helpful feedback from her manager during this process. D. Sharon’s manager initiated immediate corrective action. E. Sharon's manager initiated basic corrective action. 8 . Frank, a college intern in human resources management at a large service organization, recently completed a job analysis for the 600 jobs in the east coast operations center. Most of the jobs were thought to be the same as they were 5

years ago when the previous job analysis was conducted. When Lloyd, his boss, reviewed Frank’s work, he found that a lot of known job activities were not included. Further, some odd, even bizarre, activities were reported. What technique did Frank use? A. Observation. B. Individual interview. C. Structured questionnaire. D. Group interview. E. Technical Conference. 9. Lena has gathered job analysis data with individual interviews for managerial jobs in remote locations of her large manufacturing firm. There has been high turnover in recent years. Exit interviews have produced comments like, "You should have told me what was really expected." She wants to use an additional collection technique to avoid future job misrepresentation in job descriptions. The technique should not require a lot of time, but it should be comprehensive. Which method should she use? A. Observation. B. Structured questionnaire. C. Group interview. D. Diary. E. Gap analysis. 10. In the recruiting process, positive self-removal happens when A. Human resources get out of the hiring loop. Working divisions advertise for and interview their own job candidates. B. There is a streamlined human resources office arrangement. Candidates can escort themselves out, thus reducing the need for receptionists and security personnel. C. Job requirements are communicated clearly enough that potential

applicants who are not qualified do not apply. D. All applicants are encouraged to apply for jobs. E. Women and minority applicants are encouraged to apply 11. Mark, an Information Technology specialist for a large firm, is at a party with some friends from college. He runs into Duffy, a fellow computer science major, and says, “Why don’t you come to work with us? You were at the top of the class in school and I know you’ve done really well with Data Croc. Let’s do dinner next week and I’ll fill you in on opportunities.” Is anything wrong with this as a recruiting activity? A. Yes. Recruiting activities should only be performed by trained professionals. B. Yes. Employee referrals are the single biggest cause of .com business failures

in this decade. C. No. This ploy to get competitive information is accepted in the Information Technology world.

D. Yes. Such actions are illegal. E. No. Duffy should get a good idea about the company and Mark already

knows about his credentials 12. Don, vice-president of human resources, wants to decrease turnover for counter workers at a fast food chain. He examined work application forms over the last five years and discovered the following information: 70% of employees who stayed less than 90 days had no prior work experience; 80% of employees who stayed longer than 1 year held more than 2 previous jobs; 50% of employees who stayed less than 90 days held less than a high school degree; 45% of employees who stayed more than a year held a high school degree; 40% of employees who indicated only weekend work schedules left within 90 days; 45% of workers who indicated no weekend work schedules left within 90 days. What should he do? A. Raise educational requirements for the job. B. Lower educational requirements for the job. C. Weight prior job experience more heavily than educational level. D. Weight educational level more heavily than prior job experience. E. Require weekend work schedules. 13. The value of the interview in the hiring process has been questioned for all of these reasons except A. Prior knowledge about the applicant can bias the interviewer’s evaluation. B. The interviewer often holds a stereotype of what represents a “good”

applicant. C. Negative information is given unduly high weight. D. The order in which applicants is interviewed often influences evaluation. E. The orders in which questions are asked has no influence on the evaluation. 14. Donna is working with her boss on how to achieve the goals that have been set for the next year. So far they have agreed that Donna will start a graduate degree, she will be given 2 trainee assistants, and her budget allocation will be increased by 20%. What MBO step is Donna doing? A. Goal setting. B. Action planning. C. Periodic review. D. Averaging. E. These activities are not part of any MBO step. 15. Penny was hired as a bank teller. She was trained in the bank’s training center room set up like a real teller’s cage. Trainers posed as clients. Video cameras were used to record some of her sessions, and that film was later used to help her improve. What kind of training did Penny receive? A. Simulation. B. Vestibule training. C. Computer-based training. D. Experiential exercise. E. Apprenticeship

