General Science & General Awareness Questions Asked in ...

General Science & General Awareness Questions Asked in

Previous Year Railway Exams

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Index

S.No Content No. of Questions Page.No

1 Physics 450 02

2 Chemistry 450 60

3 Biology 400 116

4 Geography 400 164

5 Polity 250 214

6 History 350 246

7 Environmental 100 289

8 Computer 100 301

9 Static GK 300 313

Total No.of Questions 2800

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Physics

1. The SI unit of Resistance

A. Coulomb

B. Newton

C. Ohm

D. Joule

ANS: C. ohm

2. 1 kWh=?

A. 3.6x10 -5 J

B. 3.6x10 5 J

C. 3.6x10 -6 J

D. 3.6x106 J

ANS: D. 3.6X106 J

3. Two particles with charge q1 and q2 are kept at a

certain distance to exert force F on each other. If the

distance is reduced to one one-fifth, then the force

between them is:

A. F/5

B. F/25

C. 5F

D. 25F

ANS: D. 25F

Solution

Let the force be F=kq1q2/ r2 ....(1)

So distance is reduced to r/5

F1=kq1q2/(r/5)2

F1=25 kq1q2/ r2

F1=25F (by using equation 1).

4. Negative acceleration is in the opposite direction of

A. Velocity

B. Force

C. Momentum

D. Distance

ANS: A. velocity

5. The reflector of a search light is a

A. Cylindrical mirror

B. Convex mirror

C. Concave mirror

D. Plane mirror

ANS: C. Concave mirror

6. When a number of resistor are connected in series

in a circuit, the value of current

A. Decreases

B. Remains the same

C. Increases

D. Becomes half

ANS: B. Remains the same

7. A convex mirror of focal length f (in air) is

immersed in liquid (u=4/3). The focal length of

mirror in liquid will be

A. (7/3) f







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B. f

C. (4/3)f

D. (3/4)f

ANS: B. f

8. Momentum is measured as the product of

A. Mass and velocity

B. Mass and force

C. Mass and inertia

D. Mass and acceleration

ANS: A. Mass and velocity

9. A 4.0 kg object is moving horizontally with a speed

of 5.0m/s. To increase its speed10m/s, the amount of

net work required to be done on this object is

A. 75J

B. 150J

C. 50J

D. 100J

ANS: B. 150 J

Solution

m=4 kg

Initial velocity (u) =5 m/s

Final velocity (v) =10 m/s

w = (1/2) × m × (v2-u2)

w=1/2 x 4x (102-52)

w=2 x (100-25)

w=2 × 75

w=150 J

10. The focal length of a concave mirror with a radius

of curvature of 20.0cm is

A. 5cm

B. 15cm

C. 10cm.

D. 20cm

ANS: C. 10cm

Solution:

Radius of curvature = 2 x focal length.

So, focal length = (½)× radius of curvature = (½)×20 cm

= 10 cm

11. An object with a mass of 22kg moving with a

velocity of 5m/s possesses a kinetic energy of

A. 275 J

B. 2750 J

C. 1100 J

D. 110 J

ANS: A.275 J

Solution:

K.E= (1/2) x mv2 = (1/2) x 22 x 52 =275 J

12. If you look into a mirror and find that the image

(your reflection) is smaller than you, then the type of

mirror

A. Concave mirror

B. Convex mirror

C. Plano-concave mirror

D. Plane mirror

ANS: B. convex mirror







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13. The resistance of a conductor is inversely

proportional to its

A. Area of cross section

B. Length

C. Temperature

D. Resistivity

ANS: A. Area of cross section (R ∝ 1/A)

14. A body of mass 2kg is thrown upward with initial

velocity of 20m/s after 2s its kinetic energy will be

A. 200J

B. 400 J

C. 0J

D. 100J

ANS: C. 0J

Solution:

V=u-gt

In 2s, v=20−10×2=0

As, K.E= (1/2) mv2 =0

15. A body of 4kg lying at rest under the action of

your constant force it gains a speed of 5m/s the work

done by the force will be

A. 30J

B. 50J

C. 40J

D. 20J

ANS: B. 50J

Solution:

W = K.E.

W = 1/2 mv2

W = 1/2 × 4 × 52

W = 2 × 25

W = 50 J

16. Which are the following never occurs singly in

nature

A. Inertia

B. Force

C. Velocity

D. Momentum

ANS. B. Force

17. What will be the kinetic energy (Ek) of a moving

body mass m. If its speed doubled from v to 2v

A. 1/2 EK

B. 4EK

C. E K

D. 2EK

ANS: B. 4EK

18. A current I flows through a resistor. A source

maintains a potential difference of V across the

resistor. The energy supplied by the source of time t

is

A. VI/t

B. VI

C. VIt2

D. VIt

ANS: D. VIt







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19. A raised hammer possesses

A. Kinetic energy

B. Mechanic energy

C. Potential energy

D. Muscular energy

ANS: C. potential energy

20. A boiling point of an alcohol is 780c what is the

temperature in Kelvin scale

A. 78k

B. 341k

C. 373k

D. 351k

ANS: D. 351k

21. If the Resistance of a conductor is doubled, the

current gets halved. This is because

A. I=R/V

B. I=V-R

C. I=VR

D. I=V/R

ANS: D. I=V/R

22. The value of universal gravitation constant (G)

was determined by

A. Antoine Lavoisier

B. Henry Cavendish

C. Issac newton

D. Jhon dalton

ANS: B. Henry Cavendish

23. If a body takes t seconds to go once round the

circular path of radius r the velocity v is given by

A. 2 πr/t

B. t/2π r

C. 2π/ r t

D. 2π t/r

ANS: A. 2π r/ t

24. Find the position of the image formed by a

concave mirror when the object is placed between

Pole and Focus

A. Between F and C

B. Beyond C

C. At infinity

D. Behind the mirror

ANS: D. Behind the mirror

25. A person holding a pen in his left hand sees his

reflection in the mirror holding the pen in his right

hand. This is due to which of the following

phenomena?

A. Total internal reflection

B. Refraction

C. Lateral inversion

D. Reflection

ANS: C. Lateral inversion

26. The kinetic energy of a ball weighting 0.5kg

moving with a velocity of 4m/s will be

A. 12J

B. 8J







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C. 4J

D. 16J

ANS: C. 4J

Solution:

Mass = 0.5 kg

velocity = 4 m/s

kinetic energy is given as:

KE= (1/2) x mv2 =1/2 x 0.5 x16 =4J

27. According to ohm’s law, If current increases and

potential difference (v) remains constant, then

A. Resistance increases

B. Potential different decreases

C. Resistance unchanged

D. Resistance decrease

ANS: D. Resistance decreases

28. Which is the form of energy that does not occur

while riding a bicycle?

A. Kinetic energy

B. Heat energy

C. Mechanical energy

D. Chemical energy

ANS: D. Chemical energy

29. When a ray of light travels from a denser medium

to a rarer medium, it bends:

A. Away from normal and speeds up

B. Towards the normal and speeds up

C. Away from the normal and slows down

D. Towards the normal and slows down

ANS: A. Away from normal and speeds up

30. The tendency of undisturbed objects to stay at

rest of to keep moving with same velocity is called

A. Momentum

B. Force

C. Energy

D. Inertia

ANS.D. Inertia

31. When a compressed slinky is released it converts

potential energy into

A. Mechanical energy

B. Heat energy

C. Kinetic energy

D. Chemical energy

ANS: C. kinetic

energy

32. Sounds travels at a speed of 333m/s in the air,

thus in one sec a distance of 333m is travelled by

A. Particles

B. Receiver

C. Source

D. Disturbance

ANS: D. Disturbance

33. Velocity of the light in vacuum

A. 3x108m/s

B. 3x106 m/s







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C. 3x105m/s

D. 3x104 m/s

ANS: A. 3x108 m/s

34. First equation of motion gives the relation

between

A. Velocity and acceleration

B. Position and time

C. Velocity and time

D. Position and velocity

ANS: C. velocity and time

35. Mechanic energy is combination of kinetic energy

and

A. Potential energy

B. Nuclear energy

C. Chemical energy

D. Heat energy

ANS: A. Potential energy

36. Which of the following scientists gave the law that

governs the force of attraction /repulsion between two

charged particles?

A. Michael Faraday

B. Charles coulomb

C. Archimedes

D. Charles Dufay

ANS: B. Charles coulomb

37. The pitch of a sound depends on it

A. Amplitude

B. Timbure

C. Wavelength

D. Frequency

ANS: D. Frequency

38. The centre of the reflecting surface of a spherical

mirror is called the

A. Focus

B. Pole

C. Radius

D. Centre of curvature

ANS: B. pole

39. Name the type of mirror in headlight of vehicle

A. Concave mirror

B. Convex mirror

C. Plane mirror

D. Plano-convex mirror

ANS: A. concave mirror

40. Which of the following is a Non-Luminous body?

A. Glowing bulb

B. Moon

C. Firefly

D. Burning candle

ANS: B. moon

41. The second equation of motion gives the relation

between

A. Position and velocity

B. Position and time

C. Velocity and acceleration

D. Velocity and time







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ANS: B. Position and time

42. The SI unit of electric charge is

A. coulomb

B. Ampere

C. Volt

D. Ohm

ANS: A. coulomb

43. A ball of 0.1 kg is dropped from rest. When it falls

through a distance of 2 m , the work done by the force

of gravity is

A. 0.98 J

B. -0.98J

C. -1.96J

D. 1.96J

ANS: D. 1.96J

Solution

Work done by the gravity=mgh

=0.1 x 9.8 x 2

=1.96 J

44. The distance from Earth to the sun is measured in

A. Light years

B. Astronomical unit

C. Kelvin

D. Joule

ANS. B. Astronomical unit

45. What is mass per unit volume?

A. Force

B. Work

C. Density

D. Pressure

ANS. C. Density

46. Which type of waves is used to penetrate hard

objects at hospitals and Airports?

A. Sound waves

B. X-Ray

C. Electromagnetic

D. Mechanic

ANS.B.X-Ray

47. Freely suspended magnet always stays in the

direction?

A. East North

B. North South

C. East North

D. West South

Ans. B. North South

48. Study the following statements and choose right

option.

(i) To know this, a star is comes to us or goes too far

away.

(ii) To know about the drawbacks of internal parts of

storerooms of oil and minerals

A. (i) and (ii) are applications of resonance principle.

B. (i) is from Doppler effect and (ii) is from

Reverberation principle

C. (i) is reverberation principle and (ii) is Doppler effect.

D. (i) and (ii) both are Doppler effect







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ANS:B.(i) is from Doppler effect and (ii) is from

Reverberation principle .

49. The theory behind stars twinkling is that

A. The refractive index of the different layers of earth’s

atmosphere changes continuously consequently the

position of the star’s image changes with time.

B. The intensity of light emitted by them changes with

time

C. The light from the star is scattered by the dust

particles and air molecules in the earth’s atmosphere

D. The distance of the stars from the earth changes with

time

ANSWER: A. The refractive index of the different layers

of earth’s atmosphere changes continuously

consequently the position of the star’s image changes

with time.

50. While watching 3D movies at the theatre, we have

to wear special glasses because

A. The glasses allow our left and right eyes to see

different images

B. 3-D movies special colors which cannot be sensed by

the human eye

C. 3-D movies are brighter than ordinary movies and

can hurt our eyes if seen directly.

D. The glasses allow both the eyes to see similar images

ANS.A. The glasses allow our left and right eyes to see

different images

51. Spacecraft needs a speed of over ____to escape

Earth’s gravity.

A. 40,000 km/hr.

B. 40,270 km/hr.

C. 42,326 km/hr.

D. 41,721 km/hr.

ANS. B.40,270 km/hr

52. If two plane mirrors are kept at an angle of 120o

to each other, then how many images will be formed?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 2

D. 6

ANS.C.2

53. What will be the effect of a moving lift on a

person’s mass?

A. It will increase

B. It will decrease

C. It will remain constant

D. It may increase or decrease

ANS.C. It will remain constant

54. Which of the following is not an electrical

conductor?

A. Porcelain

B. Aluminium

C. Tungsten

D. Nickel

ANS.A. Porcelain







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55. Infra-red rays are

A. Longitudinal waves

B. Transverse waves

C. Mechanical waves

D. Electromagnetic waves

ANS: D. Electromagnetic waves

56. What is an Electron?

A. A subatomic particle with a net Charge, that is

neutral.

B. A subatomic particle with a net charge that is positive.

C. A subatomic particle with a net charge that is

negative.

D. A subatomic particle with a net charge that is zero.

ANS: C. A subatomic particle with a net charge that is

negative

57. If resistance of a circuit is doubled then to

maintain the same voltage, flow of current in the

circuit will

A. Increase by Half

B. Decrease by Half

C. Remain constant

D. Becomes zero

ANS: B. Decrease by Half

58. Which of the following is true?

A. Image formed at retina is inverted

B. Image formed at retina is twice of original image

C. Image formed at retina is similar or Original Image

D. Image formed at retina is small

ANS.A. Image formed at retina is inverted

59. Out of the following, which one does NOT have

magnetic properties like a permanent magnet?

A. Nickel

B. Iron

C. Aluminium

D. Lodestone

ANS. D. Lodestone

60. The sub-atomic particles which show property

opposite to the general subatomic particles, are called

A. Positrons

B. Antimatter

C. Photons

D. Neutrinos

ANS. B. Antimatter

61. What does the kinetic energy of an object

increases with

A. Speed

B. Mass

C. Friction

D. Time

ANS: A. Speed

62. If the power of corrective lens is +2.0 D then it is a

A. Convex lens

B. Concave lens

C. Concave mirror

D. Convex mirror







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ANS: A. Convex Lens

63. A curved mirror where is the reflected surface is

curved inwards is called

A. Plane mirror

B. Concave mirror

C. Convex mirror

D. Plano-convex mirror

ANS: B. Concave mirror

64. Which of the following physicist explained the

existence of buoyant force ?

A. Issac Newton

B. Archemedes

C. Blasie pascal

D. coulumb

ANS: B. Archemedes

65. Which of the following is a conductor of electric

charge?

A. Glass

B. Paper

C. Copper

D. Water

ANS. C. Copper

66. The bats can fly in the darkness of night without

colliding with the other objects by emitting special

sounds while flying. Which characteristic of sound is

used by the bats to navigate?

A. Ultrasound

B. Audible sound

C. Infrasound

D. None of these

Answer: A. Ultrasound

67. Which process divides the light of sun into its

component colours?

A. Dispersion

B. Reflection

C. Retraction

D. Radiation

ANS. A. Dispersion

68. Pressure is measured in terms of-

A. Mass and density

B. Work done

C. Force and area

D. Force and distance

ANS.C. Force and area

69. If frequency of wave increases, its wavelength

A. Increases

B. Decreases

C. Remains constant

D. Becomes infinite

ANS. B. Decreases

70. The value of g on the moon is 1/6th of the value of

the g on earth .If a man x an jump 1.5m high on

earth, on the moon he can jump up the height of

A. 6m

B. 7m

C. 9m







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D. 15m

ANS: C. 9m

71. The instrument used to regulate temperature to a

particular degree is called

A. Thermostat

B. Thermometer

C. Pyrometer

D. Thermocouple

ANS. A. Thermostat

72. The pressure of cabin of a flying Aeroplane at

height is-

A. Equal to outside

B. Lower than outside

C. More than outside

D. Normal atmospheric pressure at sea level

ANS.C. More than outside

73. Which of the following is true about Glucometer?

A. It is medical instrument

B. It is non-medical instrument

C. It is used to measure the oxygen level in air

D. It is used to measure the nitrogen level in air.

ANS. A. It is medical instrument

74. A spoon which seems tilted in water, is an

example of

A. Reflection

B. Refraction

C. Retention

D. focus

ANS: B. Refraction

75. Which of the following branches of Physics

related with the study of heat

A. Optics

B. Acoustics

C. Thermodynamics

D. Relativity

ANS: C. Thermodynamics

76. Centigrade, which is unit of temperature is

denoted on the name of:

A. Kelvin

B. Jean-Pierre Christin

C. Marten Stromer

D. Anders Celsius

ANS: D. Anders Celsiuls

77. What happens to the potential and kinetic

energies of a body as its fall from height

A. Both decreses

B. Both increases

C. There is no change

D. P.E decreases K.E increases

ANS: D. P.E decreases K.E increases

78. Which of the following physical quantity is

measured in ‘Siemens’?

A. Electric Resistance

B. Electric Conductance

C. Magnetic Flux

D. Refractive Index







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Answer: B) Electric Conductance

79. Which of the following is not a vector quantity?

A. Motion/impulse

B. Gravitation of force

C. Electric flow

D. Displacement

Ans. C. Electric flow

80. The principle of changing magnetic field which

produces an electric current in a wire is used

A. Electric bell

B. Electric generator

C. Electromagnets

D. Magnetic compass

Ans. B. Electric generator

81. What is the unit of length used informally to

express astronomical distances?

A. Petameter

B. Parsecs

C. Light Years

D. Hubble Length

Ans. C. Light years

82. Sound waves are ______ waves

A. Pressure

B. Longitudinal

C. Electromagnetic

D. Mechanical

Ans. B. Longitudinal

83. Which of the following colour has the least

wavelength?

A. Green

B. Blue

C. Red

D. Violet

Ans. (B) Violet

84. When the human body temperature rises by about

5.4 to 8 o F above the normal body temperature, the

condition is known as

A. Viral

B. Hypothermia

C. Pyretic

D. Hyperpyrexia

Ans. D. Hyperpyrexia

85. Evaporation of a liquid to absorb heat is the

principle used by

A. Microwave oven

B. Refrigerator

C. Geyser

D. Electric Kettle

Ans. B. Refrigerator

86. A moving body definitely possesses-

A. Kinetic energy

B. Potential energy

C. Mechanical energy

D. Heat energy

Ans. A. Kinetic energy







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87. ‘Gallon’ is commonly used_______.

A. To refer to speed.

B. To refer to a container.

C. As a measure of volume

D. To express containers in terms of barrel.

Ans. C. As a measure of volume

88. How many millimeters make ten Kilometers?

A. 1010

B. 109

C. 108

D. 107

Ans. D.107

89. When a person can see only nearby objects, the

condition is called______.

A. Hypermetropia

B. Astigmatism

C. Myopia

D. Retinopathy

Ans. C. Myopia

90. By the material, light can transmit without any

loss, known as

A. Translucent

B. Opaque

C. Transparent

D. Vitreous

Ans. C. Transparent

91. What is the SI unit of force?

A. Kelvin

B. Newton

C. Pascal

D. Volt

Ans. B. Newton

92. Water droplets cause rainbow due to

A. Reflection of sunlight

B. Refraction of sunlight

C. Reflection & refraction of sunlight

D. Diffusion of sunlight

Ans. C. Reflection & refraction of sunlight

93. The instrument used to measure the rotation

speed of a shaft is called _____

A. Speedometer

B. Tachometer

C. Anemometer

D. Chronometer

Ans. B. Tachometer

94. Blotting paper absorbs ink due to

A. Coarse nature of paper

B. Osmosis

C. Capillary action

D. Siphoning.

Ans. C. Capillary action

95. Least distance of distinct vision for normal eye

is_______.

A. 15 cm

B. 20 cm

C. 25 cm







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D. 30 cm

Ans. C.25cm

96. Which of the following instruments is used to

measure electric current?

A. Rheostat

B. Ammeter

C. Galvanometer

D. Voltmeter

ANS: B. Ammeter

97. The weight of a boy on the surface of the moon is

300N. The weight of the same boy on the surface of

the earth will be

A. 1800N

B. 5N

C. 300N

D. 50N

ANS: A.1800N

Solution

Weight of the object on the moon = (1/6) × its weight on

the earth

Weight of Boy = 300×6=1800N

98. A sound wave has a frequency of 4 kHz and a

wavelength of 40 cm. The time taken by the Sound

wave to travel a distance of 3.2km is

A. 2s

B. b. 0.5s

C. c. 4s

D. d. 1s

ANS: A. 2s

99. When a bullet is fired from a gun, the gun moves

in the opposite direction. This illustrates newton’s

A. First and second law

B. Third law

C. Second law

D. First law

ANS: B. Third law

100. Sound cannot travel through

A. Liquid

B. Air

C. Vacuum

D. solid

ANS: C. Vacuum

101. The unit of power used in industry is

A. Kilowatts

B. Joule

C. Watts

D. Horsepower

ANS: D. Horsepower

102. Which of the following devices helps to maintain

a potential difference across a conductor?

A. Voltmeter

B. A cell or battery

C. Ammeter

D. Galvanometer

ANS: B. A cell or battery

103. The capacity to do work is called







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A. Power

B. Force

C. Pressure

D. Energy

ANS: D. Energy

104. In force equation F is equal to

A. ma

B. mgh

C. mv

D. u+at

ANS: A.ma

105. An odometer is an instrument used to measure

A. Speed

B. Odour

C. Direction

D. Distance

ANS: D. Distance

106. If the kinetic energy of a body becomes 256 times

its initial value, then the new linear momentum will

be

A. Same as initial

B. 8times the initial value

C. 16times the initial value

D. 32times the initial value

ANS: C. 16times the initial value

107. Which scientist had done some calculation for

the fifth state of matter?

A. C.V.Raman

B. Homi baba

C. Vikram sarabai

D. Satheyendra nath bose

ANS: D. Sathyendra nath bose

108. The energy possess by an object by its position or

configuration is called

A. Potential energy

B. Kinetic energy

C. Nuclear energy

D. Electrical energy

ANS: A. Potential energy

109: The speed of sound in air at 0oc is

A. 331m/s

B. 331ms

C. 330ms

D. 330m/s

ANS: A.331m/s

110. Which of the following process will take place

the slowest for the same quantity of liquid?

A. Evaporation

B. Freezing

C. Boiling

D. Condensation

ANS: A. Evaporation

111. In a hydrogen atom, an electron moves in an

orbit of radius 5.0x10-11m with a speed of 2.2x106 m/s

what is the equalent current

A. 1.12mA







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B. 0.112mA

C. 112mA

D. 11.2mA

ANS: A. 1.12mA

112. Which of the following changes when a body

perform uniform circular motion?

A. Direction

B. Speed

C. Momentum

D. Mass

ANS: A. direction

113. Which of the following device converts chemical

energy into electrical energy

A. Electric cell

B. Electric heater

C. Hair dryer

D. Electric fan

ANS: A. Electric cell

114. The unit of momentum is

A. kgms

B. kgm/s

C. kgm/s2

D. kg/ms

ANS: B. kgm/s

115. Rate of work done

A. Force

B. Power

C. Momentum

D. Energy

ANS: B. power

116.18volts=______x3ohms

A. 6 joules

B. 6 amperes

C. 6 watts

D. 6 milli amperes

ANS: B. 6 amperes

117. Which of the following can be neither be created

nor be destroyed

A. Momentum

B. Energy

C. Power

D. Velocity

ANS: B. Energy

118. The characteristic of ____is used in the breaking

pads of cars

A. Positive effect of friction

B. Zero effect of friction

C. Weight impulse force tension action

D. Negative effect of friction

ANS: A. Positive effect of friction

119. If the distance travelled by an object is zero then

the displacement

A. Is positive

B. Zero

C. Negative

D. May or may not be zero







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ANS: Zero

120. A stone is released from the top of a tower of

height 19.6 m. Then its final velocity just before

touching the ground will be

A. 384.16 m/ s

B. 196 m/s

C. 19.6 m/s

D. 3841.4 m/s

(Take g = 9.8 m/s2)

Answer: C. 19.6 m/s

Solution

Initial Velocity u=0

Final velocity v=?

Height, s=19.6m

By third equation of motion

v2=u2+2gs

v2=0+2×9.8×19.6

v2=384.16

⇒v=19.6m/s

121. What will be the resistance of a wire across

which, when 2v potential difference is applied 1A

Current flows through the wire

A. 2 ohms

B. 0.02 ohms

C. 20 ohms

D. 0.5 ohms

ANS: A. 2 ohms

Solution

Potential Difference=2v

Current = 1 A

V=IR

2=1 X R

Resistance=2 Ohms

122. If an object is placed at the centre of curvature

of a concave mirror then the image formed will be

A. Virtual and diminished

B. Real and of the same size

C. Real and enlarged

D. Virtual and enlarged

ANS: B. Real and the same size

123. Which of the following glows with special color

depending on the nature of gas in the fluorescent?

A. Helium

B. hydrogen

C. Bose-Einstein condensate

D. plasma

ANS: D. Plasma

124. A sound of single frequency is called a

A. hertz

B. pitch

C. Note

D. Tone

ANS: D. Tone

125. What will be the force of attraction between two

bodies weighting 20kg and 50kg Respectively, with

a distance of 2 metre between them?







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A. 16.67x5-10

B. 6.67x10-11

C. 16.675x10-11

D. 166.75x10-10

ANS.D.166.75 X 10-10

Solution

m1 = 20kg

m2 = 50kg

r = 2 m

G = 6.67 × 10 -11

F= ?

By newton’s law of gravitation

F = Gm1m2/ r2

= (6.67 x 10-11 x 20 x 50)/22

= 166.75 × 10−10 N

126. What enables an electric currents to flow in a

circuit?

A. The motion of positrons

B. The motion of neutrons

C. The motion of protons

D. The motion of electrons

ANS: D. The motion of electrons

127. one watt=

A. 1erg/sec

B. 1joule/sec

C. 1m/s

D. 1pascal/sec

ANS: B. 1Joule/sec

128. The universal constant of gravitation is

A. 9.8Nm2/kg2

B. 6.76x10-10Nm2/kg2

C. 6.67x10-11Nm2/kg2

D. 6.67x1010Nm2/kg2

ANS: C. 6. 67x10-11Nm2/kg2

129. The absolute refractive index of air is:

A. 1.03

B. 1.00003

C. 1.003

D. 1.0003

ANS: D. 1.0003

130. The acceleration due to gravity at the surface of

earth (mass M and radius R) is proportional to

A. M/R

B. M/R2

C. M2/R

D. MR

ANS: B. M2/R

131. Assuming that the charge of an electron is

1.6x10-19 C the number of electrons passing through a

Section of wire per second when the wire carries a

current of 1A is

A. 0.626x1017

B. 1.6x1019

C. 6.25x1018

D. 1.6x10-19







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ANS: C. 6.25x1018

132. The rate of change of velocity is called

A. force

B. Momentum

C. Acceleration

D. speed

ANS: C. Acceleration

133. This is NOT a use of a concave mirror

A. In torches

B. As rear view mirrors

C. As shaving mirrors

D. In headlights

ANS: B. As rear view mirrors

134. The diameter of the reflecting surface of a

spherical mirror is called

A. Focus

B. Pole

C. Principle axis

D. Aperture

ANS: D. Aperture

135. If two coulmb of charge flows through any cross-

section of a conductor in one second. What will be

the current flowing through it?

A. 0.5 ampere

B. 1 ampere

C. 0.25ampere

D. 2ampere

ANS: 2ampere

136. A compressed spring possesses more energy than

a spring of normal length because the

A. Potential energy

B. Kinetic energy

C. Chemical energy

D. Heat energy

ANS. A. Potential energy

137. The quantum theory of light was given by

A. Einstein

B. Newton

C. Faraday

D. Plank

ANS: D. Plank

138. In which of the following examples will an

athelete have maximum accelerated motion?

A. Running on an octagonal track

B. Running on a rectangular track

C. Running on a hexagonal track

D. Running on a circular track.

ANS: D. Running on a circular track.

139. The repeated reflection that results in

persistence of sound is called:

A. Reflection

B. Rarefaction

C. Reverberation

D. Echo

ANS: C. Reverberation







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140. A force of 20N displaces an object through 2m

and does a work 20J. The angle between the force and

displacement is

A. 60o

B. 30o

C. 90o

D. 0o

ANS: A .60o

Solution

W= F.S =F S cosθ

Cosθ=20/ (20 x2)

Cosθ =1/2

θ=60o

141. Ice floats on water because its density is

A. More than water

B. Same as water

C. Less than water

D. Zero

ANS: C. Less than water

142. If a current of 1.5A is maintained in a resistor of

10ohm, then the energy dissipated in the resistor in 1

minute will be

A. 135W

B. 1350W

C. 15W

D. 22.5W

ANS: 1350W

Solution

R = 10 ohm

I = 1.5 A

t = 1 min = 60 s

H = I2Rt

H = 1.52 × 10 × 60

H = 2.25 × 600

H = 1350 W

143. Which of the following has low resistivity?

A. Glass

B. Diamond

C. Ebonite

D. Nichrome

ANS: D. Nichrome

144. The number of valence electrons in an atom of

phosphorus is

A. 1

B. 2

C. 4

D. 5

ANS: D. 5

145. Work done by a passenger standing on platform

holding a suitcase weighting 10kg is

A. 0j

B. 980j

C. 98j

D. 100j

ANS: A. 0J







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146. What is the upward force exerted by water

called?

A. Gravitation

B. Buoyant force

C. Friction

D. Density

ANS: B. Buoyant force

147. If the resistance of a conductor is reduced to half

its initial value then the heating effect in the

conductor will become

A. Half

B. Fourtimes

C. Double

D. Onefourth

ANS: A.half

148. Which of the following has the same unit as

energy?

A. Force

B. Power

C. Density

D. Work

ANS. D. Work

149. If V/I is a constant it is called

A. Current

B. Potential difference

C. Resistance

D. Coulmb

ANS.C. Resistance

150. A 5kg object is raised through a height of 4m

.The work done by the force of gravity acting on the

object is

A. -200j

B. -20j

C. 200j

D. 20j

ANS: A.-200J

Solution

Mass of the object = 5 kg

Acceleration due to gravity = 10 m/s2

Height (h) = 4 m

Work done by gravity = - mgh

Work done by gravity = - 5 × 10 × 4

Work done by gravity = - 200 Joules

151. What is the standard room temperature in

Kelvin?

A. 198k

B. 298k

C. 373k

D. 273k

ANS: B. 298k

152. Echoes maybe heard more than once due to

successive or multiple

A. Rarefactions

B. Diffractions

C. Refractions

D. Reflections







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ANS: D. Reflections

153. Which of the following has NO Unit?

A. Displacement

B. Relative density

C. Pressure

D. Density

ANS: B. Relative density

154. In hydroelectric power station ultimately which

energy is converted into electrical energy

A. Kinetic energy

B. Potential energy

C. Heat energy

D. Mechanical energy

ANS: A. kinetic energy

155. What is the radius of an atom used to measure?

A. Atomic number

B. Atomicity

C. Atomic mass

D. Atomic size

ANS: D. Atomic size

156. What happens to the ammeter reading when the

length of the wire is doubled?

A. Decrease to one half

B. Decreases to three fourth

C. Remains same

D. Increases two times

ANS: A. Decrease to one half

157. The Sensitivity of a Potentiometer can be

increased by which of the following methods?

A. Increasing the current in the main circuit

B. Decreasing the current in the main circuit

C. Increasing the length of the wire

D. Both b and c are correct

Ans: D. Both b and c are correct

158. Which of the following device converts low-

voltage alternating current into high-voltage

alternating current?

A. Transistor

B. Rectifier

C. Galvanometer

D. Transformer

Ans: D. Transformer

159. A Javelin or shot-put thrown by an athlete

moving along a curved path possesses which type of

motion?

A. Rectilinear Motion

B. Oscillatory Motion

C. Curvilinear Motion

D. Rotatory Motion

Ans : C. Curvilinear Motion

160. Which of the following illustration is an example

of Non-Uniform Motion?

A. The Movement of hands of watches

B. The Movement of Earth about its axis

C. Free-falling stone under the action of gravity







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D. The movement of Earth around the Sun

Answer: C. Free-falling stone under the action of gravity

161. On shaking or giving jerks to the branches of the

tree, the fruits fall down. This happens due to which

of the following phenomenon?

A. Inertia of Rest

B. Acceleration

C. Inertia of Motion

D. Displacement

Answer: A. Inertia of Rest

162. Which of the following statement is false with

respect to mass of a body?

A. Mass is the basic property of the matter

B. Mass of the body can never be zero

C. It can be measured with the help of beam-

balance

D. Mass is a vector quantity

Answer D. Mass is a vector quantity

163. The needle of the iron swims on the surface of the

water when it is kept gently. This happens because of

which of the following factor?

A. Buoyant Force

B. Due to Surface-Tension

C. Density of needle is less than that of water

D. Due to its shape

Answer: B. Due to Surface-Tension

164. What will happen to the object if the density of

the object is less than the density of the water?

A. Object will sink in water

B. Object will remain submerged completely

C. Object will float on the surface of water

D. None of these

Answer: C. Object will float on the surface of water

165. What will be the angle between the Gravitational

force (F) and the displacement (S) when a stone is

thrown upwards?

A. 90°

B. 45°

C. 120°

D. 180°

Answer: D. 1800

166. The Quality or tone of a musical sound produced

by the stringed instrument depends upon which of the

following factor?

A. Waveform

B. Fundamental Frequency

C. Length of the string

D. Amplitude of the vibration

Answer: A. Waveform

167. Person who is suffering from Colour-Blindness

cannot distinguish between which two colours?

A. Yellow and Blue

B. Red and Yellow

C. Black and white

D. Red and Green

Answer: D. Red and Green







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168. A Galvanometer can be converted into voltmeter

by connecting……………...?

A. Low Resistance in series

B. High Resistance in series

C. High Resistance in parallel

D. Low Resistance in parallel

Answer: B. High Resistance in series

169. Which of the following law validates the

statement that that “the current flowing through a

conductor between two points is directly proportional

to the voltage across the two points?

A. Coulomb’s law

B. Ohm’s law

C. Faraday’s law

D. Avogadro’s law

Answer: B. Ohm’s law

170. The Moment of Inertia does not depend upon

which of the following factor?

A. Axis of Rotation

B. Distribution of mass of the body

C. Shape and size of the body

D. Angular Velocity

Answer: D. Angular Velocity

171. What is the nature of the waves produced on the

surface of the water when a stone is thrown in the

calm water of a pond?

A. Longitudinal waves are produced

B. Transverse waves are produced

C. Mechanical waves are produced

D. Both a and b

Answer: d) Both a and b

172. Which of the following device is used for

measuring the wavelength of the X-rays?

A. Cyclotron

B. Manometer

C. Mass Spectrometer

D. Bragg Spectrometer

Answer: D. Bragg Spectrometer

173. Which of the following phenomenon is not

caused due to the Atmospheric Refraction of light?

A. Mirage on a highway

B. Twinkling of stars

C. Sun becoming visible two or three minutes before

actual sunrise

D. Sun appearing higher than it actually is

Answer: D. Sun appearing higher than it actually is

174. Convex Mirrors are used as rear-view mirrors in

cars and motor-vehicles due to which of the following

characteristic property?

A. It forms inverted image of the object

B. It forms real image of the object

C. It forms larger image of the object

D. It forms smaller image as compared with the object

Answer: D. It forms smaller image as compared with the

object







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175. Burns caused by steam are much more severe

than those caused by boiling water because of which

of the following reason?

A. Higher temperature of steam as compared to boiling

water

B. Steam being in gaseous form engulfs the body quickly

C. Latent heat of steam greater than boiling water

D. Steam pierces through the pores of the body quickly

Answer: C. Latent heat of steam greater than boiling

water

176. What will happen to the level of the water in a

beaker when a piece of ice floating on its surface

melts?

A. Level of the water remains the same

B. Level of the water increases

C. Level of the water decreases

D. First Increases then decreases gradually

Answer: A. Level of the water remains the same

177. When a body falls freely towards the earth, then

its total energy

A. Decreases

B. Increases

C. First increases and then decreases

D. Remains constant

Answer: D. Remains constant

178. Kirchhoff’s law is applicable to

A. Passive networks only

B. A.C. circuits only

C. D.C. circuits only

D. Both A.C. as well D.C. circuits

Answer: D. Both A.C. as well D.C. circuits

179. A Device which reverses the direction of the

current flowing through a circuit is ………...?

A. Resistor

B. Galvanometer

C. Commutator

D. Ammeter

Answer: C. Commutator

180. Two objects of different masses falling freely

near the surface of moon would:

A. Have different accelerations

B. Undergo a change in their inertia

C. Have same velocities at any instant

D. Experience forces of same magnitude

Answer: C. Have same velocities at any instant

181. Circuit breaker device which can be used in

place of fuse in domestic electric wiring is called

as……….?

A. CBD

B. MCB

C. MCD

D. DCB

Answer: B. MCB

182. Which of the following is used as a moderator in

the reactor of a nuclear power station?

A. Carbon dioxide







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B. Graphite

C. Boron

D. Liquid Sodium

Answer: B. Graphite

183. An electric bulb is connected to a 220V

generator. The current is 2 A. What is the power of

the bulb?

A. 440 W

B. 110 W

C. 55 W

D. 0.0023 W

Answer: B. 440 W

Solution

P=VI=220 x 2 =440 W

184. A pool of water appears to be less deep than it

actually is. This happens due to which of the

following phenomenon?

A. Interference

B. Diffraction

C. Reflection

D. Refraction

Answer: D. Refraction

185. What is the power of accommodation of the eye

for a person having normal vision?

A. 5 Dioptres

B. 6 Dioptres

C. 4 Dioptres

D. 2 Dioptres

Answer: C.4 Dioptres

186. Which of the following is a defect of vision in

which an old person cannot see the nearby objects

clearly due to loss of power of accommodation of the

eye?

A. Myopia

B. Cataract

C. Hypermetropia

D. Presbyopia

Answer: D. Presbyopia

187. Which of the following defect of vision cannot be

corrected by using any type of spectacle lenses?

A. Cataract

B. Presbyopia

C. Myopia

D. Hypermetropia

Answer: a) Cataract

188. Which colour of the white light suffers maximum

bending when it passes through a glass prism?

A. Red

B. Blue

C. Violet

D. Green

Answer: c) Violet

189. The loudness of the sound is measured in terms

of………….?

A. Metres







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B. Decibel

C. Pitch

D. Hertz

Answer: B.Decibel

190. What is the minimum distance from a sound

reflecting surface to hear an echo?

A. 17.2 m

B. 17.5 m

C. 18.2 m

D. 16.2 m

Answer: A. 17. 2m

191. What is the S.I unit of Magnetic Flux Density?

A. Weber

B. Newton

C. Tesla

D. Gauss

Answer: C. Tesla

192. The electrical resistance of insulators is

A. high

B. low

C. zero

D. infinitely high

Answer D. infinitely high

193. Which of the following method is used for

converting moving coil Galvanometer into an

ammeter?

A. Low resistance in parallel

B. High resistance in parallel

C. Low resistance in series

D. High resistance in series

Answer: A.Low resistance in parallel

194. Which form of energy is possessed by a horse

running on a level road?

A. Potential Energy

B. Kinetic Energy

C. Work Energy

D. Heat Energy

Answer: B. Kinetic Energy

195. What is the term used for the maximum

displacement of a vibrating body from its mean

position?

A. Force

B. Impulse

C. Amplitude

D. Wavelength

Answer: C. Amplitude

196. Name the scientist who was the first to use a

glass prism to obtain the spectrum of sunlight.

A. Isaac Newton

B. Einstein

C. Kepler

D. Hans Christian Oersted

Answer A. Isaac Newton







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197. As a train approaches us, the frequency or

shrillness of its whistle increases. This phenomenon

can be explained by?

A. Charles’s Law

B. Faraday’s law

C. Doppler Effect

D. Archimedes Principle

Answer: C. Doppler Effect

198. Which of the following is commonly used as a

fuel for producing heat in Nuclear-Power Station?

A. Heavy Water

B. Helium

C. Coal

D. Uranium

Answer: D. Uranium

199. If the power of a lens is – 2 D, what is its focal

length?

A. +50 cm

B. -100 cm

C. -50 cm

D. +100 cm

Answer C. -50 cm

Solution

Focal length (f) =1/Power

f=−1/2=−0.5 m=-50 cm

200. Magnifying power of a concave lens is

A. More than 1

B. Equal to 1

C. Less than 1

D. More than 1

Answer: C. Less than 1

201. If an incident ray passes through the focus, the

reflected ray will

A. Pass through the pole

B. Be parallel to the principal axis

C. Retrace its path

D. Pass through the centre of curvature

Answer (b) Be parallel to the principal axis

202. Focal length of a concave mirror is

A. Negative

B. Positive

C. Depends on the position of object

D. Depends on the position of image

Answer: A. Negative

203. Pyrometer is an instrument which is used to

measure………?

A. Stress

B. Pressure

C. Strain

D. Temperature

Answer: d)Temperature

204. Electric current induced within the conductor by

changing magnetic field, which flows in closed loops

within the conductor is known as?

A. Fleming’s current

B. Eddy current







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C. Direct current

D. Secondary current

Answer: B. Eddy current

205. The Density of the water is highest at which of

the following temperature?

A. 100 Degree Celsius

B. 0 Degree Celsius

C. -273 Degree Celsius

D. 4 Degree Celsius

Answer: D. 4 Degree Celsius

206. Which of the following metal is generally used to

make Electromagnets?

A. Iron

B. Cobalt

C. Nickel

D. Copper

Answer: A. Iron

207. The Shortest distance covered by the body in a

definite direction is known as……….?

A. Distance

B. Velocity

C. Acceleration

D. Displacement

Answer: d) Displacement

208. While jumping from a slowly moving bus, one

must run for a short distance in the direction of

motion due to………?

A. Inertia

B. Momentum

C. Acceleration

D. Retardation

Answer: A. Inertia

209. Image formed by reflection from a plane mirror

is

A. Real and inverted

B. Virtual and erect

C. Real and erect

D. Virtual and inverted

Answer. B. Virtual and erect

210. What is the minimum velocity with which a

body should be projected from the earth surface so

that it goes out of the gravitational field and never

return back is?

A. Terminal Velocity

B. Escape Velocity

C. Constant Velocity

D. Instantaneous Velocity

Answer: B. Escape velocity

211. The Distance-Time graph for a body having

uniform-motion is a…………?

A. Parabola

B. Curved Line

C. Straight line sloping upwards

D. Straight line sloping downwards

Answer: C. Straight line sloping upwards







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212. Which of the following instrument is used to

measure the Relative Density?

A. Altimeter

B. Hygrometer

C. Hydrometer

D. Hypsometer

Answer: C. Hydrometer

213. Which state of matter shows viscosity due to the

presence of cohesive force between its molecules?

A. Gases

B. Solid

C. Liquid

D. All of the above

Answer: C. Liquid

214. Which of the following processes is used to

separate cream from milk?

A. Centrifugation

B. Filtration

C. Distillation

D. Chromatography

Answer: A. Centrifugation

215. Which of the following law states that the stress

imposed is directly proportional to the strain under

elastic limit?

A. Snell’s Law

B. Lenz’s Law

C. Hook’s Law

D. Ohm’s Law

Answer: C. Hook’s Law

216. What is the maximum time-period of a Simple

Pendulum?

A. 84.6 min

B. 84.5 min

C. 78.5 min

D. 88.5 min

Answer: A. 84.6 min

217. Which among the following waves can propagate

even through the vacuum and do not require material

medium for propagation?

A. Longitudinal Waves

B. Transverse Waves

C. Mechanical Waves

D. Electromagnetic Waves

Answer: D. Electromagnetic Waves

218. The spherical shape of a small drop of rain is due

to

A. Viscosity

B. Surface tension

C. Atmospheric pressure

D. Gravity

Answer : B. Surface tension

219.Which of the following type of waves cannot be

detected by the human ear?

A. Transverse Waves

B. Ultrasonic Waves







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C. Mechanical Waves

D. Electromagnetic Waves

Answer: B. Ultrasonic waves

220. What is the effect on the apparent frequency

when the distance between the source and the

observer decreases?

A. Decreases

B. Increases

C. Increases then decreases gradually

D. Remains the same.

Answer: B. Increases

221. Name the process in which the heat is transferred

from one place to another with the speed of light

without affecting the intervening medium?

A. Radiation

B. Conduction

C. Convection

D. Transmission

Answer: A. Radiation

222. Which device converts heat-energy into

mechanical work continuously through a cyclic

process?

A. Heat-Engine

B. Internal Combustion Engine

C. Electric Generator

D. Transformer

Answer: A. Heat-Engine

223. Which of the following law states that ‘the ratio

of sine of angle of incidence to the sine of angle of

refraction is a constant?

A. Lenz’s law

B. Faraday’s law

C. Hook’s law

D. Snell’s law

Answer: D. Snell’s law

224. The air-bubbles shine in water due to which of

the following phenomenon?

A. Refraction of Light

B. Dispersion of Light

C. Total internal reflection

D. Reflection of Light

Answer: C. Total internal reflection

225. Which eye-disorder arises due to difference in

the radius of curvature of cornea in the different

planes?

A. Hypermetropia

B. Myopia

C. Presbyopia

D. Astigmatism

Answer: D. Astigmatism

226. What is the SI unit of the Electric capacity of a

conductor?

