HKIA/ARB Professional Assessment Sample Questions

HKIA/ARB

Professional Assessment

Sample Questions

November 2012

Sample Questions for Paper 1 Statutory Controls in Building Works

Sample question 2012 – Paper 1 Statutory Controls in Building Works

1.

One of the purposes of “usable floor space” in building plan submissions is for determining

A. the area of the refuse chamber. B. the provision of sanitary fitments. C. the area within a flat, exclusive of common areas. D. the assumed population that has to be evacuated in case of

emergency. Ans. : A 2.

Which of the following is exempted from the provisions of the Buildings Ordinance?

A. Any street works. B. Any non-structural works. C. Works for any building belonging to the Government. D. Works for any building belonging to the Housing Society. Ans. : C 3.

Development proposal for a site zoned “Comprehensive Development Area” in an Outline Zoning Plan always requires

A. submission of a traffic impact study. B. submission of a landscape proposal. C. approval by the Lands Department under “design, disposition and

height” clause of the lease conditions. D. approval by the Town Planning Board under “Section 16” of the Town

Planning Ordinance. Ans. : D 4. Who is the Licensing Authority for a restaurant situated at a licensed hotel? A. The Director of Buildings B. The Commissioner of Police C. The Secretary for Home Affairs D. The Director of Food and Environmental Hygiene Ans. : D



5. Which of the following always requires approval and consent? A. Hoardings for demolition works B. Contractor’s shed to be erected above hoardings C. Provision of show flats within a construction site D. Ground investigations works Ans. : C 6.

Under Building (Planning) Regulations, which of the following statements about “open space” is correct?

A. Open space is required for both office and domestic buildings. B. No part of a domestic building shall be within 1.5m from the rear site

boundary. C. The level difference within any part of a required open space must not

exceed 600mm. D. The minimum dimension of an open space shall be not less than

2.3m. Ans. : B 7.

Which combination of the following criteria requires a room to be provided with at least 2 exit doors?

(1) The size of the room exceeds 30 m2. (2) The capacity of the room exceeds 30 persons. (3) The direct distance is below 18m but exceeds 15 m. (4) The travel distance is below 18m but exceeds 15 m. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (4) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (3) and (4) only Ans. : C



8.

When applying for an “Occupation Permit”, which of the following documents are required?

(1) Certificate of Compliance (2) Plan index (3) Drainage connection advice (4) Completion advice from EMSD A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (4) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (3) and (4) only Ans. : C 9. Irrespective of its distance from adjoining buildings, the roof (1) of a domestic building must have an FRP of not less than 1 hour. (2) of a single-staircase building of more than 13m above ground level

should have an FRP of not less than 1 hour. (3) of a building intended for use as a refuge floor must have an FRP of

not less than 2 hours. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) Ans. : C 10. Required smoke outlets for any basement must be (1) not more than 30m apart. (2) not less than 1m in its least dimension. (3) covered with stall-boards with an FRP not less than that of the

basement. (4) located on external walls at the ground floor of the building. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (4) only D. (3) and (4) only Ans. : A



11. The Disability Discrimination Ordinance does not apply to (1) buildings of 13 m or less in height for domestic use with multiple

occupancies. (2) buildings of 13 m or less in height for occupation by a single family. (3) temporary buildings referred to in the Building (Planning)

Regulations. (4) buildings with temporary occupation permits issued under the

Buildings Ordinance. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (4) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (3) and (4) only Ans: : C 12. An automatic sprinkler system is not required for A. a 50-storey domestic building. B. a single storey guesthouse with 20 guestrooms. C. a single storey commercial building with a floor plate of 500 m2

D. a 3-storey low-rise office building with a floor plate of 200 m2 per floor. Ans : A 13. The Code of Practice for the provision of Means of Escape in Case of Fire

stipulates that where 2 or more exit staircases are required, people using one staircase should be able to gain access to at least one of the other staircases at each floor without having to pass through other person’s premises, unless the staircases are inter-connected at roof level and

A. at refuge floors. B. the building is a non-domestic building. C. the building is less than 25 storeys high. D. the usable floor area of each floor is less than 250 m2. Ans : A



14. Which of the following about hoardings are true? (1) Obtaining of consent for the hoarding plans is required before erection

of the hoardings. (2) Hoardings Permits may be renewed until completion of the

construction works. (3) Hoardings for demolition works may be re-used as hoardings for new

building works on the same site. (4) For hoardings to be erected on public streets, an Excavation Permit

must be obtained from the Highways Department prior to submission of the Hoarding Plans to the Buildings Department.

A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (4) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (3) and (4) only Ans : C 15. Which of the following buildings constructed before 1 March 1987 are

“Specified Commercial Buildings” under the scope of the Fire Safety (Commercial Premises) Ordinance?

(1) A cinema (2) An office building (3) A shopping centre (4) A purpose-built department store A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (4) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (3) and (4) only Ans : A 16. An order by the Building Authority to cease the carrying out of building

works deviating from the approved structural plans is to be served to A. the building owner. B. the Authorized Person. C. the Registered Structural Engineer. D. the Registered General Building Contractor. Ans : D



17. The concept of “compartmentation”, in the context of Building (Construction) Regulations, is for the purpose of

(1) control of the spread of fire. (2) containment of smoke dispersion. (3) orderly evacuation of inhabitants in case of fire. (4) even distribution of automatic fire-fighting devices. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (4) only D. (3) and (4) only Ans : A 18. Where a private street within a site is created for the purpose of site

classification, (1) the “street” must be provided with street hydrants. (2) the “street” must be an emergency vehicular access. (3) the windows facing the “street” may be deemed to face the external

air. (4) the area of the “street” shall not be counted for the purpose of site

area calculation. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (4) only D. (3) and (4) only Ans : D 19. Which of the following building uses does not require risers and treads to

be respectively less than 175 mm and greater than 225 mm for Means of Escape staircases?