16. Training evaluation typically consists of which of the following actions? A. Opinions about a training program are solicited from participants, their

managers, and HRM representatives. B. The skill level increase of participants is measured. C. Managers are surveyed 90 days after training to see if employees are using

new skills. D. No evaluation is performed. E. The program is assessed according to whether or not it attained its desired

result (lower turnover, better customer service, for example.) 17. Jeff supervises 40 salesclerks at a large department store. He uses 20 questions such as, “Does the clerk greet customers with a smile?” and “Does the clerk ask if the customer will be using the store credit card?” He checks off “yes” or “no” to each question. Which method is he using? A. Graphic rating scale. B. BARS. C. Critical incident. D. Checklist appraisal. E. Forced-choice comparison. 18. The performance appraisal process consists of six steps: 1. Establish performance standards with employees. 2. Mutually set measurable goals. 3. Measure actual performance. 4. Compare actual performance with standards. 5. Discuss the appraisal with the employee. 6. If necessary, initiate corrective action. What is the correct sequence in which to perform these steps? A. 2, 3, 5, 4, 1, 6. B. 2, 1, 5, 3, 4, 6. C. 3, 4, 6, 5, 1, 2. D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6. E. 1, 4, 6, 2, 3, 5. 19. Jill Jones is an extremely intelligent employee. Her boss is so impressed by her intelligence that he rated high on all aspects of hr job performance (even those that she was weak on). This error is called

A. Recency error B. Hallo effect C. Central tendency error D. Leniency error

20. Diane is vice-president of human resources for a large manufacturing firm. When should she become involved in strategic planning for her organization? D

A. She should do all of it as part of her job. B. She should never be involved in it. That function should be performed in

financial management and marketing areas. C. She should never be involved in it. Globalization and technology have

made strategic planning obsolete. D. As a senior manager, she needs to show other managers the

best way to take charge of the new workplace. E. Her real contribution comes after organizational downsizing.

21. Andrew was finishing up his first major executive presentation. He summarized with a chart that identified strengths and weaknesses of his organization, such as training and development, numbers of patents, and worker skills, as well as an external assessment of opportunities and threats. What was Andrew doing?

A. Competitive intelligence. B. Employment plan. C. SWOT analysis. D. Critical evaluation. E. Core competence outline. 22. The steps of the strategic planning process, in order, are A. Mission, people, strategy, structure. B. Goals, structure, mission, people. C. Goals, strategy, structure, people. D. Structure, people, goals, mission. E. Needs, goals, strategy, vision. 23. All of these functions are part of the strategic planning process except A. Establishing competitive intelligence. B. Determining what jobs need to be done and by whom. C. Setting goals and objectives. D. Determining how goals and objectives will be attained. E. Determining what business the organization will be in.

24. Don, an HR executive, is involved in employment planning for the first two months of each year. Why?

A. To identify strategic goals for the company. B. To meet the requirements set during the strategic planning

process. C. To reduce corporate espionage. D. To replace gap analysis activities. E. To find replacement workers. 25. Don needs new employees in a production area. Potential new workers can

come from any of these sources except A. New hires. B. Contingent workers. C. Transfers in. D. Sabbaticals. E. Individuals returning from leave. 26. Daniel, the vice-president of human resource, is involved in a corporate

initiative to rightsize his organization. He is involved in all of these activities except

A. Dividing the organization into smaller, more flexible units. B. Balancing staff to meet changing needs. C. Serving as corporate liaison across the marketing and research

divisions. D. Outsourcing. E Increasing staff to add value to the organization. 27. Dee works in the human resources area of a large organization. As part of her

duties, she identifies the required tasks, knowledge and skills necessary for performing jobs in her organization. What does she do?

A. Job identification. B. Job clarification. C. Job analysis. D. Position description. E. Position strategy description. 28. During a job analysis, all of these tasks are performed except

A. Promotion patterns and succession plans are identified. B. A description of what happens on a job is provided. C. Skills and knowledge necessary to perform a job are precisely identified. D. Duties and responsibilities of a job are defined. E. Conditions under which a job should be performed are described. 29. Jill is attending a workshop on the steps in conducting a job analysis. Which of

these steps should she perform first? A. Develop a draft. B. Benchmark positions. C. Determine how to collect job analysis information. D. Understand the role of jobs in the organization. E. Evaluate competitive position options. 30. Job analysis is directly related to all of the following organizational issues

except A. Compensation. B. Product quality. C. Training. D. Recruiting. E. Retention. 31. Vital Resources, a strategic development firm mentioned in your text, attributed

a client problem (65% turnover of sales professionals over the past eighteen months) to which of the following?