A. Joule

B. Volt

C. Ampere







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D. Farad

Answer: D. Farad

227. Which instrument is used to measure the force

and the velocity of the wind?

A. Altimeter

B. Anemometer

C. Audiometer

D. Ammeter

Answer: B. Anemometer

228. Which instrument is used to measure the

scattering of the light by particles suspended in a

liquid?

A. Nephelometer

B. Lactometer

C. Ondometer

D. Photometer

Answer: A. Nephelometer

229. Dynamo is a device that converts mechanical

energy into …….?

A. Heat Energy

B. Electrical Energy

C. Light Energy

D. Chemical Energy

Answer: B. Electrical Energy


study the phenomenon of Dispersion of Light?

A. Spectrometer

B. Photometer

C. Microscope

D. Anemometer

Answer: A. Spectrometer

231. Radio-waves are reflected back to the earth’s

surface through which layer of the atmosphere?

A. Mesosphere

B. Troposphere

C. Ionosphere

D. Stratosphere

Answer: C. Ionosphere

232. The intensity of the Gravitational field of the

Earth is maximum at the…………?

A. Surface of the earth

B. Poles

C. Centre of the earth

D. Equator

Answer: B. Poles

233. The Filament of an Electric-Bulb is made up of

which of the following material?

A. Iron

B. Tungsten

C. Nichrome

D. Copper

Answer: B. Tungsten

234. Which of the following supports the particle

nature of the Photons?

A. Polarization

B. Diffraction







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C. Interference

D. Photoelectric Effect

Answer: D. Photoelectric Effect

235. The moderators are used in Nuclear Reactors

because of which of the following reason?

A. They absorb the neutrons

B. They accelerate the neutrons

C. They generate the neutrons

D. They slow down the speed of neutrons

Answer: D. They slow down the speed of neutrons


study the behaviour of a vibrating string?

A. Hydrometer

B. Barometer

C. Sonometer

D. Altimeter

Answer: C. Sonometer

237. What is the minimum escape-velocity of the

rocket to be launched into space?

A. 6 Km/sec

B. 11 Km/sec

C. 18 Km/sec

D. 5 Km/sec

Answer: B. 11 Km/sec

238. The group of solar-cells joined together in a

definite pattern is called as…….?

A. Solar Heater

B. Solar Cooker

C. Solar Cell Panel

D. Solar Compartment

Answer: C. Solar cell panel

239. Fuse-Wire is made up of which of the following

two components?

A. Tin and Copper

B. Tin and Lead

C. Lead and Copper

D. Copper and Silver

Answer: B. Tin and Lead

239. When the kerosene oil is sprinkled on water, the

larva of the mosquitoes floating on the surface die.

This happens due to which of the following

phenomenon?

A. Capillarity

B. Buoyant Force

C. Viscosity

D. Surface-Tension

Answer: D. Surface-Tension

240. What is the term used for the force which

opposes the relative motion between the different

layers of the liquids and gases?

A. Buoyant force B. Cohesive force C. Viscous

force D. Adhesive force

Answer: C. Viscous force

241. The function of ball bearings in a wheel is:

A. to increase friction







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B. to convert kinetic friction into rolling friction

C to convert static friction into kinetic friction

D. Just for convenience

Answer. B. To convert kinetic friction into rolling

friction

242. What is the value of gravity on the moon?

A. 1.62

B. 1.93

C. 4.903

D. 9.807

Answer: A.1.62

243.The wavelength of ultra-violet light is of which

order?

A. 100 nm

B. 100 microns

C. 100 mm

D. 100 cm

Answer: A 100nm

244.What is the mathematical expression of Mass

energy equation?

A. E =cm2

B. c =me

C. m =Ec

D. E =mc2

Answer: D.E=mc2

245.What is the mathematical expression for the

Newton's Second law of Motion?

A .a = Fm

B. F = mw

C. F = ma

D. m = Fa

Answer: C F=ma

246.According to the Boyle's Law, what is the

relationship between volume and pressure at constant

temperature?

A. Volume is logarithmic of pressure

B. Volume is directly proportional to pressure

C. Volume is inversely proportional to pressure

D. None of these

Answer: C Volume is inversely proportional to pressure

247.The phenomenon by which light bends when it

travels from one medium to another is called

A. Polarization

B. Diffraction


D. Refraction

Answer: D. Refraction

248.What is the reason behind the spherical shape of

water drops?

A The surface area of a sphere is the minimum for a

given volume

B The surface area of a sphere is the maximum for a

given volume

C The volume of a sphere is the least

D The shape of water drops is not spherical

Answer: A The surface area of a sphere is the minimum







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for a given drops

249.What is the SI unit of work?

A. Newton

B. Watt

C. Joule

D. Meter

Answer: C joule

250.The distance between galaxies is usually

measured in what units?

A. Meters

B. Light years

C. kilo light years

D. Kilometers

Answer: B light years

251.Among the following forces, which one is the

weakest?

A. Weak nuclear force

B. Electromagnetic force

C. gravitational force

D. strong nuclear force

Answer: C. Gravitational force

252. Loudness of sound is determined by

A. Pitch

B. Frequency

C. Amplitude

D. Time period

Answer: C. Amplitude

253. What is the best material for making the core of

an electromagnet?

A. Annealed steel

B. High Carbon steel

C. Low carbon steel

D. Soft iron

Answer. D. Soft iron

254.Which alloy of aluminium is used for making

magnets?

A. Duralumin

B. Magnalium

C. Alnico

D. Magnox

Answer: C Alnico

255.Escape velocity of moon is:

A. 9.8 km/s

B. 9.8 m/s

C. 2.38 km/s

D. 2.38 m/s

Answer: C. 2.38km/s

256.Escape velocity of earth is:

A. 9.8 m/s

B. 9.8 m/ hr

C. 11.2 km/s

D. 11.2 km/h

Answer: 11.22km/s

257.The SI unit of acceleration due to gravity is:

A. m/s2







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B. m/s

C. m2/s

D. kg ms-1

Answer: A. m/s2

258.The unit of power is:

A. Joule

B. Watt

C. Kelvin

D. Pascal

Answer: B. Watt

259.A piece of paper and a cricket ball are dropped

from the same height. Under which of the following

conditions do both reach the surface simultaneously?

A. They must have the same volume

B. They must have the same density

C. They must have the same mass

D. They must be dropped in vacuum

Answer: D. They must be dropped in vacuum

260. The sound in the audible range is called

A. Ultrasonic sound

B. Sonic sound

C. Subonic sound

D. Light sound

Answer: B. sonic sound

261. A metal plate with a circular hole at the centre is

heated. What will happen to the area of the hole?

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Remain constant

D. Will increase first and then decrease

Answer: A. Increase

262. To an astronaut in space, the sky will appear to

be

A. Violet

B. Red

C. Blue

D. Black

Answer. D. Black

263. On a rainy day, small oil films on water show

brilliant colours. This is due to

A. Scattering

B. Interference

C. Polarisation

D. None of these

Answer. B. Interference

264. Rainbow formation is due to

A. Absorption of sunlight by water droplets

B. Diffusion of sunlight through water droplets

C. Ionisation of water droplets

D. Dispersion and total internal reflection

Answer: D. Dispersion and total internal reflection

265. Red light is used in traffic signals, because

A. Minimum Wavelength and Less Scatter

B. Animals can identify red

C. Maximum Wavelength and Less Scatter







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D. Red is the symbol of danger

Answer C. Maximum Wavelength and Less Scatter

266. Golden view of sea shell is due to

A. Diffraction

B. Dispersion

C. Polarisation

D. Reflection

Answer C. Polarisation

267. A star appears twinkling in the sky because of

A. Scattering of light by atmosphere

B. Reflection of light by atmosphere

C. Refraction of light by atmosphere

D. Diffraction of light by atmosphere

Answer: C. Refraction of light by atmosphere

268. When a strong beam of light is passed through a

colloidal solution, the light will

A. Be scattered

B. Pass unchanged

C. Be absorbed

D. Be reflected

Answer A Be scattered

269. When a person sitting on a swing stands up on

the swing the frequency of oscillation

A. Decreases

B. Increases

C. becomes infinite

D. zero

Answer: B .increases

270.The star appear shifted from their actual position

due to the phenomenon of.

A. Diffraction of light

B. Scattering of light

C. Refraction of light

D. Reflection of light

Answer: C. Refraction of light

271. Mirage is an example

A Refraction of light only

B Total internal, reflection of light only

C Refraction and total internal reflection of light

D Dispersion of light only

Answer C Refraction and total internal reflection of light

272. Optical fibres are based on the phenomenon of

A. Interference

B. Dispersion

C. Diffraction

D. Total internal reflection

Answer D Total internal reflection

273. The phenomenon of light associated with the

appearance of blue colour of the sky is

A. Interference

B. Reflection

C. Refraction

D. Scattering

Answer: D. Scattering







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274. Lens in made up of

A. Pyrex glass

B. Flint glass

C. Ordinary glass

D. Cobalt glass

Answer: B. Flint glass

275. Lambert’s law is related to

A. Reflection

B. Refraction

C. Interference

D. Illumination

Answer D. Illumination

276. A water tank appears shallower when it is

viewed from top due to

A. Rectilinear propagation of light

B. Reflection

C. Total internal reflection

D. Refraction

Answer D.Refraction

277. The time period of a pendulum when taken to

the moon would

A. Remain the same

B. Decrease

C. Become zero

D. Increase

Answer.D. Increase

278.The atmospheric air is held to the Earth by:

A. Gravity

B. Winds

C. Clouds

D. Rotation of the Earth

Answer.A.Gravity

279. The minimum amount of the work necessary to

remove a free electron from the surface of the

material.

A. The electro-repulsive force

B. The coulomb factor

C. The power factor

D. The work function

Answer: D. The work function

280. What is the SI unit of Torque?

A. Newton/meter

B. Newton meter

C. Newton second

D. Newton/meter squared

Answer: B. Newton meter

281. Rate of change of momentum is

A. Area

B. Pressure

C. Force

D. Velocity

Answer: C. Force

282. Which mirror is used in the headlights of cars?

A. Semi-circular

B. Conical C. Convex D. Concave

Answer: D. Concave







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283. For what is Mohs scale used?

A. To measure brightness of a substance

B. To measure viscosity of a liquid

C. To measure elasticity of a material

D. To measure hardness of minerals

Answer: D. To measure hardness of minerals

284. Electrons in the highest energy level of an atom

are called................

A. Valence protons

B. Orbital protons

C. Valence electrons

D. Orbital electrons

Answer: C. valence electrons

285. The unit of which physical quantity is not

Pascal?

A. Moment of inertia

B. Pressure

C. Stress

D. Young's modulus

Answer: A. Moment of inertia

286. Physical quantities, which have _______ only

and no _______ are called scalar quantities.

A. Direction, magnitude

B. Magnitude, direction

C. Speed, velocity

D. Velocity, speed

Answer: B. magnitude, direction

287. What is impulse equal to?

A. Change in momentum

B. Change in force

C. Change in velocity

D. Change in acceleration

Answer: A. Change in momentum

288. Which among the following is a vector quantity?

A. Heat

B. Angular momentum

C. Work

D. Time

Answer: B. Angular momentum

289. What is the unit of electric resistance?

A. Dyne

B. Pascal

C. Joule

D. Ohms

Answer: D. Ohms

290. Formula for distance is

A. Speed x time

B. Time / speed

C. Speed x acceleration

D. Velocity / speed

Answer: A speed x time

291. The bending of light when it passes around a

corner or a slit is due to ______.

A. Reflection

B. Refraction

C. Diffraction







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D. Total internal reflection

Answer: C. Diffraction

292. What is the SI unit of frequency?

A. Newton

B. Watt

C. Farad

D. Hertz

Answer: D Hertz

293. What is the phenomenon which established the

transverse nature of light?

A. Reflection

B. Interference

C. Diffraction

D. Polarization

Answer: D Polarization

294. The period of revolution of a geo stationary

satellite is

A. 365 days

B. 30 days

C. 24 hours

D. changing continuously

Answer: C. 24 hours

295. 0°K is equivalent to

A. 273°C

B. -273°C

C. 0°C

D. 100°C

Answer: B -273°C

296. A force may change ______ of an object.

A. Speed

B. Direction

C. Shape

D. All options are correct

Answer: D All options are correct

297. It is difficult to walk on ice because of _____.

A. Absence of friction

B. Less inertia

C. More inertia

D. More mass

Answer: A. Absence of friction

298. Heat is which component of habitat?

A. Biotic component

B. Abiotic component

C. Both Biotic and Abiotic component

D. Neither of the two components

Answer: B Abiotic component

299. The frequency of sound waves can be expressed

in:

A. Second

B. Cycle

C. Cycle per second

D. Meter per second

Answer: C. Cycle per second

300. Diode is used as a/an?

A. Modulator

B. Oscillator







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C. Amplifier

D. Rectifier

Answer: D. Rectifier

301. Curie point is the temperature at which

A. Matter becomes radioactive

B. A metal loses magnetic properties.

C. A metal loses conductivity

D. Transmutation of metal

Answer: B. A metal loses magnetic properties

302.Angle of friction and angle of repose are

A. Equal to each other

B. Not equal to each other

C. Proportional to each other

D. None of the above

Answer: A. Equal to each other

303. Which among the following waves is used for

communication by artificial satellites?

A. Microwaves

B. Radio waves

C. Infrared Waves.

D. Frequency of 101 series

Answer A. Microwaves

304.When the speed of car is doubled then what will

be the breaking force of the car to stop within the

same distance ?

A. Four times

B. Two times

C. Half

D. One fourth

Answer: A. four times

305.The dimension of which of the following is the

same as that of impulse?

A. Volume

B. Momentum

C. Torque

D. Change in the rate of momentum

Answer: B. Momentum

306.Which among the following is the fundamental

quantity?

A. Volume

B. Time

C. Velocity

D. Force

Answer: B. Time

307.If the diameter of a capillary is doubled then the

rise of water in it will be

A. Two times

B. Half

C. Four times

D. No change

Answer: B. half

308.Why the needle of iron swims on Water surface

when it is kept gently?

A. It will remain under the water when it will displace

more water than its weight

B. The density of needle is less than that of water







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C. Due to surface tension

D. Due to its shape

Answer: C. Due to surface tension

309.Raindrops fall from great height. Which among

the following statements is true regarding it?

A. They fall with that ultimate velocity which are

different for different droplets

B. They fall with same ultimate velocity

C. Their velocity increases and they fall with different

velocity on the earth

D. Their velocity increases and they fall with same

velocity of the earth

Answer: A they fall with that ultimate velocity which

are different for different droplets

310. Which of the following statements is true when

we see rainbow?

A. We face sun and rain drops

B. The Sun remains behind us and we face raindrops

C. In light rainfall we face Sun

D. The sky remains clear and the sun is at lower position

in the sky

Answer: B. The Sun remains behind us and we face

raindrops

311. The bats can fly in the dark because

A. They can see the objects in darkness

B. They have weak legs and are likely to be attacked by

predators

C. They generate flashes of light

D. They generate ultrasonic sound waves

Answer: D. they generate ultrasonic sound waves

312.What changes will happen to a bowl of ice and

water kept at exactly zero degree Celsius?

A All ice will melt

B All water will become ice

C No change will happen

D Only some ice will melt

Answer:C. No change will happen

313. The splitting of different colours of light in a

prism is:

A Reflection of light

B Dispersion of light

C Diffraction of light

D Refraction of light

Answer: B. Dispersion of light

314.A boat will submerge when it displaces water

equal to its own

A. Volume

B. Weight

C. Surface area

D. Density

Answer: B. weight

315. The spokes Used in the wheel of a bicycle

increase its

A Moment of inertia

B Velocity







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C Acceleration

D Momentum

Answer.A: Moment of inertia

316.A transformer works on the principle of

A. Self-induction

B. Mutual induction

C. Generator

D. Inverter

Answer: B. Mutual induction

317.The scientist who first sent electromagnetic waves

to distant places is

A. James clerk Maxwell

B. Heinrich Hertz

C. Thomas Alva Edison

D. John Logie Baird

Answer: B. Heinrich Hertz

318.The centre of gravity of a sprinter during the

race lies

A. Ahead of his feet

B. Behind his feet

C. At the centre of the body

D. To the left side of the body

Answer.A. Ahead of his feet

319. Which of the following is used in oven?

A. X-rays

B. UV rays

C. Microwaves

D. Radio waves

Answer: C. Microwaves

320.When heated from 0° to10°C volume of a given

mass of water Will

A. Increase gradually

B. Decrease gradually

C. Increase and then will decrease

D. Decrease and then will increase

Answer: D. Decrease and then will increase.

321. Energy is continuously created in the sun due to:

A Nuclear fusion

B Nuclear fission

C Radioactivity

D Artificial radioactivity

Answer .A Nuclear fusion

322.Which of the following is used for regulate

electric supply ?

A. Zener diode

B. Junction diode

C. Gun diode

D. Tunnel diode

Answer .A. Zener diode

323.The substance which conducts current in the

solid state is

A. Diamond

B. Graphite

C. Iodine

D. sodium chloride

Answer: B. Graphite







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324.Which set of conditions represents the easiest way

to liquefy a gas?

A Low temperature and high pressure

B High temperature and low pressure

C Low temperature and low pressure

D High temperature and high pressure

Answer: A. Low temperature and high pressure

325.What is colour of light related to?

A. Amplitude

B. Frequency

C. Quality

D. Velocity

Answer.A .Amplitude

326.What principle law explains the working of the

hydraulic breakes in automobiles?

A Bernoulli’s law

B Posieulles principle

C Pascal’s law

D Archimedes principle

Answer:C. Pascal’s law

327.The best conductor of heat among the following is

A Alcohol

B Mercury

C Ether

D Water

Answer: B.Mercury

328.What is viewed through an electron microscope?

A. Electrons and other elementary particles

B. Structure of bacteria and viruses

C. Inside of human stomach

D. Inside of the human eye

Answer: B. Structure of bacteria and viruses

329.What apparatus is used to locate a submerged

object?

A Radar

B Sonar

C Quasar

D Pulsar

Answer: B. Sonar

330.Which combination of colour is the most

convenient during day and night time?

A. Orange and blue

B. White and black

C. Yellow and blue

D. Red and green

Answer: D. Red and green

331.The shape of our Milky Way galaxy is

A. Circular

B. Elliptical

C. Spiral


Answer: C. Spiral

332.The different colours of different stars are due to

the variation of

A temperature

B pressure







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C density

D radiation from them

Answer A.Temperature

333.Woolen clothes keep the body warm because

A. Wool increases the temperature of the body

B. Wool is a bad conductor

C. Wool absorbs radiant heat from outer objects

D. Wool rejects heat from the outer objects

Answer. B. Wool is a bad conductor

334.Mist is caused by

A. Dry ice

B. Ice at low temperature

C. Water vapour at low temperature

D. Carbon monoxide in solid form

Answer: C. Water vapour at low temperature

335.While catching a ball a player pulls down his

hands to lower the

A. Force

B. Momentum

C. Impulse

D. Catching time

Answer: B. Momentum

336.A particle dropped from the top of a tower

uniformly falls on ground at a distance which is equal

to the height of tower. Which of the following paths

will be traversed by the particle?

A. Circle

B. Parabolic

C. Great circle

D. Hyper parabolic

Answer: B. Parabolic

337.When a bottle of scent is kept open in a corner of

a room its odour is felt in all parts of the room. This is

due to the phenomenon of:

A. Evaporation

B. Vaporization

C. Diffusion

D. Sublimation

Answer: C. Diffusion

338.Clear nights are cooler than cloudy nights

because of

A. Conduction

B. Condensation

C. Radiation

D. Insulation

Answer: C. Radiation

339.A gas thermometer is more sensitive than a liquid

thermometer because a gas:

A. Is lighter than liquid

B. Expands more than a liquid

C. Is easy to obtain

D. Does not change state easily

Answer. B. Expands more than a liquid

340.Which one of the following is used for sun

glasses?

A Pyrex glass







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B Flint glass

C Crooks glass

D Crystal glass

Answer:C. Crooks glass

341.The speed of light with the rise in the

temperature of the medium :

A Increases

B Decreases

C Remains unaltered

D Drops suddenly

Answer:C. Remains unaltered

342.Heat from the Sun reaches the Earth by

A Reflection

B Conduction

C Radiation

D Convection

Answer: C. Radiation

343.A passenger standing In a bus is thrown outward

when the bus takes a sudden turn happens due to

A. Outward pull on him

B. Inertia of motion

C. Change in momentum


Answer: B. Inertia of motion

344.When pressure is increased the melting point of

ice

A. Increases

B. Does not change

C. Decreases

D. Depends on the impurities in the ice

Answer: C. Decreases

345.Electrostatic precipitator is used to control the

pollution of

A. Air

B. Water

C. Noise

D. Thermal

Answer: A. Air

346.Oil rises up the wick in a lamp because

A. Oil is very light

B. Of the diffusion of oil through the wick

C. Of the Gravitational pull of the wick

D. Of the capillary action phenomenon

Answer: D. Of the capillary action phenomenon

347.An electron microscope gives higher

magnification than an optical microscope because:

A. it uses more powerful lenses

B. the velocity of electron is smaller than that of visible

light

C. the electrons have more energy than the light particles

D. The wavelength of elections is smaller as compared to

the wavelength of visible light

Answer: D. The wavelength of elections is smaller as

compared to the wavelength of visible light

348.For a body moving with non-uniform velocity

and uniform acceleration







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A. Displacement Time graph is linear.

B. Displacement time graph is nonlinear

C. Velocity Time graph is nonlinear

D. Velocity Time graph is linear

Answer: B. Displacement Time graph is nonlinear

349.Which of the following laws validates the

statement that matter can neither be created nor

destroyed?

A. Law of conservation of energy

B. Le Chatelier's Principle

C. Law of conservation of mass

D. Law of osmosis

Answer: C. Law of conservation of mass

350.Decibel is the unit used for

A. Speed of light

B. Intensify of heat

C. Intensity of sound

D. Radio wave frequency

Answer: C. Intensity of sound

351.The mass energy relation is the outcome of

A. Quantum theory

B. General theory of relativity

C. Field theory of energy

D. Special theory of relativity

Answer: D. Special theory of relativity

352.Which of the following are used for accurately

measuring very small time intervals ?

A. Pulsars

B. Quartz clocks

C. Atomic clocks

D. White dwarfs

Answer: C. Atomic clocks

353.An oil drop spreads over water because

A. Oil Is lighter than water

B. Oil is more viscous

C. Oil does not mix with water

D. Surface tension of oil is much smaller than that of

water

Answer: D. Surface tension of oil is much smaller than

that of water

354.The device which convert AC to DC is:

A. Oscillator

B. Amplifier

C. Rectifier

D. None of these

Answer: C. Rectifier

355.Knot is a measure of

A. The speed of ship

B. The curvature of spherical objects

C. Solar radiation

D. Intensity of earthquake shock

Answer.A. The speed of ship

356.Whichofthe following produces more severe

burns?

A. Boiling water

B. Hot water







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C. Steam

D. Melting ice berg

Answer: C. Steam

357.Magnetism in materials is due to

A. Electrons at rest

B. Circular motion of electrons

C. Protons at rest

D. All neutrons at rest

Answer. B. circular motion of electrons

358.The instrument for measuring intensity of

earthquakes is called

A. Ideograph

B. Pantograph

C. Ergograph

D. Seismograph

Answer: D. Seismograph

359.A multi meter is used to measure

A. current

B. voltage

C. resistance

D. All of the above

Answer: D. All the above

360.Which of the following is used to split white light

into different colours?

A. Glass slab

B. Convex lens

C. Concave lens

D. Prism

Answer: D. Prism

361. Nuclear reactors used to produce electricity are

based on

A Nuclear fission

B Nuclear fusion

C Cold fusion

D Superconductivity

Answer.A. Nuclear fission

362.A fountain pen Works on the principle of

A. flow of liquids from higher to lower potential

B. Capillary action

C. Bernoulli’s principle

D. Viscosity of liquids

Answer: B. Capillary action

363.Pycnometer is an instrument used to measure the

A. Density

B. Intensity of solar radiation

C. Intensity of earthquake

D. High temperatures

Answer: A. Density

364.The metal used to make lightning conductors is

A. Iron

B. Aluminum

C. Copper

D. Zinc

Answer C. Copper

365.A hydrogen balloon floats up because of







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A. Air pressure decreases with decrease in height

B. Air pressure decreases with decrease in weight

C. Weight of the balloon is less than the weight of air

displaced by it.

D. The pressure inside the balloon is more than the

pressure outside it

Answer. C. Weight of the balloon is less than the weight

of air displaced by it.

366. Which one of the following lenses should be used

to correct the defect of Astigmatism?

A. Cylindrical lens

B. Concave lens

C. Convex lens

D. Bifocal lens

Answer: A. Cylindrical lens

367.In a laser (say neon laser) all the atoms emit the

light waves of

A. Same frequency

B. Same amplitude

C. Same phase

D. All of the above

Answer: D. All of the above

368.Which of the following has got more heat

capacity?

A. Iron piece

B. Water

C. Gold piece

D. Benzene

Answer: B. Water

369.If the temperature of a place Increases suddenly

the relative humidity

A. Increases

B. Decreases

C. Remains constant

D. Fluctuates

Answer: B. Decreases

370.what is the full form of A.M regarding radio

broadcasting?

A. Amplitude movement

B. Anywhere Movement

C. Amplitude Matching

D. Amplitude Modulation

Answer.D. Amplitude Modulation.

371. When a beam of white light falls on a glass

prism, the colour of light which will deviate least is

(a) Violet

(b) Red

(c) Green

(d) Blue

Answer: B. Red

372.Therm is the unit of

A Power

B Heat

C Light

D Distance







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Answer: B. Heat

373.The oldest type of energy known to man is

A wind power

B solar power

C tidal energy

D geothermal energy

Answer: D. Geothermal energy

374.Water pipes in hilly areas often burst on a cold

frosty night because

A the material of which pipes are made contracts due to

cold and so breaks

B water in the pipes freezes and on freezing water

expands so pipes break

C frost makes the pipes rusty so they break

D None of these

Answer: B .water in the pipes freezes and on freezing

water expands so pipes break

375. A parachute descends slowly whereas a stone

dropped from the same Height falls rapidly because

A. Stone is heavier than parachute

B. Special mechanisms are present in parachute

C. A parachute has a larger surface area and air

resistance is more

D. None of these

Answer: C. A parachute has a larger surface area and air

resistance is more

376. When a person walking in bright Sunlight enters

a dark room he is not able to see clearly for a little

while because

A. the eye muscles cannot immediately adjust the focal

length of the eye lens.

B. the retina retains the bright images for some time and

becomes momentarily insensitive.

C. the iris is unable to contract the pupil immediately

D. the iris is unable to dilate the pupil immediately

Answer.D. The iris is unable to dilate the pupil

immediately.

377. What should a person on a freely rotating turn

table do to decrease his (angular) speed?

A Bring his hands together

B Raise his hands up

C Spread his hands outwards

D Sit down with raised hands

Answer: C. Spread his hands outwards

378.Which of the following circuit elements is used to

block DC in an electronic circuit ?

A. Resistances

B. Capacitance

C. Inductance

D. Diode

Answer: B. Capacitance

379.A boy sitting in an open car moving with the







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constant speed throws a ball straight up into the air.

The ball falls

A. behind him

B. In front of him

C. into his hand

D. by his side

Answer: A. Behind him

380.A kilowatt-hour is unit of

A. Energy

B. Power

C. Electric charge

D. Electric current

Answer: A .Energy

381.The hair of shaving brush clings together when

removed from water due to

A. Surface tension

B. Viscosity

C. Elasticity

D. Friction

Answer.A. Surface tension

382.In the process of magnetization of a bar

A. The entire bulk of the bar gets magnetised

B. Only the surface of the bar gets magnetised

C. Only the ends of the bar get magnetised

D. Only some parts of the outer layers of the bar get

magnetized

Answer.A The entire bulk of the bar gets magnetised

383.Velocity of sound in air does not change with the

change of

A. Temperature of air

B. Pressure of air

C. Moisture content in air

D. Wind in the direction of propagation of sound

Answer: B. Pressure of air

384.The density of gas is maximum at

A Low temperature low pressure

B Low temperature high pressure

C High temperature low pressure

D High temperature high pressure

Answer: B. Low temperature high pressure

385.Why is it difficult to breathe at higher altitudes?

A. Due to low air pressure

B. Due to low temperature

C. Due to ozone

D. Due to high humidity

Answer.A. Due to low air pressure

386.The strongest force in nature is

A. Electrical force

B. Gravitational force

C. Nuclear force

D. Magnetic force

Answer: C. Nuclear force

387.The spoon dropped by an astronaut in a satellite

will

A. Fall to the floor

B. Remain stationary







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C. Continue to follow the motion of the satellite

D. Move tangentially away

Answer:C. Continue to follow the motion of the satellite

388.When a body is taken from earth to moon

A. Mass changes but weight remains same

B. Weight changes but mass remains same

C. Both weight and mass change

D. Both weight and mass remain same

Answer: B. Weight changes but mass remains same

389.A person is hurt on kicking a stone due to

A. Inertia

B. Velocity

C. Reaction

D. Momentum

Answer:C. Reaction

390.The fuse in domestic electric circuit melts when

there is a high rise in

A Inductance

B Current

C Resistance

D Capacitance

Answer B. Current

391.The Instrument used to see the distant objects on

the Earth is

A Terrestrial telescope

B Astronomical telescope

C Compound microscope

D Simple microscope

Answer.A. Terrestrial telescope

392.The device used to change the speed of an electric

fan is

A. Amplifier

B. Regulator

C. Switch

D. Rectifier

Answer. B. Regulator

393. Who is thought to have invented the thermo

scope?

A. Galileo Galilei

B. Copernicus

C. Isaac Newton

D. J.Kepler

Answer: A. Galileo Galilei

394. The function of the lens in our eyes is to

A. Cover the Eyes

B. Send Messages of images to the brain

C. Change the focal distance of the eye

D. Protects eyes from Injury

Answer: C. Change the focal distance of the eye

395. Motion of spinning 'top' is an example of

A. Centripetal force

B. Centrifugal force

C. Gravitational force

D. Frictional force







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Answer: A. Centripetal force

396. When the car takes a bend, the force that pushes

us to the outside of the curve is the

A. Centripetal force

B. Centrifugal force


D. Tension force

Answer: B. Centrifugal force

397. Which of the following coloured light has the

lowest frequency?

A. Green

B. Blue

C. Red

D. Violet

Answer: C. Red

398. The colour of solid Iodine is

A.White

B.Colorless

C.Purpliish Grey to Black

D.Reddish Brown

Answer: C. Purpliish Grey to Black

399. When an object thrown straight upwards gets to

the top of its path, its

A. Velocity is zero and its acceleration is zero

B. Velocity is zero and its acceleration is about 10 m/s2

C. Velocity is 10m/s and its acceleration is zero

D. Velocity is 10m/s and its acceleration is about 10m/s2

Answer: B. Velocity is zero and its acceleration is about

10 m/s2

400. Who created the electric Dynamo

A. Benjamin Franklin

B. Alessandro Volta

C. Michael Faraday

D. Thomas Edison

Answer: C. Michael Faraday

401. An electrical appliance has a resistance of 22 Ω.

When this electrical appliance is connected to a 220 V

supply line, the current passing through it will be

A. 9.2 A

B. 9 A

C. 10 A

D. 92 A

Answer: C. 10 A

402. If the current flowing through a fixed resistor is

halved, the heat produced in it will become:

A. One-half

B. One- fourth

C. Double

D. Four times

Answer: B. One-fourth

403. The force exerted on a current carrying wire

placed in a magnetic field is zero when the angle

between wire and the direction of magnetic field is.

A. 45o

B. 60o







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C. 90o

D. 180o

Answer: D. 180o

404. The shape of the magnetic field lines produced

by a current carrying conductor are.

A. Straight lines

B. Concentric circles

C. Concentric ellipse

D. Concentric parabolas

Answer: B. Concentric circles

405. An electric motor is a device which transforms

A. Mechanical energy into electrical energy

B. Electrical energy into mechanical energy

C. Kinetic energy into potential energy

D. Electrical energy into Potential energy

Answer: B. Electrical energy into mechanical energy

406. The frequency of electricity produced by DC

generator is equal to

A. 0 Hz

B. 50 Hz

C. 100 Hz

D. 200 Hz

Answer: A. 0 Hz

407. On increasing the temperature, the speed of

sound in air:

A. Increases

B. Decreases

C. Does not change

D. First increases then becomes constant

Answer: A. Increases

408. Which of the following can produce longitudinal

as well as transverse waves under different

conditions?

A. Bats

B. Slinky

C. Tuning fork

D. None of these

Answer: (b) Slinky

409. A car is accelerated on a leveled road and attains

a velocity 2 times of its initial velocity. In this process,

the kinetic energy of the car

A. Becomes twice to that of the initial

B. Becomes four times to that of the initial

C. Remains the same

D. Becomes 4 times to that of the initial

Answer: D. Becomes 4 times to that of the initial

410. A man of mass 60 kg jumps to a height of 2 m.

His potential energy at the highest point is (g = 10

m/s2):

A. 600 J

B. 1200 J

C. 120 J

D. 6000 J

Answer: B. 1200 J

411. A body is falling from a height h. After it has

fallen to a height of h/3, it will possess:







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A. Only kinetic energy

B. Half kinetic and half potential energy

C. Only potential energy

D. More kinetic and less potential energy

Answer: D. More kinetic and less potential energy

412. What is planet nine?

A. A planet in the Comet Galaxy

B. A planet in Andromeda Galaxy

C. A planet where the ‘Star Wars’ series took place

D. A large icy planet proposed in the outer solar system

Answer: D. A large icy planet proposed in the outer solar

system

413. What is the rate of change of position of an

object with respect to a frame of reference, which is a

Function of time called?

A. Mchanics

B. Vector

C. Velocity

D. Magnitude

Answer: C. Velocity

414. What is the gravitational force exerted on a mass

called?

A. Stress

B. Inertia

C. Weight

D. Work

Answer: C. Weight

415. What do the terms Geocentric and Heliocentric

refers to?

A. Laws governing the motion of planetary bodies

around Earth and Sun

B. Pioneering Telescopic Greece

C. Religions of ancient Greece

D. Two schools of thought in Roman Philosophy

Answer: A. Laws governing the motion of planetary

bodies around Earth and Sun

416. Which following is used to detect current in a

circuit?

A. Galvanometer

B. Anemometer

C. Barometer

D. Lactometer

Answer: A. Galvanometer

417. What is the technology used in a compact disc?

A. Electrical

B. Laser

C. Electro magnetic

D. Aeronautical

Answer: B. Laser

418. A Refrigerator works on which of the following

principles?

A. Osmosis

B. Centrifugation

C. Dispersion

D. Evaporation







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Answer: D. Evaporation

419. Which instrument is used for viewing the sun?

A. Stroboscope

B. Telescope

C. Helioscope

D. Sun meter

Answer: C. Helioscope

420. A ball rolling on the ground slows down and

finally stops. This is because of

A. Force

B. Less force applied

C. Friction


Answer: C. Friction

421. Objects float on water based on

A. Newton's third law of motion

B. Hooke's law

C. Faraday's law

D. Archimedes principle

Answer: D. Archimedes principle

422. Which is not an example of refraction of light

A. Twinkling effect of stars

B. Mirages


D. Bending of light while passing through a medium

Answer: C. Lateral inversion

423. Which one of the states of matter obtained by

cooling a gas of very low density to extremely low

temperatures.

A. Gas

B. Plasma

C. Bose-Einstein Condensate (BEC)

D. Plasma Condensate

Answer: C. Bose-Einstein Condensate (BEC)

424. X-Rays , which are now used on a day to day

basis for diagnosis in medicine, was discovered by?

A. Wilhelm Rontgen

B. Niels Bohr

C. Emest Rutherford

D. Max Bon

Answer: A. Wilhelm Rontgen

425. When two forces act in opposite directions, then

net force acting is the

A. Sum of two forces

B. Difference between two forces

C. Both of these

D. None of these

Answer: B. Difference between two forces

426. Who invented the bifocal glasses?

A. Thomas Alva Edison

B. Benjamin franklin

C. Evangelist

D. Isaac Newton

Answer: B. Benjamin franklin







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427. Rate of heat conduction in solids does not depend

on

A. Density of the material

B. Dimensions of the material

C. Friction

D. Electronic configuration

Answer: C. Friction

428. Echocardiogram is more closely related to

A. Doppler effect

B. Zeeman effect

C. Photoelectric effect

D. Magnetic effect

Answer: A. Doppler effect

429. Who discovered radioactivity?

A. Planck

B. James Clerk Maxwell

C. Henri Becquerel

D. Heinrich Hertz

Answer: C. Henri Becquerel

430. The mass per unit volume is called

A. Force

B. Work

C. Density

D. Pressure

Answer: C. Density

431. Which of the following is NOT an application of

Fiber optics?

A. Power Generation

B. Computer Networking

C. Sensors

D. Power Transmission

Answer: A. Power Generation

432. IRS series of Indian Satellites are used for:

A. Forestry

B. Communication

C. Remote Sensing

D. Astronomy

Answer: C. Remote Sensing

433. Antonio Meucci is associated with the invention

of:

A. Telephone

B. Automobile

C. LED

D. Industrial Robot

Answer: A. Telephone

434. Velocity of a car does not depend on

A. Speedometer

B. Change in direction

C. Change in speed


Answer: A. Speedometer

435. Which of the following type of rays does NOT

penetrate Earth's atmosphere?

A. Visible Light

B. X-Rays

C. Ultraviolet Rays







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D. Radio Waves

Answer: B. X-Rays

436. Which of the following technological inventions

came first?

A. Telegraph

B. Telescope

C. Telephone

D. Teletype

Answer: B. Telescope

437. An electric motor converts Converse

A. Mechanical energy into electrical energy.

B. Thermal energy into electrical energy.

C. Electrical energy into mechanical energy.

D. Radiant energy into electrical energy.

Answer: C. Electrical energy into mechanical energy.

438 .A generator converts

A. Mechanical energy into electrical energy

B. Electrical energy into chemical energy.

C. Thermal energy into electrical energy.

D. Electrical energy into light energy.

Answer: A. mechanical energy into electrical energy

439. Infra-red rays are

A. Longitudinal waves

B. Transverse waves

C. Mechanical waves

D. Electromagnetic waves

Answer: D. Electromagnetic waves

440. Which of the following coloured light has the

highest frequency?

A. Green

B. Violet

C. Blue

D. Yellow

Answer: B. Violet

442. Which of the following is a WRONG example of

friction?

A. Washing machine pushed alone a floor

B. Sled sliding across snow

C.A person sliding down a slide

D.A person lifting an heavy object

Answer: D.A person lifting an heavy object

443. The Ionization power is maximum for

A. Neutrons

B. Alpha particle

C. Gamma rays

D. Beta particles

Answer: B. Alpha particle

444. A toaster operating at 240V has a resistance of

120 ohm. The power is

A.400W

B.4W

C.480W

D.240W

Answer: C.480W







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445. Why is weightlessness experienced while orbiting

the earth in space ships?

A. Inertia

B. Acceleration

C. Zero gravity

D. Orbital motion

Answer: C. Zero gravity

446. A bullet hits and gets embedded in a solid block

resting on a horizontal frictionless table. Which of the

following is conserved?

A. Momentum and K.E

B.K.E alone

C. Momentum alone

D.P.E alone

Answer: C. Momentum alone

447. Supersonic air plane creates a shock wave called

A. Transverse wave

B. Ultrasound wave

C. Sonic Boom

D. Mechanical wave

Answer: C. Sonic Boom

448. Beats occur because of

A. Interference

B. Reflection

C. Refraction

D. Doppler effect

Answer: A. Interference

449. A large force on a rotating body results in large

A. Mass

B. Torque

C. Axis of rotation

D. Center of rotation

Answer: B. Torque

450. With both eyes open, a person’s field of view is

about

(a) 90o

(b) 150o

(c) 180o

(d) 360o

Answer: C. 180o

Chemistry

1. What is the chemical name of the Laughing Gas?

A. Nitric oxide

B. Nitrous oxide

C. Nitrogen dioxide

D. Nitrogen Pentaoxide

Answer: B. Nitrous oxide

2. When two liquid materials do not mix with each

other and do not make solution, then they are

called-

A. Solvent







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B. Solute

C. Immiscible

D. Decantation

Answer.C. Immiscible

3. Milk of Magnesia is used as-

A. Laxative

B. Painkiller

C. Sedative

D. Antibiotic

Answer: A. Laxative

4. When two liquids can be mixed to form a solution

they are called

A. Solvent

B. Miscible

C. Immiscible

D. Homogenous mixture

Answer: B. Miscible

5. What is the reason for different isotopes of an

element have a different mass number?

(A) Different number of proton in their nucleus

(B) Different number of neutron in their nucleus

(C) Different number of electron in their nucleus

(D) Different number of compounded electrons.

Answer. (B) Different number of neutron in their

nucleus

6. Dried fruit like raisins when soaked in water,

bulge and get filled with water. What is the

scientific reason that explains this daily life event?

A. Osmosis

B. Active Transport

C. Diffusion

D. Passive Transport

Answer: A. Osmosis

7. Cement was discovered by

A. Joseph Aspidin

B. Rutherford

C. Antoine Lavoiser

D. Plum and Budding

Answer: A. Joseph Aspidin

8. _____ is the transition of a substance directly

from the solid to the gas phase without passing

through the intermediate liquid phase.

A. Sublimation

B. Evaporation

C. Condensation

D. Liquidation

Answer: A. Sublimation

9. For printing MICR characters, the ink used

contains which of following?

A. Lead oxide

B. Graphite

C. Cuprous oxide

D. Iron oxide

Answer: D. Iron oxide







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10. Not servicing the vehicles results in incomplete

combustion of carbonaceous matter in automobile

engine which generates ______.

A. Carbon monoxide

B. Carbon dioxide

C. Nitrous oxide

D. Nitrogen dioxide

Answer: A. Carbon monoxide

11. Which one of the following is not alkaline?

A. Sodium

B. Potassium

C. Lithium

D. Sulphur

Answer: D. Sulphur

12. What are the 4 key elements?

A. Iron, Sulphur, Silicon and Potassium

B. Helium, Lithium, Beryllium and Boron

C. Plutonium, Uranium, Promethium and Neon

D. Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen and Nitrogen

Answer: D. Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen and Nitrogen

13. Which of the following is the last element in

Newlands’ Law of Octaves?

A. Radium

B. Iron

C. Thorium

D. Rhodium

Ans. C. Thorium

14. C12 H22 O11 is also known as

(A) Sand

(B) Sugar

(C) Salt

(D) Clay

Ans. (B) Sugar

15. NaCl is chemical formula of ______.

(A) Ammonia

(B) Water

(C) Salt

(D) Sugar

Ans. (C) Salt

16. Which out of the following contains Ethanoic

acid?

(A) Lemon juice

(B) Orange juice

(C) White vinegar

(D) Tomato ketchup

Ans. (C) White vinegar

17. Which of the following statement is true?

(A) Water is a mixture of hydrogen and oxygen

(B) Water is a compound of nitrogen oxygen

(C) Water is a compound of oxygen and hydrogen

(D) Water is an element

Answer: (C) Water is a compound of oxygen and

hydrogen

18. Four pairs of words are given. Find the odd one

out.

(A) Mercury : Liquid







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(B) Gunpowder : Solid

(C) Camphor : Gas

(D) Helium : Gas

Answer: C. Camphor : Gas

19. The process of removing hydrogen from water

is known as-

(A) Electrolysis

(B) Osmosis

(C) Ozonation

(D) Oxidation

Answer: A. Electrolysis

20. Which among the following is used for cooking-

(A) Liquified Natural Gas

(B) Compressed natural Gas

(C) Liquified Petroleum Gas

(D) Compressed Petroleum Gas

Ans. C. Liquified Petroleum Gas

21. Which of the following is not a natural

bleaching agent?

(A) Lemon

(B) Capsicum

(C) Potato

(D) Tomato

Ans. B. Capsicum

22. What is Graphene?

(A) Allotrope of carbon

(B) A popular graphics software

(C) A legendary animal

(D) An infected wound

Answer: A. Allotrope of carbon

23. Pitchblende is the ore of

(A)Uranium

(B)Aluminium

(C)Copper

(D)Zinc

Answer: A. Uranium

24. Which particle has positive charge?

(A) Neutron

(B) Proton

(C) Electron

(D) Kryton

Ans. B. Proton

25. Which process removes the carbon dioxide

from the atmosphere?

(A) Photosynthesis

(B) Biodegradation

(C) Electrolysis

(D) Galvanization

Answer: A. Photosynthesis

26. Which of the following is used as a catalyst in

the hydrogenation of vegetable oil?