A. Cinema complex B. Primary school C. Kindergarten D. Hospital Ans : D



20. Under the Building (Demolition Works) Regulations, which of the following is not necessary for the Authorized Person appointed in respect of the demolition works to carry out before commencement of the demolition works?

A. Cause all signboards attached to the building to be removed. B. Cause the supply of gas and electricity to the building to be

disconnected. C. Cause all tramways and street lighting fittings attached to the building

to be removed. D. Cause all the fittings attached to the building in relation to supply of

electricity to be removed. Ans : A 21. Which of the following will not require application for lease modifications? A. Development of a commercial building under a lease for industrial

use. B. Provision of catering establishments in lots subjected to an “offensive

trade” clause. C. Exemption of “green features” from Plot Ratio/Site Coverage

calculations. D. Development of a building conforming with the Outline Zoning Plan

but exceeding the height limit in the lease conditions. Ans : C 22. Under normal circumstances, which of the following may be considered

upon application for exemption from site coverage calculation? (1) A curtain wall system forming the building envelope of an existing

building (2) Bay windows of bona fide hotels (3) A building that houses swimming pool filtration plants only (4) Balconies that meet the green feature requirements A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (4) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (3) and (4) only Ans : B



23. The purpose of “Practice Notes to Authorized Persons and Registered Structural Engineers” is not to

A. serve as subsidiary legislation to the Building Regulations. B. supplement codes of practice as defined in the Building Regulations. C. provide directions based on record of previous decisions under the

Building Regulations. D. provide updated information and guidance to Authorized Persons and

Registered Structural Engineers. Ans : A 24. Which of the following elements of construction need to satisfy all three

criteria, namely stability, integrity and insulation under the Code of Practice for Fire Resisting Construction?

A. Structural beam and column B. Non-load-bearing compartment wall C. Enclosure around services in staircase/lobby D. Structural lift shaft Ans : D 25. Which of the following statements is correct? A. The Building Authority will not approve any structural submissions

from an Authorized Person (List of Architects). B. There is no need for a Building Owner to appoint a Registered

Structural Engineer for the construction of a temporary building. C. An Authorized Person of a building project may also act as the

contractor on the same project only when he has informed the Buildings Department.

D. The Building Authority may refuse to accept plan submissions from 2 or more Authorized Persons in respect of building works at the same premises at the same time.

Ans : D



Refer to the drawing below and answer questions 26-28.

26. If Site 1 and Site 2 are to be combined, the combined site is A. a Class A site. B. a Class B site. C. a Class C site. D. Not a Class A, Class B nor Class C site. Ans : C 27. If Site 3 and Site 4 are to be combined, the combined site is A. a Class A site. B. a Class B site. C. a Class C site. D. Not a Class A, Class B nor Class C site. Ans : A



28. If Site 4 is to be developed for a composite building, the site area for the purpose of Plot Ratio and Site Coverage calculations is

A. 380.0 m2. B. 400.0 m2. C. 420.0 m2. D. 440.0 m2. Ans : B 29. Under the Buildings Ordinance, it is the duty of a Registered General

Building Contractor to (1) co-ordinate the works of all his subcontractors. (2) provide a competent site agent to supervise the building works. (3) notify the Building Authority of any contravention of the Building

Regulations in connection with the building works. (4) certify that the building works have been carried out in accordance

with the Buildings Ordinance prior to the application for the Occupation Permit.

A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (4) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (3) and (4) only Ans : D 30. Which of the following is not required for a bridge uniting two buildings

without a fire shutter at each end and a by-pass lobby under the Code of Practice for Fire Resisting Construction (FRC)?

A. The bridge is shorter than 18m. B. The bridge is constructed wholly of non-combustible materials. C. The bridge is open on both sides and with at least 50% of open area. D. The bridge is provided at sides with barriers or parapets not higher

than 1.2m. Ans : C

Sample Questions for Paper 2 Building Contracts, Professional Practice, Professional Conduct, Conditions of Agreement & Scale of Charges

Sample question 2012 – Paper 2 Building Contracts, Professional Practice, Professional Conduct, Conditions of Agreement & Scale of Charges

In all cases, the term “Building Contract” shall mean the “Agreement and Schedule of

Conditions of Building Contract (With Quantities) (2005 edition) and (Without

Quantities) (2006 edition)” and “Standard Form of Building Contract” unless stated

otherwise.

1.

The Architect’s duty as agent of the Employer commences when he

A. is instructed to invite tenders on behalf of the Employer. B. is instructed to assume a supervising role empowered under the

Conditions of Contract. C. enters into agreement with the Employer and proceeds to the

feasibility stage of the works. D. proceeds to general building plan preparation and submits them to

the Buildings Department. Ans. : A 2.

Which of the following acts by an HKIA member is considered in breach of the Code of Professional Conduct?

A. Working as in-house Architect for a developer and preparing

design sketches for him. B. Disclosing information of an on-going project to a building journal

without prior consent of the Client. C. Submitting an office brochure with perspectives and designs of

completed projects to potential clients. D. Inquiring about the fee scale of another Architect quoting for the

same project before submitting his own fee proposal. Ans. : D



3.