A. Promotion levels were too low. B. The job analysis process was lacking. C. Pay rates weren’t competitive. D. Benchmarking was not used for production scheduling. E. Management training practices were old fashioned. 32. Frank, a college intern in human resources management at a large service

organization, recently completed a job analysis for the 600 jobs in the east coast operations center. Most of the jobs were thought to be the same as they were 5 years ago when the previous job analysis was conducted. When Lloyd, his boss, reviewed Frank’s work, he found that a lot of known job activities were not included. Further, some odd, even bizarre, activities were reported. What technique did Frank use?

A. Observation. B. Individual interview. C. Structured questionnaire. D. Group interview.

E. Technical Conference. 33. Michelle has gathered job analysis data with a structured questionnaire for jobs

in Plant #101. She wants to use an additional collection technique to make sure she does not miss details. Much of the work is done collectively, and she is skilled in dealing with issues related to group dynamics. Which job analysis method should she use?

A. Observation. B. Structured questionnaire. C. Group interview. D. Diary. E. Cyberdata. 34. Lena has gathered job analysis data with individual interviews for managerial

jobs in remote locations of her large manufacturing firm. There has been high turnover in recent years. Exit interviews have produced comments like, "You should have told me what was really expected." She wants to use an additional collection technique to avoid future job misrepresentation in job descriptions. The technique should not require a lot of time, but it should be comprehensive. Which method should she use?

A. Observation. B. Structured questionnaire. C. Group interview. D. Diary. E. Gap analysis.

35. Monique, the director of job analysis, must write job descriptions for new managers in a new plant for her large manufacturing firm. The new robotics line will make this location comparable to an existing site in Buffalo. She has time (at least 6 months) to go to Buffalo to gather information from the current managers in that facility. Which job analysis method should she use?

A. Observation. B. Structured questionnaire. C. Benchmark. D. Diary. E. Technical conference. 36. Rhona, a junior job analyst, needs to use several techniques for some new

positions in a new facility. How should she select the techniques? A. Use the cheapest techniques. B. Use techniques she has had the best experience with in other situations. C. Use techniques that meet her goals (money and quality) and

timetables.

D. Use new techniques that the organization has never experienced before. E. If she thinks she needs to use multiple techniques, then she should use

only the diary method. Even though it takes the longest, it will give her the comprehensive results that she needs.

37. Trudy, the director of job analysis for a large manufacturing firm, has hired an

assistant. Which "good advice" is the best advice for her assistant? A. Pick only one job analysis technique. Get to be an expert in it. B. The most important perspective to collect for any job is your own. Make

sure you observe the work. C. The most important perspective to collect for any job is from the

manager. D. Don’t benchmark positions in a large firm. It takes too much time. E. If a job has no linkage to the strategic direction of the

organization, that job may not be needed. 38. Supervisors are typically involved in all of these stages of job analysis except

A. writing the first draft of the job description. B. clarifying information collected for job analysis. C. being a source for data collection. D. identifying benchmark positions. E. reviewing a draft of the job description.

39. A typical job description would include all of these items except

A. job title. B. benefits and perquisites. C. duties and responsibilities. D. environmental conditions. E. functions. 40. Which statement best compares job specifications and job descriptions?

A. Job description and job specification have both been made obsolete by

job evaluation. B. Job description focuses on qualifications for job holders. Job specification

focuses on what the jobholder does. C. Job specification focuses on qualifications for job holders. Job

description focus on what the jobholder does. D. Job description is the same as job specification. E. Job specification occurs after job analysis. Job description occurs before

job analysis.

41. Your text gives a sample job description for a benefits manager. Which section gives the job specification?

A. Functions. B. Knowledge, skills, and abilities. C. Core competencies. D. Job characteristics. E. Occupational code. 42. How does job evaluation link to the compensation system of an organization,

according to your text?