(A) He

(B) H2

(C) Pb

(D)Ni

Answer: D. Ni







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27. What is Baking Soda?

(A) Potassium Permanganate

(B) Sodium Chloride

(C) Sodium Bicarbonate

(D) Sodium Carbonate

Answer: C. Sodium Bicarbonate

28. The smell that we get when LPG cylinder leaks

is due to the presence of-

(A) Nitrogen peroxide

(B) Carbon monoxide

(C) Sulphur compound

(D) Carbon dioxide

Answer: C. Sulphur compound

29. Rupee 5 and 10 coins are now made of:

(A) Ferritic stainless steel

(B) Silver and steel

(C) Copper nickel alloy

(D) Copper and brass

Ans. C. Copper nickel alloy

30. Atomic weight of an element is compared with

the atomic weight of which of the following

elements?

(A) Oxygen

(B) Hydrogen

(C) Carbon

(D) Nitrogen

Answer: C. Carbon

31. Which of the following is known as Marsh gas?

(A) Methane

(B) Ethane

(C) Propane

(D) Butane

Answer: A. Methane

32. Which of the following is not a bleaching

agent?

(A) Sodium hypochlorite

(B) Calcium hypochlorite

(C) Hydrogen peroxide

(D) Hydrogen sulphide

Answer: D. Hydrogen sulphide

33. Who gave the way for Chemical symbols in

modern time used by us?

(A) Louis Pasteur

(B) Robert Boyle

(C) Berzelius

(D) John Dalton

Answer: C. Berzelius

34. Which one of these is noble element?

(A) Iron

(B) Silver

(C) Bronze

(D) Aluminum

Answer: B. Silver

35. Which are of these is an example of chemical

reaction?

(A) Sublimation







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(B) Crystallization

(C) Neutralization

(D) Distillation

Answer: C. Neutralization

36. Which agent is good for purification of

drinking water?

(A) Catalytic agent

(B) Reducing agent

(C) Sterilizing agent

(D) Oxidizing agent

Answer: D. Oxidizing agent

37. Which element is used in thermometer as

element is very toxic in nature?

(A) Carbon

(B) Mercury

(C) Arsenic

(D) Cadmium

Answer: B. Mercury

38. Which of the following in nucleus represent

atomic number?

(A) Protons

(B) Neutrons

(C) Electrons

(D) Hydrons

Answer: A. Protons

39. The Process of quenching of hot glass is known

as-

(A) Annealing

(B) Humidifying

(C) Condensation

(D) Decantation

Ans. (A) Annealing

40. Which of the following is known as

quicksilver?

(A) Titanium

(B) Mercury

(C) Platinum

(D) Radium

Answer: B. Mercury

41. What is the full form of CFC?

(A) Chloro Fluoro Carbon

(B) Chloro Fluoro Carbide

(C) Chlorine Flourine Carbon dioxide

(D) Carbo Fluoro Chloride

Answer: A. Chloro Fluoro Carbon

42. Medical drugs work in the human body by

which of following?

(A) Correcting chemical reactions within the body

responsible for diseases

(B) Diverting chemical reactions within the body

responsible for diseases.

(C) Fastening chemical reactions within body

responsible for disease

(D) Slowing chemical reactions within body

responsible for disease







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Answer: A. Correcting chemical reactions within the

body responsible for diseases

43. The colour of solid Iodine is

A. White

B. Colorless

C. Purpliish Grey to Black

D. Reddish Brown

Answer: C. Purpliish Grey to Black

44. Stainless steel is

(A) A compound

(B) A mixture

(C) An element

(D) An alloy

Answer: D. An alloy

45. Gunpowder mainly contains

(A) Calcium sulphate

(B) Potassium nitrate

(C) Lead sulphide

(D) Zinc sulphide

Answer: B. Potassium nitrate

46. The non-metal which is liquid at room

temperature is

(A) Mercury

(B) Bromine

(C) Chlorine

(D) Gallium

Answer: B. Bromine

47. Radium is extracted from which mineral

(A) Rutile

(B) Haematite

(C) Limestone

(D) Pitchblende

Answer: D. Pitchblende

48. Who was the first scientist to prepare periodic

table for chemical elements

(A) Henry Moseley

(B) Robert Boyle

(C) Dmitri Mendeleev

(D) John Newlands

Answer: C. Dmitri Mendeleev

49. Which of the following is not the greenhouse

gas?

(A) Ozone

(B) Nitrous Oxide

(C) Water Vapour

(D) Hydrogen

Answer: D. Hydrogen

50. What is the name of the process where gas is

directly converted to solid called?

A. Sublimation

B. Deposition

C. Condensation

D. Evaporation

Answer: B. Deposition

51. Which process is responsible to generate solar

energy in the sun?







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(A) Nuclear Fusion

(B) Solar Power

(C) Thermal Power

(D) Gravitational energy

Ans. (A) Nuclear Fusion

52. The chemical bond in germanium crystal is

A. Metallic

B. Covalent

C. Electro – valent

D. Vaander walls

Answer: B. Covalent

53. The main chemical substance present in bones

and teeth of animals is

A. Sodium Chloride

B. Sugar

C. Calcium phosphate

D. Calcium Sulphate

Answer: C. Calcium phosphate

54. The term 'Heavy Water" refers to:

A. Ice

B. Deuterium oxide

C. Re-distilled water

D. Water at 4oc

Answer: B. Deuterium oxide

55. How is the rate of reaction based on the

concentration of chemical products?

A. Rate law

B. Instantaneous rate

C. Rate constant

D. Molar Law

Answer: A. Rate law

56. Freezing point of water is

A.400 F

B.420F

C.340 F

D.320 F

Answer: D.320 F

57. What is the atomic number of the element

Indium?

A. 44

B. 54

C. 36

D. 49

Answer: D.49

58. Which is the substance that enhances the activity

of a catalyst?

A. Increaser

B. Promoters

C. Poison

D. Adsorbents

Answer: B. Promoters

59. The major ingredient of sweetened soft drink is

A. Carbonated water

B. Hydrochloric acid

C. Phosphoric acid

D. Caffeine







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Answer: A. Carbonated water

60. Acid Rain has pH value of

A 5.5 or less

B 12.5 or more

C 10.5 or more

D 8.5 or more

Answer: A. 5.5 or less

61. ............ is the most electropositive and ......... is

most electronegative element of the third period of

modern periodic table.

A. Sodium, Potassium

B. Magnesium, Aluminium

C. Sodium, Chlorine

D. Aluminium, Chlorine

Answer: C. Sodium, Chlorine

62. The substances whose odour changes in acidic or

basic medium are called.............

A. Natural indicators

B. Synthetic indicators

C. Acid-base indicators

D. Olfactory indicators

Answer: D Olfactory indicators

63. Aluminium metal is extracted only by:

A. Electrolysis

B. Calcination

C. Reduction

D. Oxidation

Answer: A. Electrolysis

65. Which is the only non-metal placed at the left side

of the Modern Periodic Table?

A. Hydrogen

B. Carbon

C. Neon

D. Helium

Answer: A. Hydrogen

66. Tooth decay starts when the pH of the mouth

is.............

A more than 5.5

B less than 5.5

C less than 4.5

D more than 4.5

Answer: B less than 5.5

67. The bonds formed by the elements having larger

atoms are:

A. weaker

B. stronger

C. very weak

D. very strong

Answer: C. very weak

68. In Modern Periodic Table, there is an anomaly

when it comes to the position of........ because it can be

placed either in group 1 or group 17 in the first

period.

A. He

B. H

C. Li







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D. Be

Answer: B.H

69. Non-metals are generally more electronegative

due to their:

A. Large number of electrons.

B. Smaller atomic radii

C. Smaller atomic number.

D. Smaller ionization energy.

Answer: B. smaller atomic radii

70. Oxides of non-metals are usually............

A. Acidic

B. Neutral

C. Less reactive

D. Basic

Answer: A. Acidic

71. What happens when dilute hydrochloric acid is

added to iron filings?

A. Only chloride are produced

B. Hydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced

C. No reaction takes place

D. Only hydrogen gas is produced

Answer: B. Hydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced

72. Which element in the periodic table forms

maximum number of compounds?

A. H

B. O

C. S

D. C

Answer: D. C

73. ........... is a purple-coloured solid halogen.

A. Bromine

B. Fluorine

C. Chlorine

D. Iodine

Answer: D. Iodine

74. ......... solution is used to treat bee sting.

A. Lemon juice

B. Milk

C. Vinegar

D. Baking soda

Answer: D. Baking soda

75. Constantan is alloyed from ...... metals.

A. Ni, Ti, Fe, Cr

B. Cu, Ni, Mn

C. Ni, Cr, Mn, Fe

D. Cu, Ni

Answer: D. Cu, Ni

76. The force that a neutron exerts on a proton inside

an atom is:

A. Tidal force

B. Gravitational force

C. Electrostatic force

D. Nuclear force

Answer: D. Nuclear force

77. ........... elements are present in the sixth period of

the modern periodic table.







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A. 32

B. 18

C. 33

D. 8

Answer: A.32

78. According to .........., the properties of elements are

a periodic function of their atomic masses.

A. Newlands Law of Octaves

B. Mendeleev's Periodic Law

C. Dobereiner's Law of Triads

D. Newton's Law

Answer: B Mendeleev's Periodic Law

79. When washing soda reacts with hydrochloric acid

........ gas is evolved.

A. Oxygen

B. Carbon monoxide

C. Carbon dioxide

D. Hydrogen

Answer: C. Carbon dioxide

80 .When phenolphthalein is added to vinegar, the

solution becomes...........

A. Blue

B. Red

C. Pink

D. Colourless

Answer: D. Colourless

81. The element of the Lanthanide series having the

atomic number 58 is...........

A. Cerium

B. Lanthanum

C. Thorium

D. Strontium

Answer: A. Cerium

82. When copper oxide is heated with hydrogen.

Copper metal and water are formed. What happens

to the hydrogen in this reaction?

A. both oxidation and reduction

B. Reduction

C. Oxidation

D. Decomposition

Answer: C. Oxidation

83. .......... has the greatest electron affnity.

A. Br

B. Cl

C. I

D. F

Answer: B. Cl

84. In ethane, each carbon atom is bonded to:

A. One atom

B. Three atoms

C. Five atoms

D. Four atoms

Answer: D. Four atoms

85.'Alum' is an example of

A. Flake salt

B. Table salt







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C. Single salt

D. Double salt

Answer: D. Double salt

86. Heating of ores in the absence of oxygen is called:

A. Extraction

B. Calcination

C. Roasting

D. Corrosion

Answer: B. Calcination

87. Electronegativity..... from left to right in a row in

the periodic table and electro positivity ...... from left

to right in a row in the periodic table

A. Decreases, Increases

B. Decreases, Decreases

C. Increases, Increases

D. Increases, Decreases

Answer: D. Increases, Decreases

88. What was the position of noble gases in the

Mendeleev's periodic table?

A. Noble gases, being very inert, were not necessarily

put in the periodic table

B. Noble gases were there in the seventh group

C. Mendeleev divided all elements into 8 groups, so

there was no place for noble gases

D. Noble gases were not discovered by that time

Answer: D. Noble gases were not discovered by that

time

89. The number of neutrons in an atom is equal to

the:

A. Mass number

B. Atomic number

C. Mass number — atomic number

D. Number of electrons

Answer: C. Mass number — atomic number

90. Name the metal that can be easily cut with a

knife:

A. Copper

B. Gold

C. Sodium

D. Aluminium

Answer: C. Sodium

91. What happens as we go down the group in the

periodic table?

A. The number of shells decreases

B. Valence electrons decreases

C. The number of shells increases

D. Atomic size decreases

Answer: C. The number of shells increases

92. The molecular formula of Propane is:

A. C2H6

B. C4H10

C. C3H8

D. CH4

Answer: C. C3H8







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93. The vast amount of sea weeds present in oceans

may produce an endless source of:

A. Methane

B. Ocean thermal energy

C. Sea wave energy

D. Nuclear energy

Answer: A. Methane

94. If Metal A displaces Metal B from its solution,

then Metal A ...........

A. is more reactive than B

B. is less reactive than B

C. is heavier than B

D. has the same reactivity as B

Answer: A. is more reactive than B

95. Which compound is formed when a Magnesium

ribbon is burnt in air?

A Magnesium Nitrate

B Magnesium Carbonate

C Magnesium Oxide

D Magnesium Nitride

Answer: C. Magnesium Oxide

96. Ammonium nitrate, on thermal decomposition,

produces:

A. NH3 and NO2

B. NH3 and NO

C. N2 and H2O

D. N2O and H2O

Answer: D. N2O and H2O

97. The number of free electrons in the outermost

shell of carbon atoms in diamond is:

A. zero

B. two

C. four

D. three

Answer: A. Zero

98. What is the action of dry HCI gas on dry litmus

paper?

A. Blue litmus paper turns white.

B. Blue or red litmus paper does not change its colour.

C. Blue litmus paper turns red.

D. Red litmus paper turns blue.

Answer: B. Blue or red litmus paper does not change its

colour.

99. Which inert gas mixed with oxygen is given to the

patients suffering from restricted breathing?

A. Xenon

B. Krypton

C. Helium

D. Argon

Answer: C. Helium

100. Who is known as “Father of modern

chemistry’?

(A) Emest Rutherford

(B) Otto Hahn

(C) Dmitri Mendeleev

(D) Antotne Lavoisier







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Answer: D. Antotne Lavoisier

101. If the first and third members of a Dobereiner

triad are Phosphorus and Antimony, the second

member of this triad is.

A. Calcium

B. Iodine

C. Arsenic

D. Sulphur

Answer: C. Arsenic

102. Which is the first metallic element in the Modern

Periodic Table?

A. Li

B. Na

C. He

D. H

Answer: A. Li

103. A/an ......... flame is produced when the oxygen

supply is sufficient.

A. Red

B. Orange

C. Blue

D. Green

Answer: C. Blue

104. How are elements arranged in the Modern

Periodic Table?

A. In the increasing order of their Molecular Mass

B. In the increasing order of their Atomic Mass

C. In the increasing order of their Atomic Number

D. In the increasing order of their Mass Number

Answer: C. In the increasing order of their Atomic

Number

105. The pH value increase from 7 to 14 represents a:

A. Decrease in H ion concentration

B. Decrease in OH ion concentration

C. Increase in OH ion concentration

D. Increase in H ion concentration

Answer: C. increase in OH ion concentration

106. Metal oxides which react with acids as well as

bases are called:

A. Amphoteric oxides

B. Neutral oxides

C. Basic oxides

D. Acidic oxides

Answer: A. Amphoteric oxides

107. What is the atomicity of Phosphorus?

A. Di-atomic

B. Poly-atomic

C. Tetra-atomic

D. Mono-atomic

Answer: C. Tetra-atomic

108. In the Modern Periodic Table, a zig-zag line

separates:

A. Metals from halogens

B. Mon-metals from metalloids

C. Metals from non-metals

D. Metals from metalloids







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Answer: C. Metals from non-metals

109. What product is formed when electricity is

passed through an aqueous solution of sodium

chloride?

A. Sodium and chlorine

B. Sodium oxide

C. Sodium hydroxide

D. Sodium and water

Answer: C. Sodium hydroxide

110. The hardest natural substance is:

A. Graphite

B. Diamond

C. Iron

D. Copper

Answer: B. Diamond

111. The number of valence electrons in an atom of

Phosphorus is:

A. 4

B. 3

C. 2

D. 5

Answer: D.5

112. The maximum number of electrons that can be

accommodated in a shell depends on the formula:

A. 4n2

B. 3n2

C. n2

D. 2n2

Answer: D. 2n2

113. Which type of reaction occurs when carbon

burns in oxygen to give carbon dioxide?

A. Addition reaction

B. Substitution reaction

C. Combustion reaction

D. Decomposition reaction

Answer: C. Combustion reaction

114. Who first discovered that every eighth element

had properties similar to that of the first?

A. John Newlands

B. Moseley

C. Dobereiner

D. Mendeleev

Answer: A. John Newlands

115. What is the radius of an atom used to measure?

A. Atomic number

B. Atomic mass

C. Atomic size

D. Atomicity

Answer: C. Atomic size

116. During combustion of unsaturated compounds a

....... is seen.

A. Clean flame

B. Blue flame

C. Red flame

D. Yellow flame

Answer: D. Yellow flame







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117. What are elements F, Cl, Br, I and At commonly

known as?

A. Transition elements

B. Halogens

C. Rare earth elements

D. Actinoids

Answer: B. Halogens

118. Common metals arranged in order of their

decreasing reactivity is known as:

A. Reactivity

B. Conductivity

C. Electrolytic reduction

D. Activity series

Answer: D. Activity series

119. Alkali metals are assigned which group in the

Modern Periodic Table?

A. Second group

B. Eighteenth group

C. Third group

D. First group

Answer: D. First group

120. In Newlands’ table, the elements........... were

placed with the halogens.

A. Ce and La

B. Fe and Se

C. Mn and As

D. Co and Ni

Answer: D. Co and Ni

121. Acids that contain Hydrogen and other non-

metallic element(s), except Oxygen, are called:

A. Hydracids

B. Dilute acids

C. Strong acids

D. Weak acids

Answer: A. Hydracids

122. ........ is the most ductile metal.

A. Ph

B. C

C. Au

D. Ag

Answer: C. Au

123. An unbalanced chemical equation is called a:

A. Rough chemical equation

B. Natural chemical equation

C. Complex chemical equation

D. Skeletal chemical equation

Answer: D. Skeletal chemical equation

124. Saturated Hydrocarbons are called:

A. Alkynes

B. Isomers

C. Alkanes

D. Alkenes

Answer: C. Alkanes

125. The primitive atmosphere was reducing because:

A. Hydrogen atoms were few

B. Hydrogen atoms were active and in greater numbers







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C. Oxygen atoms were more

D. Nitrogen atoms were more

Answer: B. Hydrogen atoms were active and in greater

numbers

126. The formula represents the hydrocarbon.......

A. Hexene

B. Heptyne

C. Hexane

D. Hexyne

Answer: C. Hexane

127. According to Newlands’ Law of Octaves, how

many elements exist in nature?

A. 56

B. 66

C. 55

D. 65

Answer: A.56

128. Nitric acid does not react with which of the

following metal?

A. Iron

B. Copper

C. Gold

D. Zinc

Answer: C. Gold

129. Which one of the following calcium salts is used

as a fertilizer?

A. Calcium Cyanide

B. Calcium Sulphate

C. Calcium Carbide

D. Calcium Carbonate

Answer: B. Calcium Sulphate

130. Which of the following metal has the maximum

thermal conductivity?

A. Silver

B. Aluminium

C. Copper

D. Iron

Answer: A. Silver

131. Which of the following non-metal gives hardness

to the stainless steel?

A. Selenium

B. Phosphorous

C. Carbon

D. Sulphur

Answer: C. Carbon

132. Activated charcoal is used to remove colouring

matter from pure substances by which of the

following process?

A. Oxidation

B. Reduction

C. Absorption

D. Adsorption

Answer: D. Adsorption

133. Biogas which is used for cooking purpose is a

mixture of which of the following two components?

A. Methane and Carbon dioxide







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B. Methane and Carbon monoxide

C. Isobutane and Propane

D. Carbon dioxide and Oxygen

Answer: A. Methane and Carbon dioxide

134. The Boiling Point of a liquid varies with the

variation in…………...?

A. Density

B. Pressure

C. Volume

D. Temperature

Answer: B. Pressure

135. Which type of glass is used for making chemical

apparatus like beakers, flasks etc.?

A. Pyrex glass

B. Optical glass

C. Hard glass

D. Photo-chromatic glass

Answer: C. Hard glass

136. Which of the following instrument is used for

measuring low temperatures?

A. Cryometer

B. Chromatoptometer

C. Cymometer

D. Diagometer

Answer: A. Cryometer

137. Which of the following acid can decolourise

purple coloured Potassium Permanganate solution?

A. Citric acid

B. Sulphuric acid

C. Carboxylic acid

D. Hydrochloric acid

Answer: A. Citric acid

138. Which of the following indicator produces a pink

colour in an alkaline solution?

A. Turmeric paper

B. Methyl Orange

C. litmus paper

D. Phenolphthalein

Answer: D. Phenolphthalein

139. Plaster of Paris is prepared by heating which of

the following at a temperature of 100 Degree Celsius?

A. CaCl2.2H2O

B. CaSO4.2H2O

C. Ca (OH)2

D. CaCO3.2H2O

Answer: B. CaSO4.2H2O

140. Which of the following is treated with chlorine to

obtain bleaching powder?

A. Ca (OH)2

B. Mg (OH)2

C. CaSO4

D. CaCl2

Answer: A. Ca (OH)2

141. Which among the following are Dibasic Acids?

A. Phosphoric Acid

B. Nitric Acid







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C. Hydrochloric Acid

D. Sulphuric Acid

Answer: D. Sulphuric Acid

142. What is the pH value of Sodium Hydroxide?

A. 12

B. 11

C. 14

D. 7

Answer: C. 14

143. What is the chemical name of caustic potash?

A. Potassium Hydroxide

B. Manganese Hydroxide

C. Ferrous Hydroxide

D. Phosphorous Hydroxide

Answer: A. Potassium Hydroxide

144. What is the approximate carbon composition of

kerosene?

A. C31 - C32

B. C8 - C10

C. C10 - C16

D. C20 - C25

Answer: C. C10 - C16

145. Where does the process of electrolysis occur

during reduction?

A. Cathode

B. Anode

C. Both

D. None of these

Answer: A. Cathode

146. What is philosopher's wool?

A. Zinc hydroxide

B. Zinc oxide

C. Zinc bromide

D. None of these

Answer: B. Zinc oxide

147. NBR stands for?

A. Nitrile Butyl Rubber

B. AcryloNitrile-butadiene rubber

C. Nitrile Butene Rubber

D. None of these

Answer: B. AcryloNitrile-butadiene rubber

148. The composition of soap comprises of?

A. Sodium salt with fatty acids.

B. Sodium and Potassium salt mixed with chemicals

C. Potassium salt with fatty acids

D. Both a & c

Answer: D. Both a & c

149. What is the octane number of iso-octane?

A 100

B 108

C 104

D 101

Answer: A.100

150. Which gas is used in voyage as Holmes signal?

A. Water gas

B. Chlorine gas







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C. Syn gas

D. Phosphine gas

Answer: D. Phosphine gas

151. All ores are _____?

A. Metals

B. Non-metals

C. Metalloids

D. Minerals

Answer: D. Minerals

152. Which among the following radius has largest

size?

A. Covalent radius

B. Metallic radius

C. Nonmetallic radius

D. Vanderwall radius

Answer: D. Vanderwall radius

153. Which among the following is true?

A. Thomson’s model - Plum pudding model

B. Bohr’s model - Nuclear theory

C. Rutherford’s model - Quantization of energy

D. All of the above

Answer: A Thomson’s model - Plum pudding model

154. Which of the following is a natural dye?

A: Crystal violet

B: Aniline blue

C: Alizarin

D: Phenolphthalein

Answer: C. Alizarin

155. Which Group metals are called Alkali Earth

metals?

A. Group I

B. Group II

C. Group III

D. Group IV

Answer: B. Group II

156. Which among the following chemical substances

are used in the formation of mustard gas?

A. Bromine

B. Chlorine

C. Sulphur

D. Ammonia

Answer: B. Chlorine

157. What are the examples of strong electrolytes?

A. Acetic Acid

B. Carbonic Acid

C. Sodium Hydroxide

D. All of the above

Answer: C. Sodium Hydroxide

158. What is the boiling point of ethanol?

A.78.30C

B.560C

C.480C

D.460C

Answer: A.78.30C

159. Which among the following elements are the

constituents of stainless steel?







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A. Iron

B. Copper

C. Zinc

D. Lead

Answer: A. Iron

160. What is the geometrical structure for

hybridization of S 3 ?

A. Linear

B. Trigonal

C. Tetrahedral

D. Octahedral

Answer: C. Tetrahedral

161. What is the Oxidation Number of Alkali metals

like Sodium, Potassium, Lithium etc?

A +2

B +1

C -1

D -2

Answer: B. +1

162. What is the common characteristic of the

elements of the same group in the periodic table?

A. Electrons in outer most shell

B. Total number of electrons

C. Total number of protons

D. Atomic weight

Answer: A. Electrons in outer most shell

163. What happens when one S and one P orbital is

hybridized?

A. We get three orbitals in a plane

B. We get two orbitals at 180 degrees

C. We get two mutually perpendicular orbitals

D. We get four orbitals directed tetrahedrally

Answer: B. we get two orbitals at 180 degrees

164. Which among the following occurs in the process

of oxidation?

A. Addition of oxygen

B. Removal of hydrogen

C. Addition of electro negative element

D. All of the above

Answer: D. All of the above

165. The desirable range of pH for milk is?

A 6.6

B 4.1

C 7.8

D 2.4

Answer: A. 6.6

166. The (O-H) bond in CH3OH is which type of

bond?

A. Polar covalent

B. Ionic

C. Non polar covalent

D. Cationic

Answer: A. Polar covalent

167. Adding which substance gives blue colour to

glass?

A. Manganese oxide







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B. Cobalt oxide

C. Chromium oxide

D. Iron oxide

Answer: B. Cobalt oxide

168. Terylene is a condensation polymer of ethylene

glycol and which acid?

A. Benzoic Acid

B. Salicylic acid

C. Phthalic acid

D. Terephthalic acid

Answer: D. Terephthalic acid

169. The conversion of hard water into soft water by

boiling or adding calcium hydroxide is called

A. Baker's process

B. Temp's process

C. Clarke's process

D. Lake's process

Answer: C. Clarke's process

170. Biofertilizers convert nitrogen to _________ .

A. Nitrates

B. Ammonia

C. Nitrogenase

D. Amino acids

Answer: B. Ammonia

171. Which drug is used as an Anti-Inflammatory?

A. Metformin

B. Diazepam

C. Latanoprost

D. Prednisone

Answer: D. Prednisone

172. Who invented the atomic theory?

A. Albert Einstein

B. John Dalton

C. Madam curie

D. None of these

Answer: B. John Dalton

173. The common name of hydrogen peroxide is

A. Borax

B. Bleach (liquid)

C. Baking soda

D. Gypsum

Answer: B. Bleach (liquid)

174. Which element gives hardness to stainless steel?

A. Zinc

B. Lead

C. Carbon

D. Tin

Answer: C. Carbon

175. The density of gold is ___ the density of

mercury?

A. Higher than

B. Lower than

C. Equal to

D. Incomparable to

Answer: A. Higher than







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176. The process of depositing a layer of any desired

metal on another material by means of electricity is

called

A. Electroplating

B. Galvanisation

C. Rusting

D. Crystallisation

Answer: A. Electroplating

177 .Which base is present in soap?

A. Sodium hydroxide

B. Silicon dioxide

C. Calcium hydroxide

D. Ammonium hydroxide

Answer: A. Sodium hydroxide

178. Which gas is produced due to incomplete

combustion of fuel?

A. Carbon Dioxide

B. Carbon Monoxide

C. Methane

D. Ethane

Answer: B. Carbon Monoxide

179. Magnesium oxide (MgO) + Water (H2O) =?

A. [Mg(OH)]

B. [Mg2(OH)]

C. [Mg(O2H)2]

D. [Mg(OH)2]

Answer: D. [Mg(OH)2]

180. Anions are formed through which process?

A. Losing of electrons

B. Gaining of electrons

C. Gaining of neutrons

D. Losing of neutrons

Answer: B. Gaining of electrons

181. The anode in a dry cell consists of?

A. Copper

B. Zinc

C. Cadmium

D. Graphite

Answer: B. Zinc

182 .If water smells bad, then that odour can be

removed by adding

A. Alum

B. Bleach

C. Activated carbon

D. Deactivated nitrogen

Answer: C. Activated carbon

183. Which compound’s structure is held by weak

Vanderwaal’s force?

A. Diamond

B. Gold

C. Graphite

D. Magnesium

Answer: C. Graphite

184. NaCl has which kind of bonds?

A. Nonpolar bonds

B. Polar covalent bonds







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C. Metallic bonds

D. Ionic bonds

Answer: D. Ionic bonds

185. Which chemical is used to generate light, to weld

metals?

A. Ethylene

B. Acetylene

C. Glycol

D. Oxalic acid

Answer: B Acetylene

186. Which man-made polymer is used to make

bottle?

A. Polypropene

B. Polythene

C. Teflon

D. Nylon

Answer: A. Polypropene

187. Turquoise is an ore/mineral of

A. Copper

B. Manganese

C. Mercury

D. Tin

Answer: A. Copper

188. Process of gaining electrons is known as _____.

A. Oxidation

B. Reduction

C. Radiation

D. Both oxidation and reduction

Answer: B. Reduction

189. The most abundant metal in the Earth's crust is

A. Zinc

B. Copper

C. Aluminium

D. Iron

Answer: C. Aluminium

190. Name the source from which Aspirin is

produced?

A. Willow bark

B. Oak Tree

C. Acacia

D. Eucalyptus

Answer: A. Willow bark

191. Which substance is used in purifying closed air

in hospital?

A. Strontium

B. Cadmium

C. Sodium Peroxide

D. Zinc Oxide

Answer: C. Sodium Peroxide

192. In a compound the elements are always present

in definite proportions by

A. Mass

B. Volume

C. Size

D. No option is correct.

Answer: A. Mass







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193. What is nature of pH of Milk?

A. Slightly Acidic

B. Slightly Basic

C. Highly Acidic

D. Highly Basic

Answer: A. Slightly Acidic

194. Marble is a metamorphic rock of .............

A. Sandstone

B. Limestone

C. Granite

D. Clay

Answer: B. Limestone

195. Which chemical is also known as Carbolic Acid?

A. Phenol

B. Hydroxide

C. Sulphuric Acid

D. Ethanol

Answer: A. Phenol

196. What is the hybridization of carbon in graphite?

A. SP

B. SP2

C. SP3

D. SP6

Answer: B. SP2

197. The compound used in prickly-heat powder to

prevent excessive sweating is

A. Boric acid

B. Phosphoric acid

C. Carbonic acid

D. Sulphonic acid

Answer: A. Boric acid

198. Ionization Potential for inert gas

A. Zero

B. Low

C. High

D. Negative

Answer: C. High

199. Which property of iron metal is utilised in

producing iron sheets required for making buckets?

A. Ductility

B. Malleability

C. High Density

D. Metallic Lustre

Answer: B. Malleability

200. The rechargeable battery used in mobile-phone

handset is usually……….?

A. Sodium ion battery

B. Lead ion battery

C. Lithium ion battery

D. Hydrogen ion battery

Answer: C. Lithium ion battery

201. Which of the following metal can be extracted

from the bauxite ore?

A. Manganese

B. Cobalt

C. Nickel







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D. Aluminium

Answer: D. Aluminium

202. Beryllium Sulphate is less soluble in water due

to?

A: High inflammable energy

B: Low Energy of dissociation

C: Low inflammable energy

D: Ionic band

Answer: A. High inflammable energy

203.What is the name of that system which uses

radioactivity to decide the period of materials of pre-

historic period?

A: Radium dating

B: Uranium dating

C: Carbon dating

D: Deuterium dating

Answer: C. Carbon dating

204. Cement is made hard with

A. Dehydration

B. Hydration and dissociation of water

C. Dissociation of water

D. Polymerisation

Answer: B. Hydration and dissociation of water

205. What happens when a chemical bond is formed ?

A. Energy is always absorbed

B. Energy in always released

C. More energy is released than is absorbed

D. Energy is neither released nor absorbed

Answer: A. Energy is always absorbed

206. Which among the following is a carbohydrate?

A. Nylon

B. Cane sugar

C. Turpentine

D. Hydrogen peroxide

Answer: B. Cane sugar

207. In which of the following states maximum iron

ore is found?

A. FeC03

B. Fe203

C. Fe304

D. FeS2

Answer: B. Fe203

208. Which one of the following metals pollutes the

air of a city having large number of automobiles?

A. Cadmium

B. Chromium

C. Lead

D. Copper

Answer: C. Lead

209. Nonstick kitchen wares are coated with

A. FVC

B. Graphite

C. Teflon

D. Silicon

Answer: C. Teflon







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210. An atomic pile is used for

A: Producing X rays

B: Conducting nuclear fission

C: Conducting thermonuclear fusion

D: Accelerating atoms

Answer: B. Conducting nuclear fission

211. Sea weeds are important source of

A. Iron

B. Chlorine

C. Bromine

D. Iodine

Answer: D. Iodine

212. The substance which does not expand on going

from liquid state to solid state is

A. Water

B. Cast iron

C. Aluminium

D. Type metal

Answer: D. Type metal

213. The element which is commonly used in nuclear

for producing electricity by nuclear fission is

A. Radium

B. Plutonium

C. Uranium

D. Deuterium

Answer: C. Uranium

214. Table salt gets moist during rainy season because

A. sodium chloride is hygroscopic

B. sodium chloride is deliquescent

C. sodium chloride contains some quantity of sodium

iodide

D. sodium chloride contains hygroscopic impurities like

magnesium chloride

Answer:D. sodium chloride contains hygroscopic

impurities like magnesium chloride

215. Which of the following is used as a lubricant in

heavy machines?

A: Bauxite

B: Sulphur

C: Phosphorus

D: Graphite

Answer: D. Graphite

216. Which of the following is used to iodine common

salt?

A. Potassium iodide

B. Iodine

C. Potassium iodide

D. Sodium iodide

Answer: C. Potassium iodide

217. Milk is a colloidal system in which

A. Water is dispersed in fat

B. Fat is dispersed in water

C. Fat and water are dispersed in each other

D. Fat is dissolved

Answer: B. Fat is dispersed in water







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218. The common name for the compound having

formal NaOH is

A. Caustic soda

B. Caustic potash

C. Soda ash

D. Sodium hydroxide

Answer: A. Caustic soda

219. Silk fibre chemically is:

A: Carbohydrate

B: Fat

C: Protein

D: Cellulose

Answer: C. Protein

220. Who developed Hydrogen Bomb?

A. Werner Von Braun

B. J. Robert Oppen Heimer

C. Edward Teller

D. Samuel Cohen

Answer: C. Edward Teller

221. When there are two electrons in the same orbital

they have:

A: Same spin

B: Opposite spin

C: Same or opposite spin

D: No spin

Answer: B. Opposite spin

222. Which one of the following minerals is found in

pure form?

A. Iron

B. Copper

C. Bauxite

D. Manganes

Answer: B. Copper

223. Fermentation of milk to curd is due to:

A. Mycobacterium

B. Staphylococcus

C. Lactobacillus

D. Yeasts

Answer: C. Lactobacillus

224. By which organic compound all the oils are

known?

A. Carbohydrate

B. Protein

C. Hydrocarbon

D. Ester

Answer: C. Hydrocarbon

225. The atomic number of carbon is 6 and its atomic

mass is how many are there protons in the nucleus of

carbon?

A. 6

B. 12

C. 18

D. Zero

Answer: A. 6

226. The drug Marijuana is a

A. Sedative







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B. Mental stimulant

C. Hallucinating substance

D. Tranquillizer

Answer: A. Sedative

227. The major harmful gas emitted by automobile

vehicles which causes air pollution is

A. Carbon Monoxide

B. Methane

C. Carbon dioxide

D. Ozone gas

Answer: C. Carbon dioxide

228. Milk tastes sour when kept in the open for some

time due to the formation of .

A. Lactic acid

B. Citric acid

C. Acetic acid

D. Carbonic acid

Answer: A. Lactic acid

229. What is the most commonly used Substance in

fluorescent tubes?

A. Sodium oxide and argon

B. Sodium vapour and neon

C. Mercury vapour and argon

D. Mercury oxide and neon

Answer: C. Mercury vapour and argon

230. What is "milk of magnesia” chemically?

A. Magnesium carbonate

B. Sodium bicarbonate

C. Calcium hydroxide

D. Magnesium hydroxide

Answer: D. Magnesium hydroxide

231. Among the fuels given below the one with highest

calorific value is

A. Coke

B. Coal

C. Wood

D. Natural gas

Answer: D. Natural gas

232. The natural source of hydrocarbon is

A. Crude oil

B. Biomass

C. Coal

D. Carbohydrates

Answer: A. Crude oil

233. Which of the following is chiefly present in LPG

(Liquefied Petroleum Gas)?

A. Methane

B. Ethane

C. Propane

D. Butane

Answer: D. Butane

234. Tear gas used by the police to disperse the mob

contains

A. Carbon dioxide

B. Chlorine







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C. Ammonia

D. Hydrogen sulphide

Answer: B. Chlorine

235. Which among the following metals provides

atmospheric oxide?

A: Sodium

B: Silver

C: Aluminium

D: Calcium


236.Humburger effect is otherwise known as

A. Sodium pump

B. Anaerobic metabolism

C. Choloride shift

D. Respiratory product

Answer: C. Choloride shift

237. Which among the following stage is suitable

indicator when solution of sodium carbonate is mixed

with sulphuric acid?

A: Methylene blue

B: Methyl red

C: Phenolphthalein

D: Methyl orange

Answer: D. Methyl orange

238. Which among the following is pure matter?

A: Carbon dioxide

B: Brass

C: Air

D: Iron

Answer: A. Carbon dioxide

239.Which among the following coal contains 90 per

cent of carbon?

A: Anthracite

B: Bitumen

C: Lignite

D: Peat

Answer: A. Anthracite

240. The charcoal used to decolourise brown sugar

solution is

A. Wood charcoal

B. Coconut charcoal

C. Animal charcoal

D. Sugar charcoal

Answer: C. Animal charcoal

241. Which metal does not undergo corrosion due to

the formation of oxide layer?

A. Copper

B. Iron

C. Aluminium

D. Zinc


242. Which of these acids is not organic in origin?

A. Lactic acid

B. Sulphuric acid







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C. Citric acid

D. Oxalic acid

Answer: B. Sulphuric acid

243. Which is abundant in Gobar gas?

A: Carbon dioxide

B: Methane

C: Oxygen

D: Hydrogen

Answer: B. Methane

244. A sulphide ore is converted into metal oxide by

which of the following process?

A. Roasting

B. Anodising

C. Calcination

D. Carbonation

Answer: A. Roasting

245. The property of the self-combination of the

atoms of the same element to form long-chains is

called………….?

A. Carbonation

B. Catenation

C. Protonation

D. Coronation

Answer: B. Catenation

246. Buckminsterfullerene is an allotropic form of

which of the following element?

A. Carbon

B. Sulphur

C. Fluorine

D. Phosphorous

Answer: A. Carbon

247. Which of the following hydrocarbon has

alternate single and double bonds arranged in the

form of a ring?

A. Hexene

B. Propene

C. Butene

D. Benzene

Answer: D. Benzene

248. Which of the following substance produces brisk

effervescence when treated with baking-soda

solution?

A. Vegetable oil

B. Vinegar

C. Ethanol

D. Chloroform

Answer: B. Vinegar

249. According to Mendeleev’s Periodic law, the

elements were arranged in the periodic table in the

order of…………...?

A. Increasing atomic numbers

B. Decreasing atomic numbers

C. Increasing atomic masses

D. Decreasing atomic masses

Answer: C. Increasing atomic masses







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250. The two metal ions that cause hardness to water

are……………?

A. Calcium and Magnesium

B. Sodium and Magnesium

C. Magnesium and Sulphur

D. Sodium and Chlorine

Answer: A. Calcium and Magnesium

251 Which among the following is the lightest

radioactive element in the Periodic Table?

A. Polonium

B. Uranium

C. Tritium

D. Deuterium

Answer: C. Tritium

252. When diamond is heated at more than 1500

Degree Celsius in the absence of air, then it turns

to………….?

A. Coal

B. Carbondioxide

C. Fullerene

D. Graphite

Answer: D. Graphite

253. Which of the following method can be employed

to test the Hardness of Water?

A. Sublimation

B. Distillation

C. Formation of lather with soap

D. Saponification

Answer: C. Formation of lather with soap

254. During the fermentation of sugar, the compound

which is always formed is…………?

A. Acetic acid

B. Ethylene

C. Ethyl Alcohol

D. Methyl Alcohol

Answer: C. Ethyl Alcohol

255. The process of removal of carbon particles from

the air involves which of the following principle?

A. Sedimentation

B. Filtration

C. Sedimentation

D. Electrophoresis

Answer: D. Electrophoresis

256. Which one of the following is commonly used for

pulp bleaching in the paper industry?

A. Glucose Isomerase

B. Hydrogen Peroxide

C. Mixture of Iodine and Water

D. Mild Sulphuric acid

Answer: B. Hydrogen Peroxide

257. Diamond does not conduct electricity because of

which of the following reason?

A. Because of its crystalline nature

B. Because of its compact structure

C. Because only carbon atoms are present in it

D. Due to absence of free electrons







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Answer: D. Due to absence of free electrons

258. Which of the following process is involved in the

manufacturing of iron from iron-ore?

A. Oxidation

B. Reduction

C. Electrolysis

D. Fractional Distillation

Answer: B. Reduction


measure the change in the volume of the gases?

A. Viscometer

B. Calorimeter

C. Tensiometer

D. Eudiometer

Answer: D. Eudiometer

260. Which of the following gas is used in the

preparation of the bleaching powder?

A. Oxygen

B. Nitrogen

C. Chlorine

D. Hydrogen

Answer: C. Chlorine

261. Atoms of the elements having same atomic

number, but different mass numbers are known

as………...?

A. Isobars

B. Isotopes

C. Isotones

D. Isoelectronic

Answer: B. Isotopes

262. Who among the following classified the elements

into metals and non-metals?

A. Mendeleev

B. Lavoisier

C. Moseley

D. John Dalton

Answer: B. Lavoisier

263. A reaction in which oxidation and reduction

takes place simultaneously is…………...?

A. Oxidation Reaction

B. Reduction Reaction

C. Displacement Reaction

D. Redox Reaction

Answer: D. Redox Reaction

264. What is the name of the reaction in which acid

reacts with base to form salt and water?

A. Substitution reaction

B. Decomposition reaction

C. Combination reaction

D. Neutralisation reaction

Answer: D. Neutralisation reaction

265. Which acid is present in a tomato?

A. Tartaric acid

B. Maleic acid

C. Oxalic acid

D. Stearic acid







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Answer: C. Oxalic acid

266. Which of the following acid proves to be useful

for the purification of gold and silver?

A. Sulphuric acid


C. Carboxylic acid

D. Nitric acid

Answer: D. Nitric acid

267. What is the value of the specific-gravity of

diamond?

A. 3.53

B. 3.45

C. 3.52

D. 3.33

Answer: C. 3.52

268. Which substance is used for making the

electrodes of the electric furnaces?

A. Carbon

B. Zinc

C. Iron

D. Graphite

Answer: D. Graphite

269. Liquified Petroleum gas (LPG) is a mixture of

which of the following two components?

A. Butane and Propane

B. Methane and Propane

C. Isobutane and Propane

D. Methane and Isobutane

Answer: A. Butane and Propane

270. The earthy impurities like sand, rocks and

limestone present in an ore is called…………...?

A. Gangue

B. Flux

C. Slag

D. Both a and b

Answer: A. Gangue.

271. Which of the following isotope of hydrogen is

radioactive in nature?

A. Protium

B. Tritium

C. Deuterium

D. All of the above

Answer: B. Tritium

272. Which catalyst is used for the synthesis of H2SO4

by Lead-Chamber process?

A. Platinum

B. Nickel

C. Aluminium oxide

D. Nitrogen oxide

Answer: D. Nitrogen oxide

273. Glycol is used to manufacture which of the

following?

A. Natural rubber

B. Nylon

C. Artificial silk

D. Terylene







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Answer: D. Terylene

274. Galvanised iron is made by coating iron with

which of the following metal?

A. Nickel

B. Zirconium

C. Zinc

D. Manganese

Answer: C. Zinc

275. The Polymerisation of which of the following is

used in the manufacturing of polythene in industry?

A. Acetylene

B. Vinyl Chloride

C. Styrene

D. Ethylene

Answer: D. Ethylene

276. The anode of the lead-storage battery is made

up of which of the following metal?

A. Lead

B. Iron

C. Cobalt

D. Copper

Answer: A. Lead

277. Sour Taste of Coca-Cola is due to the presence of

which of the following acid?

A. Acetic acid

B. Formic acid

C. Tartaric acid

D. Phosphoric acid

Answer: D. Phosphoric acid

278. Which scientist gave the concept of fixed energy

levels around the nucleus?

A. Ernest Rutherford

B. Neils Bohar

C. J.J.Thomsan

D. None of these

Answer. B. Neils Bohar

279. Which of the following compound is commonly

used to restore the colour of the old-paintings?

A. Hydrogen Peroxide

B. Sodium Peroxide

C. Sodium Chloride

D. Manganese dioxide

Answer: A. Hydrogen Peroxide

280. Cream gets separated out of milk when it is

churned. This happens due to which of the following

force?