A Client intends to appoint you as Architect for a project, of which the foundation system has been completed under the supervision of another Architect. Which of the following action(s) should you take prior to your acceptance of the appointment?

(1) Notify the other Architect in writing. (2) Obtain the other Architect’s permission for the use of the

foundation design in the remaining part of the project. (3) Ensure that the Client has settled all fees for the services given by

the previous Architect. (4) Request the other Architect to confirm in writing that he consents to

your taking up the project. A. (1) only B. (1) and (2) only C. (2) and (4) only D. (1), (2), (3) and (4) Ans. : B 4.

If a date for completion of the Works is set out in the Appendix but time for completion of the Contract is “set at large” by a delaying event, the date for completion will be

A. a reasonable time. B. the date for completion included in the Appendix. C. a date fixed by the Employer after consideration of all events. D. the date for completion included in the Appendix plus any

extension of time granted by the Architect for the delaying event. Ans. : A



5. When assessing a claim for an extension of time, the Architect is obliged to (1) follow any instruction or opinion provided by the Employer. (2) disregard the views of the Employer and Contractor. (3) act fairly and independently between the Employer and Contractor. (4) follow the reasoning submitted by the Contractor only. A. (1) and (3) only B. (2) and (3) only C. (2) and (4) only D. (3) and (4) only Ans. : B 6.

If the Architect properly issues a Certificate of Delay under Clause 24 (Damages for non-completion) but subsequently grants an extension of time to the Contractor, the Certificate that he has issued

A. remains effective. B. is automatically cancelled. C. remains effective for a reasonable time. D. is cancelled only if and when a new certificate is issued. Ans. : B 7. Which of the following shall form part of a Building Contract? (1) Letter of award (2) Technical specification (3) Master programme submitted during the tender (4) Method statement submitted during the tender A. (1) only B. (2) and (3) only C. (1) and (2) only D. (1), (2), (3) and (4) Ans. : C



8.

Which of the following Architect’s Instructions to the Contractor is not empowered by the Conditions in the Standard Form of Building Contract?

A. Instructing additional works after Substantial Completion. B. Postponing the carrying out of some portion of the works. C. Rescheduling of works sequence to suit the Employer’s sales

campaign. D. Removing a domestic sub-contractor employed by the Main

Contractor for the works. Ans. : C 9.

If a minor arithmetical error is found in the lowest returned tender, which of the following statements is correct?

A. The tenderer shall be allowed to correct the error. B. There is no need to inform the tenderer that he has made an error

in the tender. C. The tenderer must be informed about the error and requested to

abide by the tender sum. D. All the other tenderers shall be informed about the error made by

the lowest tenderer and ask them to review if there is any error in their tenders.

Ans. : B 10.

During a routine site inspection, the Architect suspects one of the construction elements is not constructed in accordance with Contract requirement. Which of the following is not empowered by the Contract?

A. Issue an Architect’s Instruction to remove the work from the site. B. Issue instruction to open up the work for inspection and tests. C. Call in independent parties for testing and seek remedial proposal

from Contractor. D. Advise Employer to terminate the Contract with the Contractor and

engage another Contractor to finish the project. Ans. : D



11. Under which of the following situations is the Main Contractor not entitled to an Extension of Time under the Contract?

A. Site Possession date was postponed by 1 week. B. A group of villagers blocked off the site access for two weeks,

claiming that the Works affected the “fung shui” of their village. C. Construction works was suspended by one month due to problems

with the Contractor’s department for concreting work. D. Black Rainstorm Signal was on for two days during the concreting

stage of the works. Ans. : C 12. Under Clause 41 (Settlement of Disputes), Mediation is A. mandatory. B. to be followed if the Architect instructs a Mediation. C. an option open to the parties if either party gives notice requesting

Mediation. D. an option open to the parties only if the Employer gives notice

requesting Mediation. Ans. : C 13. Tender documents for a “design and build” Contract shall consist of (1) Specifications. (2) Performance Requirements. (3) Bills of Quantities. (4) Tender drawings. A. (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (1), (2) and (4) only D. (1), (2), (3) and (4) Ans. : C



14. The Contract Conditions cannot be altered except by A. instructions issued by the Architect. B. the Employer unilaterally serving a written notice to the Contractor. C. a mutual agreement between the Employer and the Contractor

through the signing of a supplementary agreement. D. an Arbitrator appointed jointly by the Employer and the Contractor. Ans. : C 15. Upon issuing the Final Certificate, which of the following will take effect? (1) The Contractor is no longer liable for any defects. (2) The Contractor is still liable for defects under warranty. (3) The Extension of Time application has been concluded. (4) The additional payment for direct loss and/or expense has been

settled. A. (1) and (2) only B. (3) and (4) only C. (1), (3) and (4) only D. (2), (3) and (4) only Ans. : D 16. The total construction cost on which the percentage fees are based shall

exclude A. work done by specialist sub-contractors. B. work carried out under separate building contract but designed by

a consultant whose input the Architect is responsible for coordinating.

C. materials supplied directly by the Client. D. specialist sub-contractor’s design fee. Ans. : D



17. Which of the following can be regarded as negligence of the Architect in providing service?

(1) Failure to supply timely information to the Contractor, giving rise to

claim by the Contractor against the Client. (2) Failure to supervise the Contractor to ensure the completion of the

Works within the Contract Period. (3) Failure to detect defective works during construction and before

issue of Final Certificate. (4) Failure to identify discrepancies on shop drawings submitted by a

specialist subcontractor leading to substandard performance and damages.