A. There is no link. B. Job evaluation is performed by senior human resources

professionals. C. Job evaluation is the same as compensation. D. Job evaluation specifies the relative value of each job in an

organization. E. Job evaluation identifies the market value of most jobs in an

organization. 43. Stan is vice-president of human resources in a medium-sized manufacturing

firm. He is trying to explain why job descriptions are an important organizational resource to the rest of the executive board. He could use all of the following as examples except

A. The job description can be used to describe the job during interviews

with prospective job candidates. B. The job description can be used to describe the job in written

advertisements. C. The job description can be used to identify essential job functions for

ADA compliance requirements. D. The job description can be used to identify potential jobs for the

Family and Medical Leave Act. E. The job description can be used to help newly hired employees

understand what they are specifically expected to do. 44. How important is job analysis to the contemporary organization? Your text

makes all of these assertions except

A. Job analysis is the starting point of sound human resource management.

B. Job analysis has replaced other aspects of strategic human resource management.

C. If an organization doesn’t do its job analysis well, it probably doesn’t perform many of its human resource activities well.

D. If employees of an organization understand human resource activities, they should understand the fundamental importance of job analysis.

E. Job analysis permeates most of an organization’s activities.

45. The most frequently cited HR functions directly affected by job analysis include all of the following except

A. Compensation. B. Recruiting. C. Selection. D. Performance appraisal E. Labor relations processes. 46. Recruiting

A. Should be performed before employment planning. B. Should be performed after employment planning. C. Is an alternative to selection. D. Is used only for IT jobs. E. Is a danger signal in a benchmarked organization.

47. Gloria is the vice-president of human resources for a large manufacturing organization. She is concerned that there are 40% fewer applicants for jobs this year than last year. She should talk to the director of

A. Selection. B. Career planning. C. Benefits. D. Recruiting. E. Location. 48. Jane is the director of recruiting for a large corporation. Which of the following

is a warning signal that her efforts are not effective?

A. Recruiting costs have increased 10% over the last 3 years. B. The applicant pool is increasing in size. C. Jane’s secretary spends more time acknowledging ad responses

from overqualified applicants than she did a year ago. D. Jane's secretary spends less time acknowledging ad responses from

underqualified applicants than she did a year ago. E. The applicant pool is becoming increasingly diverse.

49. In the recruiting process, positive self-removal happens when

A. Human resources gets out of the hiring loop. Working divisions advertise for

and interview their own job candidates. B. There is a streamlined human resources office arrangement. Candidates can

escort themselves out, thus reducing the need for receptionists and security personnel.

C. Job requirements are communicated clearly enough that potential applicants who are not qualified do not apply.

D. All applicants are encouraged to apply for jobs.

E. Women and minority applicants are encouraged to apply. 50. Successful recruiting efforts are indicated by all of these outcomes except

A. Turnover decreases. B. Training costs go down. C. More job seekers know about available jobs. D. The applicant pool is increasingly diverse. E. The skill levels of applicants for any given job are increasingly

diverse. 51. Why do organizations want unqualified applicants to apply for jobs?

A. The applicants may be suitable for other jobs in the organization. B. They don’t. It increases time and money to remove these

candidates from the applicant pool. C. The informational process is a good way to get a company known. D. They don’t. Organizations are frequently sued for allowing unqualified

applicants to apply. E. The tax write-off is a major financial incentive. 52. Pat, director of human resources at a medium-sized east coast university, has

been unable to fill the last three vacancies for dean of a college or school. After checking with friends who have talked to candidates and potential candidates, she found that the jobs are low paid, boring, and very stressful, compared to the same job at other institutions. Faculty recruiting has not been a problem. What constraint is affecting her organization?

A. Organizational image. B. Attractiveness of the job. C. Internal organizational policies. D. Governmental influence. E. Recruiting costs.

53. A manufacturing organization needs to hire a Chief Information Officer to bring the company into the 21st century for computer usage and technology. The human resources area has been directed to promote someone from within the organization, but no one has the technical skills or abilities needed. These recruiting efforts are constrained by

A. Organizational image. B. Attractiveness of the job. C. Internal organizational policies. D. Governmental influence. E. Recruiting costs.