A. Centrifugal force

B. Centripetal force


D. Frictional force

Answer: A. Centrifugal force

281. Which of the following chemical is most

commonly used for cloud-seeding or artificial

rainmaking?

A. Sodium Chloride

B. Silver Iodide







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C. Magnesium Chloride

D. Sodium Sulphate

Answer: B. Silver Iodide

282. Which of the following gas is used in the

manufacture of Vanaspati Ghee?

A. Nitrogen

B. Oxygen

C. Carbondioxide

D. Hydrogen

Answer: D. Hydrogen

283. Which of the following acid is used to remove ink

and rust spots on clothes?

A. Hydrochloric acid

B. Formic acid

C. Oxalic acid

D. Sulphuric acid

Answer: C. Oxalic acid

284. Which of the following apparatus is used to test

the acidity of the aqueous solution?

A. Calorimeter

B. Lactometer

C. Hygrometer

D. pH meter

Answer: D. pH meter

285. Which of the following is the first organic

compound that was synthesised in the laboratory?

A. Uric acid

B. Sulphuric acid

C. Glucose

D. Urea

Answer: D. Urea

286. Which of the following non-metallic element

shows allotropy in the liquid state?

A. Sulphur

B. Oxygen

C. Nitrogen

D. Carbon

Answer: A. Sulphur

281. Which of the following form of Phosphorous is

considered to be the most reactive?

A. Violet phosphorous

B. Red phosphorous

C. White phosphorous

D. Black phosphorous

Answer: C. White phosphorous

282. Who among the following is known for the

discovery of atomic-bomb?

A. J. Robert Oppenheimer

B. John Albery

C. John Dalton

D. Richard R. Ernst

Answer: A. J. Robert Oppenheimer

283. Which of the following element is found in

maximum percentage in the human body?

A. Calcium

B. Phosphorous







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C. Oxygen

D. Nitrogen

Answer: C. Oxygen

284. Which of the following alkali metals has the

highest specific heat?

A. Potassium

B. Rubidium

C. Lithium

D. Francium

Answer: C. Lithium

285. Which of the following fundamental particles are

found in the nucleus of an atom?

A. Neutrons and electrons

B. Neutrons and protons

C. Protons and electrons

D. Electrons, protons and neutrons

Answer: B. Neutrons and protons

286. Which of the following gas is used for the

artificial ripening of the green-fruits?

A. Phosphine

B. Ethylene

C. Fluoroacetylene

D. Propane

Answer: B. Ethylene

287. Which of the following element is required for

the conversion of the solar energy?

A. Silicon

B. Rubidium

C. Potassium

D. Thallium

Answer: A. Silicon

288. Which one of the following is considered as the

purest form of iron?

A. Pig Iron

B. Cast Iron

C. Steel

D. Wrought Iron

Answer: D. Wrought Iron

289. Which of the following substance is commonly

used as a preservative in foods?

A. Acetic acid

B. Tartaric acid

C. Sodium Benzoate

D. Sodium Carbonate

Answer: C. Sodium Benzoate

290. Which one of the following is the most abundant

inert gas present in the atmosphere?

A. Helium

B. Argon

C. Krypton

D. Radon

Answer: B. Argon

291. Which of the following isotope of uranium is

used as a nuclear-fuel in reactors?

A. U-237

B. U-238







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C. U-235

D. U-233

Answer: C. U-235

292. Vinegar prepared by fermentation of cane-sugar

contains what percentage of acetic acid by volume?

A. 10-20%

B. 5-20%

C. 15-20%

D. 8-15%

Answer: B. 5-20%

293. Which of the following gas usually causes

explosions in coal-mines?

A. Propane

B. Methane

C. Fluoroethane

D. Diazomethane

Answer: B. Methane

294. Which of the following is the most reactive

element in the Halogen series?

A. Chlorine

B. Bromine

C. Fluorine

D. Iodine

Answer: C. Fluorine

295. Which of the following acid is secreted by the

glands in the wall of the stomach?

A. Acetic acid

B. Oxalic acid

C. Butyric acid

D. Hydrochloric acid

Answer: D. Hydrochloric acid

296. Which of the following element is used for the

manufacture of the safety-matches?

A. Thorium

B. Tungsten

C. Phosphorous

D. Sulphur

Answer: C. Phosphorous

297. Which of the following element can form a large

number of compounds because of its property of

catenation?

A. Sulphur

B. Potassium

C. Aluminium

D. Carbon

Answer: D. Carbon

298. What is the element that is in the highest

percentage in the composition of the earth?

A: Silicon

B: Oxygen

C: Magnesium

D: Iron

Answer: B. Oxygen

299. Which is the most abundant metal in the Earth’s

crust?

A. Aluminium







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B. Nickel

C. Iron

D. Silicon

Answer: A. Aluminium

300. Solder is an alloy of

A. Lead, Zinc

B. Copper, Lead

C. Tin, Lead

D. Sodium, Lead

Answer: C. Tin, lead

301. Gelatin is mostly used in making ice creams in

order to

A. Prevent making a colloid

B. Stabilise the colloid and prevent crystallisation

C. Stabilise mixture

D. Enrich the aroma

Answer: B. stabilise the colloid and prevent

crystallisation

302.The advantage of detergents over soaps is

A. Detergents are soluble in water

B. Detergents could not give much lather

C. Detergents give lather even with hard Water

D. Soaps give lather with only soft water

Answer: C. Detergents give lather even with hard Water

303. Bleaching action of moist sulphur dioxide is

because of its

A. Basic property

B. Acidic property

C. Oxidising property

D. Reducing property

Answer: D. Reducing property

304. The long range potential of nuclear energy in

India depends on its reserves of

A. Thorium

B. Uranium

C. Plutonium

D. Radium

Answer: B: Uranium

305.Which of the following gases will effuse out of

football bladder most quickly?

A. He

B. H2

C. N2

D. 02

Answer: B. H2

306.Which of the following alkali metals has highest

specific heat?

A. Cesium

B. Rubidium

C. Potassium

D. lithium

Answer: D. Lithium

307.In which of the following substances all carbon

atoms are quaternary in nature?

A. Graphite

B. Diamond







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C. Teflon

D. Napthalene

Answer:B. Diamond

308. The acid present in red ants is

A. Acetic acid

B. Butyric acid

C. Caproicacid

D. Formic acid

Answer: D. Formic acid

309. The wire of flash bulb is made of

A. Copper

B. Barium

C. Magnesium

D. Silver

Answer: C. Magnesium

310.Which of the following elements is non-

radioactive?

A. Uranium

B. Thorium

C. Plutonium

D. Zirconium

Answer: D. Zirconium

311. The coloured discharge tubes for advertisement

mainly contain

A. Xenon

B. Argon

C. Helium

D. Neon

Answer: D. Neon

312. Muscle fatigue is caused by the accumulation of

A. Pyruvic acid

B. Lactic acid

C. Oxalic acid

D. Uric acid

Answer: B. Lactic acid

313. Which of the following type of coal has the lowest

proportion of volatile matter?

A. Lignite

B. Peat

C. Bituminous

D. Anthracite

Answer: D. Anthracite

314. The natural resource known as black gold is

A. Petroleum

B. Lead

C. Tin

D. Platinum

Answer: A . Petroleum

315.Saccharin is made up of

A. Toluene

B. Phenol

C. Propane

D. Butane

Answer: A. Toluene

316. PVC is obtained by the polymerisation of

A. Propane







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B. Vinyl chloride

C. Styrene

D. Acetylene

Answer: B. Vinyl chloride

317. Which of the following vegetable oils does not

contain essential fatty acids?

A: Sunflower oil

B: Mustard oil

C: Coconut oil

D: Groundnut oil

Answer: A. Sunflower oil

318. Which of the following imparts deep blue colour

to glass?

A. Cobalt oxide

B. Cupric oxide

C. Ferrous oxide

D. Nickel oxide

Answer: A.Cobalt oxide

319. Which of the following fibres catches fire least?

A. Nylon

B. Cotton

C. Rayon

D. Terricot

Answer: B. Cotton

320. Which of the following is used as filler in tyre of

rubber?

A: Carbon black

B: Coal

C: Coke

D: Graphite

Answer: A. Carbon black

321. Copper is refined by

A. Roasting

B. Oxidation

C. Electrolysis

D. Zone refining

Answer: A. Roasting

322. The element with highest first ionisation energy

is

A. Hydrogen

B. Helium

C. Lithium

D. Sodium

Answer: B. Helium

323.What is noble’s oil

A. Nitric oxide

B. Nitro glycerine

C. H2so4

D. Sodium

Answer: B. Nitro glycerine

324. Aspirin is

A. Methyl benzoic acid

B. Methyl Salicilate

C. Acetylsalicylic acid

D. Phenyl Salicilate

Answer: C. Acetylsalicylic acid







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325. Cloud is a colloidal dispersion of

A. Air in a dispersion medium of water

B. Fog in a dispersion medium of water

C. Mist in a dispersion medium of air

D. Water drops in a dispersion medium of air

Answer: D. Water drops in a dispersion medium of air

326. Which of the following is the petroleum wax?

A. Bees wax

B. Camauba wax

C. Paraffin wax

D. Jojoba wax

Answer: C. Paraffin wax

327. Which variety of coal contains recognizable

traces of the original plant material?

A. Anthracite

B. Lignite

C. Peat

D. Bitumen

Answer: C. Peat

328. Which of the following metals form an amalgam

with other metals?

A. Lead

B. Tin

C. Zinc

D. Mercury

Answer: D. Mercury

329. Octane number is the measure of quality of

A. Petrol

B. Diesel

C. LPG

D. Mercury

Answer: A. Petrol

330. Detergents used for cleaning clothes and utensils

contain

A. Nitrates

B. Bicarbonates

C. Sulphonates

D. Bismuthates

Answer: C. Sulphonates

331. Radioactive disintegration of uranium ultimately

results in formation of

A. Radium

B. Thorium

C. Polonium

D. Lead

Answer: D. Lead

332. Which of the following is used in making smoke

bombs?

A. Sulphur

B. Phosphorus

C. Hydrogen

D. Carbon

Answer: B. Phosphorus

333. German silver is an alloy of

A. Copper nickel and silver

B. Silver copper and Aluminium







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C. Zinc copper and nickel

D. Zinc silver and copper

Answer: C. Zinc copper and nickel

334. A metal is exposed to the atmosphere for some

time It becomes coated with green carbonate. The

metal must be

A. Silver

B. Copper

C. Aluminium

D. Zinc

Answer: B. Copper

335. Which of the following pairs of materials serves

as electrodes in chargeable batteries commonly used

in devices such as torch lights electric shavers etc.?

A. Iron and cadmium

B. Nickel and cadmium

C. Lead peroxide and lead

D. Zinc and carbon

Answer: B. Nickel and cadmium

336. Which of the following is a super cooled liquid?

A. Ice Cream

B. Teflon

C. Glass

D. Mercury

Answer: C. Glass

337. Metal are good conductors because

A. They contain free electrons

B. The molecules in them are very close to each other

C. The molecules in them collide Very freely

D. They contain reflecting surface

Answer: A. They contain free electrons

338.The first metal used by a man was

A. Copper

B. Silver

C. Bronze

D. Brass

Answer: A. Copper

339.Which of the following is used to remove rust

stains on clothes?

A. Kerosene

B. Lime

C. Oxalic acid solution

D. Petrol

Answer: C. Oxalic acid solution

340. Curd is sour due to presence of

A. Tartaric acid

B. Lactic acid

C. Acetic acid

D. Oxalic acid

Answer: B. Lactic acid

342.Which of the following compounds is commonly

used as an antiseptic in mouthwashes and

toothpastes?

A. Borax

B. Saltpetre

C. Hydrogen peroxide







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D. Sodium chloride

Answer: D. Sodium chloride

343. Which of the following substance is highly

plastic?

A. Quartz

B. Mica

C. Granite

D. Clay

Answer: D. Clay

344. Milk is a natural

A. Solution

B. Emulsion

C. Mixture

D. Suspension

Answer: B. Emulsion

345.Drinking soda is

A. Alkaline

B. Acidic

C. Neutral

D. Oxidant

Answer: B. Acidic

346.The cathode of a lead storage battery is made up

of

A. Zinc

B. Lead

C. Lead oxide

D. Manganese dioxide

Answer: C. Lead oxide

347.Which one of the following is radioactive?

A. Cesium

B. Platinum

C. Strontium

D. Thorium

Answer: D. Thorium

348. Aluminum can be purified by

A. Oxidation

B. Distillation

C. Electrolysis

D. Ozonolysis

Answer: C. Electrolysis

349. Impure camphor is purified by

A. sublimation

B. fractional crystallisation

C. fractional distillation

D. Steam distillation

Answer: A. sublimation

350. Type metal used in printing press is an alloy of

A. Lead and copper

B. Lead and antimony

C. Lead and bismuth

D. Lead and zinc.

Answer: B. Lead and antimony

351. Which of the following is used in welding broken

pieces of iron rails and machine parts?

A. Aluminium sulphate







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B. Solder

C. Aluminium powder


Answer: C. Aluminium powder

352.Bhopal gas tragedy is associated with leakage of

A. Carbon dioxide

B. Nitrogen dioxide

C. Sulphur dioxide

D. Methyl isocynate

Answer: D. Methyl isocynate

353.The acid rain destroys vegetations because it

contains

A. Nitric acid

B. Ozone

C. Carbon monoxide

D. Sulphuric acid

Answer: D. Sulphuric acid

354. Diamonds are glittering and attractive because

light Incident on them undergoes

A: Highest refraction

B: Multiple internal reflections

C: Multiple surface reflections

D: Hundred percent transmission

Answer: B. Multiple Internal Reflections

355.Catalyst is a substance which

A: Increases the rate of the reaction

B: Decreases the rate of reaction

C: Has no action on the rate of the reaction

D: None of these

Answer: A. Increases the rate of the reaction

356. Which of the following gases is most toxic?

A. Carbon dioxide

B. Carbon monoxide

C. Sulphur dioxide

D. Chlorine

Answer: B. Carbon monoxide

357. Which of the following could be used as fuel in

propellant or rockets?

A. Liquid Hydrogen + Liquid Nitrogen

B. Liquid Oxygen + Liquid Argon

C. Liquid Nitrogen + Liquid Oxygen

D. Liquid Hydrogen + Liquid Oxygen

Answer: D. Liquid Hydrogen +Liquid Oxygen

358. The Refrigerant FREON is

A. Calcium Tetra Fluoride

B. Di fluoro Di chloro Methane

C. Fluorspar and Feldspar

D. Hydroflurodslicic Acid

Answer: B. Di fluoro Di chloro Methane

359. Alum stops bleeding in minor cuts because of

A. Salvation

B. Emulsion

C. Dialysis

D. Coagulation

Answer: D. Coagulation

360. The temperature of oxyacetylene flame is around







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A: 280°C

B: 2000°C

C: >2500°C

D: 1500°C

Answer: C: >2500°C

361.Water can be separated from alcohol water

mixture by

A. Decantation

B. Evaporation

C. Distillation

D. Sublimation

Answer: C. Distillation

362.Milk Sugar is

A. Lactose

B. Maltose

C. Galactose

D. Sucrose

Answer: A. Lactose

363.Petroleum is a mixture of

A: Elements

B: Hydrocarbons

C: Polymers

D: Salts

Answer: B. hydrocarbons

364. The gas used for filling weather balloons is

A. Helium

B. Hydrogen

C. Air

D. Nitrogen

Answer: A. Helium

365.Hydrogen is not found in atmosphere because

A. It is highly inflammable

B. It is the lightest gas

C. It is absorbed by plants

D. It immediately combines with oxygen to form water

Answer: B. It is the lightest gas

366. The ratio of pure gold in 18 carat gold is

A. 60%

B. 75%

C. 80%

D. 90%

Answer: B.75%

367.Which one of the following organic compounds

has fruity smell?

A. Alcohol

B. Aldehyde

C. Ester

D. Ether

Answer: C. Ester

368.What material is used to make electric heater

coil?

A. Copper

B. Iron

C. Silver







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D. Nichrome

Answer: D. Nichrome

369. Byproduct obtained by soap industry is

A. Caustic soda

B. Glycerol

C. Naphthalene

D. Caustic potash

Answer: B. Glycerol

370. Cement is formed by strongly heating a mixture

of

A. limestone and graphite

B. limestone and clay

C. chalk and graphite.

D clay and graphite

Answer: B. limestone and clay

371.When formaldehyde and potassium hydroxide

are heated we get

A. Acetylene

B. Methyl alcohol

C. Methane

D. Ethyl formate

Answer: B. Methyl alcohol

372.When cone H2S04 is added to dry KNO3 brown

fumes are evolved. These fumes are due to

A. S03

B. S02

C. N02

D. N2O

Answer: C. N02

373.The polymer used in making plastic crockery is

A. Decron

B. Nylon

C. Bakelite

D. Melamine

Answer: D. Mealamine

374. Vulcanization of rubber is carried out by adding

A. Sulphur

B. Carbon

C. Ozone

D. Phosphorus

Answer: A. Sulphur

375.Which gas is used as fire extinguisher?

A. Carbon dioxide

B. Carbon monoxide

C. Carbon sub oxide

D. Sulphur dioxide

Answer: A. Carbon dioxide

376.Which one of the following is extensively used for

sterilizing water?

A. Bleaching powder

B. Alum

C. Borax powder

D. Soda powder

Answer: A. Bleaching powder

377. The major constituent of air is

A. Nitrogen







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B. Carbon dioxide

C. Oxygen

D. Hydrogen

Answer: A. Nitrogen

378. Rusting of iron takes place due to

A. oxidation

B. carbonation

C. exfoliation

D. corrosion

Answer: A. oxidation

379. The purity of gold is expressed in carats. The

purest form of gold is.

A: 24 carats

B: 6 carats

C: 916 carats

D: 22 carats

Answer: A: 24 carats

380. The addition of gypsum to Portland cement

helps in:

A: Increasing the strength of cement

B: Rapid setting of cement

C: Preventing rapid setting of cement

D: Reduction in the cost of cement

Answer: C. Preventing rapid setting of cement

381.One of the following is used to dissolve noble

metals. That is

A. Nitric acid


C. Sulphuric acid

D. Aqua regia

Answer: D. Aqua regia

382.An emulsion is a colloid of a

A. Gas in a liquid

B. Liquid in a liquid

C. Liquid in a gas

D. Gas in a solid

Answer: B. Liquid in a liquid

383. Percentage of carbon in steel is ranges from

A: 1 to 5

B: 5 to 0

C: 0 to 10

D: 0 to 20

Answer: A. 1 to 5

384. Glycol is added to aviation gasoline because it

A. Reduces evaporation of petrol

B. Increases efficiency of petrol

C. Prevents freezing of petrol

D. Reduces consumption of petrol

Answer: C. Prevents freezing of petrol

385.The freezer in a refrigerator is fitted near the top

A: To keep it away from hot compressor which is nearer

to the bottom

B: Because of convenience

C: It facilitates convection currents.

D: To minimize power consumption







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Answer: C. It facilitates convection currents

386. Which one of the following minerals is found in

Monazite sand?

A. Potassium

B. Uranium

C. Thorium

D. Sodium

Answer: C. Thorium

387.Denatured spirit is ethanol mixed with

A. Petrol

B. Kerosene

C. Water

D. Pyridine

Answer: D. Pyridine

388. Supersonic Jet causes pollution by thinning of

A. O3 layer

B. O2 layer

C. SO2 layer

D. CO2 layer

Answer: A. O3 layer

389.Which metal is extracted from seawater?

A: Barium

B: Magnesium

C: Aluminium

D: Beryllium

Answer: B. Magnesium

390.Percentage of lead in lead pencils is

A. 0

B. 66

C. 40

D. 80

Answer: A. 0

391. Water is not effective in extinguishing a fire

caused by petrol because

A. Die flame is too hot for water to cool it down

B. Water and petrol react chemically

C. Water and petrol are miscible with each other

D. Water and petrol are immiscible with each other and

petrol which forms the upper layer continues to burn

Answer: D. Water and petrol are immiscible with each

other and petrol which forms the upper layer continues to

burn

392.Helium gas is used in gas balloons instead of

hydrogen gas because it is

A. Lighter than hydrogen

B. More abundant than hydrogen

C. Non-combustible

D. More stable

Answer: C. Non-combustible

393. Ruby and sapphire are oxides of

A. Copper

B. Tin

C. Iron

D. Aluminium







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Answer D. Aluminium

394.In nuclear reactors graphite is used as an

A. Fuel

B. Lubricant

C. Moderator

D. Insulator

Answer: C. Moderator

395. Detergents clean surfaces on the principle of

A: Viscosity

B: Surface tension

C: Elasticity

D: Floatation

Answer: B. Surface tension

396. White phosphorus is always kept under

A. Benzene

B. Kerosene

C. Ether

D. Water

Answer: D. Water

397. The noble gas used in radiotherapy is

A: Neon

B: Argon

C: Radon

D: Xenon

Answer: C. Radon

398. Silver halides are used in photographic plates

because they are

A. Oxidised in air

B. Soluble in hyposolution

C. Reduced by light

D. Totally colourless

Answer: C. Reduced by light

399.Candle is a mixture of

A. Paraffin wax and stearic acid

B. Bees wax and stearic acid

C. Higher fatty acids and stearic acid

D. Bees wax and paraffin wax

Answer: A Paraffin wax and stearic acid

400. What is called ethanol solution

containing 5% water?

A. Rectified spirit

B. Denatured spirit

C. Methylated alcohol

D. Power alcohol

Answer: A. Rectified spirit

401.The important ore of aluminium is

A. Bauxite

B. Cryolite

C. Fluorspar

D. Haematite

Answer: A. Bauxite

402. Aqua regia is a 1:3 mixture by volume of

A. Concentric nitric acid and cone hydro chloric acid

B. Cone hydrochloric acid and cone nitric acid

C. Cone nitric acid and cone sulphuric acid

D. Conc. sulphuric acid and cone nitric acid







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Answer: A. Concentric nitric acid and cone hydro chloric

acid

403.The amount of chlorine available in water after

disinfection is called as

A. Free chlorine

B. Residual chlorine

C. Free available chlorine

D. Combined available chlorine

Answer: B. Residual chlorine

404.What is the major pollutants of cigarette smoke?

A. Carbon monoxide and dioxin

B. Carbon monoxide and nicotine

C. Carbon monoxide and benzene

D. Dioxin and benzene

Answer: B. Carbon monoxide and nicotine

405. Zinc sulphide is commonly used as

A: Fungicide

B: Herbicide

C: Rodenticide

D: Deodorant

Answer: C. Rodenticide

406. The purest form of water is

A. Tap water

B. Rainwater

C. Groundwater

D. Distilled water

Answer: B. Rainwater

407. The material used in the manufacture of lead

Pencils

A. Graphite

B. Lead

C. Carbon

D. Mica

Answer: A. Graphite

408. If all bullets could not be removed from gunshot

injury of a man it may cause poisoning by

A. Mercury

B. Lead

C. Iron

D. Arsenic

Answer: B .Lead

409.Wax used for making candle is chemically a

mixture of

A. Aliphatic hydrocarbons

B. Aromatic hydrocarbons

C. Cyclic hydrocarbons

D. Aliphatic and aromatic hydrocarbons

Answer: A. Aliphatic hydrocarbons

410.Litmus is obtained from

A: A bacterium

B: A fungus

C: An algae

D: Lichen

Answer: D. Lichen

411. Vinegar made by fermentation from cane sugar

contains







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A. Palmitic acid

B. Lactic acid

C. Citric acid

D. Acetic acid

Answer: D. Acetic acid

412. Tetra Ethyle lead (TEL) is

A. A catalyst in burning fossil fuel

B. An antioxidant

C. A reductant

D. An antiknock compound

Answer: D. An antiknock compound

413.Ozone consists of

A. Oxygen only

B. Oxygen and Nitrogen

C. Hydrogen and Carbon

D. Oxygen and Carbon

Answer: A. Oxygen only

414.An emulsifier is an agent which

A. Stabilizes an emulsion

B. Aids the flocculation of an emulsion

C. Accelerates the dispersion

D. Homogenises an emulsion

Answer: A. stabilises an emulsion

415. Mortar is a mixture of water, sand and

A. Slaked lime

B. Quick lime

C. Limestone

D. Gypsum

Answer: A. Slaked lime

416. It is necessary to balance a chemical equation in

order to satisfy the law of:

A. Conservation of motion

B. Conservation of momentum

C. Conservation of energy

D. Conservation of mass

Answer. D. Conservation of mass

417. The condition produced by aerial oxidation of

fats and oils in foods marked by unpleasant smell and

taste is called

A. Antioxidation

B. Reduction

C. Rancidity

D. Corrosion

Answer: C. Rancidity

418. Which of the following gases is used in the

storage of fat and oil containing foods for a long

time?

A. Carbondioxide gas

B. Nitrogen gas

C. Oxygen gas

D. Neon gas

Answer. B. Nitrogen gas







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419. One of the following processes does not involve a

chemical reaction. That is:

A. Melting of candle wax when heated

B. Burning of candle wax when heated

C. Digestion of food in our stomach

D. Ripening of banana

Answer. A. Melting of candle wax when heated

420. Give the ratio in which hydrogen and oxygen

are present in water by volume.

A. 1:2

B. 1:1

C. 2:1

D. 1:8

Answer: A. 1:2

421. Fe+ CuSO4 --> FeSO4 + Cu

The above reaction is an example of a

A. Combination reaction.

B. Double displacement reaction.

C. Decomposition reaction.

D. Displacement reaction.

Answer: D. Displacement reaction.

422. When a magnesium ribbon is burnt in air, the

ash formed is

A. Black

B. White

C. Yellow

D. Pink

Answer: B. White

423. We store silver chloride in a dark coloured bottle

because it is

A. A white solid

B. Undergoes redox reaction

C. To avoid action by sunlight


Answer: C. To avoid action by sunlight

424. Respiration is an:

A. Exothermic process

B. Endothermic process

C. Reversible process

D. Both A and B

Answer: A. Exothermic process

425. Dilute acid does not produce carbon dioxide on

being treated with

A. Marble

B. Lime

C. Baking soda

D. Limestone

Answer. B. Lime

426. Na2CO3 . 10H2Ois

A. Washing soda

B. Baking soda

C. Bleaching powder

D. Tartaric acid

Answer: A. Washing soda







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427. Alkalis are

A. Acids, which are soluble in water

B. Acids, which are insoluble in water

C. Bases, which are insoluble in water

D. Bases, which are soluble in water

Answer: D. Bases, which are soluble in water

428. Nettle sting is a natural source of which acid?

A. Methanoic acid

B. Lactic acid

C. Citric acid

D. Tartaric acid

Answer: A. Methanoic acid

429. What is the pH range of our body?

A. 7.0 – 7.8

B. 7.2 – 8.0

C. 7.0 – 8.4

D. 7.2 – 8.4

Answer: A. 7.0 – 7.8

430. The chemical formula of Plaster of Paris is

A. CaSO₄.1/2H₂O

B. CaSO₄. 2H₂O

C. CaSO₄. H₂O

D. CaSO₄. 3H₂O

Answer: A. CaSO₄.1/2H₂O

431. The chemical formula of Gypsum is

A. CaSO₄. 1/2H₂O

B. CaSO₄. 2H₂O

C. CaSO₄. H₂O

D. CaSO₄. 3H₂O

Answer: B. CaSO₄. 2H₂O

432. Acid present in apple is:

A. Oxalic acid

B. Malic acid

C. Acetic acid

D. Formic acid

Answer: B. Malic acid

433. Generally, non-metals are not lustrous. Which

of the given nonmetals is lustrous?

A. Sulphur

B. Oxygen

C. Nitrogen

D. Iodine

Answer: D. Iodine

434. Generally, non-metals are not conductors of

electricity. Which of the given is a good conductor

of electricity?

A. Diamond

B. Graphite

C. Sulphur

D. Fullerene

Answer: B. Graphite

435. Functional group – COOH is present in which of

the given?

A. Carboxylic acid

B. Alcohol







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C. Aldehyde

D. Ketone

Answer: A. Carboxylic acid

436. Functional group – CHO is present in which of

the given?

A. Carboxylic acid

B. Alcohol

C. Aldehyde

D. Ketone

Answer: C. Aldehyde

437. How many periods and groups are present in

the periodic table?

A. 7 periods and 18 groups

B. 8 periods and 7 groups

C. 7 periods and 7 groups

D. 8 periods and 8 groups

Answer: A. 7 periods and 18 groups

438. Which group elements are called transition

metals?

A. Group number 1 to 2

B. Group number 13 to 18

C. Group number 3 to 12

D. Group number 1 to 8

Answer: C. Group number 3 to 12

439. Which of the following does not decrease while

moving down the group of the periodic table?

A. Atomic radius

B. Metallic character

C. Number of shells in the atom

D. Valence electrons

Answer: D. Valence electrons

440. At the time of Mendeleev, the number of

elements known was

A. 63

B. 65

C. 62

D. 64

Answer: A. 63

441. Which of the following phenomena always

results in the cooling effect?

A. Condensation

B. Evaporation

C. Sublimation

D. None of these

Answer: B. Evaporation

442. The molecular formula of potassium nitrate is

A. KNO3

B. KNO

C. KNO2

D. KON

Answer. A. KNO3

443. The value of Avogadro’s constant is:

A. 6.0 × 1024

B. 6.01 × 1022







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C. 6.022 × 1023

D. 6.022 × 10-23

Answer: C. 6.022 × 1023

444. Which radioactive element is used in the

treatment of cancer?

A. Iodine-131

B. Uranium-234

C. Plutonium-239

D. Cobalt-60

Answer. D. Cobalt-60

445. Blood and sea water are

A. Both mixtures

B. Both are compounds

C. Blood is a mixture whereas sea water is a

compound

D. Blood is a compound and sea water is a mixture

Answer: A. Both mixtures

446. Fibres of _______ resemble that of silk and

hence, it is popularly known as 'artificial silk'.

A. Acrylic

B. Polyester

C. Rayon

D. Nylon

Answer: C. Rayon

447. Which amongst the following is used in the

manufacturing of perfumes?

A. Coal tar

B. Coal gas

C. Coke

D. Kerosene

Answer: A. Coal tar

448. Which of the following is used in metal

extraction?

A. Coke

B. Petroleum

C. Coal gas

D. Coal tar

Answer: A. Coke

449. Number of valence electrons in carbon is

A. 2

B. 4

C. 3

D. 5

Answer: B.4

450. SiO2 + CaO → CaSiO3 is a

A. Decomposition Reaction

B. Combination Reaction

C. Single Displacement Reaction

D. Double Displacement Reaction

Answer: B. Combination Reaction







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Biology

1) What is the normal resting heart rate range for

adults in beats/min?

A. 50 to 80

B. 120 to 150

C. 75 to 120

D. 60 to 100

Answer: D. 60 to 100

2) Anaemic condition in humans occurs due to the

deficiency of …….?

A. RBC

B. Platelets

C. WBC

D. Oxidants

Answer: A. RBC

3) Which of the following bacterium is responsible

for the conversion of milk into curd?

A. Vibrio

B. Lactobacillus

C. Spirilla

D. Spirochete

Answer: B. Lactobacillus

4) The disease Cirrhosis affects which of the

following organ in the human body?

A. Brain

B. Heart

C. Liver

D. Kidney

Answer: C. Liver

5) Which of the following hormone is secreted by the

posterior pituitary gland?

A. Oxytocin

B. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)

C. Prolactin

D. Follicle Stimulating hormone (FSH)

Answer: A. Oxytocin

6) Zeatin is produced in……… and transported

to………. in the xylem where it promotes cell-

division?

a) Shoots, Roots

b) Shoots, Leaves

c) Roots, Shoots

d) Leaves, Stem

Answer: c) Roots, Shoots

7) Which of the following cell-organelle is found in

the plant cell but not in the animal cell?

a) Golgi-bodies

b) Chloroplast

c) Mitochondria

d) Ribosomes

Answer: b) Chloroplast

8) Mitochondria is absent in which of the following

cells in the human body?







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a) Red blood cells

b) Liver cell

c) Muscle cell

d) White blood cells

Answer: a) Red blood cells

9) The hormone secreted in plants due to which its

stem bends towards sunlight towards sunlight is

called-

a) Gibberellin

b) Cytokinin

c) Ascorbic acid

d) Auxin

Answer: d) Auxin

10) The chemoautotrophs use heat energy in the

absence of sunlight to convert dissolved hydrogen

sulphide and carbon dioxide into?

a) Toxic compounds

b) Organic compounds

c) Inorganic compounds

d) Both b and c

Answer: b) Organic compounds

11) Who gave the theory of natural selection to explain

organic evolution?

a) Albert Einstein

b) Robert Hooke

c) Charles Darwin

d) Herbert Spencer

Answer: c) Charales Darwin

12) What is the name of the enzyme that digests the

high protein content present in soya beans and

peas?

a) Lipases

b) Lactase

c) Amylases

d) Proteases

Answer: d) Proteases

13) Which mineral helps in the absorption of oxygen in

the blood?

a) Calcium

b) Potassium

c) Zinc

d) Iron

Answer: d) Iron

14) Which of the following is not the function of the

liver, the largest gland in human body?

a) Removes certain wastes from the body

b) Protects gall-bladder

c) Stores Glycogen

d) Produces Bile

Answer: b) Protects gall-bladder

15) In human body the fluids involved in the exchange

of substances between cells and their immediate

environment are …….?

a) Blood

b) Lymph and blood

c) Lymph or extracellular fluid







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d) Water circulating in the body

Answer: b) Lymph and blood

16) Which part of the flower becomes seed after

undergoing fertilization?

a) Pollen

b) Carpel

c) Ovary

d) Ovule

Answer: d) Ovule.

17) Pulmonary artery carries blood to the lungs from

which chamber of the heart?

a) Left atrium

b) Right ventricle

c) Left ventricle

d) Right atrium

Answer: b) Right ventricle

18) Which technique is used for the survival of the

patient when both the kidneys fail to work?

a) Kidney transplant only

b) Dialysis only

c) Dialysis or Kidney Transplant

d) None of these

Answer: c) Dialysis or Kidney Transplant

19) Which part of the leaf makes carbon dioxide

available for Photosynthesis?

a) Leaf margin

b) Lower surface of the leaf

c) Veins

d) Stomata

Answer: d) Stomata

20) Which of the following gland secretes enzymes as

well as hormones?

a) Thyroid

b) Liver

c) Pancreas

d) Pituitary

Answer: c) Pancreas

21) Which among the following is known as “control

room” of the cell?

a) Mitochondria

b) Lysosomes

c) Nucleus

d) Golgi-bodies

Answer: c) Nucleus

22) Which of the following are the two important

constituents of viruses?

a) Lipids and Carbohydrates

b) Lipids and Proteins

c) Carbohydrate and Nucleic acid

d) Nucleic acid and Proteins

Answer: d) Nucleic acid and Proteins

23) Which of the following hormone is secreted by the

human ovary?

a) Estrogen

b) Testosterone

c) Follicle stimulating hormone







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d) Luteinizing hormone

Answer: a) Estrogen

24) Which one of the following is not an essential

micronutrient for the growth of the plants?

a) Zinc

b) Sodium

c) Boron

d) Manganese

Answer: b) Sodium

25) The disease Thalassemia in which a person is

unable to make haemoglobin is a ……?

a) Genetic disorder

b) Metabolic disorder

c) Infectious disease

d) Bacterial disease

Answer: a) Genetic disorder

26) Virus caused to chicken pox

a) Variola

b) Varicella

c) Rabies

d) Pestuis

Answer: b) varicella

27) Insulin hormone which is responsible for causing

Diabetes mellitus is secreted through which gland?

a) Adrenal

b) Pituitary

c) Pancreas

d) Thyroid

Answer: c) Pancreas

28) Which of the following disorder occurs due to

change in the 12th autosomal chromosomes?

a) Klinefelter Syndrome

b) Down’s Syndrome

c) Patau’s Syndrome

d) Phenylketonuria

Answer: d) Phenylketonuria

29) Which of the following part of the human brain is

the regulating centre for swallowing and vomiting?

a) Cerebrum

b) Medulla oblongata

c) Cerebellum

d) Pones

Answer: b)Medulla oblongata

30) Which of the following plant hormone turns the

dwarf plant into long plants and helps in

flowering?

a) Ethylene

b) Auxins

c) Gibberellins

d) Cytokinins

Answer: c) Gibberellins

31) The process of initial invasion followed by

progression from one biotic community to next is

termed as?

a) Ecological succession

b) Primary succession







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c) Secondary succession

d) Natural succession

Answer: b) Primary succession

32) What is the effect of the excessive transpiration in

plants?

a) Fast growth of leaves

b) Yellowing of leaves

c) Wilting

d) Large leaves

Answer: c) Wilting

33) What is the term used for the permanent stopping

of menstrual cycle in women?

a) Menarche

b) Dismenorrhea

c) Amenorrhea

d) Menopause

Answer: d) Menopause

34) The body of all the complex animals consists of

how many basic types of tissues?

a) 40

b) 400

c) 4

d) 4000

Answer: c) 4

35) Which of the following is the longest bone in the

human body?

a) Febula

b) Femur

c) Stapes

d) Tibia

Answer: b) Femur

36) Auxillary Bud develops into which of the following

part of the plant?

a) Fruit

b) Leaves

c) Roots

d) Branch

Answer: d) Branch

37) Which of the following metal is responsible for

causing Itai-Itai disease?

a) Cadmium

b) Mercury

c) Nickel

d) Chromium

Answer: a) Cadmium

38) Synapse gap is present between which of the

following?

a) Brain and spinal cord

b) Two kidneys

c) Two neurons

d) None of these

Answer: c) Two neurons

39) Which organ has finger like outgrowths which are

called as ‘Villi’?

a) Small intestine

b) Large intestine







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c) Gall-Bladder

d) Stomach

Answer: a) Small intestine

40) What is the term given to a group of similar cells

performing a specific function?

a) Organ

b) Organ system

c) Cellular organization

d) Tissue

Answer: d)Tissue

41) What is the name of the hormone that is produced

by thymus gland?

a) Thyroxine

b) Auxin

c) Cytokinin

d) Thymosin

Answer: d)Thymosin

42) Which among the following carries impure blood

from the human heart to the lungs?

a) Pulmonary artery

b) Pulmonary veins

c) Aorta

d) Vena cava

Answer: a) Pulmonary artery

43) Cell – wall is absent in which of the following

organism?

a) Euglena

b) Mycoplasma

c) Paramecium

d) Both a and c

Answer: b) Mycoplasma

44) Which component in tobacco makes it harmful for

human consumption?

a) Morphine

b) Nicotine

c) Heroine

d) Caffeine

Answer: b) Nicotine

45) How many pairs of ribs are there in the human

body?

a) 13

b) 15

c) 12

d) 14

Answer: c)12

46) Which of the following region has the maximum

biodiversity?

a) Polar region

b) Desert

c) River

d) Tropical region

Answer: d) Tropical region

47) Who among the following is credited with starting

the work on Plant-Tissue Culture?

a) P.R White







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b) P. Maheshwari

c) Haberlandt

d) F.C Steward

Answer: c) Haberlandt

48) DOTS Treatment is given to the patient suffering

from which of the following disease?

a) AIDS

b) Cancer

c) Hepatitis

d) Tuberculosis

Answer: d) Tuberculosis

49) Siderosis is a disease caused by the inhalation of

which of the following component?

a) Iron dust

b) Silica dust

c) Coal dust

d) Zinc dust

Answer: a) Iron dust

50) What is the name of the main protein that is found

in milk?

a) Globulin

b) Casein

c) Globin

d) Albumin

Answer: b) Casein

51) What is the term used for the bacterial

decomposition of the biological matter under

anaerobic conditions?

a) Fertilization

b) Contamination

c) Fermentation

d) Composting

Answer: c) Fermentation

52) What was the objective of developing a genetically

engineered form of Brinjal known as BT-Brinjal?

a) To improve its taste and nutritive value

b) To make it drought resistant

c) To increase its size and weight

d) To make it pests resistant

Answer: d) To make it pests resistant

53) what is the term used for the pair of contrasting

characters controlling the same trait in an

organism?

a) Lineage

b) Factors

c) Loci

d) Alleles

Answer: d)Alleles

54) Which cell disorder in our body is responsible for

causing Colour-Blindness?

a) WBC

b) Cone cells

c) Rod cells

d) Neuron

Answer: b) Cone cells







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55) Which among the following is a dominant

autosomal disorder in humans?

a) Alzheimer’s disease

b) Cystic Fibrosis

c) Phenylketonuria

d) Albinism

Answer: a) Alzheimer’s disease

56) Which of the following component forms the base

of the vegetable fibres?

a) Proteins

b) Cellulose

c) Fats

d) Oils

Answer: b) Cellulose

57) Lichen is an association between which of the two?

a) Algae and tree

b) Algae and fungus

c) Algae and bacteria

d) Algae and Legumes

Answer: b) Algae and fungus

58) Which of the following is known to help in the

absorption of calcium?

a) Vitamin D

b) Vitamin C

c) Vitamin E

d) Vitamin K

Answer: a) Vitamin D

59) Which of the following chemical component is

invariably found in all viruses?

a) Proteins

b) Lipids

c) DNA

d) RNA

Answer: a) Protein

60) Which of the following mosquito is the carrier of

Zika Virus?

a) Culiseta

b) Aedes

c) Culex

d) Anopheles

Answer: b) Aedes

61) Morphology of the chromosomes can be best

studied at which stage of the Mitosis?

a) Prophase

b) Metaphase

c) Anaphase

d) Telophase

Answer: b) Metaphase

62) Which of the following is responsible for the

transportation of food and other substances in

plants?

a) Chloroplast

b) Xylem

c) Phloem

d) Both xylem and phloem







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Answer: c) Phloem

63) Which term is used to refer to the condition caused

due to the increased RBC’s in the blood?

a) Polycythemia

b) Anaemia

c) Leukaemia

d) Haemophilia

Answer: a) Polycythemia

64) Which animal among the following has open

vascular system?

a) Human

b) Rats

c) Cockroach

d) Birds

Answer: c) Cockroach

65) Lachrymal glands are situated in which of the

following part of the human body?

a) Eye orbit

b) Buccal cavity

c) Nose

d) Palms

Answer: a) Eye orbit

66) At which stage of the life-cycle, the silkworm yields

the fibre which is used for commercial purposes?

a) Imago

b) Larva

c) Cocoon

d) Egg

Answer: c) Cocoon

67) Which of the following substances is normally

found in urine?

a) Creatinine

b) Blood proteins

c) Red blood cells

d) White blood cells

Answer: a) Creatinine

68) What is the total number of bones that are present

in human body?

a) 309

b) 405

c) 103

d) 206

Answer: d) 206

69) What is the term used for the process of

pollination by birds?

a) Embryophily

b) Ornithophily

c) Entomophily

d) Hydrophily

Answer: b) Ornithophily

70) Which of the following instrument is used to

measure the blood-pressure?

a) Thermometer

b) ECG

c) Sphygmomanometer

d) Stethoscope







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Answer: c) Sphygmomanometer

71) Which of the following cell-organelle is known as

suicidal bags of the cell?

a) Mitochondria

b) Golgi-bodies

c) Lysosomes

d) Ribosomes

Answer: c) Lysosomes

72) Which is the multibranched polysaccharide of

glucose that serves as a form of energy storage in

animals and fungi?

a) Chitin

b) Cellulose

c) Pectin

d) Glycogen

Answer: d) Glycogen

73) The yellow colour of the urine is due to the

presence of which of the following components?

a) Cholesterol

b) Urochrome

c) Bile salts

d) Lymph

Answer: b) Urochrome

74) If a person is a Accepter, then he will have which

of the following blood group?

a) O

b) B

c) AB

d) A

Answer: c) AB

75) Bile is secreted by which of the following part of

the human body?

A. Liver

B. Pancreas

C. Gall-bladder

D. Small-intestine

Answer: A. Liver

76) Which is the condition in which the concentration

of glucose in the blood is high?

A. Emphysema

B. Hypoglycaemia

C. Hyperglycemia

D. Glgcosuria

Answer: C. Hyperglycemia

77) Which of the following cell organelles is called the

powerhouse of the cell?

A. Nucleus

B. Lysosomes

C. Chloroplast

D. Mitochondria

Answer: D. Mitochondria.

78) Which of the following cell organelles is called a

suicidal bag?

A. Lysosomes

B. Golgi bodies

C. Cell membrane







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D. Mitochondria

Answer: A. Lysosomes

79) Which of the following cell organelles does not

contain DNA?

A. Nucleus

B. Lysosomes

C. Chloroplast

D. Mitochondria

Sol: B. Lysosomes.

80) Which of the following cell organelles is absent in

animal cells and present in a plant cell?