A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (3) and (4) only D. (2) and (4) only Ans. : B 18. The use of a limited company to enter into service agreements with Clients

will relieve the Architect from A. third-party liability under the Law of Tort. B. professional liability pursuable as disciplinary offence. C. statutory liability under the Buildings Ordinance. D. personal contractual liability to Clients. Ans. : D 19. The Architect has rendered services up to Stage ‘D’ (Design Stage) under

the HKIA Agreement Between Client & Architect, and intends to terminate his engagement. Which of the following is specifically prescribed?

A. The Architect has to give the Employer a reasonable notice stating

the cause of termination. B. The Employer is entitled to use the drawings to complete the work

provided the outstanding fee has been settled. C. Upon settlement of outstanding fee to the Architect, the copyright of

the design shall be assigned to the Employer. D. Correspondence and other documents exchanged between the

Architect and Statutory Authorities in connection with the approval of plans remain as property of the Architect.

Ans. : B



20. Which of the following is considered not in breach of the HKIA Code of Professional Conduct on the part of the Architect?

A. To exclude his contractual liability for consequential loss in his

engagement with Client. B. To sub-contract part of the design works to another Architect who

has better expertise in a particular building type without prior consent from Client.

C. To provide an alternative design to demonstrate merit over another Architect’s design in an attempt to get the job.

D. To tender for the Building Contract of which he has been engaged as Architect.

Ans. : A 21. Your scope of services in a residential project requires you to design the

interior of the clubhouse, for which you have appointed an interior designer to be your sub-consultant. You are required to

A. ensure that the conditions of engagement with the interior

designer’s appointment is in accordance with the HKIA Standard Agreement.

B. furnish the HKIA with details of the appointment if the conditions of appointment differ from those of the HKIA Agreement between Client and Architect and Scale of Professional Charges.

C. seek the Client’s prior agreement to this sub-commissioning arrangement.

D. do nothing as the interior sub-consultant is contractually responsible to you only.

Ans. : C



22. The Contractor can make objection to the nomination of a sub-contract if (1) the sub-contractor has a poor safety record. (2) there are reasonable grounds for believing that the sub-contractor

is in financial problem. (3) there are reasonable grounds for believing that the tender sum is

not financially viable. (4) the programme for carrying out the sub-contract works is

unreasonable. A. None of the above B. (1) only C. (1), (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2), (3) and (4) Ans. : D 23. If the Employer is responsible for a delay to the completion of the Works

and the Contractor is, in principle, entitled to an Extension of Time, can the Architect instruct the Contractor to adopt delay recovery measures?

A. There is an implied term in the Contract permitting the Architect to

instruct the Contractor to do so. B. The Architect does not have the power to instruct the Contractor to

do so. C. The Architect has express power under the Contract to instruct the

Contractor to do so. D. The Employer may directly instruct the Contractor to do so without

going through the Architect. Ans. : C 24. If liquidated damages supported by a Certificate of Delay to the Completion

of the Works may be deducted, the decision whether to deduct such liquidated damages rests on

A. the Architect. B. the Employer. C. the Quantity Surveyor. D. any of the Architect, the Employer or the Quantity Surveyor. Ans. : B



25. As a matter of general principle, when assessing extension of time (EOT) the Architect

A. must act in accordance with the views of the Employer as he is the

agent of the Employer and paid by him. B. should preferably follow the views of the Employer, as far as

possible. C. shall act independently exercising his professional judgement. D. must discuss the Contractor’s views with the Employer on a

regular basis and then negotiate an appropriate EOT with the Contractor.

Ans. : C 26. The Architect grants an EOT to the Contractor after issuing a Certificate of

Non-completion under Clause 24.1.1. Therefore, the Certificate A. still remains valid. B. will be cancelled only if and when a new certificate is issued. C. remains effective until the date of the next Interim Payment

Certificate when it is automatically cancelled. D. is automatically cancelled. Ans. : D 27. The liquidated damages set out in the Appendix to the Contract should be A. within 10% of the actual damages or loss the Employer is likely to

suffer. B. a provisional figure which the Architect can adjust when the actual

loss suffered by the Employer can be determined. C. a genuine pre-estimate of the loss likely to be suffered by the

Employer. D. the same as the Employer’s anticipated loss. Ans. : C



28. If the Architect values a variation at HK$400,000 which is then paid but in a subsequent arbitration the Arbitrator awards a higher figure in respect of the variation (HK$500,000), the Arbitrator

A. cannot award interest on the additional HK$100,000. B. can award interest on the additional HK$100,000 but calculated

only from the Date of Notice of Arbitration. C. can award interest from a date he considers appropriate. D. can award interest but this must be from the date of the first

application for payment of the variation. Ans. : C 29. Under which of the following circumstances can the Architect serve notice

to initiate the determination of the Contractor? The Contractor (1) suspended all site activities after Substantial Completion. (2) sub-let a large portion of the Works to another Contractor without

prior written consent from the Architect. (3) failed to act on the Architect’s Instruction for opening up for

inspection of suspected defective works. (4) entered into voluntary liquidation. A. (1) and (2) only B. (2) and (3) only C. (2) and (4) only D. (3) and (4) only Ans. : C



30. The remeasurement of provisional quantities in the bills of quantities shall be based on

A. the first set of construction drawings. B. the latest drawings issued by the Architect. C. the as-built drawings. D. actual work constructed on site. Ans. : B

Sample Questions for Paper 3 – Building Structures

Sample question 2011 – Paper 3 Building Structures

1. Load path is one of the key considerations in structural design, and it is about how to bring the load acting on the building