54. A petroleum manufacturer has difficulty hiring project engineers. The hours are

long, but the money is great. Last year, the firm started doing airport interviews in major cities to screen the applicant pool. Only the most promising candidates are then invited to the company site for a lengthier interview process. An HR representative went to an industry business luncheon last week and found that no competitors are having similar recruiting problems. None of them were conducting airport interviews, and three of his associates commented that the project engineers really needed to see the facility to make up their minds. The company’s recruiting is being constrained by

A. Organizational image. B. Attractiveness of the job. C. Internal organizational policies. D. Governmental influence. E. Recruiting costs.

55. Luz, a large pharmaceutical firm recruiter, can’t get any college recruits because the firm has lost three major product safety lawsuits in the last year and now has a reputation for being uncaring and unethical. Her recruiting efforts were constrained by

A. Organizational image. B. Attractiveness of the job. C. Internal organizational policies. D. Governmental influence. E. Recruiting costs. 56. What issues related to diversity are important to the recruiter responsible for

newspaper advertisements?

A. Job qualifications must be general to avoid offense. B. Language must be carefully chosen to avoid adverse

impact. C. Job specifications must not narrow an applicant pool. D. Language should be jargon filled to identify potential applicants. E. All advertisements should be written in several languages.

57. An internal search has all of these disadvantages except

A. more costs are incurred than by going outside. B. new technical skills may not be available. C. infighting is caused between ambitious employees. D. decreased morale is found in employees not selected. E. applicant pool is limited.

58. A major manufacturer needs to find a senior vice-president of research. What

recruiting techniques should be used?

A. Employee referral. B. Advertisement. C. Contractor. D. Executive placement.

E. College placement center. 59. Mark, an Information Technology specialist for a large firm, is at a party with

some friends from college. He runs into Duffy, a fellow computer science major, and says, “Why don’t you come to work with us? You were at the top of the class in school and I know you’ve done really well with DataCroc. Let’s do dinner next week and I’ll fill you in on opportunities.” Is anything wrong with this as a recruiting activity?

A.Yes. Recruiting activities should only be performed by trained

professionals. B.Yes. Employee referrals are the single biggest cause of .com business

failures in this decade. C.No. This ploy to get competitive information is accepted in the

Information Technology world. D.Yes. Such actions are illegal. E.No. Duffy should get a good idea about the company and Mark

already knows about his credentials.

60. Employee referrals offer all of these recruiting advantages except

A. The applicant may have more realistic job information than is available in the paper or other advertisements.

B. An employee knows his/her reputation is at stake, and so uses good judgment in making a referral.

C. Referrals are more likely to accept an offer if it is made. D. Referrals include personal and friendship criteria in addition to

job related skills. E. Referrals are more likely to stay in a job than other applicants. 61. Your school is hiring a new professor to teach this human resource course.

Which one of the following pieces of recruiting information would be most likely to assure that the woman is a good teacher?

A. The person is relocating to the area because of a spouse. B. She graduated from an excellent school. C. An excellent teacher recommended her. D. The spouse placed the initial inquiry call. E. A current employee was a grade school friend of the woman.

62. Professional organizations do all of the following recruiting functions except A. Provide member rosters.

B. Publish lists of job vacancies. C. Provide placement facilities at national meetings. D. Charge finder fees for the best job prospects. E. Limit the supply of prospective applicants. 63. The selection process typically consists of all of these steps except

A. Comprehensive interview. B. Screening interview. C. Application form. D. Employment tests. E. Compensatory interview.

64. Why are there so many steps in the selection process? A. During the downsizing activities of the late 1990s, many organizations

transferred unneeded HR employees to the selection area. B. Current work related behaviors are seldom indicated by past

performance. C. There are not many steps. Most employers hire after only one interview

and a referral. D. Each step provides additional information about an applicant’s

background, abilities, and motivation. E. Each step is required by law in any organization with more than 25

employees. 65. Which of the following would be likely to remove an applicant during the initial

screening?

