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Instructions: 1. The duration of the test will be 60 minutes. Use the time

accordingly. 2. The test paper consists of 50 questions divided into four

sections, Section A, Section B, Section C & Section D. • Section A contains 15 questions of Physics. • Section B contains 15 questions of Chemistry. • Section C contains 15 questions of Biology. • Section D contains 5 questions of Aptitude.

3. Each question will have 4 choices, with the only single choice being correct.

4. You will get 2 marks for every correct answer. There will be no negative marking for any wrong answer or unanswered question.

Section A (Physics)

1. A car is moving in a circular track of radius r(cm). The displacement of

the car after the completion of 1.5 round is ________. A. 3π r B. π r2 C. 2π r D. 2r 2. A body of mass 1 Kg is thrown upwards with velocity 20 m/s. It

momentarily comes to rest after attaining a height of 18 m. How much energy is lost due to air friction?

A. 30 J B. 20 J C. 10 J D. 40 J 3. Electric bulb A (100W –250V) and electric bulb B (100 W –200V) are

connected across source of 250V as shown in figure below, what is the potential drop across electric bulb B?

A. 120V B. 98V C. 160V D. 100V

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4. The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid-carrying current A. is zero. B. decreases as we move towards its end. C. increases as we move towards its end.

D. is the same at all points. 5. The gravitational force between two objects is F. If masses of both

objects are halved without changing distance between them, then the gravitational force would become

A. F/4 B. F/2 C. F D. 2 F 6. When a car runs on a circular track with a uniform speed, its velocity

is said to be changing. This is because: A. the car has a uniform acceleration B. the directions of car varies continuously. C. the car travels unequal distances in equal time intervals D. the car travels equal distances in unequal time intervals 7. Ravi used a glass prism to obtain the spectrum of sunlight. He

attempted to split the spectrum into further components using a second prism but he failed to do so. He accidently placed the second prism identical to the first prism in an inverted position. He observed A. a beam of white light emerging out of the second prism. B. no light emerging out of the second prism. C. the spectrum of light that emerged out of the second prism was in

reverse order. D. the deviation of the component of emerging light was greater in

the second prism than in the first prism. 8. From the given v – t graph as shown in the figure, it can be inferred

that the object is

A. in uniform motion B. at rest C. in non-uniform motion D. moving with uniform acceleration

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9. The potential difference between the terminals of an electric heater is 60 V when it draws a current of 4 A from the source. What current will the heater draw if the potential difference is increased to 120 V?

A. 4 A B. 12 A C. 8 A D. 16 A 10. The main disadvantage of geothermal energy is, A. Power production has lower efficiency. B. Geothermal energy cannot be easily transported C. Geothermal energy is not available everywhere D. All of these. 11. An object 5 cm in length is placed at a distance of 20 cm in front of a

convex mirror of radius of curvature 30cm. The position of the image, its nature and size respectively is

A. + 12.20 cm, real and of 1.40 cm B. - 12.20 cm, virtual and of 1.40 cm C. - 8.50 cm, real and 2.10 cm D. + 8.50, virtual and 2.10 cm 12. Which of the following statements about the gravitational constant is

true, A. It has no unit B. It has same value in all systems of units C. It depends on the value of the masses D. It does not depend on the nature of the medium in which the bodies

are kept.

13. For two bodies, the sum of the mutual forces exerted between them is zero from Newton’s Third Law, F12 + F21 = 0. The sum of the total work done by the two forces;

A. may sometimes be zero B. will always be zero C. need not always be zero. D. None of the above. 14. A car of mass 1000 kg is moving with a velocity of 10 m s-1. If the

velocity-time graph for this car is a horizontal line parallel to the time axis, then the velocity of car at the end of 25 s will be:

A. 25 m/s B. 40 m/s C. 10 m/s D. 250 m/s 15. A 14-year-old boy is clearly able to see the object kept at a distance

lesser than 2 m. What is the power of the lens required to enable him to see the distant object clearly?

A. 0.5 D B. 1.5 D C. -1.5 D D. -0.5 D

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Section B (Chemistry)

16. Ozone in the stratosphere is depleted by A. CF2Cl2 B. C6Cl6 C. C6H6Cl6 D. C6F6 17. Calculate the moles of CO2 obtained when 0.274 mole of C2H5OH is

burnt in air. C2H5OH + 3 O2 → 2 CO2 + 3 H2O A. 0.548 B. 0.243 C. 0.200 D. 0.500 18. Two atoms are said to be isobars if.

A. They have same atomic number but different mass number. B. They have same number of electrons but different number of

neutrons. C. They have same number of neutrons but different number of

electrons. D. Sum of the number of protons and neutrons is same but the

number of protons is different. 19. Which of the following is correct about the property observed about

triad explained by German Scientist Johann Dobereiner? A. Atomic Weight of middle element is the difference of the other

two elements. B. Atomic Weight of middle element is about the halfway of the other

two elements. C. Atomic Weight of all the elements are same. D. tomic Weight of Middle element is multiplication of other two

elements. 20. Which of the following statements about a compound is incorrect?

A. A molecule of a compound has atoms of different elements. B. A compound cannot be separated into its constituents elements

by physical methods of separation. C. A compound retains the physical properties of its constituents

elements. D. The ratio of atoms of different elements in a compound is fixed.

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21. Syn-propanethial-S-oxide comes into contact with our eyes, where it becomes ______ and irriates our eyes.