A. to the building façade. B. to the ground / foundation. C. to the columns. D. to the beams. Ans : B 2. End enlargements or bellout in piles are A. used to increase frictional resistance. B. used to increase end-bearing resistance. C. more suitable in driven rather than bored piles. D. used to prevent water penetration from artesian pressure. Ans : B 3. In general, which of the following foundation systems gives the largest

founding capacity? A. Bored pile on rock B. Driven H-pile C. Mini-pile on rock D. Shallow raft foundation Ans : A 4. Which of the following statements is not true about a framed-tube structural

system for tall buildings? A. This system requires closely spaced perimeter columns. B. The shear lag phenomenon occurs in this system. C. This system achieves an interior floor plan relatively free of core

bracing and large columns. D. The perimeter structure primarily resists vertical loads while the core

primarily takes the lateral loads. Ans : D



5. Which of the following steel sections is most ideal for resisting torsion? A. Channel section B. H section C. T – section D. Circular hollow section Ans : D 6. Which of the following reinforced concrete beam slab floors would be

considered an effective two-way system?

A B C D

Ans : C 7. The main function of a transfer slab is to A. transfer column loads from above to widely spaced piers or

mega-columns below. B. transfer mechanical services such as HVAC conduits. C. transfer passengers between express lifts and local lifts. D. transfer lateral loads to outrigger trusses and super columns. Ans : A 8. In general, which of the following gives a stiffer column section assuming all

are of the same dimension? A. Plain concrete column B. Reinforced concrete column of 4% reinforcement ratio and

normal-strength concrete C. Reinforced concrete column of 4% reinforcement ratio and

high-strength concrete D. Composite column of 10% structural steel section Ans : D



9. For a 30-storey commercial building with a central core, which of the following is the most common lateral force resisting system?

A. Bearing- and shear-wall system B. Truss-wall frame C. Tubular frame D. Core and frame Ans : D 10. Which of the following is considered to be a rigid connection? Ans : C 11. According to the Building Regulations, which of the following building types /

spaces by occupancy has the highest uniform imposed load? A. Banking hall B. General office C. Hotel guestroom D. School classroom Ans : A

A. Bolted at web of beam

B. Precast C. Column welded to base plate

D. Sliding joint



12. Which of the following statements regarding wind loads is not true? A. Wind pressure varies with building height. B. Wind pressure varies with building shape and degree of exposure. C. Suction forces due to wind are very small and therefore negligible. D. The use of dampers is a means of resisting dynamic effects of wind. Ans : C 13. A building subject to a horizontal force (F) results in a displacement (D). If the

force is now increased to 2F, what will be the displacement D? A. D will increase proportionally. B. D will increase unproportionally. C. D will decrease proportionally. D. D will be unchanged. Ans : A 14. Stiffness (K) defines the relationship between the applied load (F) and the

displacement (D). For a column, the column stiffness (Kc) is defined as Where : E – elastic modulus of the column material A – cross sectional area of column L – length of column

A. (E x A) / L B. A / L C. L / (E x A) D. L / E Ans : A



e f g h

Refer to the diagrams of a beam below to answer Questions 15 to 17, where w is a uniform distributed load and P is a point load.

15. For the beam supported and loaded as shown, which of the diagrams from A to D

represents its shear force diagram? A. A B. B C. C D. D Ans : A 16. For the beam supported and loaded as shown, which of the diagrams from A to D

represents its bending moment diagram? A. A B. B C. C D. D Ans : D

A

B

C

D



17. If this is a reinforced concrete beam, at which point along its length will require tension reinforcements at the top of the beam?

A. Point e B. Point f C. Point g D. Point h Ans : C 18. Which of the following is not a factor in the choice of a foundation system? A. Geographical location. B. Below ground soil conditions. C. The weight of the building and all applied loads. D. The proximity of adjacent buildings. Ans : A 19. Concrete is strong in compression and weak in tension, and steel is A. similar to concrete. B. strong in both compression and tension. C. weak in compression and strong in tension. D. weak in both compression and tension in comparison with concrete. Ans : B 20. The role of stirrups in reinforced concrete beams includes the following except A. to provide shear reinforcement. B. to arrest the development of diagonal tension cracking. C. to provide torsion reinforcement when stirrups are in closed configuration. D. to provide compression reinforcement. Ans : D



21. The purpose of the raised profiles on ribbed reinforcement bars is A. to create a mechanical interlock between the concrete and the steel bar. B. to provide more surface area for the cohesion of the cement onto the bar. C. to serve as an edge that catches the reinforcement ties and prevents them

from slipping along the bar. D. to provide a non-smooth surface on the bars that makes handling and lifting

easier. Ans : A 22. The diaphragm action of a floor or roof system refers to A. the manner in which it transfers gravity loads to columns and walls. B. the manner in which it transfers lateral loads to shear walls or frames. C. the resistance to uplift forces of wind. D. the vibration caused by impact loads. Ans : B 23. Which of the following about core and outrigger tall structures is not true? A. Core and outrigger structures are lateral resisting systems normally capable

of supporting buildings much taller than normal moment resisting frames or braced frames.

B. Core and outrigger structures allow clear spans between cores and external structure columns thereby allowing flexible planning of those spaces.

C. Outrigger trusses or girders can be two or more storeys deep and often allocated as mechanical equipment floors, elevator transfer floors, or refuge floors.

D. Core and outrigger tall structures are only appropriate for buildings with square plans.

Ans : D



24. In which of the following arrangements will the forces of all the internal diagonal web members of the truss be tension? A. B. C. D.