A. Cell wall

B. Cytoplasm

C. Vacuoles

D. Mitochondria

Answer: A. Cell wall.

81) Which cell organelle regulates the transport of

molecules into and out of the cell?

A. Lysosomes

B. Golgi bodies

C. Cell membrane

D. Mitochondria

Sol: C. Cell membrane.

82) How much quantity of salt is found in human

body?

(A) 1%

(B) 2%

(C) 0.4%

(D) 0.6%

Answer: (C) 0.4%

83) Who produces “like cures likes” homeopathic

principle?

A. Hippocrates

B. Samuel Hahnemann

C. Samuel Cock Bum

D. George Vethoulkas

Answer: B. Samuel Hahnemanne

84) Ripe grape contains.

A. Fructose

B. Glucose

C. Sucrose

D. Maltose

Answer: A. Fructose

85) Which of the following is an example for

marsupials?

A. Kangaroo

B. Whale

C. Giraffe

D. Rooster

Ans. A. Kangaroo

86) Which of the following is vertebrate animal?

A. Kiwi

B. Sponges

B. Star fish

D. Threadworm

Answer: A. Kiwi







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87) Which of the following bacteria is a nitrogen

fixing bacteria?

A. Salmonella

B. Rhizobium

C. E-coli

D. Pseudomonas

Answer: B. Rhizobium

88) UHT process is used for the production of:

A. Oil

B. Milk

C. Petrol

D Water

Answer: B. Milk

89) How many bones are there in the infant?

A. 206

B. 234

C. 270

D. 354

Answer: C. 270

90) Two bones in human body is connected by:

A. by Joints

B. by ligaments

C. by muscle

D. by small bones

Answer: B. by ligament

91) In which of the following part of the human

body, “Internal motion determiner” is situated?

A. Mind

B. Heart

C. Lung

D. Liver

Answer: B. Heart

92) In humans, the tissue that connects the muscles

to bones is called:

A. Fiber

B. Femur

C. Tendon

D. Ligament

Answer: C. Tendon

93) By the effect of sunlight, our skin becomes

black. It is happened because of ______.

A. Carotene

B. Oxilofytc

C. Melanin

D. Phlavoxanthin

Ans. C. Melanin

94) Which of the following hormone is not secreted

by thyroid gland?

A. Thyroxin

B. Calcitonin

C. Trilodothyronine

D. Thaimosin

Answer: D. Thaimosin

95) The Sweat glands are present in which part of

the human body?







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A. Kidney

B. Liver

C. Pancreas

D. Skin

Answer: D. Skin

96) Which of the following is a part of study of

human sciences?

A. Ornithology

B. Anthropology

C. Ichthyology

D Cosmetology

Answer: B. Anthropology

97) Human respiration releases

A. Mixture of gases

B. Carbon monoxide

C. Oxygen

D. Carbon dioxide

Ans. D. Carbon dioxide

98) Which of the following diseases is not related to

heart?

A. Aneurysm

B. Cardiomyopathy

C. Diphtheria

D. Myocardial rupture

Answer: C. Diphtheria

99) Usually, colour blindness is

A. A genetic disposition

B. A non-genetic condition

C. A lifestyle disease

D. Caused by exposure to light

Ans. (A) A genetic disposition

100) what does DNA stand for in biology?

A. Do Not Accelerate

B. Deoxyribonucleic Acid

C. Digital Network Architecture

D. Designed National Authorities

Answer: B. Deoxyribonucleic Acid

101) Find the similarity in the following. Common

Cold, Ringworm, Conjunctivitis, Whooping cough

A. All of them are non-communicable diseases.

B. All of them do not respond to curative treatment.

C. All of them are contagious.

D. No preventive measure is available for all of them.

Answer: C. All of them are contagious.

102) which of these isn’t an effect of sound

pollution?

A. Death of animals

B. Tinnitus

C. High Blood pressure

D. Ozone Depletion

Answer: D. Ozone Depletion

103) which is known as emergency gland?

A. Thyroid

B. Pineal gland

C. Adrenal gland

D. Hypothalamus







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Answer: C. Adrenal gland

104) Find the viral disease

A. Rabies

B. Kala-Azar

C. Tetanus

D. Leprocy

Answer: A. Rabies

105) which of the following organism doesn’t

reproduce through budding?

A. Coral

B. Hydra

C. Sponges

D. Annelido

Answer: D. Annelido

106) _________ are the primitive Homonoids who

are classified as Homo Sapiens.

A. Ergaster line

B. Cromagnon

C. Neanderthal

D. Proconsul

Ans. B. Cromagnon

107) Glaucoma disease affect

A. Lungs

B. Mouth

C. Eyes

D. Nose

Answer: C. Eyes

108) Approximately how many taste buds are

present in human tongue.

A. 2000 to 8000

B. 50000 to 100000

C. 1 Million to 10 Million

D. More than 10 Million

Answer: A. 2000 to 8000

109) Which of these is not a type of stem cell?

A. Umbilical

B. Fetal

C. Embryonic

D. Fat

Answer: D. Fat

110) Scientific Name Homo Sapiens Means?

A. Simple human

B. Tall human

C. Intelligent human

D. Working human

Answer: C. Intelligent human

111) What is Melioidosis?

A. Red spots in skin

B. Loss of memory power

C. Infectious disease

D. Pain in joints

Answer: C. Infectious disease

112) Involuntary muscles in a human body are

present in

A. Limbs







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B. Brain

C. Heart

D. Tongue

Answer: C. Heart

113) What is aedtivation?

A. Animal Dormancy

B. Death due to lack of food

C. Water retention

D. A stage in dreaming

Answer: A. Animal Dormancy

114) what is the difference between an Aardvark

and Aardwolf?

A. Aardvark is a Carnivore and Aardwolf is a

Herbivore

B. Aardvark resembles a pig and Aardwolf resembles

a hyena

C. Aardvark is an Amphibian and Aardwolf is a

Mountain wolf

D. Aardvark is a Herbivore and Aardwolf is an

Insectivore

Ans. (B) Aardvark resembles a pig and Aardwolf

resembles a hyena

115) A set of beliefs and practices that aims at

improving the genetic quality of the human

population is a field of Geneties called:

A. Genetic Engineering

B. Cloning

C. Embryo Selection

D. Eugenics

Answer: D. Eugenics

116) Who was the first to isolate DNA?

A. Friedrich Miescher

B. Albrecht Kossel

C. Phoebus Levene

D. James Watson and Francis Crick

Answer: A. Friedrich Miescher

117) In human body, pancreas is a part of the

A. Urinary system

B. Respiratory system

C. Digestive system

D. Nervous system

Answer: C. Digestive system

118) Pollution index SPM stand for-

A. Solid pollution matter

B. Suspended Particulate matter

C. Soluble Particulate Method

D. Surrounding Pollution Matter

Answer: B. Suspended Particulate matter

119) Minimum distance of clear vision for

normal?

A. 15 cm

B. 20 cm

C. 25 cm

D. 30 cm

Answer: C. 25 cm

120) Oncology is associated with treatment of-







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A. Osteoporosis

B. Diabetes

C. Cancer

D. Renal failure

Answer: C. Cancer

121) The O T C medicine crocin is an

A. Analgesic

B. Antipyretic

C. Analgesic and antipyretic

D. Antiseptic

Answer: C. Analgesic and antipyretic

122) Longest bone of human

A. Chest bone

B. Leg bone

C. Thigh bone

D. Back bone

Answer: C. Thigh bone

123) The test for diagnosing HIV is

A. Rap Smear

B. ELISA

C. DNA

D. Mantoux

Answer: B. ELISA.

124) Between small and large human intestine

which one is longer?

A. Small intestine

B. Large intestine

C. Both are equal in length

D. Depends on male or female

Answer: A. Small intestine

125) The organ which perform different function

but have the same basic structure are called.

A. Vestigal organ

B. Analogous organs

C. Homologous organs

D. Analytic organs

Answer: C. Homologous organs

126) What is the noise level of normal

conversation?

A. 60 dB

B. 70 dB

C. 80 dB

D. 90 dB

Answer: A. 60 dB

127) Who had defined the concept of ecosystem-

A. Arthur Tansley

B. Evelyn Hutchinson

C. Raymond Lindeman

D. Charles Elton

Answer: A. Arthur Tansley

128) Four pairs of words are given. Find the odd

one out.

A. Aquatic : Marine

B. Amphibian : Arial

C. Aerial : Sky

D. Terrestrial : Land







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Answer: B. Amphibian : Arial

129) Blood pressure of normal person is

______mmHg

A. 110/70

B. 120/80

C. 130/90

D. 100/60

Answer: B. 120/80

130) Dialysis is performed for the treatment of

A. Cancer

B. Astigmatism

C. Renal failure

D. Rheumatism

Answer: C. Renal failure

131) The property of human eye for seeing near

object and distant object is called-

A. Myopia

B. Accomodation

C. Presbyopia

D. Correction

Answer: B. Accomodation

132) What is virus name of small pox?

A. West Nile

B. Variola

C. Herpes Simplex

D. Rhinovirus

Answer: B. Variola

133) Phytology is the study of-

A. Human body structure

B. Plants

C. Posology

D. Human paychology

Ans. (B) Plants

134) For which diseases Chemotherapy is used as

treatment?

A. Heart Disease

B. Failure of kidney

C. Cancer

D. Hepatitis

Answer: C. Cancer

135) What is lemur?

A. A bone of human body

B. A cause of cancer

C. A simple machine

D. An animal that is found in Medagascar

Answer: D. An animal that is found in Medagascar

136) By which of the Zika Virus is spread?

A. Rat

B. Mosquito

C. Cricket

D. Rabbit

Answer: B. Mosquito

137) Which animal has highest number of legs?

A. Spider

B. Millipede

C. Centipede







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D. Dragonfly

Answer: B. Millipede

138) What is Umami?

A. A branch of medical science

B. A type of taste

C. A type of metal

D. A group of band (A band)

Answer: B. A type of taste

139) Which statement is false

A. Mangrove maintains bio-diversity

B. Mangrove gives mangoes

C. Mangrove Stops flood

D. Mangrove are running due to urbanization

Answer: B. Mangrove gives mangoes

140) What is the colour of blood of octopus?

A. Red

B. Blue

C. Pink

D. Black

Answer: B. Blue

141) Which one is not the cause of cancer?

A. Environmental factor

B. Genetic mutation

C. Genetic amendments

D. Transmission

Answer: D. Transmission

142) When temperature of human body comes

down 2-3.5oF from normal standard body

temperature. Then it is called

A. Fever

B. Hypothermia

C. Hyperthermia

D. Hyperpyrexia

Answer: B. Hypothermia

143) Reproducing new plants by cells instead of

seeds is known as

A. Bio fertilizer

B. Mutation

C. Tissue culture

D. Antibiotics

Answer: C. Tissue culture

144) Osteoporosis is related to which organ

A. Bone

B. Heart

C. Kidney

D. Lungs

Answer: A. Bone

145) Which of the following vaccine is used against

tuberculosis?

A. BCG

B. DPT

C. HIB

D. Varicella

Answer: A. BCG







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146) ……. Has naked seeds

A. Pinus

B. Wheat

C. Lemon

D. Carrot

Answer: A.Pinus

147) Plants producing naked seeds belong to

A. Gymnosperms

B. Angiosperms

C. Cryptogams

D. Thallophytes

Answer: A. Gymnosperms

148) Camel who has one hump, is known as:

A. Okapi

B. Ibex

C. Dromedary

D. Elk

Answer: C. Dromedary

149. What marks the onset of puberty in females?

A. Menopause

B. Adolescence

C. Menarche

D. Menstruation

Answer: C. Menarche

150) Pnemonia affect which part of human body

A Heart

B Lungs

C Pancreas

D. Liver

Answer: B. Lungs

151) Measles is caused by which of the following?

A. Bacteria

B. Virus

C. Fungus

D. Mice

Answer: B. Virus

152) A protruding part of the throat that is

responsible for growing voice box in boys is

called_______.

A. Larynx

B. Testosterone

C. Pharynx

D. Adam’s Apple

Answer: D. Adam’s Apple

153) Birth Control pills contain ________.

A. Progesterone only

B. Estrogen only

C. Mixture of progesterone and estrogen derivative

D. Neither progesterone nor estrogen

Answer: C. Mixture of progesterone and estrogen

derivative

154) Which among the following is not a

micronutrient for plants?

A. Boron

B. Copper

C. Iron







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D. Nitrogen

Answer: D. Nitrogen

155)_______ is responsible for regulating blood

calcium levels.

A. Bones

B. Parathyroid hormone

C. Muscles

D. Liver

Answer: B. Parathyroid hormone

156) Protein synthesis occurs in which of the

following?

A. Endoplasmic reticulum

B. Nucleolus

C. Ribosome

D. Lysosomes

Answer: C. Ribosome

157. A human adult’s entire digestive tract from

mouth to anus is about ___ metres long.

A. 8

B. 7

C. 10

D. 9

Answer: D. 9

158) Universal Blood donor

A. O+

B. AB+

C. AB-

D. O-

Answer: D. O-

159) who is credited with discovering Penicillin?

A. Ernest Duchesne

B. Vincenzo Tiberio

C. Alexander Fleming

D. Howard Walter Florey

Answer: C. Alexander Fleming

160) Humans belongs to the class Mammalia to

which one of the following does not belong?

A. Mouse

B. Lizard

C. Cat

D. Pig

Answer: B. Lizard

161) What larynx is called in the human body?

A. Reasonator cord

B. Vibratory cord

C. Voice Box

D. Thyroarytenoid

Answer: C. Voice Box

162) In DPT Vaccine, P stands for -

A. Psoriasts

B. Pertussis

C. Pancolitis

D. Parkinson’s

Answer: B. Pertussis

163) Arteries carries blood that are filled with

A. Carbondioxide







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B. Oxygen

C. Lypids

D. None

Answer: B. Oxygen

164) What is the function of lens in our eyes?

A. Lower the eyes

B. Send message of image to brain

C. Change the focal distance of the eye

D. Protect eyes from injury.

Answer: C. Change the focal distance of the eye

165) Which of the following is an example of single

celled organism?

A. Protozoa

B. Arthropod

C. Echinodern

D. Annelid

Answer: A. Protozoa

166) The scientific study of preserved remains or

traces of animals, plants, and other organisms

from the remote past is called

A. Archaeology

B. Numismatics

C. Palaeontology

D. Geology

Answer: C. Palaeontology

167) Human nails are made of

A. Pigment

B. Elastin

C. Albumin

D. Keratin

Answer: D. Keratin

168) The medicine paracetamol is

A. An analgesic

B. An antipyretic

C. An analgesic and antipyretic

D. Anonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug

Answer: C. An analgesic and antipyretic

169) Which is the smallest bone of human body?

A. Tibia

B. Trapezium

C. Stapes

D. Femur

Answer: C. Stapes

170) Transportation of water and minerals in a

plant is conducted by __________

A. Stem

B. Roots

C. Xylem

D. Petiole

Answer: C. Xylem

171) Biotechnology is the study of

A. Technical study of Bacteria

B. Technical study of chemical in body

C. Infusion of technology in the field of human body

structure science

D. Use of living things in industrial processes







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Answer: D. Use of living things in industrial

processes

172) What is Mycology?

A. The Study of Bacteria

B. The Study of Fungi

C. The Study of Viruses

D. The Study of Parasites

Answer: B. The Study of Fungi

173) The young one of crocodile is called

A. Codling

B. Gosling

C. Fingerling

D. Hatchling

Answer: D. Hatchling

174) The richest source of vitamin D from food is

A. Cotton seed oil

B. Olive oil

C. Cod liver oil

D. Sunflower oil

Answer: C. Cod liver oil

175) Blood circulation was determined by

A. Robert Hooke

B. William Harvy

C. Landsteiner

D. Alexander Flemming

Ans. B. William Harvy

176) What is Exobiology?

A. Life in outer space

B. Life of animals

C. Life of plants

D. Life of human being on earth

Ans. A. Life in outer space

177) Prostate in human body is a_______.

A. Connective tissue

B. Gland

C. Membrane

D. Muscle

Ans. B. Gland

178) Which is the most common treatment for

bacterial infections in humans?

A. Antigen

B. Antibodies

C. Antibiotics

D. Aspirin

Answer: C. Antibiotics

179) The process of producing energy in plants is

known as

A. Absorption

B. Reduction

C. Photosynthesis

D. Transpiration

Answer: C. Photosynthesis

180) Banana freckle is a plant disease. It is caused

by a

A. Virus

B. Fungus







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C. Bacteria

D. Insect

Answer: B. Fungus

181) Which of the following organs produces the

enzyme lipase?

A. Pancreas

B. Large Intestine

C. Liver

D. Small Intestine

Answer: A. Pancreas

182) Which of the following is responsible for

Vermicomposting?

A. Fungus

B. Worms

C. Bacteria

D. Birds

Answer: B. Worms

183) Achras sapota is the scientific name of

A. Custard Apple

B. Gulmohar

C. Tamarind

D. Chiku

Answer: D.Chiku

184) UV rays coming from Sun, majorly causes

which cancer?

A. Lungs cancer

B. Liver cancer

C. Mouth cancer

D. Skin cancer

Answer: D. Skin cancer

185) Nereis, Pheretima (Earthworm) and

Hirudinaria (blood sucking leech) are examples of

which Phylum?

A. Coelenterata

B. Aschelminthes

C. Annelida

D. Arthropoda

Answer: C.Annelida

186) What type of a body plan does coelenterates,

ctenophores and echinoderms have?

A. Annelida

B. Radial

C. Bilateral

D. Platyhelminthes

Answer: B. Radial

187) Sycon (Scypha), Spongilla (Fresh water

sponge) and Euspongia (Bath sponge) are

examples of which Phylum?

A. Coelenterata

B. Platyhelminthes

C. Ctenophora

D. Porifera

Answer: D. Porifera

188) The male sex organs in a flower is the

__________.

A. Zoospores







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B. Stamen

C. Pistil

D. Chlorophyceae

Answer: B. Stamen

189) Plants with weak stems that cannot stand

upright and spread on the ground are called as

_____.

A. Creepers

B. Trees

C. Shrubs

D. Herbs

Answer: A. Creepers

190) Who said that, 'Man is be nature a political

animal' ?

A. Plato

B. Chew

C. Polyblus

D. Aristotle

Answer: D. Aristotle

191) Chemically fats and oils are :

A. Triglycerides

B. Amines

C. Aldehydes

D. Ketons

Answer: A. Triglycerides

192) ______ is the source of energy and materials

in human beings.

A. Water

B. Sunlight

C. Food

D. Gas

Answer: C. Food

193) Robert Hooke discovered cells by observing

them in a ______.

A. onion peel

B. cork slice

C. pond water

D. No option is correct.

Answer: B. cork slice

194) Plants having body that is differentiated into

roots, stems and leaves and have specialized tissue

for the conduction of water and other substances,

fall in which group?

A. Bryophyta

B. Thallophyta

C. Pteridophyta

D. All option are correct.

Answer: C. Pteridophyta

195) Which of the following is NOT a constituent

of xylem?

A. Tracheids

B. Companion cells

C. Vessels

D. Xylem parenchyma

Answer: B. Companion cells







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196) What is the main constituent of the human

bone?

A. Phosphorus

B. Calcium

C. Zinc

D. Iron

Answer: B. Calcium

197) Which of the following is true with reference

to blood platelets?

A. They have prominent neclue

B. They are also called thrombocytes

C. They have a pigment called haemoglobin

D. The are involved in phagocytosis

Answer: B. They are also called thrombocytes

198) The Galapagos Islands are associated with

the visit of

A. Jean Lamarck

B. Charles Darwin

C. Gregor Mendel

D. Alfred Wallace

Answer: B. Charles Darwin

199. “Survival of the fittest‟ was used by

A. Charles Darwin

B. Jean Baptiste Lamarck

C. Hugo deVries

D. Herbert Spencer

Answer: D. Herbert Spencer

200. The first organisms were

A. Primitive eukaryotes

B. Aerobic bacteria

C. Prokaryotic

D. Photosynthetic

Answer: C. Prokaryotic

201) In their laboratory simulation of early Earth,

Miller and Urey observed the abiotic synthesis

A. Amino acids

B. Coacervates

C. DNA

D. Liposmes

Ans. A. Amino acids

202) The “Golden age of Reptiles” was

A. Late Paleozoic

B. Cenozoic

C. Mesozoic

D. Proterozoic

Answer: C. Mesozoic

203) The fossil remains of Archaeopteryx is a

connecting link between

A. Amphibians and birds

B. Reptiles and birds

C. Fish and amphibians

D. Reptiles and mammals

Ans. B. Reptiles and birds

204) which of the following anatomical structures,

which is homologous to the wing of a bat?

A. The arm of a human







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B. The wing of a butterfly

C. The tail of a fish

D. The dorsal fin of a shark

Answer: A. The arm of a human

205. Which one of the following sets of structures

includes only analogous organs?

A. Wings of butterfly, housefly and bat

B. Hind legs of horse

C. Hands of man, monkey and kangaroo

D. Mandibles of cockroach, mosquito and honeybee

Answer: A. Wings of butterfly, housefly and bat

206) The earliest animal to have been

domesticated by man most likely the

A. Horse

B. Pig

C. Dog

D. Cow

Answer: C. Dog

207) What is the other name for the cork tissue?

A. Phellogen

B. Phelloderm

C. Phellem

D. Periderm

Answer: C. Phellem

208) The cross-section of a trunk of a tree showed

50 annual rings. The age of tree is

A. 50 years

B. 50 months

C. 100 years

D. 25 years

Answer: A.50 years

209) Who is called the Father of Genetics ?

A. Fleming

B. Lemark

C. Darwin

D. Mendal

Answer: D. Mental

210) House fly spreads—

A. Filaria

B. Jaundice

C. Cholera

D. T.B.

Answer: C. Cholera

211) Number of eyes in Leech is—

A. One pair

B. Two pairs

C. Three pairs

D. Five pairs

Answer: D. Five pairs

212) The number of segments in leech is—

A. 26

B. 33

C. 36

D. 40

Answer: B. 33







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213) Which of the following is a rich source of

protein?

A. Wheat

B. Rice

C. Gram

D. Soya bean

Answer: D. Soya bean

214) Vitamin soluble in water is—

A. Vitamin A

B. Vitamin C

C. Vitamin D

D. Vitamin K

Answer: B. Vitamin C

215) Turpentine oil is obtained from

A. Eucalyptus tree

B. Animal fat

C. Pine Tree

D. None of these

Answer: C. Pine Tree

216) In human body the ratio of red blood

corpuscles and white blood corpuscles is

A. 300 : 1

B. 4000 : 1

C. 500 : 1

D. 600 : 1

Answer: D. 600 : 1

217) Liver is a rich source of:

A. Sugars

B. Fat soluble vitamins

C. Minerals

D. Proteins

Answer: D. Proteins

218) Which animal is devoid of lateral line sense

organ?

A. Labeo

B. Catla

C. Sea horse

D. Magur

Answer: C. Sea horse

219. The amount of blood filtered together by both

the kidneys in a 70 kg adult male human in a

minute is

A. 1100 ml

B. 100 ml

C. 1500 ml

D. 500 ml

Answer: A. 1100 ml

220) Which part of the brain is responsible for

triggering actions like thinking, intelligence,

memory and ability to learn?

A. Diencephalon

B. Hypothalamus

C. Cerebrum

D. Control

Answer: C. Cerebrum







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221) Which of the following disease is caused by

female Anopheles mosquito?

A. Chicken Pox

B. Malaria

C. Black Fever

D. Cholera

Answer: B. Malaria

222) Which of the following are longest cells of

human body?

A. Pancreatic cells

B. Epethelial cells

C. Nerve cells

D. Epidermal cells

Answer: C. Nerve cells

223) Potato, tomato and brinjal are three different

species but all belong to which genus?

A. Solanum

B. Panthera

C. Felis

D. Tigris

Answer: A. Solanum

224) Polyploidy arises due to change in the

A. Number of chromatids

B. Structure of genes

C. Number of chromosomes

D. Structure of chromosomes

Answer: C. Number of chromosomes

225) Smallest gland in human body is ______.

A. Pineal

B. Pancreas

C. Pituitary

D. Thyroid

Answer: A. Pineal

226) Too much consumption of tea or coffee can

result in deficiency of

A. Vitamin B12

B. Calcium

C. Vitamin C

D. Albumin

Answer: B. Calcium

227) Mesothelioma is a type of cancer. The most

common area affected in it is the lining of the

A. Heart

B. Brain

C. Stomach

D. Lungs

Answer: D. Lungs

228) Leptospirosis is a disease caused by

A. Virus

B. Fungus

C. Protozoa

D. Bacteria

Answer: D. Bacteria

229) Which of the following glands is a source of

the enzyme Ptyalin?

A. Pancreas







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B. Thyroid Gland

C. Pituitary Gland

D. Salivary Glands

Answer: D. Salivary Glands

230) Which organ stores fat soluble vitamins?

A. Blood

B. Skin

C. Liver

D. Pancreas

Answer: C. Liver

231.Intestinal bacteria synthesizes which vitamin

in the human body?

A. Vitamin K

B. Proteins

C. Fats

D. Vitamin D

Answer: A. Vitamin K

232) Which organisms does not fit into the Cell

Theory?

A. Bacteria

B. Virus

C. Fungi

D. Plants

Answer : B. Virus

233).......................is a multibranched

polysaccharide of glucose that serves as a form of

energy storage in animals and fungi.

A. Cellulose

B. Glycogen

C. Pectin

D. Chitin

Answer: B. Glycogen

234) Platelets are dead in the

A. Pancreas

B. Spleen

C. Liver

D. Heart

Answer: B. Spleen

235) Mendel had selected which plant for his

experiment

A. Pea plant

B. Rose plant

C. Brinjal plant

D. Tomoto plant

Answer: A. Pea plant

236) The sex of the child is determined by the

A. chromosome (XY) of the father

B. chromosome (XX) of the mother

C. Both parents

D. None

Answer: A. chromosome (XY) of the father

237) First use of the word "gene" by

A. Johansen

B. Mendal

C. Watson

D. Aristotle







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Answer: A. Johansen

238) The largest white blood cell is

A. Thrombocyte

B. Monacyte

C. Erithrocyte

D. Leukocyte

Answer: B. Monacyte

239) What are the main functions of insulin in the

human body

A. to control the blood pressure

B.to control cholesterol level in blood

C. to control the level of sugar in the body

D.to control muscle actions

Answer: C. to control the level of sugar in the body

240. "Hypoglycemi" refers to

A. Low sugar level in the blood

B. High sugar level in the blood

C. Low cholestrol level in the blood

D. High cholestrol level in the blood

Answer: A. Low sugar level in the blood

241. Life-saving hormone

A. Adrenal

B. Insulin

C. Thyroid

D. Lipids

Answer: A. Adrenal

242) When there is dust in the eye, which part of it

becomes swollen and turns pink

A. Conjunctiva

B. Cornea

C. Iris

D. Pupil

Answer: A. Conjunctiva

243) Meningitis disease affects whom

A. Liver

B. Lungs

C. Brain

D. Heart

Answer: C. Brain

244) In which conglomerate gland with leaf like

structure is found

A.Male cockroach

B.Female cockroach

C.Ameba

D.Tape warm

Answer: A. Male cockroach

245) What is the period of dormancy of animals in

winter

A. Hybernation

B. Dormination

C. Generation


Answer: A. Hybernation

246) Which gland of human body controls leakage

of hormones from pituitary gland

A. Adrenal gland







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B. Hypothalamus gland

C. Thyroid

D. Liver

Answer: B. Hypothalamus gland

247) Pleura is the cover of

A. Heart

B. Liver

C. Lungs

D. Pancreas

Answer: C. Lungs

248) Malfunction which part of the body causes

diabetes disease

A. Pancreas

B. Liver

C. Lungs

D. Intestine

Answer: A. Pancreas

249) Which organ is the alternative name of womb

A. Uterus

B. Ureter

C. Vagina

D. Vulva

Answer: A. Uterus

250) Haptens are

A. Antigens

B. Incomplete antigens

C. Antibodies

D. Pseudo antigens

Answer: B. Incomplete antigens

251) Pinna is present in

A. Amphibian

B. Fish

C. Mammal

D. Reptile

Answer: C. Mammal

252) Second largest animal phylum

A. Annelida

B. Coelomates

C. Chordata

D. Mollusca

Answer: D. Mollusca

253) Which of the following is an example of Ball

and Socket joint in humans

A. Wrist joint

B. Hip joint

C. Finger joint

D. Neck joint

Answer: B. Hip joint

254) An adult human normally has

A.6 molar teeth

B.8 molar teeth

C.10 molar teeth

D.12 molar teeth

Answer: D.12 molar teeth

255) Functional unit of kidney is

A. Nephrons







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B. Cell

C. Adrenal

D. Biome

Answer: A. Nephrons

256) Birds usually have a single

A. Kidney

B. Lung

C. Testis

D. Ovary

Answer: D. Ovary

257) Which disease is caused by Nickel

A. Itai-Itai

B. Dermatitis

C. Learning disability

D. Asthma

Answer: B. Dermatitis

258) Which endocrine gland is found in chest

cavity

A. Pineal gland

B. Thymas gland

C. Adrenal gland

D. Thyroid gland

Answer B. Thymas gland

259) Who among the following is known as ‘Father

of medicine’

A. Darwin

B. Hippocrates

C. Heckle

D. Edward Jenner

Answer: B. Hippocrates

260. Which of the following tests help in diagnosis

of cancer?

A. Urine test

B. Blood test

C. Biopsy

D. X-Ray

Answer: C. Biopsy

261) What does Trypsin do?

A. Breaks down Carbohydrates

B. Synthesizes proteins

C. Breaks down fats

D. Breaks down proteins

Answer: D. Breaks down proteins

262) The Fungus which is used in the alcohol

industry is .

A. Mushroom

B. Candida Aibicans

C. Yeast

D. Rhizopus

Answer: C. Yeast

263) The food in Onion is stored in the form of

_______

A. Cellulose

B. Protein

C. Starch

D. Sugar







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Answer: D. Sugar

264) Iodized salt is beneficial for

A. Lowering of blood pressure

B. Prevention of dehydration

C. Thyroid function

D. Salivary glands

Answer: C. Thyroid function

265) Which is the effect of antigen in an ill person?

A. It increases the production of W.B.C.

B. It increases the production of antibiotics

C. It increases the production of anti-serum against

bacteria

D. It prevents the growth of bacteria

Answer: B. It increases the production of antibiotics

266) Which among the following helps in

circulation of blood?

A. Erithrocytus

B. Blood platelets

C. Monocytes

D. Lymphocytes

Answer: D. Lymphocytes

267) Which among the following is a large

spectrum Antibiotic ?

A. Paracetamol

B. Pencillin

C. Ampicillin

D. Chlormphenicol

Answer: C. Ampicillin

268) Our bones and teeth are generally made of

A. Tricalcium phosphate

B. Fluoropetite

C. Chloropetite

D. Hydrolith

Answer: A. Tricalcium phosphate

269) Pituitary gland is located in

A. brain

B. kidney

C. liver

D. intestine

Answer: A. brain

270) What is the limit of MG/DL of blood sugar in

the normal person at the time of fast?

A. 40-60

B. 120-150

C. 70-100

D. 160-200

Answer: C. 70-100

271) The pollination of maize takes place by

A. Self-pollination

B. Pollination by insects

C. Pollination by air

D. Pollination by rain

Answer: C. Pollination by air

272) Why radiologists do not take direct X-ray

photographs of intestine?







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A. Intestines are affected by direct exposure to X-rays

B. X-rays cannot cross intestine

C. X-rays are not able to capture clear picture

D. Even short exposure of X-rays causes cancer

intestine

Answer :C. X-rays are not able to capture clear

picture

273) Which of the following is not a gland?

A. Thyroid

B. Gastrine

C. Liver

D. Pancreas

Answer: B.Gastrine

274) Animals do not have enzyme systems which

enable them to make use of the energy from

A. Fat

B. Water

C. Protein

D. Carbohydrate

Answer. A. Fat

275) A clone is a colony of:

A. Cells having different shapes

B. Cells having similar shape

C. Cells having similar genetic constitution

D. Cells having different genetic constitutions

Answer. C. Cells having similar genetic constitution

276) The disease caused by Asbestos is:

A. Emphysema

B. Paralysis

C. Diarrhea

D. Dysentery

Answer. A. Emphysema

277) In the case of test tube babies

A. Egg is fertilized in the uterus.

B. Embryo completes its development in a test tube.

C. Embiyo is placed in uterus after 2 months.

D. Egg is fertilized outside mothers body.

Answer: D. Egg is fertilized outside mothers body.

278) Maximum photosynthetic activity occurs in :

A. Blue and red region of light

B. Green and yellow region of light

C. Blue and orange region of light

D. Violet and orange region of tight-

Answer: A. Blue and red region of light

279) AIDS virus has:

A. Single-stranded RNA

B. Double-stranded RNA

C. Single-stranded DNA

D. Double stranded DNA

Answer. A. Single-stranded RNA

280) A breath test used by traffic police to check

drunken driving uses:

A. Potassium dichromate-sulphuric acid

B. Potassium permanganate-sulphuric acid

C. Turmeric on filter paper

D. Silica gel coated with silver nitrate







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Answer. A. Potassium dichromate-sulphuric acid

281) Typhoid fever is caused by

A. Virus

B. Bacteria

C. Fungus

D. Allergy

Answer: B. Bacteria

282) Rod shaped bacteria is called

A. Bacillus

B. Spirillum

C. Coccus

D. Coma

Answer. A. Bacillus

283) All the progeny obtained from a single plant

by vegetative propagation are called

A. Clones

B. Pure line

C. Indeed line

D. Pedigree line

Answer: A. Clones

284) Which of the following blood groups may be

present in the children of a couple having blood

groups A and B respectively?

A. A and B only

B. A B and AB

C. A B AB and O

D. A B only

Answer. C. A B AB and O

285) Which of the following diseases is caused by a

virus?

A. Poliomyelitis

B. Malaria

C. Whooping cough

D. Ringworm

Answer: A. Poliomyelitis

286) Which of the following is known as Vitamin

B1?

A. Retinol

B. Thiamin

C. Riboflavin

D. Ascorbic Acid

Answer: B. Thiamin

287) Pathogenic bacteria secrete

A. Antigens

B. Antibodies

C. Hormones

D. Interferon’s

Answer: A. Antigens

288) Who discovered sex hormones?

A. Dreser

B. Eugen Steinach

C. Edward Calvin

D. Samuel Cohen

Answer: B. Eugen Steinach

289) What are the basic units from which human

spare parts can be created?







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A. Nerve cells

B. Stem cells

C. Heart cells

D. Kidney cells

Answer: B. Stem cells

290) The area of the human tongue sensitive to

bitterness is restricted to:

A. Tip

B. Edges

C. Middle part

D. Posterior part

Answer: D. Posterior part

291) Which of the following hormone is released in

excess quantity during excitement?

A. Cortisone

B. Serotonin

C. Adrenaline

D. Estrogen

Answer. C. Adrenaline

292) Clove the commonly used spice is obtained

from the

A. Fruit

B. Stem

C. Root

D. Flower bud

Answer: D. Flower bud

293) Which is the gland that holds the body’s

thermostat?

A. Pineal

B. Pituitary

C. Thyroid

D. Hypothalamus

Answer: D. Hypothalamus

294) The branch of agriculture which deals with

the feeding shelter health and breeding of the

domestic animals is called

A. Dairy Science

B. Veterinary Science

C. Poultry

D. Animal Husbandry

Answer: D. Animal Husbandry

295) Edward Jenner is associated with

A. Cholera

B. Typhoid

C. Smallpox

D. Paralysis

Answer: C. Smallpox

296) A plant with compound leaves is

A. Papaya

B. Coconut

C. Peepal

D. Hibiscus

Answer: B. Coconut

297) Which one of the following is not a digestive

enzyme?

A. Pepsin







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B. Renin

C. Insulin

D. Amylopsin

Answer: C. Insulin

298) On the average what percentage of human

body has the element of oxygen?

A.65

B. 25

C. 10

D. 5

Answer: A. 65

299) A Section of DNA that provides information

for one protein is called as

A. Lysosome

B. Gene

C. Chromosome

D. Nucleus

Answer: B. Gene

300) Which among the following bears smallest

living cell

A. Bacterium

B. Mollusk plasma

C. Virus

D. Yeast

Answer: A. Bacterium

301) Yawning occurs

A. Due to excess concentration of C02 in blood

B. Due to excess concentration of CO2 in lungs

C. Due to excess concentration of C02 in lungs

D. None of these

Answer: A. due to excess concentration of C02 in

blood

302. The tissue in man where no cell division

occurs after birth is

A. Skeletal

B. Nerves

C. Connective

D. Germinal

Answer: B. Nerves

303) Which one of the following is an abnormal

constituent of urine?

A. Creatinine

B. Urea

C. Uric acid

D. Ketone bodies

Answer: D. Ketone bodies

304) The metal present in insulin is

A. Copper

B. Iron

C. Zinc

D. Magnesium

Answer: C. Zinc

305) which part of brain regulates breathing

A. Fore-brain

B. Cerebellum

C. Mid-brain







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D. Medulla

Answer: D. Medulla

306) Which of the following is a rich source of

Vitamin B12?

A. Cashew nut

B. Milk

C. Apple

D. Watermelon

Answer: B. Milk

307) xerophthalmia is a deficiency disease caused

by lack of

A. Vitamin A

B. Vitamin B

C. Vitamin C

D. Vitamin D

Answer: A.Vitamin A

308) Out of the following glands which is referred

to as the master gland

A. Thyroid

B. Adrenal gland

C. Pituitary

D. Pancreas

Answer: C. Pituitary

309) Which was the first enzyme isolated in pure

crystalline form?

A. Amylase

B. Catalase

C. Lipase

D. Clrease

Answer. A. Amylase

310) The animal which uses sounds as its eyes is

A. Dog

B. Cat

C. Snake

D. Bat

Answer: D. Bat

311) Ginger is a stem and not a root because

A. It stores food material

B. It grows horizontal in the soil

C. It has nodes and internodes

D. It lacks chlorophyll

Answer: C. It has nodes and internodes

312) An ant can see the objects all around it due to

the presence of

A. Simple Eyes

B. Eyes over the head

C. Well-developed eyes

D. Compound eyes

Answer: D. Compound eyes

313) Which of the following is not a component of

chlorophyll?

A. Hydrogen

B. Magnesium

C. Carbon

D. Calcium

Answer:D. Calcium







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314) Thalassemia is a hereditary disease. It affects

A. Blood

B. Spleen

C. Lungs

D. Heart

Answer: A. Blood

315) Which of the following represents a food

chain involving a producer a vegetarian and a

nonvegetarian?

A. Grass - Insect - Elephant

B. Plant - Rabbit - Tiger

C. Fish - Insect - Whale

D. Tiger - Rabbit - Owl

Answer: B. Plant - Rabbit - Tiger

316) Which of the following is correlated with

blood pressure?

A. Liver

B. Testis

C. Pancreas

D. Adrenal

Answer : D. Adrenal

317) Which of the following structures present in

mammalian skin directly helps in keeping the body

warm?

A. Pigmented cells

B. Sweat glands

C. Lymph vessels

D. Blood capillaries

Answer: C. Lymph vessels

318) The process Glycolysis occurs in

A. Cytoplasm

B. Nucleus

C. Mitochondria

D. Chloroplast

Answer: A. Cytoplasm

319) select the bio fertilizer in the following:

A. Compost

B. Ammonium sulphate

C. Cattle dung -

D. Algae and blue-green algae

Answer: D. Algae and blue-green algae

320) Development of an egg without fertilization is

called

A. Gametogenesis

B. Parthenogenesis

C. Oogenesis

D. Metamorphosis

Answer: B. Parthenogenesis

321) In the process of dialysis used on patients with

affected kidneys the phenomenon involved is

A. Diffusion

B. Absorption

C. Osmosis

D. Electrophoresis

Answer: C. Osmosis







of 349



322)Why excessive heating and repeated use Of

cooking oil are most undesirable?

A. The oil vapour can cause indoor pollution

B. Carcinogenic substances like benzpyrene are

produced

C. Nutrient value of food is lost

D. Loss and wastage of oil

Answer: B. Carcinogenic substances like benzpyrene

are produced

323) Toxicology is related to the study of

A. Viruses

B. Bacteria

C. Diseases

D. Poisons

Answer: D. poisons

324) Jonas Salk invented the vaccine for

A. Polio

B. Hepatitis

C. Typhoid

D. Cholera

Answer: A. Polio

325) Cancer is a disease where we find

uncontrolled

A. Cell division

B. Cell swelling

C. Cell inflammation

D. Cell deformity

Answer: A. Cell division

326) Lac which is used as sealing wax is produced

by

A. Stem

B. Root

C. Insect

D. Bird

Answer: C. Insect

327) Fluid part of blood devoid of corpuscles is

called

A. Tissue fluid

B. Plasma

C. Serum

D. Lymph

Answer: C. Serum

328) Heart murmur indicates a

A. Defective valve

B. Poor oxygenation

C. Dislocation of the heart

D. Improper development of muscles

Answer. A. Defective valve

329) M.R.I. stands for

A. Metered Resonance Imaging

B. Magnetic Resonance Imaging

C. Magnetic Reaction Imaging

D. Metered Reaction Imaging

Answer: B. Magnetic Resonance Imaging

330) The science dealing with the study of teeth is

A. Odontology







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B. Ornithology

C. Phenology

D. Cosmology

Answer: A. Odontology

331) The enzyme in whose presence glucose and

fructose are converted into alcohol is

A. Diastase

B. Maltase

C. Invertase

D. Zymase

Answer: D. Zymase

332) The enzyme that is present in the saliva of

man is

A. Pepsin

B. Renin

C. Amylase

D. Trypsin

Answer: C. Amylase

333) Which of the following has no skeleton at all?

A. Star fish

B. Sponge

C. Jellyfish

D. Silver fish

Answer: C. Jellyfish

334) Which one of the following is not a mosquito

borne disease?

A. Dengue fever

B. Filariasis

C. Sleeping sickness

D. Malaria

Answer: C. Sleeping sickness

335) …….is the liquid part of the blood of which

92% is water and the remaining 8 % is proteins,

minerals, hormones, enzymes and so on.

A. RBC

B. Plasma

C. Blood platelet

D. WBC

Answer: B. Plasma

336) Study of newly born up to the age of 3 months

is called

A. Chorology

B. Conchology

C. Nematology

D. Neonatology

Answer: D. Neonatology

337) Which one of the following is related to

Silviculture ?

A. Culture of Hilsa

B. Culture of silver carp

C. Culture of oil-producing plants

D. Forest crops

Answer: D. Forest crops

338) Which is the anticoagulant substance in

blood?







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A. Fibrinogen

B. Heparin

C. Thrombin

D. Globin

Answer: B. Heparin

339) Jaundice is a symptom of disease of

A. Kidney

B. Liver

C. Pancreas

D. Thyroid

Answer: B. Liver

340) Deficiency of Vitamin B6 in man causes

A. Rickets

B. Scurvy

C. Beri-beri

D. Anaemia

Answer :D. Anaemia

341) Washing of peeled vegetables removes the

vitamin

A. A

B. C

C. D

D. E

Answer: B. C

342) A man with colour blindness will see red as

A. Yellow

B. Blue

C. Green

D. Violet

Answer: C. Green

343) The metal which is a constituent of vitamin

B12 is

A. Iron

B. Magnesium

C. Zinc

D. Cobalt

Answer: D. Cobalt

344) Which of the following is correct about cold

blooded animals?

A. Their blood remains cold all the time

B. Their body temperature changes in accordance

with the atmosphere

C. Their body temperature remains constant all the

time

D. They kill all the animals they come across

Answer: B. Their body temperature changes in

accordance with the atmosphere

345) The vitamin that helps to prevent infections in

the human body is

A. vitamin A

B. vitamin B

C. vitamin C

D. vitamin D

Answer: C. vitamin C

346) Tetanus is caused by

A. Clostridium







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B. Virus

C. Bacteriophage

D. Salmonella

Answer : A. Clostridium

347) Vitamin E is particularly important for

A. Development of teeth

B. Carbohydrate metabolism

C. Normal activity of sex glands

D. General health of epithelial tissues

Answer: C. Normal activity of sex glands

348) In which vertebrate oxygenated and

deoxygenated blood gets mixed?