A. Physical exam. B. Performance test data. C. Lots of brief jobs. D. Honesty tests. E. Ages of children. 66. Why do some recruiters use videoconferencing in the employment process? A. It is important to have visual acuity. B. It saves recruiting money. C. It allows for more intensive background checks. D. It lets future employees bond early in their careers. E. It is now required for all organizations that utilize federal contractors for

more than $200,000 per year. 67. When is salary range typically discussed during the selection process? A. In the initial screening. B. After the background check. C. During the medical examination. D. As part of performance evaluation.

E. It is the major subject of the comprehensive interview. 68. Which of these steps may be performed after a conditional job offer is made to

an applicant? A. Application completion. B. Background examination. C. Employment test. D. Comprehensive interview. E. Compliance assessment. 69. Which of these selection steps is typically done after a medical examination is

given? A. Employment test. B. Screening interview. C. Comprehensive interview. D. Permanent job offer made. E. Application completed.

70. Don, vice-president of human resources, wants to decrease turnover for

counter workers at a fast food chain. He examined work application forms over the last five years and discovered the following information: 70% of employees who stayed less than 90 days had no prior work experience; 80% of employees who stayed longer than 1 year held more than 2 previous jobs; 50% of employees who stayed less than 90 days held less than a high school degree; 45% of employees who stayed more than a year held a high school degree; 40% of employees who indicated only weekend work schedules left within 90 days; 45% of workers who indicated no weekend work schedules left within 90 days. What should he do?

A. Raise educational requirements for the job. B. Lower educational requirements for the job. C. Weight prior job experience more heavily than educational level. D. Weight educational level more heavily than prior job experience. E. Require weekend work schedules. 71. Don, vice-president of human resources for a large pharmaceutical

manufacturer, wants to decrease training time required for secretaries. Secretaries are hired and put into a training pool until the supervisor clears them for permanent assignment. He examined work application forms over the last five years and discovered the following information: 50% of employees who stayed in the pool less than 10 days had no prior work experience; 55% of employees who stayed in the pool longer than 90 days held more than 2 previous jobs; 80% of employees who stayed in the pool less than 10 days held a college degree in liberal arts; 85% of employees who stayed in the pool more than 90 days held a college degree in liberal arts; 80% of employees who left the pool within 10 days listed WordPerfect, Lotus, and Harvard Graphics as skills

on the application form; 80% of employees who stayed in the pool more than 90 days listed Microsoft Office as skills on the application form. What should he do?

A. None of these items should be weighted more heavily than any of the

others. B. Weight skills listed more heavily than educational background. C. Weight prior job experience more heavily than educational background. D. Weight educational background more heavily than prior job experience. E. Application forms can not be used in this way. 72. John is in the final interview stages as an applicant for a midlevel manager

position in an IT firm. He has talked to technical experts, filled out application forms, and taken a programmer test. Now he’s talking to a senior vice president who just asked him if he’s leaving his old firm because he is being forced out. The vice president continues, “Rumor has it that the huge loss last quarter was your fault, John.” What is going on?

A. John is being harassed. He should file charges with the EEOC. B. John is in a stress interview. C. John is in a panel interview. D. John is receiving a realistic job preview. E. John is in an impression interview. 73. Rick is an experienced interviewer for a large service organization. He makes

sure he asks the same questions in the same order of all applicants. What is he doing?

A. Assessment center. B. Panel interview. C. Comprehensive interview. D. Structured interview. E. Situational interview. 74. The value of the interview in the hiring process has been questioned for all of

these reasons except A. prior knowledge about the applicant can bias the interviewer’s

evaluation. B. the interviewer often holds a stereotype of what represents a “good”

applicant. C. negative information is given unduly high weight. D. the order in which applicants are interviewed often influences evaluation. E. the order in which questions are asked has no influence on the

evaluation. 75. The value of the interview in the hiring process has been questioned for all of

these reasons except

A. well-organized and structured interviews limit results. B. interviewers may forget much of the interview’s content within minutes

after the interview is completed. C. the interviewer may make a decision as to the applicant’s suitability in

the first few minutes of the interview. D. the order in which information about the job and the job applicant is

given influences the outcome of the interview. E. interviewers often tend to favor applicants who share their own