Ans : C

25. Which of the following structures derives its stiffness and stability from synclastic curvature?

A. Dome B. Stretched membrane C. Barrel Shell D. Folded plate Ans : A



26. Which of the following structures derives its stiffness and stability from anticlastic curvature?

A. Barrel Shell B. Folded plate C. Dome D. Stretched membrane Ans : D 27. Which of the following is not a one-way long-span structure? A. Barrel Shell B. Deep steel plate girder C. Space frame D. Folded plate Ans : C

Refer to the diagram of the pin-connected truss below with a point load P to answer Questions 28 to 30.

28. Which truss member is a zero-force member? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 7 Ans : A



29. Which truss member is in tension? A. 3 B. 5 C. 6 D. 8 Ans : C 30. Which truss member is in compression? A. 2 B. 3 C. 6 D. 7 Ans : B

Sample Questions for Paper 4 Building Services & Environmental Controls

Sample question 2011 – Paper 4 Building Services & Environmental Controls

Basic Principle

1.

Which of the following is fundamental in preventing the spread of legionnaires’ disease in building services installations?

A. Using CFC refrigerants for chiller plants B. Using single-stack drainage system to avoid cross contamination C. Using water strainers to filter the incoming water at the supply mains D. Carrying out regular inspection and maintenance to the water-cooled

air-conditioning plants Ans : D 2.

Which of the following can only generate “sensible heat” (rather than “latent heat”) inside a building?

A. Coffee maker B. Taking a shower C. Heat generated by light bulb D. Body heat generated by occupants Ans. : C 3.

What does the unit W /m²K in respect of the performance of building materials refer to?

A. Shading coefficient B. Energy efficiency ratio C. Thermal transmittance D. Life cycle assessment analysis Ans. : C Sustainable Design & Environmental Issues 4.

Which of the following is not an assessment criteria for green assessment system BEAM Plus?

A. Cost effectiveness B. Barrier-free access C. Life Cycle Assessment D. Nature Outlook Assessment Ans. : A



5.

Which of the following is least effective to reduce “heat island effects” in designing an open air car parking lot?

A. Using natural asphalt for paving B. Planting trees to provide shading C. Providing a roof cover of high solar reflectance D. Laying a lawn with traffickable open-grid paving Ans : A 6. The glazing that gives the lowest OTTV is A. skylight with double glazing. B. west facing single glazed window C. east facing single glazed window D. south facing single glazed window Ans. : D 7.

Which of the following statements is incorrect in respect of Air Ventilation Assessment (AVA) Studies for a new building development?

A. Computational fluid dynamics analysis can check the wind

permeabilities at difference levels. B. Wind tunnel test must be carried out on a scaled model in order to get a

more accurate result. C. Pedestrian comfort is the main objective of the AVA study.

D. Landscaping is not taken into account normally.

Ans. : D 8.

Which of the following is not a benchmark for environmental performance assessment?

A. LEED B. BEAM C. GBTools D. Gini coefficient Ans. : D



9.

Which of the following are the underlying criteria for achieving a “carbon neutral” building?

(1) limiting energy consumption.

(2) stopping any carbon emissions.

(3) adopting a renewable energy source.

(4) keeping its carbon footprint within a pre-set limit.

A. (1) and (3) only.

B. (1) and (4) only.

C. (2) and (3) only.

D. (2) and (4) only

Ans. : A Ventilating Air Conditioning & Heat 10. Which of the following is true for underfloor air conditioning system? A. It uses more fan power.

B. It is not suitable for winter heating.

C. The circulated comfort zone covers the finished floor to the false ceiling.

D. It is more effective than the conventional air conditioning system when used in a computer data centre.

Ans. : D

11.

The heat rejection capacity of the cooling tower system of a hotel is estimated to be 600 TR. What is the optimum choice for the cooling tower?

A. 1 no. of 600 TR package cooling tower

B. 1 no. of 900 TR package cooling tower

C. 2 nos. of 450 TR package cooling tower

D. 3 nos. of 300 TR package cooling tower

Ans. : D

12.

Which of the following actions may best help maintain human comfort even in an increased indoor temperature?

A. Lowering the humidity B. Re-circulating the air supply C. Lowering the lighting intensity D. Increasing the ventilation rate Ans : A



Fire Safety 13.

Which of the following premises should be provided with smoke extraction system?

A. Dangerous goods store

B. Double-storey carpark basement

C. Atrium with a compartment volume of 20,000m³

D. Hotel guest rooms’ common internal corridor with fixed windows

Ans. : D

14.

Which of the following does not affect the sizing of sprinkler water tanks in Hong Kong?

A. Type of building

B. Occupancy of building

C. Direct fire link to fire station

D. Number of water source or supply

Ans. : B

15.

Which of the following are valid benefits of FM200 system, which is commonly adopted as the fire-fighting provision for computer centres?

(1) Plant room is not a must. (2) Water is not necessary for fire fighting. (3) Easy to reinstate the system after false alarm. (4) Less expensive than pre-action sprinkler system. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (4) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (3) and (4) only Ans : A



Pipe & Drainage 16.

Which of the following pipes without internal lining is not acceptable to the Water Authority for use as cold/hot/salt water inside service within a building?

A. uPVC pipe B. Copper pipe C. Cast iron pipe D. Galvanized steel pipe Ans : D 17.

Which of the following is not correct according to the Water Authority’s requirements on water flushing device?