A. Fish

B. Amphibian

C. Bird

D. Mammal

Answer: B. Amphibian

349) Pick out the viral disease among the

following:

A. Hepatitis

B. Meningitis

C. Arthritis

D. Nephritis

Answer: A. Hepatitis

350) Anaemia occurs due to the deficiency of

A. Riboflavin

B. Thiamine

C. Folic acid

D. Niacin

Answer: C. Folic acid

351) Amoebic dysentery is caused by

A. Entamoeba histolytic

B. Salmonella typhi

C. E coil

D. Streptococcus pyogenes

Answer: A. Entamoeba histolytic

352) Cell or tissue death within a living body is

called as

A. Neutrophilia

B. Nephrosis

C. Necrosis

D. Neoplasia

Answer :C. Necrosis

353) Insufficient blood supply in human body is

referred as

A. Ischemia

B. Hyperemia

C. Hemostasia

D. Hemorrhage

Answer: A. Ischemia

354) Deep fried food materials are carcinogenic

because they are rich in

A. Fats

B. Hydrocarbons

C. Cooking oil

D. Nicotine







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Answer: A. Fats

355) Besides carbohydrates a major source of

energy in our food is constituted by

A. Proteins

B. Fats

C. Minerals

D. Vitamins

Answer: B. Fats

356) A medicine which promotes the secretion of

urine is called

A. Adrenaline

B. Monouretic

C. Diuretic

D. Triuretic

Answer: C. Diuretic

357) EEG records the activity of

A. heart

B. lungs

C. brain

D. muscles

Answer: C. brain

358) The colour of cow s milk is slightly yellow due

to the presence of

A. Xanthophyll

B. Riboflavin

C. Ribulose

D. Carotene

Answer :D. Carotene

359) Which of the following diseases usually

spreads through air?

A. Plague

B. Typhoid

C. Tuberculosis

D. Cholera

Answer :C. Tuberculosis

360) Plasma membrane in eukaryotic cells is made

up of

A. Phospholipid

B. Lipoprotein

C. Phospholipo-protein

D. Phospho-protein

Answer: A. Phospholipid

361) The colour of the eye depends upon the

pigment present in

A. Cornea

B. Iris

C. Rods

D. Cones

Answer: B. Iris

362) The ability of the eye to see in the dark is due

to the production of a purple pigment known as

A. Carotene

B. Rhodopsin

C. Iodopsin

D. Retinene

Answer: D. Retinene







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363) The locomotory organ of Amoeba is

A. Pseudopodia

B. Parapodia

C. Flagella

D. Cilia

Answer. A. Pseudopodia

364) The term RH factor refers to

A. Rhesus factor

B. Rheumatoid factor

C. Renal factor

D. Rhombic factor

Answer: A. Rhesus factor

365) The vitamin most readily destroyed by heat

is?

A. Riboflavin

B. Ascorbic acid

C. Tocopherol

D. Thiamine

Answer: B.Ascorbic acid

366) Which of the following are warm blooded

animals ?

A. Whales

B. Whale Sharks

C. Alytes

D. Draco

Answer: A. Whales

367) The PH of human blood is

A. 2.4

B. 7.4

C. 14

D. 4

Answer: B. 7.4

368) Which phenomenon do bats or dolphins use to

find prey predators or obstacles ?

A. Refraction of sound

B. Formation of beats

C. Scattering of sound

D. Echo location

Answer: D. Echo location

369) The green colour of the leaves is due to the

presence of

A. Proteins

B. Lipids

C. Chlorophyll

D. Carbohydrates

Answer: C. Chlorophyll

370) The functions of pacemaker is

A. Regulation of Urine formation

B. Regulation of digestion

C. Initiation of heart beat

D. Initiation of respiration

Answer :C. Initiation of heart beat

371) Hemoglobin is a

A. Protein

B. Carbohydrate

C. Fat







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D. Vitamin

Answer: A. Protein

372)Largest flower in the world?

A. Wolffia

B. Loosia

C. Cihon

D. Rafflesi

Anwser:D. Rafflesi

373) Smallest flower in the world?

A. Wolffia

B. Loosia

C. Cihon

D. Rafflesi

Anwser: A.Wolffia

374) Bile secreted by liver is normally stored in the

A. Gall bladder

B. Liver

C. Pancreas

D. Bileduct

Answer :A. Gall bladder

375) which region of the alimentary canal absorbs

the digested food?

A. Stomach

B. Small intestine

C. Large intestine

D. Liver

Answer: B. Small intestine

376) Which vitamin helps in cogulation of blood?

A. Vitamin A

B. Vitamin E

C. Vitamin D

D. Vitamin K

Answer: D .Vitamin K

377) Name the device which is used to check up the

heartbeat?

A. Ammeter

B. Barometer

C. Thermometer

D. Stethoscope

Answer: D. Stethoscope

378) Which is male sex hormone?

A. Testosterone

B. Insulin

C. Progesterone

D. Oestrogen

Answer: A. Testosterone

379) Which lobe of human brain is associated with

hearing?

A. Frontal lobe

B. Parietal lobe

C. Temporal lobe

D. Occipital lobe

Answer: C. Temporal lobe

380) World health day?

A. April 7

B. March 8







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C. March 20

D. January 24

Answer :A. April 7

381) The element which is rich in most leafy

vegetables?

A. Phosphorous

B. Zinc

C. Iron

D. Calcium

Answer: C. Iron

382) Blood vessel carrying from the lungs to the

heart is ?

A. Pulmonary vein

B. Pulmonary Artery

C. Hepatic Artery

D. Renal Artery

Answer: A. Pulmonary vein

383) The Causative organism of dengue fever is?

A. Fungus

B. Bacteria

C. Virus

D. Protozoa

Answer :C. Virus

384) Which animal produces the biggest baby?

A. Camel

B. Lion

C. Elephant

D. Blue whale

Answer: D. Blue whale

385) Gestation period in elephant

A. 10months

B. 15months

C. 10months

D. 22months

Answer:D.22months

386) Who invented the electro cardiogram?

A. Karl Benz

B. Robert Koch

C. Willhem Einthoven

D. Edward Jenner

Answer: C.Willhem Einthoven

387) OXYNTIC cell is meant for secretion of ?

A. Entereo kinase

B. Lactic acid

C. Pepsin

D. HCL

Answer :D. HCL

388) Clitellum is found in

A. Virus

B. Nereis

C. Snail

D. Earthworm

Answer: D. Earthworm

389) Fermentation is a type of___ processes

A. Aerobic

B. Anaerobic







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C. Exothermic

D. Transpiration

Answer: B.Anaerobic

390) Arteries and veins are connected by a

network of extremely narrow tubes called:

A. Sieve tubes

B. Capillaries

C. Vena cava

D. Valves

Answer: B. Capillaries

391) The plant hormone which triggers the fall of

mature leaves and fruits from the plant body is:

A. Auxin

B. Gibberellin

C. Abscisic acid

D. Cytokinin

Answer: C. Abscisic acid

392) A doctor advised a person to take injection of

insulin because his:

A. Blood pressure was high

B. Heart beat was high

C. Blood sugar was high

D. Thyroxine level in blood was high

Answer :C. Blood sugar was high

393) The process of the division of cell into several

cells during reproduction in Plasmodium is termed

as:

A. Fragmentation

B. Budding

C. Multiple fission

D. Binary fission

Answer: C. Multiple fission

94) Movement of sunflower in accordance with the

path of Sun is due to

A. Chemotropism

B. Geotropism

C. Phototropism

D. Hydrotropism

Answer: C. Phototropism

395) Which plant hormone promotes cell division?

A. Auxin

B. Gibberellin

C. Cytokinin

D. Abscisic acid

Answer: C. Cytokinin

396) Which of the following acts as both endocrine

and exocrine gland?

A. Pancreas

B. Thyroid

C. Adrenal

D. Pituitary

Answer: A. Pancreas

397) Gustatory receptors are specialized in

detecting

A. Taste

B. Light







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C. Smell

D. Touch

Answer: A. Taste

398) Where are the sperms formed in the human

body?

A. Vas deferens

B. Prostate gland

C. Ovary

D. Testis

Answer: D. Testis

399) Where does fertilization takes place in human

beings?

A. Uterus

B. Vagina

C. Cervix

D. Fallopian tube

Answer: D. Fallopian tube

400) Development of embryo in human body takes

place in-

A. Ovary

B. Oviduct

C. Uterus

D. Ostium

Answer: C. Uterus

Geography

1. The oldest oil field in Asia is located in -

A. Gujarat

B. Assam

C. Arunachal Pradesh

D. Nagaland

ANS: B. Assam

2. On which lake is the Golden Temple located?

A. Amrit Sarovar Lake

B. Golden Lake

C. Harike Lake

D. Sukhna Lake

ANS: A. Amrit Sarovar Lake

3. The Jayakwadi Project. which is one of the largest

irrigation projects is on the river

A. Godavari

B. Narmada

C. Krishna

D. Tapi

ANS: A. Godavari

4. Which of the following is the largest glacier in

India?

A. Gangotri Glacier

B. Drang Drung Glacier

C. Siachen Glacier







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D. Shafat Glacier

ANS: C. Siachen Glacier

5. Re-location of endangered or rare species from

their natural habitat to protected areas equipped for

their protection and preservation is called

A. Ex situ conservation

B. In situ conservation

C. Exile conservation

D. Escaped conservation

ANS: A. Ex situ conservation

6. When did Sikkim become a state of India?

A. 1975

B. 1973

C. 1972

D. 1950

ANS: A. 1975

7. India covers ...... of earth's land area.

(approximate)

A. 2.8%

B. 2.4%

C. 2.0%

D. 3.2%

ANS: B 2.4%

8. Bangladesh has a land border with

A. only India

B. India and Myanmar

C. India and Bhutan

D. India and China

ANS: B India and Myanmar

9. Statue of Liberty is situated in

A. Paris

B. Washington

C. Geneva

D. New York

ANS: D. New York

10. Glaciers are formed by

A. Melting snow

B. Accumulation of snow

C. Heavy hail fall

D. High rainfall

ANS: B. Accumulation of snow

11. In which state is Koyna dam located?

A. Madhya Pradesh

B. Rajasthan

C. Maharashtra

D. Gujarat

ANS: C. Maharashtra

12. Which of the following is called 'The queen of

Arabian sea'?

A. Mumbai

B. Thiruvananthapuram

C. Kochi

D. Surat

ANS: C. Kochi







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13. What is the name of the castle that was built in

honour of world renowned composer Richard

Wagner?

A. Balmoral Castle

B. Neuschwanstein Castle

C. Convey castle

D. Kronborg

ANS: B. Neuschwanstein Castle

14. Hawa Mahal in Jaipur is constructed using

A. White and green marble

B. Granite

C. Red and Pink sandstone

D. Normal rocks

ANS: C Red and Pink sandstone

15. Halley's comet is expected to return to the vicinity

of earth in the year...

A. 2086

B. 2061

C. 2041

D. 2026

ANS: B. 2061

16. Geographical indication (GI) is related to ........

having unique geographic origin and evolution over

centuries.

A. Hills

B. Mountain ranges

C. Plains

D. Products

ANS: D Products

17. The Colosseum, known as the Flavian

Amphitheatre, is located in

A. Venice

B. Rome

C. Milan

D. Vatican City

ANS: B. Rome

18. Satish Dhawan Space Centre is located in:

A. Uttar Pradesh

B. Madhya Pradesh

C. Andhra Pradesh

D. Tamil Nadu

ANS: C. Andhra Pradesh

19. Bhimbetka caves are located in:

A. Uttar Pradesh

B. Madhya Pradesh

C. Andhra Pradesh

D. Himachal Pradesh

ANS: B. Madhya. Pradesh

20. Which one of the three rivers at Triveni Sanaarn,

Prayagraj, is an underground river?

A. Ganges

B. Yamuna

C. Saraswati

D. Kaveri

ANS: C. Saraswati







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21. Sundarbans is the largest single block of tidal

halophytic ________ forest in the world.

A. Woody shrubs

B. Papyrus

C. Mangrove

D. Marsh

ANS: C. Mangrove

22."Group of Monuments at Mahabalipuram one of

the "UNESCO World Heritage Site" founded by the

Pallava kings is in ........... district of ........

A. Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu

B. Kancheepuram, Tamil Nadu

C. Sivagangai, Tamil Nadu

D. Nilgiris, Tamil Nadu

ANS: B. Kancheepuram, Tamil Nadu

23. The huge storm known as Great red spot is

associated with which planet?

A. Mars

B. Venus

C. Pluto

D. Jupiter

ANS: D. Jupiter

24. South West Monsoon generates in..........

A. Arabian Sea

B. Indian Ocean

C. Bay of Bengal

D. Himalayas

ANS: B. Indian Ocean

25. Which state of India has the largest number of

cotton mills?

A. Karnataka

B. Uttar Pradesh

C. Maharashtra

D. Gujarat

ANS: C. Maharashtra

26. India shares water border with ....... countries.

A. One

B. Two

C. Five

D. Seven

ANS: D. Seven

27. The official journal of the Committee on Space

Research (COSPAR) is

A. Astrophysics and Space

B. Space Science Reviews

C. Advances in Space Research

D. Cosmic Research

ANS: C. Advances in Space Research

28. ISS stands for

A. International Space Station

B. International Space System

C. Indian space Studies

D. Inter-Space Spectroscopy

ANS: A. International Space Station

29. Most of the .......... are formed by sand and silt

deposited by rivers and sea waves.







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A. Laterite and lateritic soils

B. Alluvial soils

C. Peaty and Marshy soils

D. Saline and alkaline soils

ANS: B. Alluvial soils

30. Eastern boundary of Kashmir is

A. LOC

B. Jammu

C. POK

D. Ladakh region

ANS: D. Ladakh region

31. The famous Nek Chand's Rock Garden is located

in

A. Srinagar

B. Jammu

C. Chandigarh

D. Shimla

ANS: C. Chandigarh

32. Hirakud reservoir is built across the river

A. Sutlej

B. Godavari

C. Mahanadi

D. Narmada

ANS: C. Mahanadi

33. How many moons does the planet Mars have?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

ANS: B. 2

34. What is the desert adjoining the Thar desert

called in Pakistan?

A. Gobi

B. Cholistan

C. Sukkur

D. Mirpur

ANS: B. Cholistan

35. Which is the largest fresh water lake in the

World?

A. Lake Victoria

B. Lake Erie

C. Lake Superior

D. Lake Ontario

ANS: C. Lake Superior

36.Where can you find the Kunchikal waterfalls?

A. Kerala

B. Karnataka

C. Andhra Pradesh

D. Telangana

ANS: B. Karnataka

37. Losoong festival is popular in

A. Himachal Pradesh

B. Sikkim


D. Tripura

ANS: B. Sikkim







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38. Where is the Island of Seychelles located?

A. Indian Ocean

B. Pacific Ocean

C. Atlantic Ocean

D. The Southern Ocean

ANS: A. Indian Ocean

39. Which is the largest non-polar desert in the

World?

A. Kalahari

B. Gobi

C. Sahara

D. Great Australian

ANS: C. Sahara

40. In which state is 'White Desert' present in India?

A. Gujarat

B. Tamil Nadu

C. Jammu and Kashmir

D. Sikkim

ANS: A Gujarat

41. The Khajuraho Group of Monuments is a

UNESCO World Heritage Site located in

A. Madhya Pradesh

B. Uttar Pradesh

C. Uttarakhand

D. Chattisgarh

ANS: A. Madhya Pradesh

42. In which state is the World Heritage Site 'Basilica

of Born Jesus' located?

A. Goa

B. Andhra Pradesh

C. Tamil Nadu

D. Kerala

ANS: A Goa

43 .After entering Bangladesh, the main branch of the

Ganges is known as

A. Hooghly river

B. Jamuna river

C. Meghna river

D. Padma river

ANS: D Padma River

44. In which state is the Valley of Flowers National

park situated?

A. Uttarakhand

B. Himachal Pradesh


D. Assam

ANS: A. Uttarakhand

45.____ was the first Geographical Indication (GI)

tagged product in India.

A. Darjeeling Tea

B. Solapuri Chaddar

C. Nagpur Orange

D. Orissa Ikat

ANS: A Darjeeling Tea

46. Maanch is a folk dance from

A. Haryana







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B. Kerala

C. Assam

D. Madhya Pradesh

ANS: D. Madhya Pradesh

47. What is Shigmo?

A. A Goan Spring Festival

B. The tallest peak in Nilgiris

C. A type of Rangoli

D. One of the Names of Lord Shiva

ANS: A. A Goan Spring Festival

48. What is the official language in Bhutan?

A. English

B. Hindi

C. Dzongkha

D. Khmer

ANS: C .Dzongkha

49. A deep crack in a glacier is called

A. A crevice

B. A crevasse

C. A crack

D. A cleft

ANS: B. A crevasse

50. In which State is Karla, famous for its Buddhist

caves, located?

A. Maharashtra

B. Uttar Pradesh

C. Uttarakhand

D. Madhya Pradesh

ANS: A Maharashtra

51. What is the narrow strip of land across a body of

water connecting two large land masses called?

A. Cape

B. Isthmus

C. Channel

D. Lagoon

ANS: B. Isthmus

52. Which is the first planet in the solar system to be

discovered using telescope?

A. Uranus

B. Saturn

C. Neptune

D. Jupiter

ANS: A. Uranus

53. What is the difference between Greenwich Mean

Time and Indian Standard Time?

A. 6 hours and 30 minutes

B. 4 hours and 30 minutes

C. 5 hours and 30 minutes

D. 3 hours and 30 minutes

ANS: C. 5 hours and 30 minutes

54. What kind of rock is marble?

A. Extrusive igneous rock

B. Intrusive igneous rock

C. Sedimentary rock

D. Metamorphic rock

ANS: D. Metamorphic rock







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55. The area where the warm and cold currents meet

is the best for which activity?

A. Sea weed growth

B. Swimming

C. Fishing

D. Surfing

ANS: C. Fishing

56. Which passes make way to the land route between

Kailash and the Manasarovar?

A. Mana pass

B. Rohtas pass

C. Natu la pass

D. Zoji la pass

ANS: A. Mana Pass

57. Which of the following pass link the Srinagar to

Leh?

Mana pass

A. Rohtas pass

B. Natu la pass

C. Zoji la pass

ANS: D. Zoji La Pass

58. With which country does India share its longest

boundary after Bangladesh?

A. Pakistan

B. China

C. Afghanistan

D. Myanmar

ANS: B. China

59. Which river enters India through Shipki La Pass?

A. Ravi

B. Beas

C. Chenab

D. Sutlej

ANS: D. Sutlej

60. What is the pre-monsoon local rainfall and

thunderstorms in West Bengal called?

A. Kalbaisakhi

B. Mango showers

C. Cherry blossom


ANS: A. Kalbaisakhi

61. Satkosia wildlife sanctuary is located in which

state?

A. Assam

B. Odisha

C. Punjab

D. Mizoram

ANS: B. Odisha

62. Due to leaching which soils are deficient in

nutrients?

A. Laterite soils

B. Red soils

C. Black soils

D. Desert soils

ANS: A. Laterite soils







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63. Which river meets Alakananda river at

Devprayag to form the river Ganga?

A. Bhagirathi

B. Mandakini

C. Pindar

D. Dhauliganga

ANS: A. Bhagirathi

64. Which organisation constructs the strategically

important roads and roads in high altitude areas?

A. Border Road Organisation

B. Boundary Road Organisation

C. Border Road Company

D. Border Rail Organisation

ANS: A. Border Road Organisation

65. Which is the most used raw material for making

paper in India?

A. Bagasse

B. Sabai grass

C. Soft wood

D. Bamboo

ANS: D. Bamboo

66. What is the position of India in the world in the

production of sugar?

A. Third

B. First

C. Second

D. Fourth

ANS: C. Second

67. Toda tribes belong to which state in India?

A. Karnataka

B. Kerala

C. Tamil nadu

D. Andhra Pradesh

ANS: C. Tamil nadu

68. Which authority is responsible for development

and regulation of inland waterways?

A. Inland Waterways Authority of Bharat

B. Inland Waterways Authority of Country

C. Inland Waterways Authority of India

D. Inland Waterways Authority of Nation

ANS: C. Inland Waterways Authority of India

69. In which state is the Kopili Hydro Power Project

located?

A. Nagaland

B. Assam

C. Manipur

D. Mizoram

ANS: B. Assam

70. On the banks of which river is the town Surat

located?

A. Tapi

B. Narmada

C. Ghaggra

D. Kosi

ANS: A. Tapi







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71. Which of the following option denote restoration

of forest by naturally or manually?

A. Deforestation

B. Afforestation

C. Reforestation

D. Hiforestation

ANS: C. Reforestation

72. Where is Notre-Dame cathedral?

A. California

B. Leads

C. Belgium

D. Paris

ANS: D. Paris

73. Where will you be if you were on Filitheyo Island?

A. Sri Lanka

B. Lakshadweep

C. Maldives

D. Thailand

ANS: C Maldives

74. In which of the following state is Goecha La

passes located?

A. Sikkim

B. Assam

C. Meghalaya

D. Uttrakhand

ANS: A. Sikkim

75. Which of the following statement is not true about

Indian River?

A. Himalayan rivers are Perennial

B. Peninsular rivers are Seasonal

C. Himalayan rivers form very small delta

D. Peninsular rivers have little amount of water

ANS: C. Himalayan Rivers form very small delta

76. In which of the following state Nathula and jelep

la passes are situated?

A. Sikkim

B. Uttrakhand

C. Himachal Pradesh

D. Jammu Kashmir

ANS: A. Sikkim

77. Which of the following is not true about

Kumbhalgarh fort, Rajasthan?

A. It is situated in district Rajsamand of Rajasthan at

present

B. It is a world heritage site of UNESCO

C. The wall of Kumbalgarh is the second largest

wall after the china wall.

D. It is situated on the peak of famous Satpura

series.

ANS: D. It is situated on the peak of famous Satpura

series.

78. How many constellations have been named?

A. 88

B. 99

C. 90

D. 87







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ANS: A.88

79. What is Kuiper belt?

A. Planetary bodies that orbit around Jupiter

B. A type of Galaxy

C. Icy Planetary bodies that orbit around Neptune

D. A type of constellation

ANS: C. Icy Planetary bodies that orbit around Neptune

80. According to World Bank, what Is the

approximate land utilization percentage of India for

agriculture purposes?

A. 48

B. 70

C. 60

D. 53

ANS: C.60

81. The number of major ports in India is

A.5

B.8

C.13

D.15

ANS: C.13

82. The Purple Frontier, The Earth Dragon and The

Outer Fortresses, all refer to

A. The Himalayas

B. The Yellow River

C. The Great Wall of China

D. Books written by J.R.R. Tolkien

ANS: C. The Great Wall of China

83. Brahmputra river doesn’t flow from which of the

following countries?

A. China

B. Bangladesh

C. India

D. Nepal

ANS: D. Nepal

84. A major tectonic plate – The Indian plate (where

India is situated), split off from which ancient

continent?

A. Rodinia

B. Pannotia

C. Pangaea

D. Gondwanaland

ANS: D. Gondwanaland

85. On which hill is the famous Tirumala Temple

situated?

A. Seshadri

B. Neeladr

C. Narayanadri

D. Venkatadri

ANS: D. Venkatadri

86. What is Geodesy?

A. A Branch of Aeronautics

B. Study of Icebergs

C. Study of Mountains

D. Branch of mathematics dealing with the shape

and area of earth







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ANS: D Branch of mathematics dealing with the shape

and area of earth

87. Which among the following is a major tea

producing state in India?

A. Andhra Pradesh

B. West Bengal

C. Odisha

D. Maharashtra

ANS: B. West Bengal

88. Which river is known as Dakshin Ganga?

A. Cavery

B. Mahanadi

C. Godaveri

D. Krishna

ANS: C. Godaveri

89. Which river flows through Karnataka and Tamil

Nadu?

A. Krishna

B. Godavri

C. Kaveri

D. Periyar

ANS: C. Kaveri

90. Chandrasekhar limit is applied to-

A. To stars

B. To volcano

C. To motion of light

D. To plant life

ANS: A .To stars

91. Suez canal joins the Mediterranean sea to-

A. Caspian sea

B. Red Sea

C. Baltic Sea

D. North Sea

ANS: B .Red Sea

92. Which of them is a cause of earthquake?

A. Attacks of grasshopper

B. Storm

C. Moon eclipse

D. Volcanic eruption

ANS: D .Volcanic eruption

93. The summer capital of Jammu and Kashmir

government is:

A. Jammu

B. Srinagar

C. Gulmarg

D. Anantnag

ANS: B. Srinagar

94. Where is the Golden Temple Dambulla located

A. Malaysia

B. Sri lanka

C. Philippines

D. Indonesia

ANS: B. Sri lanka

95. Which of the following rivers is known as the

‘Sorrow of Bengal’?

A. Mahanadi







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B. Hooghly

C. Damodar

D. Son

ANS: C. Damodar

96. What caused Tsunami (HarbourWave)?

A. Under Sea earthquakes

B. Typhoons

C. Volcanic eruption on land

D. Drought

ANS: A. Under Sea earthquakes

97. The only bird which can fly in backward

direction-

A. Hummingbird

B. Kiwi

C. Albatross

D. Eagle

ANS: A Hummingbird

98. Most densely populated city of Australia is-

A. Canberra

B. Sydney

C. Melbourne

D. Perth

ANS: C. Melbourne

99. Which one is the lowest porous?

A. Sandy soil

B. Silty soil

C. Clay soil

D. Saline soil

ANS: C. Clay soil

100. Which is the IInd most speaking language?

A. Mandarin

B. Spanish

C. English

D. Hindi

ANS: B. Spanish

101. Which is the largest mammal?

A. The African Elephant

B. Male Hippopotamus

C. Blue whale

D. Male hammer head shark

ANS: C. Blue whale

102. The word equinox stands for-

A. The same shape

B. Same time period of day and night

C. Same time period of summer and cold

D. The weather is of same time period

ANS: B Same time period of day and night

103. Mariana Trench is situated in which of the

ocean?

A. Atlantic ocean

B. Pacific ocean

C. Indian ocean

D. Southern ocean

ANS: B .Pacific ocean







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104. Which city is a planned city according to

Vastushastra?

A. New Delhi

B. Bangalore

C. Mumbai

D. Chandigarh

ANS: D. Chandigarh

105. In which of the following river originate from

Tibet

A. Godavari

B. Mahanandi

C. Brahmaputra

D. Sone

ANS: C Brahmaputra

106. Which type of soil is found in great north plane?

A. Alluvial Soil

B. Black Soil

C. Red Soil

D. Laterite Soil

ANS: A. Alluvial Soil

107. Which planet is known as evening/morning star?

A. Mercury

B. Venus

C. Mars

D. Saturn

ANS: B. Venus

108. What is a celestial object consisting of a nucleus

of ice and dust called?

A. Star

B. Moon

C. Comet

D. Asteroid

ANS: C. Comet

109. Which of the following geographical term related

with a body of land surrounded by water on three

sides?

A. Peninsula

B. Strait

C. Ishtumas

D. Canal

ANS: A Peninsula

110. Study of atmosphere is called:

A. Atmosphelogy

B. Meteorology

C. Ecology

D. Mertrollogy

ANS: B Meteorology

111. How many bio-geographical regions are in

India?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 6

D. 10

ANS: D. 10

112. Which of the following states is the biggest

producer of silk?







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A. Kerala

B. Andhra Pradesh

C. Karnataka

D. Maharashtra

ANS: C. Karnataka

113. Which princely state was the biggest

independent state?

A. Hyderabad

B. Kochin

C. Travankon

D. Puducherri

ANS: A. Hyderabad

114. Chitrakoot waterfall is lying on Indrawati river,

the waterfall is known as India’s Niyagra waterfall.

That is situated in-

A. Madhya Pradesh

B. Chhattisgarh

C. Uttarakhand

D. Jharkhand

ANS: B. Chhattisgarh

115. In which direction does the tail of a comet point

toward?

A. Away from the sun

B. Towards the sun

C. Away from the earth

D. Towards the earth

ANS: A .Away from the sun

116. Which river originates from Amarkantak?

A. Betwa

B. Chamba

C. Sone

D. Narmada

ANS: D. Narmada

117. Which of the following rivers is not part

of ‘Panchnad’?

A. The Jhelum

B. The Indus

C. The Chenab

D. The Ravi

ANS: B The Indus

118.Which of the following rivers flows in a rift valley

A. Son

B. Damodar

C. Narmada

D. Ganges

ANS: C . Narmada

119. Which one of the following is the first biosphere

reserve of India that was set up in the year 1986?

A. Nokrek Biosphere reserve

B. Nilgiri Biosphere reserve

C. Great Nicobar Biosphere reserve

D. Gulf of Mannar Biosphere reserve

ANS: B. Nilgiri Biosphere reserve

120. Which among the following statements is true?

A. Jharkhand is the largest mica producing state in

India







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B. Copper is found in Orissa

C. Limestone is found in Maharashtra

D. India is largest producer of Iron ore

ANS: A Jharkhand is the largest mica producing state in

India

121. Which river does not flow into the Arabian Sea?

A. Narmada

B. Tapti

C. Periyar

D. Mahanadi

ANS: D. Mahanadi

122. Which of the following planets doesn’t have a

satellite?

A. Jupiter

B. Mars

C. Venus

D. Neptune

ANS: C. Venus

123. The type of forest that is most widespread in

India is

A. Deciduous forest

B. Thorn forest

C. Tidal forest

D. Montane forest

ANS: A. Deciduous forest

124. Which of the following passes cuts through the

Pir Panjal range and links Manali and Leh by road?

A. Rohtas Pass

B. Mana Pass

C. Natula Pass

D. Jhelab la Pass

ANS: A. Rohtas Pass

125. Which of the following is a reason of

earthquake?

A. Global warming of surface of earth

B. Increased population on earth

C. Underground nuclear explosion test

D. Motion of tectonic plate of earth

ANS: D. Motion of tectonic plate of earth

126. Which sanctuary was known as Bharatpur bird

sanctuary earlier?

A. Samaspur bird sanctuary

B. Mayani bird sanctuary

C. Salim Ali bird sanctuary

D. Keoladeo bird sanctuary

ANS: D. Keoladeo bird sanctuary

127. Which one of the following rivers emerged from

western Ghat?

A. Ghaggar

B. Krishna

C. Damoder

D. Son

ANS: B. Krishna

128. Which of the following conduct the water cycle

on earth?

A. Wind







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B. Moon

C. Sun

D. Earth

ANS: C. Sun

129. Mount Kanchenjunga is

A. The tallest mountain in the Himalayas

B. Located to the north of Mount Everest

C. The 2nd highest mountain in the World

D. The 3rd highest mountain in the World

ANS: D. The 3rd highest mountain in the World

130. Which of the following imaginary line almost

divides India into two equal parts?

A. Equator

B. Tropic of Cancer

C. Tropic of Capricorn

D. Artic Circle

ANS: B. Tropic of Cancer

131. Which of the following water bodies is the home

of Lakshadweep?

A. Arabian sea

B. Bay of Bengal

C. Indian Ocean

D. Atlantic Ocean

ANS: A. Arabian Sea

132. Which of the following region supports the

Karewa formation?

A. North-eastern Himalaya

B. Himachal-Uttaranchal Himalayas

C. Eastern Himalayas

D. Kashmir Himalayas

ANS: D. Kashmir Himalayas

133. Where is the Loktak Lake situated?

A. Kerala

B. Uttaranchal

C. Manipur

D. Rajasthan

ANS: C. Manipur

134. Which of the following water bodies separates

the Andaman from the Nicobar?

A. 11° Channel

B. Gulf of Mannar

C. 10° Channel

D. Andaman Sea

ANS: C. 10° Channel

135. Which of the following hill ranges dominated by

the ‘Doddabetta’ peak?

A. Nilgiri hills

B. Anaimalai hills

C. Cardamom hills

D. Nallamala hills

ANS: A. Nilgiri hills

136. Which of the following river has the largest river

basin in India?

A. The Indus

B. The Ganga







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C. The Brahmaputra

D. The Krishna

ANS: B. The Ganga


with the ”piece of sub-continental land that is

surrounded by water”?

A. Peninsula

B. Gulf

C. Strait

D. Island

ANS: D. Island


with a naturally formed, narrow, typically navigable

waterway that connects two larger bodies of water?

A. Peninsula

B. Gulf

C. Strait

D. Island

ANS: C. Strait

139. Which of the following is suitable definition of

‘Archipelago’?

A circular coral reef that encloses a shallow lagoon.

A. A chain or set of islands grouped together.

B. The plant and animal life on the earth.

C. None of the above

ANS: B. A chain or set of islands grouped together.

140. Which of the following is the largest Archipelago

in the world?

A. Andaman & Nicobar Island

B. Malaysia

C. Indonesia

D. Maldives

ANS: C. Indonesia

141. Which of the following is the world’s largest

peninsula?

A. India

B. South Africa

C. Arabia

D. Both A & B

ANS: C. Arabia

142. Which of the following pass has been created by

the Indus River?

A. Rohtas Pass

B. Nathula Pass

C. Baralachala Pass

D. Banihal Pass

ANS: D. Banihal Pass

143. Consider the following statement(s) is/are related

to the Storms during the Hot Weather Season

I. Mango Showers (since the rain showers are good

for the mango trees) occurs along the coast of Kerala.

II. Loo is the name given to the hot, dry winds that

blow in the Northern Plains. It is very common in

Punjab, Haryana, Western Uttar Pradesh (called

“aandhi”) and Bihar.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?







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A. Only I

B. Only II

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I nor II

ANS: C. Both I and II

144. Consider the following statement(s) is/are about

South- West Monsoon

I. The bulk of rainfall is received during this season

in almost every part of India except TamilNadu.

II. Blossom Shower with this shower, coffee flowers

blossom in Karnataka and its nearby areas.


Only I

A. Only II

B. Both I and II

C. Neither I nor II

ANS: A Only I

145. Which of the following longitudes is the standard

meridian of India?

A. 69°30’E

B. 75°30’E

C. 82°30’E

D. 90°30’E

ANS: C. 82°30’E

146. Which of the following places receives the

highest rainfall in the world?

A. Silchar

B. Cherrapunji

C. Mawsynram

D. Guwahati

ANS: C. Mawsynram

147. What is the local name of the wind blowing in

the northern plains during summers ?

A. Kaal Baisakhi

B. Trade Winds

C. Loo


ANS: C Loo

148. Which of the following reason of rainfall during

winters in north-western part of India?

A. Cyclonic depression

B. Western disturbances

C. Retreating monsoon

D. Southwest monsoon

ANS: B. Western disturbances

149. Consider the following statement(s) is/are related

to Himalayan Range

I. It form the highest mountain range in the world,

extending 2,500 km over northern India.

II. Bounded by the Indus river in the west and the

Brahmaputra in the east, the three parallel ranges,

the Himadri, Himachal and Shivaliks have deep

canyons gorged by the rivers flowing into the

Gangetic plain.


A. Only I







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B. Only II

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I nor II

ANS: C Both I and II

150. Which of the following factor is characterises

by the cold weather season in India?

A. warm days and warm nights

B. Warm days and cold nights

C. Cool days and cold nights

D. Cold days and warm nights

ANS: C. Cool days and cold nights

151. What is the wearing away of the landscape by

different wind and ice. Agents like water.

A. weathering

B. Attrition

C. Erosion

D. Abrasion

ANS: C. Erosion

152. In due course of time the meander loop cuts off

from the river and forms Cut-off Lake, also called an

lake.

A. ox-bow

B. oasis

C. lagoon

D. tectonic Rivers and Lakes

ANS: A. ox-bow

153. The longest river of Europe is

A. Rhine

B. Rhone

C. Danube

D. Volga

ANS: D. Volga

154. Which of the following river crosses the Equator

twice ?

A. Congo

B. Amazon

C. Niger

D. Nile

ANS: A. Congo

155. Which of the following river crosses Tropic of

Capricorn twice?

A. Vaal River

B. Limpopo River

C. Niger River

D. Zambezi River

ANS: B Limpopo River

156. Which is the largest river of the Asia?

A. Indus river

B. Yangtze River

C. Hwant Ho river

D. Ganga River

ANS: B. Yangtze River

157. Rivers in "Annular" pattern flow in which

direction?

A. West to East

B. North to south







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C. Like a ring

D. Transverse direction

ANS: C. Like a ring

158. In which river is "Grand canyon"?

A. Mississippi

B. Colorado

C. Columbia

D. Ohara

ANS: B. Colorado

159. The reason behind broadening the river valley is

A. Corrosion

B. Soil erosion

C. Attrition

D. Yhydraulic action

ANS: B. Soil erosion

160. Which of the following city is located on the

banks of river Potomac?

A. Berlin

B. Islamabad

C. Madrid

D. Washington DC

ANS: D .Washington DC

161. Which of the following is known as the "Roof of

the World"?

A. Everest

B. Pamir Mountains

C. Siberian field

D. Hindu Kush Mountain

ANS: B. Pamir Mountains

162. Regur is the name of

A. Red soil

B. Black soil

C. Alluvial soil

D. Clay soil

ANS: B. Black soil

163. Which of the following city is known as the

"Eternal city"?

A. London

B. Rome

C. Athens

D. Berlin

ANS: B. Rome

164. Which of the following city is the capital of

desert country mali?

A. Damascus

B. Bamako

C. Adra

D. Ankara

ANS: B. Bamako

165. Which is the largest country (in area)?

A. Canada

B. China

C. USA

D. Russia

ANS: D .Russia







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166. The mountain which separates Asia and Europe

is ?

A. Allai Mountain Range

B. Alps Mountain

C. Ural Mountain

D. Rocky Mountain

ANS: C .Ural Mountain

167. Which of the following is not a result of

underground water-activity

A. Stalactites

B. Stalagmites

C. Sink holes

D. Fiords

ANS: D. Fiords

168. Hanging valley is very common in

A. High mountains

B. Sub-Arctic region

C. Glaciated areas

D. Coastal belt

ANS: C. Glaciated areas

169. A wide inlet of the sea usually concave in shape,

is termed as a:

A. Strait

B. Sound

C. Bay

D. Fjord

ANS: C. Bay

170. The World's largest island is

A. Greenland

B. Iceland

C. New Guinea

D. Madagascar

ANS: A .Greenland

171.Among the world oceans, which ocean is having

the widest continental shelf?

A. Antarctic ocean

B. Arctic ocean

C. Indian ocean

D. Atlantic ocean

ANS: B. Arctic Ocean

172. The movement inside the Earth's crust is studied

by which of the following?

A. Geology

B. Seismology

C. Plate Tectonies

D. Pantograph

ANS: B Seismology

173. The material carried by the glacier such as rocks

big and small, sand and silt gets deposited, which are

called glacial

A. Moraines

B. Deltas

C. Plateaus

D. Grooves

ANS: A. Moraines







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174. As the river enters the plain it twists and turns

forming large bends known as

A. Crooks

B. Flections

C. Rounds

D. Meanders

ANS: D .Meanders

175. 49th Parallel is the boundary line between which

two countries?

A. USA and Canada

B. North and South Vietnam

C. Germany and France

D. Brazil and Chile

ANS: A. USA and Canada

176. After Sun, which is the closest star to the Earth?

A. Vega

B. Sirius Bosma

C. Proxima Centauri

D. Alpha Centauri

ANS: C. Proxima Centauri

177. The surface temperature of the Sun is Measured

(0C)

A. 6000

B. 2000

C. 18000

D. 21000

ANS: A. 6000

178. The outermost layer of the Sun is called

A. chromospheres

B. Photosphere

C. Corona

D. Lithosphere

ANS: C. Corona

179. The light of Sun takes how much time to reach to

Earth?

A. 8 hours 20 seconds

B. 8 minutes 20 seconds

C. 8 seconds

D. 20 seconds

ANS: B. 8 minutes 20 seconds

180. The Synchronous satellite moves around the

Earth from

A. East to west

B. West to east

C. North to south

D. South to North

ANS: B. west to east

181. In which of the following areas, the "Midnight

Sun" can be seen?

A. In tropical areas

B. In temperate areas

C. Arctic and Antarctica circle

D. Anywhere during solar eclipse

ANS: C. Arctic and Antarctica circle

182. The darkest part of the shadow during eclipse is

A. Halo







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B. Umbra

C. Penumbra

D. Black Hole

ANS: B. Umbra

183. Low tides are

A. strong

B. Weak

C. Moderate

D. Very Weak

ANS: B. Weak

184. Milky way Galaxy was first seen by

A. Galileo

B. Martin Schmidli

C. Marconi

D. Newton

ANS: A .Galileo

185. Which of the following is not related to solar

system

A. Small planet

B. Comets

C. Planet

D. Nebula

ANS: D .Nebula

186. Which of the following planets do not have

satellite

A. Mars and Venus

B. Mercury and Venus

C. Mars and Mercury

D. Neptune and Pluto

ANS: B. Mercury and Venus

187. Which country has the largest coast line?

A. USA

B. Australia

C. Canada

D. India

ANS: C. Canada

188. How many days in one year on mercury?

A. 566

B. 88

C. 300

D. 36

ANS: B. 88

189. Which of the following is not a satellite of

Jupiter?

A. Europe

B. Ganimade

C. Callisto

D. Deimos

ANS: D. Deimos

190. What is the name of hole in outer space which

emits stars and energy?

A. Black Hole

B. Ozone Hole

C. Asteroid Belt

D. White Hole

ANS: D .White Hole







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191. The mass of Jupiter is almost

A. Tenth of the mass of the Sun

B. One Thousandth of the mass of the sun

C. Hundred of the mass of the sun

D. Half of the mass of the sun

ANS: B .One Thousandth of the mass of the sun

192. One astronomical unit is the average distance

between which of the following?

A. Earth and sun

B. Earth and Moon

C. Jupiter and Sun

D. Pluto and Sun

ANS: A .Earth and sun

193. Which is the hottest planet in the solar system?

A. Jupiter

B. Saturn

C. Venus

D. Uranus

ANS: C. Venus

194. Earth's twin

A. Mercury

B. Mars

C. Venus

D. Pluto

ANS: C .Venus

195. In how many parts the shadow of Earth is

divided during solar or lunar eclipse?

A. Five

B. Two

C. Four

D. Three

ANS: D. Three

196. On which day, Earth is closest to the Sun?

A. 23 September

B. 3 January

C. 4 July

D. 21 March

ANS: B .3 January

197. The earth is tilted on its axis

A. 23.5 degree

B. 22.5 degree

C. 21.5 degree

D. 20 degree

ANS: A .23.5 degree

198. Loess is a ________

A. Loss of rocks

B. Animal deposited sediments

C. Water deposited sediments

D. Wind deposited sediments

ANS: D .Wind deposited sediments

199. At Barren Island, the only active volcano in

India is situated in

A. Andaman Islands

B. Nicobar Islands

C. Lakshadweep

D. Minicoy







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ANS: A. Andaman Islands

200. Japan is called the ‘Land of the rising sun’

because-

A. Sun rises there as soon as it sets

B. Sun always remains in the eastern part of the sky

throughout the day in Japan

C. Japan being the Eastern most country in the

world, it has the earliest sunrise

D. The rays of the sun get reflected from the waters

of the sea and make the sunrise beautiful

ANS: C. Japan being the Eastern most country in the

world, it has the earliest sunrise

201. The Himalayas is the example of _________.

A. Fold mountains

B. Block mountains

C. Ancient mountains

D. Residual mountains

ANS: A. Fold Mountains

202. One of the leading producers of asbestos in the

world is :

A. Australia

B. Russia

C. Canada

D. Armenia

ANS: B .Russia

203. Sedimentary rocks are derived through.

A. Disintegration

B. Decomposition

C. Both A and B


ANS: C .Both A and B

204. Sandstone is a _____

A. Sedimentary rocks

B. Igneous rocks

C. Metamorphic rocks

D. Transporting rocks

ANS: A. Sedimentary rocks

205. Which of the following union territories of India

has the highest density of population per sq km?

A. Pondicherry

B. Lakshadweep

C. Delhi

D. Chandigarh

ANS: C. Delhi

206. The Salal Project is on the river

A. Chenab

B. Jhelum

C. Ravi

D. Sutlej

ANS: A. Chenab

207. The processes which include geological

phenomena and processes that originate externally to

the Earth’s surface are called as _____

A. Endogenic processes

B. Exogenic processes

C. Biological process







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D. None of these

ANS: B .Exogenic processes

208. Which of the following important rivers of India

does not originate from the Western Ghats?

A. Cauvery

B. Godavari

C. Krishna

D. Mahanadi

ANS: D. Mahanadi

209. The scientific study of soil is –

A. Pedology

B. Earth Study

C. Soil Science

D. Soil Chemistry

ANS: A. Pedology

210. Red Soil look yellow when?

A. It occurs in a iron oxide form.

B. It occurs in a loosed form.

C. It occurs in a composed form.

D. It occurs in a hydrated form

ANS: D. It occurs in a hydrated form

211. The place of origin of an earthquake is called –

A. Epicentre

B. Focus

C. Seismal

D. Amphidromic point

ANS: B. Focus

212. The plateau rich in minerals in India is

_________.

A. Malwa plateau

B. Chhota Nagpur Plateau

C. Deccan Plateau

D. Mysuru Platea

ANS: B. Chhota Nagpur Plateau

213. Alps mountain range is located in which

continent?