attitudes. 76. All of the following could be used as part of a realistic job preview except A. Plant tour. B. Films of actual work. C. Lunch with a group of employees who would be peers. D. Promotional film by a motivational expert. E. Work sampling. 77. Which of the following best describes the relationship between socialization and

organizational stability? A. Research shows no relationship. B. Organizational stability makes socialization unnecessary. C. Organizational stability is diminished through socialization. D. Proper socialization increases organizational stability over time

as objectives are transferred between generations of employees. E. Proper socialization is used to change organizational philosophy and

values. 78. John and Dean, senior members of a financial management team, took Luz, a

rookie, to lunch to explain “the ropes” of the new job. Why did they do that? A. New members create anxiety for long time employees. B. Peer influence is a subtle and important socialization factor. C. Organizational stability is increased through socialization. D. Socialization influences an employee’s morale, but not productivity. E. There is a similar adjustment pattern to new situations for most

individuals. 79. Proper socialization A. adjusts new employees’ understanding of their role so that they

“fit” on the job. B. influences how longtime employees perceive their own and other’s

performances. C. influences job performance of new and longtime employees. D. is a key to successful decruitment. E. can actually eliminate the need for quality control.

80. Outcomes of the socialization process are A. Prearrival, encounter, metamorphosis. B. Goals, roles, values. C. Peers, supervisors, human resources professionals. D. Turnover, commitment, performance. E. Compensation, benefits, training. 81. Joan manages information technology specialists, such as web designers.

Although nearly 80% of her new employees stay with the organization and progress, 75% of the graduates of a local community college have to be dismissed or quit within 90 days because they are unable to adapt to the firm. Failure has occurred in the socialization stage.

A. Encounter. B. Metamorphosis. C. Prearrival. D. Transfer. E. Passage. 82. Jill’s first day on the job in a .com startup consisted of stopping in her

supervisor’s office, meeting the other five members of the development team, and setting up her desk. One of her co-workers showed her the coffee machine, the rest room, and the supply room. He said he’d come over when it was time for lunch. When should Jill receive her formal new orientation program?

A. There may be no more orientation than what she has just experienced.

B. Her formal orientation program occurred earlier, as part of the selection process.

C. Most .coms wait and orient all new employees on a quarterly basis. She will have to wait until the start of the next quarter.

D. If she doesn’t ask to be sent to the program, she won’t receive it. E. Work team indoctrination has replaced formal orientation in all

information technology organizations. 83. Background investigation can include all of the following except A. Contacting former employers to confirm the candidate’s work record. B. Verifying educational accomplishments shown on the application form. C. Comparing notes between interviewers. D. Verifying I-9 Forms. E. Checking credit references. 84. Medical examinations are used

A. To assess minimum health standards for enrollment in a

company health and life insurance program. B. To create adverse impacts for jobs. C. To avoid adverse impacts for jobs. D. To identify preferred physical characteristics in a job category. E. To replace conditional job offers. 85. Why is the comprehensive selection process preferable to the discrete process of

eliminating candidates at every step of the process? A. It is less costly. B. It let’s overriding good factors counteract bad factors. C. It uses less management time. D. It uses less overall time.

E. It builds morale of all job applicants. 86. Your text makes all of these suggestions to avoid hiring mistakes except A. Hire a temporary worker to avoid panic. B. update job requirements, duties, and responsibilities before you fill the

position. C. Check references. D. Don’t depend on letters; call and talk with someone. E. Don’t hire someone who has used a professional resume writing

service. 87. Jim, the vice-president of human resource, is reading the evaluations from his

latest orientation program. New employees report satisfactory awareness of physical facilities, grievance procedures, and benefits options. However, many of them are unable to complete the statement, “The reason we are in the business we are in is…” and his trainers report that they leave the session in a lackadaisical way; no one is charged up. What should Jim do?

A. Hire new trainers to deliver the orientation material. B. Stress the new buildings on the tour. C. Remove the part of the program dealing with grievance procedures. D. Have the CEO share the vision of the organization. E. Change the recruiting practices to attract more energetic people to the

firm. 88. Involving the CEO in the orientation process provides all of these benefits except A. it sends a message that the company truly cares about its employees. B. CEO visioning helps provide indoctrination into organizational culture and

values. C. fear of the unknown is reduced.