A. Valveless syphonic type is acceptable.

B. Dual-flush may be provided by the valveless-type device.

C. Valve-type is acceptable if the flushing volume is kept within 7.5 litres.

D. It is possible to use valve-type flushing device triggered by infra-red sensor.

Ans. : B

18.

Which of the following plumbing installations is not acceptable to the Water Authority?

A. Using cast iron pipe in a cold/salt water inside service.

B. Drinking fountain connected to the mains water supply system.

C. Branching of water supply pipe downstream of the water meter. D. Installation of water filter in the water tank at roof with non-return valve

upstream of the filter. Ans. : B

Electrical 19.

Which of the following combinations reflects the commonly recommended lighting intensities in line with the design guide of the Chartered Institution of Building Services Engineers (CIBSE)?

Offices Fire Escape Stairs

A. 200 lux 30 lux

B. 300 lux 50 lux

C. 400 lux 80 lux

D. 500 lux 100 lux

Ans. : D



20.

Which of the following are correct as an energy efficient measure on lighting installation?

(1) Replace “thin” fluorescent tube (T5 lamp) with “fat” tube (T8 lamp) (2) Replace incandescent lamp with compact fluorescent lamp (3) Replace conventional exit sign with LED exit sign (4) Use motion sensor as an on/off control A. (1) and (2) only B. (3) and (4) only C. (1), (2) and (3) only D. (2), (3) and (4) only Ans : D

21. Which of the following services provision is not required for Main Switch Room?

A. Mechanical ventilation

B. Lighting

C. Gas flooding protection

D. Equipotential bonding

Ans. : C

Lifts & Escalators 22. A lift machine room shall be designed

A. to be accessible from common area.

B. with access complying with the minimum standard prescribed under Code of Practices for Means of Escape.

C. with a minimum clear headroom of 2.3 m.

D. to be protected by fire sprinklers.

Ans. : A

23.

What is the minimum clear headroom of escalator measured at the edge of steps to ceiling above?

A. 2.0 m

B. 2.1 m

C. 2.3 m

D. 2.5 m

Ans. : C



24.

Which of the following parameters does not affect the lift waiting time?

A. Rated load B. Number of stops C. Door closing time D. Handling capacity Ans. : A Acoustics 25.

The most effective design solution to mitigate traffic noise impact to a low rise residential development adjacent to a major highway is to provide

A. a row of tall trees at the site boundary as noise barrier.

B. a commercial podium as noise barrier with the residential development set back from the podium edge.

C. balcony as noise barrier

D. window sill as noise barrier

Ans. : B

26.

Which of the following is not conducive to enhancing the sound insulation property of a window?

A. Increasing the U-value of the window assembly.

B. Increasing the air gap width of double-glazed window.

C. Increasing the glass thickness of single-glazed window.

D. Using unequal glass thicknesses for the two glass panes of double-glazed window.

Ans. : A

27.

Which of the following is not considered as an effective way of reducing noise nuisance from construction activities?

A. Use of hydraulic crushers B. Adoption of percussive piling C. Disposal of rubble through plastic chutes D. Erection of acoustic barriers around the construction site Ans : B



Miscellaneous 28.

Which of the following represents the inverted cone of order of desirability as summarized by the Environmental Protection Department for managing construction and demolition wastes in Hong Kong?

A. Avoid – Minimise – Recycle – Treat – Dispose

B. Redesign – Reuse – Recycle – Retreat – Landfill

C. Reduce – Reuse – Recycle – Refill – Redesign

D. Reduce – Reuse – Rehabilitate – Recycle – Landfill

Ans. : A

29.

Given the same thickness of typical wall or roof construction, which of the following has the lowest value of transmission co-efficient (i.e. U value)?

A. concrete with cement sand plaster

B. brick with cement sand plaster

C. timber panel

D. metal panel with fibre glass

Ans. : D

30.

The main objective of producing combined building services drawing is to

A. provide a useful tool for maintenance in the related inside services B. identify the problematic areas for services and structural co-ordination C. help finalise the schematic designs of all related building services trades D. show all related services elements on one drawing for ease of

inspection Ans. : B

Sample Questions for Paper 5 Building Materials and Technology

Sample questions 2012 – Paper 5 Building Materials & Technology

1.

Which of the following paints are most suitable to be applied on galvanized steel?

A. Aluminum paint as finishing coat and aluminum primer. B. Lacquer as finishing coat on red lead primer. C. Emulsion paint as finishing coat and prime lime as primer. D. Synthetic paint as finishing coat and calcium plumbate as primer. Ans. : D 2.

To apply for consent from the Building Authority, the quality assurance scheme for Precast Concrete Construction should include

A. test for chlorides in water. B. frequency of audit by qualified quantity surveyor. C. efficiency and proper operation of equipment at the casting yard. D. calibration of laboratory equipment for measurement of

quantities. Ans. : C 3.

What is the most appropriate timing for applying spatterdash to a concrete wall after striking of formwork?

A. 2 days later B. 3 days later C. 5 days later D. 7 days later Ans. : A



Answer questions 4 – 8 based on the following external wall section detail for a high-rise building.

4. What is the system for building enclosure as shown in the drawing? A. Window-wall system B. Stick curtain-wall system C. Unitized curtain-wall system D. Suspended glass-wall system Ans. : C



5. What does the annotation “a” represent? A. Durasteel panel B. Thermal insulation C. Waterproofing board D. Metal honeycomb panel Ans. : B 6.

Which surface of the insulated glass unit is most suitable and effective for application of the low-e coating?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Ans. : B 7.

In consideration of wind load and safety, what is the most appropriate glass type for the outer glass panel of the insulated glass unit annotated “b”?