A. Europe

B. North America

C. South America

D. Africa

ANS: A. Europe

214. Which of the following neighbouring country of

India is not a landlocked country?

A. Nepal

B. Myanmar

C. Bhutan

D. Afghanistan

ANS: B Myanmar

215. The longitudes of main land of India extends

between

A. 68°7' E and 97°25' E

B. 68°7' W and 97°25'

C. 68°7' N and 97°25' N

D. 68°7' S and 97°25' S

ANS: A. 68°7' E and 97°25' E







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216. The boundary between Earth's crust and mantle

is _____.

A. Moho discontinuity

B. Lehman discontinuity

C. Conrad discontinuity

D. Gutenberg discontinuity

ANS: A. Moho discontinuity

217. What is the other name of Sahyadri Range?

A. Lesser Himalayas

B. Shivaliks

C. Western Ghats

D. Eastern Ghats

ANS: C. Western Ghats

218. Which among the following country is not a part

of Scandinavia?

A. Norway

B. Finland

C. Sweden

D. Denmark

ANS: B .Finland

219. The oceanic crust mainly consists of silica and

__________.

A. Magnesium

B. Iron

C. Manganese

D. Sulphur

ANS: A .Magnesium

220. ___________are defined as the mass movement

of rock, debris or earth down a slope.

A. Earthquake

B. Cyclone

C. Flood

D. Landslide

ANS: D .Landslide

221. As the river approaches the sea, the speed of the

flowing water decreases and the river begins to break

up into a number of streams called ___________.

A. Plateau

B. Isthmus

C. Peninsula

D. Distributaries

ANS: D. Distributaries

222. ____________ is a cold desert lying in the Great

Himalayas.

A. Ladakh

B. Satpura

C. Aravalli

D. Vindhya

ANS: A. Ladakh

223. The Sundarbans Reserve Forest (SRF) which is

adjacent to India's Sundarbans National Park is

located in which neighbouring country?

A. Bhutan

B. Pakistan

C. Bangladesh







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D. Nepal

ANS: C .Bangladesh

224. The city of Nasik is situated on the banks of

which river in India?

A. Krishna

B. Godavari

C. Koshi

D. Tapti

ANS: B. Godavari

225. Which Indian state has the longest Coastline?

A. Kerala

B. Gujarat

C. Andhra Pradesh

D. Tamil Nadu

ANS: B .Gujarat

226. Which Indian state is the largest in terms of the

total area covered ?

A. Maharashtra

B. Madhya Pradesh

C. Rajasthan

D. Tamil Nadu

ANS: C .Rajasthan

227. The National Highway 1A connects Leh to

Kashmir Valley through the _______pass.

A. Khyber

B. Zoji la

C. Nathula

D. Karakoram

ANS: B. Zoji la

228. The place on the earth's surface above the focus

is called the __________.

A. focus

B. incentre

C. epicentre

D. centre

ANS: C .epicentre

229. The longitudinal valley lying between lesser

Himalaya and the ____________ are known as Duns.

A. Himadri

B. Himachal

C. Shiwaliks

D. Tibet

ANS: C. Shiwaliks

230. Which of the following is a major river in

Bangladesh which is also the main distributary of the

Ganges?

A. Gandak

B. Kosi

C. Gomati

D. Padma

ANS: D. Padma

231. Pir Panjal railway tunnel is located in

A. Jammu and Kashmir

B. Himachal Pradesh

C. Uttarakhand

D. Sikkim







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ANS: A Jammu and Kashmir

232. Odisha often faces natural disasters due to

A. Rainfall

B. Earth quakes

C. Cyclones

D. Drizzle

ANS: C .Cyclones

233. Madya Pradesh is related to ‘Diamond’ in the

same way as ‘Karnataka’ is related to

A. Copper

B. Platinum

C. Silver

D. Gold

ANS: D .Gold

234. Which among the following is a riverine (Inland

River) port?

A. Chennai

B. Kandla

C. Kolkata

D. Tutikorin

ANS: C. Kolkata

235. Which of the following is the largest completed

hydroelectric power plant in India?

A. Koyna

B. Sardar Sarovar

C. Tehri

D. Nathpa Jhakri

ANS: A. Koyna

236. Which states are related with Mahanadi Water

Dispute Tribunal-

A. Karnataka and Tamil Nadu

B. Odisha and Chhattisgarh

C. Kerala and Karnataka

D. Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka

ANS: B. Odisha and Chhattisgarh

237. Which one of the following is the largest source

of electricity in India?

A. Hydro power

B. Thermal power

C. Nuclear power


ANS: B. Thermal power

238. The largest Lagoon lake of India is:

A. Dal Lake

B. Chilka Lake

C. Pulicat Lake

D. Mansarover

ANS: B. Chilka Lake

239. The western-most longitude of India lies in the

state?

A. Rajasthan

B. Gujarat

C. Maharashtra

D. Madhya Pradesh

ANS: B. Gujarat







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240. Which of the following is a river flowing from

Central India and joining Yamuna/Ganga?

A. Ghagra

B. Gomti

C. Kosi

D. Betwa

ANS: D. Betwa

241. The longest river of Peninsular India is:

A. Narmada

B. Godavari

C. Mahanadi

D. Cauvery

ANS: B. Godavari

242. The layer where the decrease in temperature

with increasing altitude is totally absent is

A. Troposphere

B. Ionosphere

C. Stratosphere

D. Mesosphere

ANS: C. Stratosphere

243. Pagladia Dam Project is located in which state?

A. Arunachal Pradesh

B. Sikkim

C. Assam

D. West Bengal

ANS: C. Assam

244. World’s longest land border is between which

two countries?

A. Australia and New Zealand

B. India and China

C. Switzerland and Italy

D. Canada and USA

ANS: D. Canada and USA

245. Why does Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats

both receive sufficient rainfall but Deccan Plateau

receives scanty rainfall?

A. It is a rain shadow area

B. It is located parallel to wind direction

C. It is away from the coast

D. Rain bearing clouds are absent

ANS: A. It is a rain shadow area

246. The Ghatampur thermal power plant recently

approved by Cabinet is to be setup in –

A. Rajasthan

B. Uttar Pradesh

C. Karnataka

D. Madhya Pradesh

ANS: B. Uttar Pradesh

247. Sariska and Rathambore are the reserves for

which of the following ?

A. Lion

B. Deer

C. Tiger

D. Bear

ANS: C. Tiger







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248. Molten rock below the surface of the earth is

called __________.

A. Basalt

B. Laccolith

C. Lava

D. Magma

ANS: D. Magma

249. The Southern part of Indian mainland from the

south of river Krishna till the Southern tip of

Mainland India at Cape Comorin is also known as –

A. Konkan Coast

B. Gujarat Plains

C. Coromandel coast

D. Malabar coast

ANS: C. Coromandel coast

250. Which of the following makes the northern

boundary of Deccan Plateau

A. Aravalli Range

B. Vindhya Range

C. Chota Nagpur Plateau

D. None of these

ANS: B. Vindhya Range

251. Which of the following National Park

encompasses Mount Everest in it?

A. Sagarmatha National Park

B. Great Himalayan National Park

C. Valley of Flowers National Park

D. Jim Corbett National Park

ANS: A. Sagarmatha National Park

252. The highest peak of the western ghats of India is

A. Shevroy hills

B. Mahendragiri hills

C. Javadi hills

D. Anamudi hills

ANS: D. Anamudi hills

253. The Equator does not pass through which of the

following?

A. Kenya

B. Nigeria

C. Uganda

D. Somalia

ANS: B. Nigeria

254. Which of the following state has the highest

percentage of forest cover in terms of area?

A. Jammu and Kashmir

B. Haryana

C. Madhya Pradesh

D. Uttar Pradesh

ANS: C .Madhya Pradesh

255. Laterite soil is very useful for growing:

A. Rice, wheat and mustard

B. Tea, coffee and cashewnut

C. Pulses, sugarcane and resin


ANS: B. Tea, coffee and cashewnut

256. Melghat Tiger Reserve is in which state?







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A. Maharashtra

B. Rajasthan


D. Uttarakhand

ANS: A. Maharashtra

257. The “Valley of Flowers” is located in?

A. Karakoram Range

B. Shivalik Range

C. Zanskar Range

D. None of these

ANS: C. Zanskar Range

258. Namdapha National Park is one of the largest

protected area situated in –

A. Eastern Himalaya

B. Western Himalaya

C. Greater Himalaya

D. Karakoram Himalaya

ANS: A.Eastern Himalaya

259. This is the only sanctuary where Kashmiri Deer

are found?

A. Kanha

B. Gir

C. Dachigam

D. Mudumalai

ANS: C. Dachigam

260. Which of the following was India’s First

Biosphere Reserves?

A. Sundarban Biosphere Reserve

B. Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve

C. Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve

D. Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve

ANS: B. Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve

261. Which river passes through kaziranga national

park?

A. Ganga

B. Brahmaputra

C. Krishna

D. Mahanadi

ANS: B. Brahmaputra

262. Name the state which is at the top in floriculture

cultivation in India?

A. Assam

B. Arunachal Pradesh

C. Meghalaya

D. Karnataka

ANS: D. Karnataka

263. The Forest Research Institute is located in?

A. Dehradun

B. Bhopal

C. Lucknow

D. Delhi

ANS: A .Dehradun

264. Why is Rann of Kutch of India famous for?

A. Tidal and flats

B. Fertile soil

C. Dense Vegetation







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D. All are correct

ANS: A .Tidal and flats

265. A short season between the Rabi and Kharif

season is known as:

A. Aus

B. Boro

C. Zaid


ANS: C. Zaid

266. Which of the following is known as golden fibre?

A. Cotton

B. Jute

C. Hemp

D. Silk

ANS: B.Jute

267. Where is the Great Barrier Reef located?

A. Pacific Ocean

B. Indian Ocean

C. Atlantic Ocean

D. Arctic Ocean

ANS: A. Pacific Ocean

268. The largest delta in the world is_______.

A. Yellow River Delta

B. Ganges-Brahmaputra Delta

C. Mississippi Delta

D. None of these

ANS: B. Ganges-Brahmaputra Delta

269. The Palk Strait is a strait between the Tamil

Nadu state of India and the _______ district of the

Northern Province of the island nation of Sri Lanka.

A. Puttalam

B. Chunnakam

C. Mannar

D. Chilaw

ANS: C. Mannar

270. Among the following the literacy rate is highest

in?

A. Delhi

B. Punjab

C. Lakshadweep

D. Mizoram

ANS: C. Lakshadweep

271. Which layer of the earth’s atmosphere contains

the ozone layer?

A. Troposphere

B. Mesosphere

C. Ionosphere

D. Stratosphere

ANS: D. Stratosphere

272. Which of the following causes rainfall during

winters in the north-western part of India?

A. Western disturbances

B. Cyclonic depression

C. Southwest monsoon

D. Retreating monsoon







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ANS: A. Western disturbances

273. The Damodar valley is rich in –

A. Petroleum

B. Coal

C. Uranium

D. Zinc

ANS: B. Coal

274. The first commercial nuclear power station of

India was built in?

A. Kaiga

B. Tarapur

C. Narora

D. Kota

ANS: B. Tarapur

275. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam, one of the world’s largest

is constructed on which river-

A. Kaveri

B. Indus

C. Godavari

D. Krishna

ANS: D. Krishna

276. Which of the following Hydro Power Project is

in Tamil Nadu?

A. Iddukki

B. Kuttiyadi

C. Kakkad

D. Kundah

ANS: D. Kundah

277. Which is India’s longest river that does not flow

into the sea?

A. Ganga

B. Yamuna

C. Tapti

D. Kaveri

ANS: B. Yamuna

278. What is the most cultivated crop in India?

A. Ragi

B. Wheat

C. Corn

D. Rice

ANS: D. Rice

279. Mica is available abundantly in which States?

A. Andhra Pradesh, Jharkand, Bihar

B. Bihar, Gujarat, Telangana

C. Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Jharkand

D. Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar

ANS: A. Andhra Pradesh, Jharkand, Bihar

280. Where is the Masai Mara National Reserve?

A. Mali

B. Kenya

C. Gabon

D. Zambia

ANS: B. Kenya

281. The Dibru-Saikhowa, Nameri and Orang

National Park are all found in which State?

A. Andhra Pradesh







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B. Assam

C. Anniachal Pra&sh

D. Uttarakhnd

ANS: B. Assam

282. Which among the following is the Largest

Freshwater Lake in India?

A. Dal Lake

B. Thol Lake

C. Pushkar Lake

D. Wular Lake

ANS: D Wular Lake

283. Which city is the value of Gold determined?

A. California

B. Sydney

C. Rome

D. London

ANS: D. London

284. Which planet’s rotation period is higher than

revolution

A. Mars

B. Venus

C. Neptune

D. Uranus

ANS: B. Venus

285. Temperature coordinates of earth

A. Latitudes

B. Longitudes

C. Equator

D. Great circle

ANS: A. Latitudes

286. Winter Solstice

A. 21 June

B. 22 December

C. 21 March

D. 23 September

ANS: B. 22 December

287. A difference of one hour between the two

meridians in degree

A. 30

B. 15

C. 45

D. 50

ANS: B. 15

288. Discontinuity between core and mantle

A. Conroad

B. Mohorovic

C. Gutenberg

D. Lahman

ANS: C. Gutenberg

289. Ojos del Salado is a volcanic mountains located

in

A. Andes

B. Rockey

C. Cotapoxi

D. Everest

ANS: A. Andes







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290. Tornadoes are in

A. USA

B. India

C. China

D. Australia

ANS: A. USA

291. Atacama desert is located in

A. North Chile

B. Argentina

C. Botswana

D. Brazil

ANS: A. North Chile

292. Which of the following is NOT found in India?

A. Glacier

B. Iceberg

C. Desert

D. Lagoon

ANS: B. Iceberg

293. Which country is called “country of canals”?

A. Afghanishtan

B. Pakistan

C. Iran

D. Kenya

ANS: B. Pakistan

294. Study of moon

A. Cosmology

B. Luminology

C. Serinology

D. Astrology

ANS: C. Serinology

295. Which is the oldest mountain range of India?

A. Maikal

B. Himalaya

C. Aravallis

D. Pennines

ANS: C. Aravallis

296. India has the _________ largest population on

Earth.

A. Second

B. Third

C. Fourth

D. Fifth

ANS: A. Second

297. The proportion of the solar radiation reflected

from the surface

A. Reflection

B. Insolation

C. Albedo

D. Terrestrial radiation

ANS: C .Albedo

298. Which river is known as the lifeline of Myanmar

A. Irawaddy

B. Yangtze

C. Hwang Ho

D. Ganges

ANS: A .Irawaddy







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299. Only landlocked country in South-East Asian

Peninsula

A. Indonesia

B. Loas

C. Philippines

D. Singapore

ANS: B. Loas

300. Which mountain divide China into North and

South China

A. Amur

B. Urul

C. Quinling

D. Elbruz

ANS: C. Quinling

301. Which of the following is the highest pass that

falls on the boundary of Jammu and Kashmir and

China?

A. Banihal Pass

B. Zoji La Pass

C. Pir Panjal Pass

D. Karakoram Pass

ANS: D.Karakoram Pass

302. Which of the following statement is not true with

respect to the Indian Peninsular Plateau?

A. The Malwa plateau dominates the Vindhyan

scarps forming the northern flank of the plateau

B. The Deccan lava plateau is an elevated tableland

consisting of horizontally arranged lavasheets

C. Plateau consists of broad and shallow valleys and

rounded hills

D. Rocks in the regions are responsible for

formation of alluvial soil

ANS: D.Rocks in the regions are responsible for

formation of alluvial soil

303. Which of the following phenomenon is mainly

responsible for the formation of the rift valley?

A. The subsidence of the segment of Earth’s crust

B. Forces of tension in the earth's crust

C. The deepening of a valley by action of ice

D. The valley formed after the formation of Fold

Mountains

ANS: A.The subsidence of the segment of Earth’s crust

304. Which one of the following is the junction point

of the Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats?

A. Anamalai Hills

B. Nilgiri Hills

C. Ashambu Hills

D. Palani Hills

ANS: B. Nilgiri Hills

305. Which of the following States has the most

critical problem of erosion of its coastal areas by the

sea?

A. Madhya Pradesh

B. Karnataka

C. Kerala

D. Andhra Pradesh







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ANS: C. Kerala

306. Which of the following rivers of the Indian sub-

continent covers the longest distance from its source

to the sea into which it drains?

A. Ganga

B. Godavari

C. Indus

D. Brahmaputra

ANS: A. Ganga

307. What is the approximate length of India’s land

border with the neighbouring countries?

A. 10 thousand km

B. 15 thousand km

C. 12 thousand km

D. 18 thousand km

ANS: B. 15 thousand km

308. What is the term used for very violent and

serious type of winds which bring a lot of disaster?

A. Stratus

B. Hurricane

C. Trade-Winds

D. Cirrus

ANS: B.Hurricane

309. Which of the following is the major rubber

producing state in India?

A. West-Bengal

B. Karnataka

C. Tamil-Nadu

D. Kerala

ANS: D. Kerala

310. Which of the following is not one of the reasons

for concentration of jute mills in Kolkata?

A. Industry requires a lot of water which is easily

available from the Hugli River

B. Availability of coal

C. Cheap and abundant power supply

D. The port of Kolkata can easily export all the jute

goods

ANS: C. Cheap and abundant power supply

311. Which one of the following regions of India is

now regarded as an 'ecological hot spot'?

A. Eastern Ghats

B. Eastern Himalayas

C. Western Ghats

D. Western Himalayas

ANS: C. Western Ghats

312. Which one of the following is the most important

source of energy in India?

A. Coal

B. Petroleum

C. Natural Gas

D. Hydroelectricity

ANS: A. Coal

313. Which of the following non-conventional sources

of energy holds out the maximum importance in

India?







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A. Tidal Energy

B. Wind Energy

C. Geothermal Energy

D. Solar Energy

ANS: D. Solar Energy

314. Which dam in India has the distinction of being

the longest mainstream dam in the world?

A. Bhakra Nangal Dam

B. Tehri Dam

C. Sardar Sarovar Dam

D. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam

ANS: B. Tehri Dam

315. Which of the following types of soils is most

suited for Tea cultivation?

A. Alluvial Soil

B. Laterite Soil

C. Black Soil

D. Red Soil

ANS: B. Laterite Soil

316. Which of the following Indian state is popularly

known as the ‘Garden of Spices’?

A. Tamil Nadu

B. Kerala

C. Karnataka

D. Uttar Pradesh

ANS: B. Kerala

317. Which part of India receives rainfall from both

the South-West and North-West monsoons?

A. Lakshadweep Islands

B. Chandigarh

C. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

D. Kerala

ANS: C. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

318. The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through

which of the following Indian state?

A. Gujarat

B. Rajasthan

C. Madhya Pradesh

D. Manipur

ANS: D. Manipur

319. Which one of the following are the most

important commercial forests of India?

A. Coniferous Forests

B. Tropical Deciduous Forests

C. Tropical Evergreen Forests

D. Mangrove Forests

ANS: B. Tropical Deciduous Forests

320. The Hirakud Project harnesses the water of

which one of the following rivers?

A. Mahanadi

B. Ganga

C. Sutlej

D. Godavari

ANS: A. Mahanadi







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321. The Nagarjuna Sagar Project is an important

multipurpose project on the river ______ in the

______ district of Andhra Pradesh?

A. Krishna, Nalgonda

B. Godavari, West Godavari

C. Tungabhadra, East Godavari

D. Mahanadi, Krishna

ANS: A. Krishna, Nalgonda

322. Black soil derived from volcanic rocks with

humus is suitable for growing which of the following

crop?

A. Maize

B. Cotton

C. Rice

D. Sugarcane

ANS: B. Cotton

323. What is the main attraction of Kaziranga

National Park located in Assam?

A. Great Indian One Horned Rhinoceros

B. Indian Bison

C. Spotted Deer

D. Wild Elephant

ANS: A. Great Indian One Horned Rhinoceros

324. Which of the following represents the

southernmost geographical unit of India?

A. Rameshwaram

B. Lakshadweep islands

C. Great Nicobar Islands

D. Kanyakumari

ANS: C. Great Nicobar Islands

325. The system or shifting cultivation in the north

eastern region of India is called………….?

A. Bewar

B. Taungya

C. Ladang

D. Jhuming

ANS: D. Jhuming

326. One-tenth of the total salt produced in India

comes from which of the following lake in India?

A. Sambhar Lake

B. Vembanad Lake

C. Chilka Lake

D. Wular Lake

ANS: A. Sambhar Lake

327. The Rajasthan Canal now called the Indira

Gandhi Canal draws its water from which of the

following river?

A. Krishna river

B. Sutlej river

C. Beas river

D. Both b and c

ANS: D. Both b and c

328. Which among the following state is known as the

‘Sugar Bowl’ of India?

A. Himachal Pradesh

B. Bihar







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C. Uttar Pradesh

D. Punjab

ANS: C. Uttar Pradesh

329. Which of the following regions has almost all

prevalent types of natural vegetation in India?

A. The Deccan Plateau

B. The Coastal Plains

C. The Ganga Plain

D. The Himalayas

ANS: D. The Himalayas

330. Which of the following river rises in the

Kamarpet hill in Chota Nagpur Plateau of Bihar and

called "The River of Sorrow"?

A. Krishna

B. Mahanadi

C. Damodar

D. Godavari

ANS: C. Damodar

331. Which of the following river is the longest of all

the Indus tributaries?

A. Chenab River

B. Sutlej River

C. Beas River

D. Ravi River

ANS: A. Chenab River

332. Which one of the following pass was reopened in

2006 to facilitate the trade between India and China?

A. Jara La Pass

B. Nathu La Pass

C. Bara Lacha Pass

D. Shipki La Pass

ANS: B. Nathu La Pass

333. The pilgrims of Kailash Mansarovar have to

pass through which of the following pass to enter into

Tibet?

A. Nathu La Pass

B. Rohtang Pass

C. Lipu Likh Pass

D. Jelep La Pass

ANS: A. Nathu La Pass

334. Which of the following foreign country is closest

to Andaman and Nicobar Islands?

A. Indonesia

B. Myanmar

C. Srilanka

D. Pakistan

ANS: B. Myanmar

335. Guru Shikhar on the Abu Hills is the highest

peak of which of the following mountain ranges?

A. Purvanchal Range

B. Pir Panjal Range

C. Aravalli Range

D. Satpura Range

ANS: C. Aravalli Range

336. What is the term used for strip or narrow tract

of land between two rivers?







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A. Terai

B. Doab

C. Watershed

D. Water divide

ANS: B.Doab

337. How many moons does the planet mars have?

A.2

B.4

C.1

D.3

ANS: A.2

338.What is the term used for a narrow strip of land

that connects two larger landmasses and separates

two bodies of water?

A. Cape

B. Peninsula

C. Isthmus

D. Strait

ANS: C. Isthmus

339. Which one of the following mineral is the basic

mineral and backbone of industrial development?

A. Magnesium

B. Iron-ore

C. Crude oil

D. Bauxite

ANS: B. Iron-ore

340. Which of the following non-conventional source

of energy is harnessed in the Parvati Valley near

Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh?

A. Solar Energy

B. Tidal Energy

C. Wind Energy

D. Geothermal Energy

ANS: D. Geothermal Energy

341. Which one of the following iron-ore deposits is

one of the largest deposits in the world?

A. Kundermukh

B. Bailadila

C. Badampur

D. Ratnagiri

ANS: A. Kundermukh

342. Which one of the following ports is the premier

iron-ore exporting port of the country?

A. Krishnapatnam port

B. Mormugao port

C. Paradip port

D. Kandla port

ANS: B. Mormugao port

343. Which one of the following state has the highest

road density in India?

A. Andhra Pradesh

B. Gujarat

C. Rajasthan

D. Kerala







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ANS: D. Kerala

344. Laterite soil found in areas of high temperature

and heavy rainfall is formed by which of the following

process?

A. Weathering

B. Deposition

C. Leaching

D. Both a and c

ANS: C. Leaching

345. Gully erosion of soil is mainly caused due to

which of the following reason?

A. Winds

B. Sea-Waves

C. Terrace Farming

D. Streams formed by rainwater

ANS: D. Streams formed by rainwater

346. Soil-erosion in the state of Punjab is due to

which one of the following reasons?

A. Overgrazing

B. Over irrigation

C. Deforestation

D. Excessive cultivation

ANS: B. Over irrigation

347. Cultivation of coffee was introduced on which of

the following hills in India?

A. Khasi Hills

B. Nilgiri Hills

C. Palni Hills

D. Baba Budan Hills

ANS: D. Baba Budan Hills

348. Which one of the following term is used for the

system of agriculture where a single crop is grown on

a larger area?

A. Plantation Agriculture

B. Shifting Agriculture

C. Horticulture

D. Intensive Agriculture

ANS: A. Plantation Agriculture

349.Which of the following lake was designated as the

first Indian wetland of international importance

under the Ramsar Convention in 1981?

A. Wular lake

B. Loktak lake

C. Chilika lake

D. Pulicat lake

ANS: C. Chilika lake

350. Which one of the following is the second largest

brackish water lagoon in India after Chilika lake?

A. Pulicat lake

B. Loktak lake

C. Dal lake

D. Wular lake

ANS: A. Pulicat lake

351. Zawar mines which is the largest silver

producing mine in India is located in which of the

following Indian state?







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A. Uttar Pradesh

B. Madhya Pradesh

C. Rajasthan

D. Gujarat

ANS: C. Rajasthan

352. Which among the following layers inside the

Earth is dominantly liquid?

A. Outer core

B. Inner core

C. Upper mantle

D. The Crust

ANS: A. Outer core

353. Which of the following Indian rivers is also

called by the name Vishnupadi and Jaahnavi?

A. Brahmaputra

B. Godavari

C. Krishna

D. Ganges

ANS: D. Ganges

354. Mahatma Gandhi Setu which is the second

longest river bridge in India is built on which of the

following river?

A. Ganga

B. Godavari

C. Krishna

D. Brahmaputra

ANS: A. Ganga

355. Which among the following is the second largest

tributary of Ganga in terms of length of the river?

A. Rihand River

B. Kosi River

C. Yamuna River

D. Mahananda River

ANS: C. Yamuna River

356. Which of the following is the boundary used to

separate the Earth’s atmosphere from the outer

space?

A. Space line

B. Durand line

C. Venus line

D. Karman line

ANS: D. Karman line

357. Which of the following layer of the atmosphere

separates stratosphere and Troposphere?

A. Stratopause

B. Thermopause

C. Tropopause

D. Mesopause

ANS: C. Tropopause

358. Which of the following is the region of the Earth’s

atmosphere above the stratosphere and below the

thermosphere?

A. Mesosphere

B. Exosphere

C. Troposphere







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D. Thermosphere

ANS: A. Mesosphere

359. Which one of the following state has the largest

inland saline wetland in India?

A. Rajasthan

B. Uttar Pradesh

C. Madhya Pradesh

D. Arunachal Pradesh

ANS: A. Rajasthan

360. Which of the following Indian state has the

maximum percentage of mangrove cover in the

country?

A. Gujarat

B. Orissa

C. Bihar

D. West Bengal

ANS: D. West Bengal

361. Which among the following is the third largest

reservoir in India in terms of the quantity of water?

A. Cheruthoni dam

B. Mettur dam

C. Indira sagar dam

D. Bhakra dam

ANS:D. Bhakra dam

362. Which among the following is the longest

irrigation canal in India?

A. Indira Gandhi Canal

B. Sutlej Yamuna link Canal

C. Sharda Canal

D. Upper Bari Doab Canal

ANS:A. Indira Gandhi Canal

363. Tehri dam which is the highest dam in India

receives water from which of the following river?

A. Gandak River

B. Ghagra River

C. Bhagirathi River

D. Godavari River

ANS: C. Bhagirathi River

364. Which among the following factor does not have

an influence on the climate of India?

A. Location and Latitudinal extent

B. Monsoon winds

C. Ocean currents

D. Distance from the sea

ANS: C. Ocean currents

365. Which among the following is the only wildlife

sanctuary in India where Kashmir Red stag is found?

A. Bhimbandh wildlife sanctuary

B. Mudumalai wildlife sanctuary

C. Dachigam wildlife sanctuary

D. Changtang wildlife sanctuary

ANS: C. Dachigam wildlife sanctuary

366. Jhum cultivation which is the oldest cultivation

practice in India can be observed in which one of the

following states?








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B. Himachal Pradesh

C. Gujarat

D. Uttar Pradesh

ANS: A. Arunachal Pradesh

367. Which among the following state produces the

largest quantity of wheat in India?

A. Rajasthan

B. Andhra Pradesh

C. Madhya Pradesh

D. Uttar Pradesh

ANS: D.Uttar Pradesh

368. Which among the following place in India has

never received the vertical rays of the Sun?

A. Mumbai

B. Orissa

C. Visakhapatnam

D. Srinagar

ANS: D. Srinagar

369. Which of the following two cities in India are

called as Twin cities?

A. Delhi and Agra

B. Mumbai and Pune

C. Kolkata and Bhubaneswar

D. Hyderabad and Secunderabad

ANS: D. Hyderabad and Secunderabad

370. Which of the following place in Jammu and

Kashmir is known for the cultivation of Saffron?

A. Pampore

B. Kishtwar

C. Samba

D. Udhampur

ANS: A. Pampore

371.Which of the following forests are found in the

Western Ghats, hills of the north eastern region and

the Andaman and Nicobar Islands?

A. Tropical Evergreen Forests

B. Dry Deciduous Forests

C. Mangrove Forests

D. Coniferous Forests

ANS:A. Tropical Evergreen Forests

372. Which of the following waterfall which is inside a

coffee estate is located in the Chikmagalur district of

Karnataka?

A. Dudhsagar Falls

B. Hebbe Falls

C. Nohkalikai Falls

D. Bhimlat Falls

ANS:B. Hebbe Falls

373. Which among the following is the second highest

plunge waterfalls in India?

A. Jog Falls

B. Iruppu Falls

C. Jang Falls

D. Kune Falls

ANS: A. Jog Falls







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374. Which of the following waterfalls is located on

the the Leh-Manali highway in Himachal Pradesh?

A. Dudhsagar Falls

B. Bhimlat Falls

C. Rehala Falls

D. Chitrakoot Falls

ANS: C. Rehala Falls

375. Which of the following glacier is located where

the Line of Control between India and Pakistan ends?

A. Siachen glacier

B. Hispar glacier

C. Baltoro glacier

D. Rongbuk glacier

ANS:A. Siachen glacier

376.Which of the following is highly viscous and

deforming region of the upper mantle which lies just

below the lithosphere?

A. Lithosphere

B. Mesosphere

C. Barysphere

D. Asthenosphere

ANS: D. Asthenosphere

377. What is the term used for the landmass which is

bounded by the sea on three sides?

A. Hill

B. Pass

C. Island

D. Peninsula

ANS: D. Peninsula

378. Majuli which is the largest inhabited riverine

island in the world is located in which of the following

state?

A. Gujarat

B. Himachal Pradesh


D. Assam

ANS: D. Assam

379. The Earth’s crust is made up of how many major

plates according to the theory of Plate Tectonics?

A. Eight

B. Seven

C. Four

D. Two

ANS: B. Seven

380. The Challenger Deep which is the deepest known

point in Earth’s ocean is situated in………..?

A. Mariana trench

B. Kuri trench

C. Bentley subglacial trench

D. Tonga-Kermadec trench

ANS: A. Mariana trench

381. What is the term used for a narrow area of water

that connects two larger areas of water or sea or

ocean?

A. Peninsula

B. Isthmus







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C. Strait

D. Gulf

ANS: C. Strait

382. What is the term used for the part of the

continent that lies underwater directly off the shore?

A. Ocean Peak

B. Continental Point

C. Continental Slope

D. Continental Shelf

ANS: D. Continental Shelf

383. Which of the following district of Himachal

Pradesh touches the border of China?

A. Kinnaur

B. Chamba

C. Sirmaur

D. Kullu

ANS: A. Kinnaur

384. Saddle Peak which is the highest point of the

archipelago in Bay of Bengal is located

in……………?

A. Middle Andaman

B. Little Andaman

C. Northern Andaman

D. Great Nicobar

ANS: C. Northern Andaman

385. Which among the following types of forests

exhibit the highest biodiversity?

A. Dry deciduous forests

B. Tropical Rain Forests

C. Thorn Forests

D. Moist Deciduous Forests

ANS: B. Tropical Rain Forests

386. Which of the following countries are divided by

the Radcliffe Line?

A. India and Pakistan

B. India and China

C. India and Bangladesh

D. India and Nepal

ANS: A. India and Pakistan

387. Where is the India's permanent research station

Dakshin Gangotri?

A. Great Himalayas

B. Indian Ocean

C. Antarctica

D. Arabian Sea

ANS: C. Antarctica

388. Which of the following Indian state touches the

boundaries of the maximum number of other States?

A. Andhra Pradesh

B. Bihar

C. Madhya Pradesh

D. Uttar Pradesh

ANS: D. Uttar Pradesh







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389. The new capital of Andhra Pradesh is:

A. Hyderabad

B. Amaravati

C. Machilipatnam

C. Vizianagaram

ANS: B. Amaravathi

390. The Indian Statue of Unity is located near:

A. Sardar Sarovar Dam

B. Bhakra-Nangal Dam

C. Hirakud Dam

D. Tehri Dam

ANS: A. Sardar Sarovar Dam

391. Which of the following states does NOT share its

border with Nepal?

A. Uttar Pradesh

B. Assam

C. Sikkim

D. Uttarakhand

ANS: B. Assam

392. With how many states of India does Jharkhand

share its boundary?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

ANS: C.5

393. As per Census 2011, which state of India has the

highest sex ratio?

A. Tamil Nadu

B. Manipur

C. Kerala

D. Chhattisgarh

ANS: C. Kerala

394. Tunisia is a country in:

A. North America

B. South America

C. Africa

D. Europe

ANS: C. Africa

395. Which of the following coast where is Gulf of

Mannar is located?

A. Tamil Nadu

B. Kerala

C. Karnataka

D. Andhra Pradesh

ANS: A. Tamil Nadu

396. Which of the following countries are divided by

McMohan line?

A. India and Pakistan

B. India and China

C. India and Bangladesh

D. Pakistan and China

ANS: B. India and China







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397. Which of the following rivers do not discharge its

water into the Bay of Bengal?

A. Mahanadi

B. Cauvery

C. Tapti

D. Godavari

ANS: C. Tapti

398. Aizawl is situated on which of the following

riverbank?

A. Meghna

B. Tlawng river

C. Hwang Ho

D. Irawadi

Ans: B. Tlawng river

399. The Luni River is flowing from which of the

following region?

A. Punjab

B. Rajasthan

C. Himachal Pradesh

D. Madhya Pradesh

ANS: B. Rajasthan

400. What is the reason for the red colour of the red

soil?

A. Phosphoric Acid

B. Humus

C. Nitrogen

D. Iron

ANS: D. Iron

Polity

1.In the Republic of India, the administrative head of

a Union Territory is

A. Lieutenant Governor

B. Governor

C. President

D. Prime minister

ANS: A .Lieutenant Governor

2. What does ‘Bicameral Legislature’ mean?

A. Legislators are divided into 4 separate assemblies

B. Legislators are grouped as 1 assembly

C. Legislators are divided into 2 separate assemblies

D. Legislators are divided into 8 separate assemblies

ANS: C .Legislators are divided into 2 separate

assemblies

3. Who has never been a Vice President of India?

A. Mohammad Hamid Ansari

B. A P J Abdul Kalam

C. Ramaswamy Venkataraman

D. Shankar Dayal Sharma

ANS: B .A P J Abdul Kalam

4.What is considered the Supreme Law of India?

A. The Indian Constitution







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B. Democracy

C. Teachings of Dr.Ambedkar

D. Secularism

ANS: A .The Indian Constitution

5.Chief Election Commissioner of India can be

removed from the office by

A. Both houses of Parliament

B. Union council of Ministers

C. President of India

D. Chief Justice of India

ANS: A. Both houses of Parliament

6.The political system in Afghanistan is known as

A. Islamic State of Afghanistan

B. Islamic Republic of Afghanistan

C. Islamic Emirate of Afghanistan

D. Islamic Government of Afghanistan

ANS: C. Islamic Emirate of Afghanistan

7.The Constituent Assembly adopted Indian national

flag on

A. 22 July 1947

B. 22 August 1947

C. 22 January 1948

D. 22 October 1947

ANS: A. 22 July 1947

8.Parliament House in Delhi was constructed during

A. 1895-1900

B. 1901-1909

C. 1921-1927

D. 1931-1935

ANS: C.1921-1927

9.Union Government Budget deficit for a particular

financial year represents

A. Total amount of revenue receipts

B. Total amount of capital receipts

C. The amount of money that the Government has to

borrow

D. Total amount of estimated Government

expenditure

ANS: C. The amount of money that the Government

has to borrow

10.If the posts of the President and Vice-President fall

vacant, who will act as the President of India?

A. Speaker of Lok Sabha

B. Prime Minister of India

C. Chief Justice of India

D. Union Coucil of Ministers

ANS: C. Chief Justice of India

11. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides

for equal opportunities for all citizens in Public

employment?

A. Article-16

B. Article-20

C. Article-25

D. Article-22

ANS: A. Article-16







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12. The method of Impeachment of the President of

India is adopted from the Constitution of………….?

A. UK

B. USA

C. France

D. USSR

ANS: B. USA

13.Which is the oldest Highcourt of India?

A. Bombay

B. Madras

C. Allahabad

D. Calcutta

ANS: D. Calcutta

14.Who has the distinction of serving as the Chief

Justice of India, President and the Vice president?

A. Justice M Hidayatullah

B. Justice Bhagwati

C. Justice H.J.Kania

D. Jusstice Mehr Chand Mahajan

ANS: A. Justice M Hidayatullah

15.The first democratically elected female President

Africa is from

A. Nigeria

B. Liberia

C. Tanzania

D. Kenya

ANS: B. Liberia

16.Which article of the Constitution of India relates

to Uniform Civil Code?

A. 41

B. 42

C. 43

D. 44

ANS:D. 44

17.Which among the following is not a qualification

to become a Vice President of India?

A. Citizen of India

B. Above 35 years of age

C. Possess the Membership of Rajya Sabha

D. Member of council of state

ANS: C. Possess the Membership of Rajya Sabha

18.Article 29 of the Constitution of India grants

which of the following rights?

A. Protection in respect of conviction for offences

B. Traffic in human beings prohibited

C. Protection of interests of minorities

D. Prohibits taxes on religious grounds

ANS: C. Protection of interests of minorities

19.Who presented the first Union Budget in 1947

A. Indira Gandhi

B. Moraji Desai

C. R.K.Shanmukham Chetty

D. Johm Mathai

ANS: C. R.K.Shanmukham Chetty

20.The Head of the state in India is the







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A. Prime Minister

B. President

C. Parliament

D. Chief Justice of india

ANS: B. President

21.Name the type of Government in Bangladesh?

A. Islamic Republic

B. Parliamentary Democracy

C. Federal Republic

D. Constitutional Monarchy

ANS: B. Parliamentary Democracy

22.Which state has the second highest number of

seats in Lok Sabha?

A. Uttar Preadesh

B. Andhra Pradesh

C. West Bengal

D. Maharastra

ANS: D. Maharastra

23.The period of Dominion of India refers to

A. Pre-partition day

B. Pre-Independence day

C. Post Republic day

D. Independence day to Republic day

ANS: D. Independence day to Republic day

24.Provincial Autonomy was provided by

A. The Government of india Act 1935

B. The Montage-Chelmsford Report

C. The Government of india Act 1919

D. The Indian Independence Act 1947

ANS: A. The Government of india Act 1935

25.The annual financial statement prepared under

article 112 of the Indian Constitution is called

A. Public account

B. Consolidated account

C. Budget

D. Revenue account

ANS: C. Budget

26.Which of the following exercised the most

profound influence in framing the Indian

Constitution?

A. British Constitution

B. US Constitution

C. Ireland Constitution

D. The Government of India Act 1935

ANS: D. The Government of India Act 1935

27.What was the basis for constituting the

Constituent Assembly of India ?

A. The Resolution of the Indian National Congress

B. The Cabinet Mission Plan

C. The Indian Independence Act 1947

D. The resolutions Of the Provincial State

Legislatures of the Dominion of India

ANS: B. The Cabinet Mission Plan

28.Who among the following was not a member of the

Constituent Assembly established in July 1946 ?

A. Dr. Rajendra Prasad







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B. K M Munshi

C. Mahatma Gandhi

D. Abdul Kalam Azad

ANS: C. Mahatma Gandhi .

29.The Constitution of India was adopted on

A. 26 January 1950

B. 26 January 1949

C. 26 November 1949

D. 31 December 19

ANS: C. 26 November 1949

30.When was our National Anthem first sung where ?

A. 24th January 1950 in Allahabad

B. 24th January 1950 in Delhi

C. 26th December 1942 In Calcutta

D. 27th December 1911 in Calcutta .

ANS: D. 27th December 1911 in Calcutta .

31.The Constitution of India came into force on

A. 26 January 1950

B. 26 January 1952

C. 15 August 1948

D. 26 November 1949

ANS: A. 26 January 1950

32.Which was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the

“heart Soul‟ of the Constitution?

A. Right to Equality

B. Right against Exploitation

C. Right to Constitutional Remedies

D. Right to Freedom of Religion

ANS: C. Right to Constitutional Remedies

33. Education was made a fundamental right under

which of the following amendment?

A. 86th amendment, 2002

B. 83rd amendment, 2003

C. 87th amendment, 2003

D. 83rd amendment, 2002

ANS: A. 86th amendment, 2002

34. Who was the President of the Constituent

Assembly of India?

A. Dr. Br. Ambedkar

B. Jawaharlal Nehru

C. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

D. Shri K. M. Munshi

ANS: C. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

35.Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee

of the Constituent Assembly ?

A. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

B. Raja gopalchari

C. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

D. Jawaharlal Nehru

ANS: A. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar .

36.January 26 selected as the date for the

inauguration of the Constitution because

A. it was considered to be auspicious day

B. on that day the Quit India Movement was started

in 1942







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C. the Congress had observed it as the Independence

Day in 1930

D. None of these

ANS: C. the Congress had observed it as the

Independence Day in 1930

37.Who is considered the Architect of the Indian

Constitution ?

A. Mahatma Gandhi

B. BR. Ambedkar

C. Jawaharlal Nehru

D. B.N. Rao

ANS: B. BR. Ambedkar

38.The Constitution of India describes India as :

A. A Federation

B. A quasi federal

C. Unitary

D. Union of states

ANS: D. Union of states

39.Grassroots democracy is related to

A. Devolution of powers

B. Decentralization of powers

C. Panchayati Raj System

D. All of the above .

ANS: D. All of the above .

40.Which one of the following judgments stated that

“Secularism‟ ,”Federalism‟ are the basic features of

the Indian Constitution ?

A. Keshavana Bharati case

B. S.R. Bommai case

C. Indira Sawhney case

D. Minerva Mills case

ANS: B S.R. Bommai case

41.Universal adult franchise shows that India is a

country which is

A. Secular

B. Socialist

C. Democratic

D. Sovereign

ANS:C . Democratic .

42.The idea of parliamentary form of government is

adapted from

A. US

B. UK

C. Ireland

D. Russia

ANS: B. UK

43.Which of these is NOT included as a Fundamental

Right in the Indian Constitution?

A. Right to Freedom of Speech

B. Right to Equality before the Law

C. Right to Constitutional Remedies

D. Right to equal wages for equal work

ANS: D. Right to equal wages for equal work

44.Which of the following can a court issue for

enforcement of Fundamental Rights?

A. A decree







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B. An Ordinance

C. A writ

D. A notification

ANS: C. A writ

45.Which of the following Is not a Fundamental

Right?


B. Right to Liberty

C. Right against Exploitation

D. Right to Property

ANS: D .Right to Property

46. Civil equality implies

A. equality before law

B. equality of opportunity

C. equal distribution of wealth

D. equal right to participate in the affairs of the state

ANS: A. Equality before law

47. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution,

is the President’s rule promulgated on any state in

India?

A. Article 352

B. Article 356

C. Article 370

D. Article 360

ANS: B. Article 356

48. Freedom of the press is implied in the right to

A. equal protection of the laws

B. freedom of speech

C. freedom of association

D. work material security

ANS: B. freedom of speech

49.When were the Fundamental Duties of the Indian

citizens incorporated in the constitution

A. 1952

B. 1976

C. 1979

D. 1981

ANS: B .1976

50.Which case is related to Fundamental Rights?