A. Lysergenic acid B. Stomach C. Hydrochloric acid D. Sulphuric acid 22. When do you add a few drops of acetic acid to a test-tube containing

sodium bicarbonate powder, which one of the following is your observation ? A. No reaction takes place B. A colourless gas with pungent smell is released with brisk

effervescence C. A brown coloured gas is released with brisk effervescence D. Formation of bubbles of a colourless and odourless gas

23. Acid rain Occurs due to atmospheric pollution of- A. SO2 B. NH3 C. CO2 D. N2O 24. Mole ratio of Fe in FeO, Fe2O3 and Fe3O4 samples of equal masses is A. 1 : 2 : 3 B. 0.9 : 1 : 0.93 C. 1 : 0.9 : 0.93 D. 3 : 2 : 1 25. Find the incorrect statement-

A. The most common gas belongs to oxides of sulphur is SO2 which is poisonous to both to plants and animals.

B. Low concentration of Sulphur causes respiratory problems like asthma, bronchitis, emphysema in human beings.

C. The lowest region of atmosphere in which the human beings along with other organisms live is called troposphere.

D. PAN is an example of primary pollutant. 26. Liquids have A. Indefinite volume and indefinite shape B. Definite volume and definite shape C. Definite volume but do not have definite shape. D. No volume and indefinite shape 27. A cyclic hydrocarbon having carbon-carbon single bonds as well as

carbon-carbon double bonds in its molecule is: A. C6H12 B. C6H14 C. C6H6 D. C6H10 28. Identify the compound that follows the octet rule from the following

options: A. H2 B. LiCl C. CCl4 D. BeH2

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29. If 0.2 g of an organic compound on complete combustion produces

0.18 g of water then % of hydrogen in it is A. 5 B. 10 C. 1 D. 20 30. Photochemical smog is also known as A. Reducing smog B. Oxidizing smog C. Classical smog D. None of these

Section C (Biology)

31. Cloning is a mode of A. sexual reproduction B. asexual reproduction C. both I and II D. none of these 32. The diagram shows a section through the female reproductive system.

During pregnancy, where does mitosis occur in the cells of the

embryo?

A. (a) B. (b) C. (c) D. (d) 33. Observe the figure given below. In the figure, some parts are labelled

as P,Q,R,S and T. Given below are functions associated with these parts.

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Which part of the brain is matched with correct function? A. P and S only B. P, Q and T C. R and T only D. P, R and T 34. The two versions of a trait (character) which are brought in by the

male and female gametes are situated on: A. copies of the same chromosome B. two different chromosomes C. sex chromosomes D. any chromosome 35. Mendel proposed that every character is controlled by- A. one factor B. two factors C. one chromosome D. two chromosomes 36. A basket of vegetables contains carrot, potato, radish, and tomato.

Which of them represent the correct homologous structure? A. carrot and potato B. carrot and tomato C. radish and carrot D. radish and potato 37. The junctions of the two neurons is called. A. Synapse B. Synapsis C. Joint D. Junction 38. Oral contraceptive pills help in birth control by? A. Killing sperms B. Killing ova C. Prevention of ovulation D. Forms barrier between sperm and ova 39. Human Body temperature is maintained by A. Hypothalamus B. Medulla Oblongata C. Pituitary Gland D. Cerebral Cortex 40. Which one of the endocrine glands is known as master gland? A. Pituitary B. Adrenal C. Thyroid D. Parathyroid 41. A doctor advised a person to take an injection of insulin because A. His blood pressure was low B. His sugar level in blood was low C. He was suffering from goitre D. His sugar level in blood was high

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42. According to the evolutionary theory, formation of a new species

occurs generally due to- A. Sudden creation by nature. B. accumulation of variations over several generations C. clones formed during asexual reproduction D. Movement of individuals from one habitat to another. 43. Amoeba shows which of the following kind of nutrition - A. Autotrophic B. Holozoic C. Saprotrophic D. Chemoautotrophic 44. A trait in an organism is influenced by: A. paternal DNA only B. maternal DNA only C. both maternal and paternal DNA D. neither by paternal nor by maternal DNA 45. Which of the following movements originated in Village Reni, Garhwal

in early 1970s? A. Narmada Bachao Andolan B. Beti Bachao Andolan C. Chipko Andolan D. Tehri Dam Andolan

Section D (Aptitude)

46. Shekhar started from his construction site on inspection duty. After travelling straight for a distance of 2 km, he turned right for the market and travelled straight for 300 m. He now turned right again and travelled straight for another 100 m, and turned right and travelled straight for 300 m. How far is Shekhar from the construction site? A. 1.3km B. 1.7km C. 2km D. None of these

47. In the following figure small square represents the people who know

English, triangle represents those who know Marathi, big square who know Telugu and circle who know Hindi. In the different regions of the figures, number of people from 1 to 12 are given:

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How many people can speak English, Hindi and Telugu? A. 2 B. 5 C. 8 D. 15 48. In a certain code, ‘786’ means ‘study very hard’, ‘958’ means ‘hard

work pays’ and ‘645’ means ‘study and work’. Which of the following is the code for ‘very’?

A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8 49. Two positions of a dice are shown below. When number '1' is on the

top. What number will be at the bottom?

A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 50. 7 26 63 124 215 ? A. 321 B. 342 C. 356 D. 339

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