A. Float glass B. Acrylic glass C. Laminated glass D. Heat strengthened glass Ans. : D 8. What is the minimum dimension annotated “H” for fire safety? A. 600mm B. 750mm C. 900mm D. 1100mm Ans. : C



9.

Which of the following is not an advantage of prefabrication in construction?

A. Quick assembling and installation on site. B. Large amount of cost saving compared with in situ construction. C. Suitable for mass production of standardized modules and

components. D. Better quality control can be achieved by means of factory

prefabrication. Ans. : B 10. Tolerance limits for construction are usually stated in the A. wall sections. B. specifications. C. bills of quantities. D. production drawings. Ans. : B 11. Which of the following is not an acceptable risk for demolition? A. Cutting up the concrete structural frame B. Piling up heavy loads of debris on unused floors C. Removal of building component containing asbestos D. Keeping the existing trees on the pavement with the hoarding Ans. : B 12. Which of the following is used to determine the consistency of fresh

concrete? A. Slump test B. Hammer test C. Crushing test D. Concrete test cubes Ans : A



13. Which of the following is not correct for tests on concrete core samples? A. The concrete cores should not show sign of segregation or

honeycomb. B. A minimum of one set of core samples should be taken every two

floors. C. A person independent from the contractor is required to supervise

the drilling of core sample. D. The diameter of concrete cores to be taken depends on the size of

concrete aggregates. Ans. : B 14. In the pattern or bond in brickwork, the best practical lap to the bricks A. is given by the Irish Bond. B. is required for rake-out joints. C. will cater for the tolerance of 20mm. D. should not be less than a quarter of a brick length. Ans. : D 15. Which of the following is commonly used as sealant for uPVC windows ? A. Silicone B. Acrylics C. Structural butyls D. Oil-based caulking Ans. : A 16. Which of the following provides a nearly undistorted vision? A. Float glass B. Sheet glass C. Wired glass D. Tempered glass Ans. : A



17. Which of the following is not a testing method commonly applied to a curtain wall system?

A. Air infiltration test B. Glass panel pull-out test C. Water infiltration test under dynamic pressure D. Safety test by means of cyclic test or static load test Ans. : B 18. As a defect of plasterwork, efflorescence is A. inevitable due to the nature of the plaster. B. caused by water absorption in the background. C. due to relative movement between different plaster coats. D. caused by water transmitting the soluble salts from the

background. Ans. : D 19. Which of the following does not require submission to the Buildings

Department for approval? A. Glass shop front at ground floor with design span of 8m. B. Window wall system with a structural opening of 2m x 1.2m. C. Window at a location where the design wind pressure is greater

than 2.86kPa. D. Stone cladding works at external walls of a ground floor with area

4m high x 6m long. Ans. : D



20. Which of the following is represented by the following isometric diagram?

A. Skylight B. Suspension glass details C. Environmental screen for windows D. Unitized glazing panels in curtain wall Ans. : B



Answer questions 21 to 23 by referring to the following typical roofing detail.

21. What does the annotation “a” represent? A. Rockwool B. Rigid insulation C. Metal honeycomb panel D. Marine grade plywood board Ans. : B 22. What does the annotation “b” represent? A. Drainage layer B. Light weight concrete fill C. Cement lime screed laid to fall D. Cement sand screed laid to fall Ans. : D



23. What is the appropriate minimum dimension annotated “c”? A. 50mm B. 150mm C. 300mm D. 400mm Ans. : B Answer questions 24 to 26 by referring to the following free-standing glass protective barrier section detail.

24. Under the Building (Construction) Regulations, a protective barrier will be required where there is a difference in adjacent levels of greater than

A. 450mm B. 600mm C. 900mm D. 1100mm Ans. : B



25. What is the suitable glass type for the glass panel annotated “a” for such protective barrier mentioned in Question 24?

A. Float glass B. Wired glass C. Tempered glass D. Low iron float glass Ans. : C 26. What is the minimum required height for the dimension annotated “b” for

such protective barrier mentioned in question 24? A. 900mm B. 1000mm C. 1100mm D. 1200mm Ans. : C 27. Arrange the following tasks in the most appropriate sequence for

top-down construction of a 3-level basement. (1) Pile test (2) Construction of ground beam (3) Superstructure construction and top-down basement construction

simultaneously (4) Construction of vertical structural members from pile cap to ground

slab level (5) Construction of piles (6) Pile cap construction A. (3), (5), (4), (6), (1), (2) B. (5), (6), (1), (4), (3), (2) C. (5), (1), (6), (4), (2), (3) D. (3), (5), (6), (1), (4), (2) Ans. : C



28. Which of the following is a requirement for transformer room? A. The doors must face into an unobstructed space. B. Location of transformer rooms must be at street level. C. Fire resisting period requirement of the room may be exempted. D. The doors of the room located above ground level when open

outwards over a street should be at a height of not less than 3.5m. Ans. : A 29. What aspects of works are better described by means of specifications

than drawings? (1) Dimensions and shape (2) Construction tolerances (3) Quality and acceptance criteria (4) Disposition and arrangement of components in a construction. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (4) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (3) and (4) only Ans : C 30. Which of the following is not suitable for wet-fixed tiles on external walls? A. Tiles with good water absorption B. Tiles of size 300mm x 600mm fixed by mechanical means C. Joints not allowed to be greater than 3mm to avoid water

penetration D. Spatterdash applied to substrate within 1 day after removal of

formwork Ans : C

HKIA/ARB Professional Assessment Sample Questions

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