D. a CEO welcome can encourage newcomers, like a pep rally. E. reduced medical and educational coverage is more easily

accepted. 89. Human resources management staff play all of these roles in new employee

orientation except A. Coordinate the orientation process. B. Notify the new employee when to report to work. C. Explain the benefits options. D. Give visioning speeches. E. Explain career development programs.

90. Jan runs a temporary agency that provides experienced IT professionals. She gives an IT network system with bugs to job candidates and an hour to get it running as part of the selection process. This test is an example of

A. Concept validity. B. Constraint validity. C. Content validity. D. Parallel validity. E. Discriminant analysis

91. Training typically can involve changing all of the following except A. Skills. B. Knowledge. C. Values. D. Attitudes. E. Behaviors. 92. Dr. Wattabor, a college professor, uses only PowerPoint lectures to teach his

classes. When students raise their hands during class to ask questions, Dr. Wattabor ridicules them publicly and tells them to read the book. Usually, by mid-term, no student raises a hand. What, according to principles of learning, has occurred?

A. Negative reinforcement. B. Feedback. C. Zoning. D. Plateau. E. Positive reinforcement. 93. B.W., a teller trainer for a large bank, has designed a new training program that

largely automates the training process. Tellers go into a “cage,” and are given simple sample transactions to process. If an error is made, a flashing light and bell indicates to everyone in the training area that the person has made a mistake. If the transaction is processed correctly, the teller is given a more

difficult task. B.W. proudly presents the new format to the industrial psychologist who consults with the bank on such programs. Which of the following statements would the industrial psychologist be most likely to make?

A. Teller trainees would not be motivated to learn these processes. B. The program is designed to teach skills that are not transferable to the

job. C. Plateauing makes this program inappropriate. D. There is no feedback in your program. E. Positive reinforcement would improve your program. 94. Wayne tells his students, “Thanks for the input. Great idea!,” every time one of

them answers a question he asks, regardless of the rightness of the answer. What learning theory is he illustrating?

A. Transferability. B. Potability. C. Plateau. D. Reinforcement. E. Direction. 95. Compare employee development to employee training. A. Training focuses on work groups. Development focuses on individuals. B. Development may be required for salary increases. Training is required

for promotions. C. Training completion rates are higher than development completion rates. D. Training is computer assisted. Development never uses information

technology. E. Training focuses on the current job. Development focuses on

future jobs. 96. Matt runs a ski instruction school in the Berkshire Mountains. He has a room

where an individual stands in skis that are mounted in the floor, places a helmet on his head that simulates speed, obstacles, and weather, and the consequences of the ski student’s muscle responses. What kind of training is described here?

A. Vestibule. B. Job rotation. C. Interactive video disks. D. Virtual reality. E. Programmed instruction. 97. Carol is in line for a senior vice president position at a large hotel conglomerate.

She has just arrived for her new employee development assignment. She is on the board of the largest San Francisco hotel, working closely with the chief operating officer of that facility. What method is being used?

A. Virtual reality. B. Vestibule C. Adjusted. D. Assistant-to. E. Survival training.

98. Penny was hired as a bank teller. She was trained in the bank’s training center room set up like a real teller’s cage. Trainers posed as clients. Video cameras were used to record some of her sessions, and that film was later used to help her improve. What kind of training did Penny receive?

A. Simulation. B. Vestibule training. C. Computer-based training. D. Experiential exercise. E. Apprenticeship. 99. The managerial role of coaching can include all of the following except A. Keep quiet about poor performance, hoping it will go away. B. Listen without getting defensive.

C. Provide frequent feedback, not just at appraisal time. D. Remove obstacles to good performance.

E. Find out why performance or attitude of an employee is waning. 100. Bruce is an OD consultant hired by a large insurance company. He starts the

process by discussing employee attitudes about decision making practices, communication effectiveness satisfaction with jobs and coworkers, and leadership. What organizational development strategy is Bruce using?

A. Climate survey. B. Team building. C. White water. D. Third-party intervention. E. Groupthink