A. Golakhnath vs. State of Punjab (1967) (1959)

B. West Bengal vs. Union of India (1963)

C. Sharma vs. Krishna

D. State of Bombay vs. Balsara(1951)

ANS: A Golakhnath vs. State of Punjab (1967) (1959)

51.Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the

Indian Constitution on the recommendation

A. Santhanam Committee

B. Swaran Singh Committee

C. Shah Commission

D. Administrative Reforms Commission

ANS:B. Swaran Singh Committee

52.The concept of Directive Principles of State Policy

in Indian Constitution is adopted from

A. Ireland

B. US

C. USSR







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D. Japan

ANS:A. Ireland

53.According to the Indian Constitution the vacancy

in the office of the President of India shall be filled

within :

A. 1 month

B. 6 months

C. 3 months

D. 1 year

ANS: B. 6 months

54.What is the period with in which a proclamation of

national emergency made by the President is to be

placed before each house of the Parliament for

approval?

A. within one month

B. within two months

C. within four months

D. within six months

ANS: A. within one month

55.Which of the following Sting Committees of

Parliament has no MP from Rajya Sabha?

A. Public Accounts Committee

B. Estimates Committee

C. Committee on Public Undertakings

D. Committee on Government Assurances

ANS: B. Estimates Committee

56.The salaries allowances payable to the Members of

the Parliament are decided by

A. President

B. Cabinet

C. Parliament

D. Finance Commission

ANS: C. Parliament

57.When was zero hour introduced In the

parliamentary affairs in India?

A. 1952

B. 1962

C. 1972

D. 1982

ANS: B. 1962

58.The maximum number of members of Lok Sabha

Rajya Sabha has been fixed by the Constitution of

India respectively as

A. 500 and 250

B. 525 and 270

C. 537 and 275

D. 545 and 250

ANS: D. 545 and 250

59.In order to be recognised as an official opposition

Group in the Parliament how many seats should it

have ?

A. 1/3rd of the total strength

B. 1/4 of the total strength

C. 1/6 of the total strength

D. 1/10 of the total strength.

ANS: D 1/10 of the total strength.







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60.What is the minimum age laid down for a date to

seek election to the Lok Sabha?

A. 18 years

B. 21 years

C. 25 years

D. 30 years

ANS: C. 25 years

61.Who is eligible to cast the deciding vote over a bill

in a Joint Parliamentary session

A. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

B. Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha

C. Speaker of Lok Sabha

D. Prime Minister

ANS: C. Speaker of Lok Sabha

62.Representation of any state in Rajya Sabha is

according to

A. area of the state

B. population of the state

C. number of representatives in Lok Sabha from the

state

D. fixed number of candidates from each state

ANS:B. Population of the state

63.What is the local name given to the parliament of

Pakistan?

A. Majilis

B. Majlis-e-Shoora

C. Saeima-e-majilis

D. Jatia Parliament

ANS: B. Majlis-e-Shoora

64.The maximum interval between two sessions of

state assembly can be

A. 3months

B. 6months

C. 9months

D. 12months

ANS: B. 6 months

65.In 2014, the -------Lok Sabha was elected

A. 16th

B. 19th

C. 14th

D. 23h

ANS: A. 16th

66.When was the Indian Constitution amended for

the first time?

A. 1949

B. 1951

C. 1952

D. 1953

ANS: B. 1951

67.The GST Bill introduced in parliament in 2015

was

A. A financial bill

B. Not a money bill

C. A constitutional amendment bill

D. An ordinary bill

ANS: C. A constitutional amendment bill







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68.Under the Indian constitution, legislative powers

are vested with the

A. President

B. Prime minister

C. Union Council of Ministers

D. Parliament

ANS: D. Parliament

69.Who can be the member of the Rajya Sabha but

can speak both in Rajya Sabha LokSabha?

A. The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha

B. Leader of the House in the Rajya Sabha

C. Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha

D. Ministers who are members of the Rajya Sabha

ANS:D. Ministers who are members of the Rajya Sabha

70.The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the

A. President

B. Prime Minister

C. members of both Houses of Parliament

D. Members of lok sabha

ANS:D. Members of lok sabha

71.No Government Expenditure can be incurred in

India except with the sanction of

A. the Parliament

B. the Prime Minister

C. the President

D. the Supreme Court

ANS: A . the Parliament

72.In our Constitution Economic Planning is included

in

A. Union list

B. State list

C. Concurrent list

D. Not any specified list

ANS: C. Concurrent list

73.A candidate to become a member of the Rajya

Sabha should not be less than

A. 21 years of age

B. 25 years of age

C. 30 years of age

D. 32 years of age

ANS: C 30 years of age

74.The union parliament consists of

A. The President of lndia

B. The Council of States (Rajya Sabha)

C. The House of the People

D. All of the above

ANS: D All of the above

75.How many readings does a non money bill have in

each House of the Parliament?

A. Two

B. Three

C. Four

D. One

ANS: B Three .







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76.By which Bill does the Government propose

collection of revenues for a year?

A. Economic Bill

B. Finance Bill

C. Supplementary Bill


ANS: B Finance Bill

77.The Speaker’s vote' in the Lok Sabha is called

A. casting vote

B. sound vote

C. direct vote

D. indirect vote

ANS: A. casting vote

78.The Council of Ministers does not include

A. Cabinet Ministers

B. Ministers of State

C. Cabinet Secretary

D. Ministers without Portfolio

ANS: C. Cabinet Secretary

79.How many members of the Rajya Sabha retire

from the house every 2 years?

A. 1/6 of the total members

B. 1/3 of the total members

C. 1/12 of the total members

D. 5/6 of the total members

ANS: B 1/3 of the total members

80.A member of Parliament will lose his membership

if he is continuously absent from Sessions for

A. 45 days

B. 60 days

C. 90 days

D. 365 days

ANS: B .60 days

81.Indian Parliament Means

A. Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha

B. Rajya Sabha ,Lok Sabha, Prime Minister

C. President of India ,Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha

D. President of India ,Vice President of India, Lok

Sabha Rajya Sabha

ANS: C. President of India ,Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha

82. Who among the following is the custodian of the

Indian Constitution?

A. Prime Minister of India

B. Chairman of Rajya Sabha

C. Supreme Court of India

D. President of India

ANS: C. Supreme Court of India

83. Under the Constitution, the power to issue a writ

of Habeas Corpus is vested in…………...?

A. All Courts down to the District Courts

B. High Courts alone

C. Both Supreme Court and High Courts

D. Supreme Court alone

ANS: C. Both Supreme Court and High Courts







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84.A joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament may

be convened to consider a bill which was passed by

one House kept pending by the other for

A. four months

B. six months

C. one year

D. two years

ANS: B .six months

85.What is the term of a Member of the Rajya Sabha

?

A. Three years

B. Four years

C. Five years

D. Six years

ANS: D .Six years

86.What is quorum required for convening the Lok

Sabha ?

A. 1/6

B. 1/8

C. 1/10

D. 1/5

ANS: C .1/10

87.In the Parliamentary form of Government “He is

the first among equal‟‟. Who is he?

A. President

B. Prime Minister

C. Leader of Opposition

D. Speaker of lower house

ANS: B. Prime Minister

88.The chairman of the Public Accounts Committee

in the Indian Parliament is :

A. The Leader of Opposition Party

B. The Speaker of Lok Sabha

C. The Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha

D. The Chairman of Rajya Sabha

ANS: A . The Leader of Opposition Party

89.What should be the gap between first No

Confidence motion second No confidence motion ?

A. 2 months

B. 3 months

C. 6 months

D. 9 months

ANS: C. 6 months

90.Which one of the following appointments is not

within the purview of the President of India?

A. Chief Justice of India

B. Chairman Finance Commission

C. Chief of Army Staff

D. Speaker of Lok Sabha

ANS: D. Speaker of Lok Sabha

91.The expenditure made on which of the following

does not require budgetary approval every year In

India ?

A. Defence

B. Natural calamities

C. Consolidated fund







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D. Contingency fund

ANS: B. Natural calamities

92. Who among the following proposed the Preamble

before the drafting committee of the Constitution?

A. Jawaharlal Nehru

B. B.N Rao

C. Mahatma Gandhi

D. B.R Ambedkar

ANS: A. Jawaharlal Nehru

93.The Ministers In the Union Government hold

office during the pleasure of the

A. Lok Sabha

B. President

C. Parliament

D. Prime Minister

ANS:B. President

94.The Estimate Committee consists of

A. 30 members from Lok Sabha

B. 30 members from Rajya Sabha

C. 30 members from both Sabha

D. 22 members from Lok Sabha

ANS: A. 30 members from Lok Sabha

95.Who Chairs the Joint Session of the two Houses of

Parliament?

A. President

B. Vice President

C. Speaker of Lok Sabha

D. Prime Minister.

ANS: C. Speaker of Lok Sabha

96.The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee

of the Parliament is appointed by

A. Speaker of Lok Sabha


C. President of India

D. Chairman of Rajya Sabha

ANS: A. Speaker of Lok Sabha

97.In which House is the Presiding Officer not a

member of that House ?

A. Lok Sabha

B. Rajya Sabha

C. Vidhan Sabha

D. Vidhan Parishad

ANS: B. Rajya Sabha

98.Name the two nonpermanent Houses in the

Parliamentary setup of India.

A. The Rajya Sabha Vidhan Sabha

B. The Lok Sabha Vidhan Parishad

C. The Rajya Sabha Vidhan Parishad

D. The Lok Sabha Vidhan Sabha

ANS: D. The Lok Sabha Vidhan Sabha

99.The Ministry sometimes referred to as "Green

Ministry” in India is Ministry of

A. Agriculture Rural Development

B. Environment and Forests

C. Surface Transport

D. Urban Development Scalping







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ANS: B. Environment and Forest

100.What Is the minimum age required to become

Prime Minister of India?

A. 18 years

B. 25 years

C. 30 years

D. 35 years

ANS: B. 25 years

101.Who acts as the channel of communication

between the President the Council Ministers

A. Chairman Rajya Sabha

B. Speaker of Lok Sabha

C. Vice President

D. Prime Minister

ANS: D. Prime Minister

102.Who has got the power to create All India

Services ?

A. Supreme Court

B. The Parliament

C. Council of Ministers

D. Prime Minister

ANS: B. The Parliament

103.Who admits a new State to the Union of India?

A. President

B. Supreme Court

C. Prime Minister

D. Parliament.

ANS: D. Parliament.

104.How many members are there in Public Accounts

Committee?

A. 22 members

B. 28 members

C. 30 members

D. 20 members

ANS: A . 22 members

105.An Ordinary bill passed by the State Assembly

can be delayed by the Legislative Council for a

maximum period of

A. 1 month

B. 6 months

C. 3 months

D. 4 months

ANS: D. 4 months

106.What is the duration of membership of State

Legislative Councils?

A. 3 years

B. 5 years

C. 6 years

D. 9 years

ANS: C. 6 years

107.Money Bills originate in the State Legislative

Assembly on the recommendation of

A. The Governor

B. The Chief Minister

C. The Finance Minister

D. The Speaker







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ANS: A. The Governor

108.An ordinance issued by the Governor without the

approval of the State Legislature shall be effective for

a period of

A. Six months

B. Six weeks

C. One year

D. One month

ANS: B. Six weeks

109.The maximum time a person can continue to be

the minister of the State Government without being a

member the state legislature

A. One year

B. Three months

C. Six months

D. No time limit.

ANS: C. Six months

110.An ordinance issued by Governor is subject to

approval by

A. The President

B. The State Legislature

C. The State Council of Ministers

D. The Parliament

ANS: B .The State Legislature

111.Which among the following states didn’t have

Vidhan Parishad ?

A. Karnataka

B. Bihar

C. Kerala

D. Andhra Pradesh

ANS: C. Kerala

112.The oath of office is administered to the

Governor by the


B. Speaker of Legislative Assembly

C. President

D. Chief Justice of High Court

ANS: D. Chief Justice of High Court

113.When was the Public Service Commission the

original version of the U.P.S.C. set up?

A. 1st October 1926

B. 1st April 1937

C. 5th August 1947

D. 6th January 1950

ANS: A. 1st October 1926

114.Members of the Union Public Service

Commission can be removed by the

A. Parliament after a resolution adopted with 2/3rds

majority

B. President on a unanimous recommendation from

the Union Council of Ministers

C. President on the basis of an inquiry report by the

Supreme Court

D. President on recommendation from Central

Administrative Tribunal







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ANS: C. President on the basis of an inquiry report by

the Supreme Court

115.A federal structure for India was first put

forward by the

A. Act of 1909

B. Act of 1919

C. Act of 1935

D. Act of 197

ANS: C Act of 1935

116.The system of judicial review Originated in

A. India

B. Germany

C. Russia

D. U.S.A.

ANS: D .U.S.A.

117.Preventive detention means

A. detention for interrogation

B. detention after interrogation

C. detention without interrogation

D. detention for cognizable offence

ANS: C detention without interrogation

118.From the Constitution of which country the

provision of Federation was borrowed while framing

the Constitution of India?

A. USA

B. UK

C. Canada

D. Switzerland

ANS: C. Canada

119.India is a republic because

A. It is democratic country

B. It is a parliamentary democracy

C. The head of the state Is elected by people for a

definite period

D. All of these

ANS: C .The head of the state Is elected by people for a

definite period

120.Who was the Constitutional Advisor to the

Constituent Assembly of India?

A. Dr.Rajendra Prasad

B. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

C. Sir B.N. Rao

D. Shri K.M. Munshi

ANS: C. Sir B.N. Rao

121.Which of the following countries has introduced

“direct democracy"?

A. Russia

B. India

C. France

D. Switzerland

ANS: D .Switzerland

122.Which of the following countries have an

Unwritten Constitution?

A. U.S.A

B. U.K.

C. Pakistan







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D. India

ANS: B U.K.

123.Which of the following is a feature to both the

Indian Federation and the American Federation?

A. A single citizenship

B. Dual judiciary

C. Three Lists in the Constitution

D. A Federal Supreme Court to interpret the

Constitution

ANS: D. A Federal Supreme Court to interpret the

Constitution

124. Indian Penal Code came into operation In

A. 1858

B. 1860

C. 1859

D. 1862

ANS: B. 1860

125. National Capital Territory of Delhi has been

constituted by……………...?

A. 69th amendment

B. 71st amendment

C. Ordinance promulgated by the President

D. Ordinance promulgated by the Lieutenant Governor

ANS: A. 69th amendment

126. Indian Parliament can rename or redefine the

boundary of a State by

A. a simple majority

B. absolute majority

C. 2/3rd majority of the members voting

D. 2/3rd majority of the members voting an absolute

majority of Its total membership

ANS: A. a simple majority

127.Which is the source of political power in India ?

A. The Constitution

B. The Parliament

C. The Parliament the State Legislatives

D. We the People

ANS: D. We the People

128.Which one of the following is a political right ?

A. Right to freedom

B. Right to contest elections

C. Right to equality before law

D. Right to life

ANS: B. Right to contest elections

129.Which of the following "writs” of the High Court

or the Supreme Court is sought to produce in the

court a person suspected to be missing in custody ?

A. Mandamus

B. Quo Warranto

C. Habeas Corpus

D. Certiorari

ANS: C. Habeas Corpus

130.To which of the following Bills the President must

accord his sanction without sending it back for fresh

consideration?

A. Ordinary Bills







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B. Money Bills

C. Bills passed by both Houses of the Parliament

D. Bill seeking amendment to the Constitution

ANS: B. Money Bills

131.Where in the Indian Constitution has “economic

justice" been provided as one of the objectives?

A. Mental Rights

B. Directive Principles

C. Fundamental Rights

D. Fundamental Rights the Directive Principles

ANS: B. Directive Principles

132.Which one of the following is not enumerated as a

right in the Constitution of India ?

A. Political social right

B. Educational right

C. Economic right

D. Right to religion

ANS: C. Economic right

133.Which one of the following is not mentioned in

the Preamble to the Constitution of India

A. Justice

B. Fraternity

C. Adult franchise

D. Equality

ANS: C. Adult franchise

134.The right to vote in elections to a Parliament is a

A. Fundamental Right

B. Constitutional Right

C. Legal Right

D. Natural Right

ANS: B. Constitutional Right

135.The Fundamental Rights in our Constitution are

inspired by the Constitution of

A. United States of America

B. United Kingdom

C. Switzerland

D. Canada

ANS: A. United States of America

136.A right Issued by the Supreme Court compelling

a quasi judicial public authority to perform Its

mandatory duty is

A. Quo warranto

B. Mandamus

C. Certiorari

D. Prohibition

ANS: B. Mandamus

137.Parliamentary form of Government is also known

as :

A. Responsive Government

B. Responsible Government

C. Federal Government

D. Presidential Government

ANS: B. Responsible Government

138.A money bill passed by the Lok Sabha is seemed

to have been passed by the Rajya Sabha also when no

action is taken by the Upper House within :







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A. 10 days

B. 14 days

C. 20 days

D. 30 days

ANS: B .14 days

139.No Money bill can be introduced in the Lok

Sabha without the prior approval of the

A. Vice President

B. President

C. Prime Minister

D. Finance Minister

ANS: B. President

140.Who is competent to dissolve the Rajya Sabha ?

A. The Chairman Rajya Sabha

B. The President

C. The Joint session of Parliament

D. None of these

ANS: D. None of these

141.The Legislative Council in a State in India may

be treated or abolished by the

A. President on the recommendation of the

Governor

B. Parliament

C. Parliament after the State Legislative Assembly

passes a resolution to that effect

D. Governor on a recommendation by the State

Cabinet

ANS: C Parliament after the State Legislative

Assembly passes a resolution to that effect

142.Who is the chief advisor to the Governor?

A. Chief Justice of Indian Supreme Court

B. Chief Minister

C. Speaker of the Lok Sabha

D. President

ANS: B. Chief Minister

143.Money Bill can be introduced in the State

Legislative Assembly with the prior permission of

A. Governor Of the State

B. Chief Minister of the State

C. Speaker of Legislative Assembly

D. Finance Minister of the State

ANS: A. Governor Of the State

144.There is no provision in the Constitution for the

impeachment of the


B. Chief Justice of a High Court:

C. Governor

D. Vice President

ANS: C. Governor

145.The Governor of a State has no power to

A. prorogue the Assembly

B. dissolve the Assembly

C. adjourn the Assembly

D. summon the Assembly

ANS: C. adjourn the Assembly







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146.The members of the Legislative Assembly are :

A. Indirectly elected

B. directly elected by the people

C. partly elected partly nominated by the Governor

D. mainly nominated

ANS: B. directly elected by the people

147.The Chief Minister is appointed by

A. The Governor

B. The President

C. The Chief Justice of Supreme Court

D. The Chief Justice of High Court

ANS: A. the Governor

148.The upper house of the State Legislature in India

is called :

A. Legislative Council

B. Legislative Assembly

C. Executive Council

D. Governor in Council

ANS: A. Legislative Council

149.Who is the highest Law Officer of a State ?

A. Solicitor General

B. Secretary General Law Department

C. Attorney General

D. Advocate General.

ANS: D. Advocate General.

150.In relation to the State Government local

government exercises :

A. Coordinate Authority

B. Delegated Authority

C. Superior Authority

D. Independent Authority

ANS: B. Delegated Authority

151.In which year were the States recognized oh a

linguistic basis ?

A. 1951

B. 1947

C. 1950

D. 1956

ANS: D. 1956

152.Postal voting is otherwise called :

A. plural voting

B. proxy voting

C. weighted voting

D. secret voting

ANS: B. proxy voting

153.In case of a disagreement between the two Houses

of Parliament over a non-money bill

A. the President the bill will lapse

B. may sign it into a law

C. the President may call a joint sitting of both the

Houses to consider it.

D. the President may ask both the Houses to

reconsider it.

ANS: C. the President may call a joint sitting of both

the Houses to consider it.







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154.Which of the following nonmembers of

Parliament has the right to address it ?

A. Attorney General of India

B. Solicitor General of India

C. Chief Justice of India

D. Chief Election Commissioner

ANS: A. Attorney General of India

155.The deciding authority of States share in central

taxes is the

A. Finance Commission

B. Planning Commission

C. Election Commission

D. Finance Minister

ANS: A Finance Commission

156.The Comptroller Auditor General of india acts as

the chief accountant auditor for the

A. Union Government

B. State Government

C. Union and State Governments

D. Neither Union nor State Governments

ANS: C. Union and State Governments

157.Who constitutes the Finance Commission after

every five years ?

A. The Council of Ministers

B. The Parliament

C. The President

D. The Comptroller Auditor General

ANS: C. The President

158.Which of the following was formerly a

fundamental right and now it is only a legal right

A. Cultural and Educational right

B. Right to property

C. Right against exploitation

D. Right to freedom and religion

ANS: B. Right to property

159.How many types of emergencies are there in

Indian Constitution ?

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. Four

ANS: C. Three

160.Council of Minister is liable to--

A. Lok Sabha

B. Rajya Sabha

C. The Prime Minister

D. President

ANS: A. Lok Sabha

161.The Montague-chelmsford reform was passed in

the year

A. 1908

B. 1918

C. 1919

D. 1916

ANS: C. 1919







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162.Clement Attlee’s announcement proclaimed

________ in the parliament

A. Limited voting powers to Indians

B. Formation of Cabinet Mission

C. British decision to Quit India

D. None of these

ANS: C. British decision to Quit India

163.Right to Equality of Opportunity in Employment

is enshrined in which Article?

A. 17

B. 19

C. 15

D. 16

ANS: D. 16

164.The candidate for the office of the President must

have qualification required for the

A. Lok Sabha

B. Member of Parliament

C. Raja Sabha

D. MLA

ANS: A. Lok Sabha

165.The Supreme Court has original Jurisdiction of

any dispute/decision between

A. Regarding clarification of constitution

B. About Constitutionality of a legislative act

C. Between government of India and one or more

states

D. None of these

ANS: C.Between government of India and one or more

states

166.How many times Lok Sabha can be summoned in

a year ?

A. Two times

B. Four times

C. Six times

D. Three times

ANS: A. Two times

167.How many members can Indian President

nominate to Rajya Sabha ?

A. 10

B. 11

C. 15

D. 12

ANS: D. 12

168.Which of the following states came into existence

on the basis of language ?

A. West Bengal

B. Andhra Pradesh

C. Uttar Pradesh

D. Bihar

ANS: B Andhra Pradesh

169.Who among the following Presidents had been in

office continuously for two terms

A. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

B. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

C. Dr. Zakir Hussain







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ANS: A Dr. Rajendra Prasad

170.Under which of the following conditions, the

President can declare a state or Emergency

A. In a state of external invasion or internal

disturbance

B. When the rule of laws breaks down in some state

C. Instability in financial condition

D. None of these

ANS: A. In a state of external invasion or internal

disturbance

171.Who among the following Prime Minister didn’t

face the Parliament during his term of office?

A. Chandrashekhar

B. Atal Bihari Vajpayee

C. Charan Singh

D. B. P. Singh

ANS: C. Charan Singh

172.The Chief Central Information Commissioner

and Information Commissioners shall be appointed

by:

A. By the President of India

B. By the President of India on the recommendation

of Prime Minister

C. By the President of India on the recommendation

of law minister of the union of India

D. By the President of India on the recommendation

of a committee consisting of Prime Minister,

leader of opposition and a union cabinet minister

nominated by Prime Minister.

ANS: D. By the President of India on the

recommendation of a committee consisting of Prime

Minister, leader of opposition and a union cabinet

minister nominated by Prime Minister

173.How many deputy Prime Ministers have been

appointed so far in history of free and independent

India ?

A. 5

B. 6

C. 7

D. None of these

ANS: C. 7

174.How many members are nominated by the

President in Lok Sabha in India ?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

ANS: A. 2

175.India is a secular state because ?

A. it is a socialist country

B. it treats all religions alike

C. there is no religion of the people

D. Religious beliefs and practices are discouraged

ANS: B. it treats all religions alike







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176.Fundamental Rights are enshrined in the

Constitution of India in ?

A. Part I

B. Part III

C. Part IV

D. Part V

ANS: B. Part III

177.The supreme Court judges are appointed by ?

A. Prime Minister

B. President

C. Chief Minister

D. Lok Sabha

ANS: B. President

178.The ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is ?

A. President

B. Vice-President

C. Prime Minister

D. None of these

ANS: B. Vice-President

179.Which one of the following High Courts has the

Territorial Jurisdiction over Andaman and Nicobar

Islands

A. Andhra Pradesh

B. Kolkata

C. Madras

D. Orissa

ANS: B. Kolkata

180.Who was the first Vice-President of India ?

A. Dr Zakir Hussain

B. Dr.S.Radhakrishnan

C. V.V Giri

D. D G.S Pathak

ANS: B. Dr.S.Radhakrishnan

181.Which important human right is protected in

Article 21 of the Constitution of India


B. Right to Freedom of Religion

C. Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression

D. Right to Life and Liberty

ANS: D. Right to Life and Liberty

182.The Judge of High Court retire at the age of

A. 60 years

B. 62 years

C. 65 years

D. 70 years

ANS: B. 62 years

183.The President of India can be impeached by

A. Specially constituted tribunal

B. Supreme Court

C. Central Cabinet

D. Parliament

ANS: D. Parliament

184.Who administers the oath of office to the

President of India ?

A. Vice-President of India








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C. Speaker of the Lok Sabha

D. Chief Justice of India

ANS: D. Chief Justice of India

185.What is the period of a Fiscal/Financial Year in

India ?

A. 1st January to 31st December

B. 1st March to 28th February

C. 1st April to 31st March

D. 1st June to 31st May

ANS: C 1st April to 31st March

186.Which of the following Constitutional

Amendments has included fundamental duties into

the constitution?

A. 42nd

B. 43rd

C. 44th

D. 39th

ANS: A. 42nd

187.In case the president of india decides to resign, he

will address his letter of resignation to

A. Prime Minister

B. Chief Justice

C. Speaker and Lok Sabha

D. Vice-President

ANS: D. Vice-President

188.Who is competent to amend the fundamental

rights?

A. President

B. Lok Sabha

C. Supreme Court

D. Parliament

ANS: D. Parliament

189.Who controls/supervises the Consolidated Fund

of India?

A. Indian Finance Minister

B. Comptroller and Auditor General of India

C. Parliament

D. None of these

ANS: B. Comptroller and Auditor General of India

190.Which of the following is not a constitutional

arrangement?

A. Finance commission

B. Planning commission

C. Election commission

D. Union Public Service Commission

ANS: B. Planning commission

191.Who has defined the office of Profit ?

A. Parliament

B. Supreme court

C. Council of ministers

D. Constitution

ANS: D. Constitution

192.Which article of the Indian Constitution directs

the State Government to form a Village Panchayat ?

A. Article 40

B. Article 32







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C. Article 48

D. Article 78

ANS: A Article 40

193.By which Article of the Indian Constitution was

untouchability abolished?

A. Article 14

B. Article 16

C. Article 15

D. Article 17

ANS: D. Article 17

194.Under which article two Anglo Indians are

nominated in the House of People ?

A. 331

B. 380

C. 370

D. 80

ANS: A .331

195.The only president of India who was elected

unopposed was?

A. Rajendra Prasad

B. V.V. Giri

C. N. Sanjiva Reddy

D. S.D. Sharma

ANS: C. N. Sanjiva Reddy

196.The central council of ministers resign after/on

A. Impeachment

B. Losing Majority

C. Advice of the president

D. Death of a leader

ANS: B. Losing Majority

197.Who addresses the joint sitting of parliament ?

A. Prime Minister

B. Speaker

C. Deputy Speaker

D. President

ANS: D. President

198.The final authority with regard to passage of a

money bill rests with

A. Lok Sabha

B. Rajya Sabha

C. President

D. Finance Minister

ANS: A. Lok Sabha

199.Who manages the election of panchayats ?

A. District Collector

B. Chief Minister

C. Justice of High Court

D. None of these

ANS: A. District Collector

200.The session of parliament is called ……

(minimum) in a year

A. Twice

B. Four time

C. Six times

D. Thrice

ANS: A. Twice







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201.What is the minimum age for election of

President of India?

A. 30 years

B. 35 years

C. 40 years

D. 25 years

ANS: B.35 years

202.Who is regarded as the ‘Architect of the Indian

Constitution’

A. B.N. Rao

B. Dr.B. Rajendra Prasad

C. B.R. Ambedkar

D. None of these

ANS: C. B.R. Ambedkar

203.The comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of

India was appointed by

A. President of India

B. Cabinet

C. Prime Minister

D. Parliament

ANS: A. President of India

204.Which state of India introduced the common

Civil Code for first time?

A. Goa

B. Gujarat


D. None of these

ANS: A. Goa

205.In a Parliamentary form of government, real

powers are vested in :

A. President

B. Parliament

C. Judiciary

D. Council of Ministers headed by the Prime

Minister

ANS: D. Council of Ministers headed by the Prime

Minister

206.In the Indian Constitution, the power to issue a

Writ of "Habeas Corpus` is vested in :

A. Supreme court only

B. High courts only

C. Subordinate courts

D. Supreme court and High Court

ANS: D. Supreme court and High Court

207.In which list is 'Education' included in India ?

A. Union list

B. State list

C. Concurrent List

D. UGC List

ANS: C. Concurrent List

208.When was RTI Act enacted in India ?

A. August 2005

B. March 2005

C. June 2005

D. July 2005

ANS: C. June 2005







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209.The Right to Property was deleted from the list of

Fundamental Rights by which of the Amendment of

Indian Constitution?

A. 42 Amendment

B. 31Amendment

C. 48Amendment

D. 44Amendment

ANS: D. 44Amendment

210.Panchayati Raj institutions came into existence

under the:

A. 42 and 43 Amendment Acts

B. 86 qnd 87 Amendment Acts

C. 63 and 64 Amendment Acts

D. 73 and 74 Amendment Acts

ANS: D. 73 and 74 Amendment Acts

211.Which part of the constitution contains the

provision relating to the safeguarding of public

property?

A. Preamble

B. Directive principles

C. Fundamental duties

D. Fundamental rights

ANS: C. Fundamental duties

212.Which of the following Amendments is also

known as the 'Mini Constitution' of India?

A. 7th Amendment

B. 42nd Amendment

C. 44th Amendment

D. 74th Amendment

ANS:B 42nd Amendment

213.Who among the following is not a member of any

of the two houses of our country?

A. Prime Minister

B. Finance

C. President

D. Railway

ANS: C. President

214.Under the article 72 of Indian constitution, Who

can pardon a sentence of death?

A. Members of rajya sabha

B. Governor that particular state

C. President of india

D. Judge of a supreme court

ANS: C. President of india

215 .Who among the following has right to vote in the

elections of both Lok sabha and Rajyasabha?

A. Indian citizen above the age of 18

B. Elected members of Lok sabha

C. Elected members of Rajya sabha

D. Elected members of the Vidhan sabha

ANS: D Elected members of the Vidhan sabha

216.Which of the following is not a qualification of

any person to become governor of a state in India?

A. Must be at least 30 years old







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B. Should not hold any office of profit during

his/her tenure

C. Must be a citizen of India

D. Not be a member of either house of the

parliament or state legislature

ANS: A. Must be at least 30 years old

217.Who can be the ex-officio chairman of the

planning commission of India?

A. Only the judge of the Supreme court

B. Prime minister

C. Only the judge of the High court

D. Finance minister

ANS: B. Prime minister

218.Who among the following can be the chairman of

National Human Rights

Commision(NHRC)?

A. Only a retired judge of the supreme court of India

B. Any serving chief jusice of India

C. Only a retired chief justice of India

D. All the above

ANS: C. Only a retired chief justice of India

219. In India, the concept of single citizenship is

adopted from……………...?

A. France

B. Canada

C. England

D. USA

ANS: C. England

220. Which of the following Articles describes about

the person voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a

foreign state not to be citizens?

A. Article 9

B. Article 8

C. Article 7

D. Article 5

ANS: A. Article 9

221. The Fundamental Duties of the Indian citizens

are incorporated in the following Article of our

constitution ?

A. Article 21 A

B. Article 51 A

C. Article 370 A

C. Article 19 A

ANS: B. Article 51 A

222.Which state of India has the largest number of

seats in legislative assembly?

A. Uttar Pradesh

B. Tamil Nadu

C. Madhya Pradesh

D. Bihar

ANS: A Uttar Pradesh

223.The Right to Profess, Practice and Propagate a

religion comes under which Article of the India

Constitution?

A. Article 29

B. Article 23







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C. Article 26

D. Article 25

ANS: D. Article 25

224.Which of the following functions is run by the

speaker's leadership?

A. Rajya Sabha

B. Lok Sabha

C. Grammar

D. Viceroy House

ANS: B. Lok Sabha

225.How many Lok Sabha Parliamentary

Constituency seats are there in the Union

Territory of Puducherry?

A. 4

B. 3

C. 2

D. 1

ANS: D. 1

226. Which of the following is not a eligibility of to be

a vice president of India?

A. Indian citizen

B. Age more than 35 years

C. Member of Lok Sabha

D. Member of Rajya Sabha

ANS: C Member of Lok Sabha

227.According to constitution, which of the following

article Provides protection of life

and personal liberty?

A. Article 20

B. Article 21

C. Article 22

D. Article 23

ANS: B. Article 21

228.Tell the name of Indian President who had used

pocket veto in Indian postal

amendment bill.

A. Rajendra Prasad

B. Nilam Sanjeev Reddy

C. Shankar Dayal Verma

D. Gyani Jail Singh

ANS: D. Gyani Jail Singh

229.Which of the following states has a bicameral

legislature?

A. Chhattisgarh

B. Goa

C. Jharkhand

D. Maharashtra

ANS: D .Maharashtra

230.The 100th amendment in our Constitution is

related to which of the

following?

A. Protection of livelihood and regulation of street

vending

B. Acquiring of territories by India and transfer of

certain territories to Bangladesh







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C. Emoluments, Allowances and Privileges to the

Governors

D. The reorganisation of the state of Andhra Pradesh

ANS: B. Acquiring of territories by India and transfer

of certain territories to Bangladesh

231. Article 21A of the Indian constitution illustrates

which of the following rights

A. Right of Education

B. Right to Information

C. Public Representation

D. Right to Freedom of Religion

ANS: A. Right of Education

232. What is the retirement age of Chief Justice of

India?

A. 61 years

B. 63 years

C. 65 years

D. 68 years

ANS: C. 65 years

233. The ‘constitution day’ of India is observed on.

A. 24th November

B. 25th November

C. 26th November

D. 27th November

ANS: C. 26th November

234. From the following former Prime Ministers,

whose name can be found on

Indian currency notes?

A. Atal Bihari Vajpayee

B. Indira Gandhi

C. Dr. Manmohan Singh

D. Narsimha Rao

ANS: C. Dr. Manmohan Singh

235. In India, who is executive head of the state?

A. President

B. Governor

C. Chief Minister

D. The legislative assembly of the state

ANS: B. Governor

236. Emergency provision in Indian constitution is

taken from the constitution

of which country.

A. USA

B. UK

C. Germany

D. Ireland

ANS: C. Germany

237. The constitutional amendment through which

the four regional languages namely Bodo, Dogri,

Maithali and Santhali were included in the

constitution is?

A. 72

B. 92

C. 93

D. 94

ANS: B. 92







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238. Under which of the following amendment,

education was made a fundamental right?

A. 83rd amendment in 2003

B. 83rd amendment in 2002

C. 86rd amendment in 2002

D. 87rd amendment

ANS: C. 86rd amendment in 2002

239. Article 60 of the Indian Constitution refers to?

A. Election of the President of India

B. Oath of the President

C. Impeachment of the President

D. Vice President of India

ANS: B. Oath of the President

240. Which amendment to the Indian Constitution

added the words Secular and Socialist in the

Preamble?

A. Fortieth

B. Forty-first

C. Forty-second

D. Forty-third

ANS: C. Forty-second

241. Article 324-329 of the Indian Constitution deals

with which of the following?

A. Tribunals

B. Elections

C. Cast System

D. Panchayat system

ANS: B Elections

242. Which Article of the Indian Constitution

prescribes Hindi in Devanagari script as the official

language of the Union?

A. Article 343

B. Article 342

C. Article 346

D. Article 341

ANS: A. Article 343

243. The National Green Tribunal deals with cases

relating to?

A. Issues relating to protection and conservation of

historical monuments.

B. Civil cases.

C. Criminal offences.

D. Environmental protection and conservation of

forests.

ANS: D. Environmental protection and conservation of

forests.

244. Indian constitution can be amended according to

the procedure laid down in the

following Article?

A. Article 368

B. Article 345

C. Article 351

D. Article 333

ANS: A. Article 368

245. Which Constitutional Amendment Act deals with

the disqualification of MPs and







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MLAs?

A. 42nd Amendment Act

B. 52nd Amendment Act

C. 62nd Amendment Act

D. 32nd Amendment Act

ANS: B. 52nd Amendment Act

246. Which of the following schedules contains special

provisions for the administration of tribal areas in the

four northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya,

Tripura and Mizoram

A. First schedule

B. Second schedule

C. Third schedule

D. Sixth schedule

ANS: D. Sixth schedule

247. How many times was the Preamble of the

Constitution amended?

A. Three times

B. Two times

C. Once

D. Not amended

ANS: C. Once

248. The Election Commission is established under

the Article?

A. Article-355

B. Article-256

C. Article-324

D. Article-320

ANS: C. Article-324.

249.Which Article of the Indian Constitution defines

the duties of the Chief Minister?

A. Article 166

B. Article 163

C. Article 167

D. Article 164

ANS: C. Article 167

250. Which amendment of the Constitution lowered

the voting age from 21 years to 18 years?

A. 64th Amendment

B. 60th Amendment

C. 61st Amendment

D. 63rd Amendment

ANS: C. 61st Amendment

History

1. On which festival did the Jallianwala Bagh

Massacre take place

A. Baisakhi

B. Guru Nanak Jayanthi







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C. Diwali

D. Holi

ANS: A. Baisakhi

2. India's national motto, Satyameva Jayate is a

manta from the ancient Indian scripture

A. Rig Veda

B. Mundaka Upanishad

C. Bhagavad Gita

D. Matsaya purana

ANS: B. Mundaka Upanishad

3. What is Swadeshi?

A. Made in India, from materials that have also been

produced in India

B. Made in Foreign Lands from materials that are

foreign

C. A Charkha that is used to spin cotton wool

D. A country flag that is made of cotton

ANS: A. Made in India, from materials that have also

been produced in India

4. The Panchatantra fables are thought to be

composed by

A. Mullah Nasruddin

B. Vishnu Sharma

C. King Sudhashan

D. Tenati Raman

ANS: B. Vishnu Sharma

5. What does Satyameva Jayate mean

A. Truth alone triumphs

B. Truth faith is rare

C. Truth is Divine

D. Truth is a Teasure

ANS: A. Truth alone triumphs

6. The first Europeans to establish trade links with

India were

A. Portuguese

B. Dutch

C. British

D. None

ANS: A. Portuguese

7. The main occupation of vedic-age people was?

A. Trade

B. Hunting

C. Agriculture

D. None

ANS: C. Agriculture

8. In which of the following session, the Indian

National Congress demanded ‘Complete

independence’ for the first time?

A. Lahore session, 1929

B. Lucknow session, 1899

C. Calcutta Session, 1928

D. Karachi Session, 1931

ANS: A. Lahore session, 1929

9. Mahatma Gandhi was assassinated on

A. Jan 28, 1949

B. Jan 30, 1948







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C. Jan 31, 1947

D. None of these

ANS: B. Jan 30, 1948

10. In which year did India join the United Nation

Organisation (UNO)

A. 1945

B. 1946

C. 1949

D. None

ANS: A. 1945

11. Kabir was the disciple of :

A. Ramanuja

B. Ramananda

C. Shankaracharya

D. Chaitanya

ANS: B. Ramananda

12. The first dynasty of the Vijayanagar Kingdom

was :

A. Hoysala

B. Sangama

C. Saluva

D. Tuluva

ANS: B. Sangama

13. In whose reign Sanchi Stupa was built ?

A. Ashoka

B. Harshavardhan

C. Kanishka

D. Samudragupta

ANS: A. Ashoka

14. The first astronomical observatory of Harappan

Civilization has been found at which of the following

ancient sites ?

A. Ropar

B. Daimabad

C. Dholavira


ANS: C. Dholavira

15. The Sarvodaya Movement was started by :

A. Mahatma Gandhi

B. Jayprakash Narayan

C. Vinoba Bhav

D. Jyotiba Phule

ANS: C. Vinoba Bhav

16. Token currency was introduced in India for the

first time by :

A. Alan-din-Khilji

B. Sher Shah Sari

C. Ghiyasud-din-Tughlaq

D. Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq

ANS: D. Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq

17."Din-i-llahi" was founded by:

A. Guru Nanak

B. Kabir

C. Akbar

D. Shah Johan

ANS: C. Akbar







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18. Prithviraj Chauhan was defeated in the 2nd battle

of Tarain by :

A. Babur

B. Mahmud Ghazini

C. Muhammad ghori

D. Ibrahim lodhi

ANS: C. Muhammad Ghori

19. Gandhi Irwin pact happened in which year?

A. 1905

B. 1931

C. 1947

D. 1942

ANS: B. 1931

20. In Greek Mythology Apollo is the god of what?

A. Prophecy

B. Medicine

C. Love

D. Peace

ANS: A. Prophecy

21. Who was the first Caliph?

A. Sulaiman The Great

B. Abu Bakar

C. Iman Hussain

D. Constantine

ANS: B. Abu Bakar

22. In the third Battle of Panipat, the Marathas were

defeated by whom?

A. The Afghans

B. The Mughals

C. The English

D. The french

ANS: A. The Afghans

23. The British Government intervened in the affairs

of the Company and passed an Act in1773 A.D.,

known as the

A. Regulating Act

B. Pitt’s India Act

C. Charter Act

D. Company Act

ANS: A. Regulating Act

24. The first Mysore War fought between the British

and Hyder Ali in 1767 - 69 A.D., came to an end by

the

A. Treaty of Pondicherry

B. Treaty of Madras

C. Treaty of Mysore

D. Treaty of Aix - la - Chapelle

ANS: B. Treaty of Madras

25. Who was a philosopher and theologian from India

during early 8th century who consolidated the

doctrine of Advaita Vedanta?

A. Adi Shankara

B. Dyaneshwar

C. Eknath

D. Madhvacharya

ANS: A. Adi Shankara







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26. Who built the Group of Monuments at

Mahabalipuram?

A. Chola Kings

B. Pallava Kings

C. Chera Kings

D. Chalukya Kings

ANS: B. Pallava Kings

27. Who was the trusted General of the Mughal

emperor Akbar?

A. Raja Todar Mal

B. Man Singh I

C. Birbal

D. Tansen

ANS: B. Man Singh I

28. Oil paint was first used for Buddhist paintings by

Indian and Chinese painters in western part of which

country sometime between the fifth and tenth

centuries?

A. Iraq

B. Afghanistan

C. Pakistan

D. India

ANS: B. Afghanistan

29. When did the first Huna invasion take place?

A. 358 AD

B. 458 AD

C. 558 AD

D. 658 AD

ANS: B. 458 AD

30.___________ has a collection of architectural

astronomical instruments, built by Maharaja Jai

Singh II.

A. Jantar Mantar observatory, Jaipur

B. Group of Monuments at Hampi

C. Group of Monuments at Pattadakal

D. Nalanda, Bihar

ANS: A Jantar Mantar observatory, Jaipur

31. Bahadur Shah I (1707-1712 AD) was the ruler of

which dynasty?

A. Nanda

B. Maurya

C. Mughal

D. Haryanka

ANS: C. Mughal

32. Who was the first king of Pala Dynasty?

A. Gopala

B. Nandiala

C. Madanapala

D. Devapala

ANS: A. Gopala

33. Kargil War against Pakistan started in the year?

A. 1961

B. 1965

C. 1972

D. 1999

ANS: D. 1999







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34. Aurangzeb was the son of

A. Babur

B. Humayun

C. Akbar

D. Shah Jahan

ANS: D. Shah Jahan

35. The capital of Mauriyan empire was

A. Nalanda

B. Taxila

C. Magadh

D. Pataliputra

ANS: D. Pataliputra

36. Sher Shah defeated Humayun and captured Gaur

in the battle of

A. Ghaghra in 1529 A.D.

B. Chausa in 1539 A.D.

C. Panipat in 1526 A.D.

D. Khanwa in 1527 A.D.

ANS: B. Chausa in 1539 A.D.

37. Which Indian Music Legend is the best known

exponent of the instrument, Sitar?

A. Bhimsen Joshi

B. Ravi Shankar

C. Amjad Ali Khan

D. Alla Rakha

ANS: B. Ravi Shankar

38. The Desert Festival is held in _____.

A. Barmer

B. Jaisalmer

C. Sahara

D. Thar

ANS: B. Jaisalmer

39. Which governor general has abolished the dual

system in Bengal?

A. William Bentick

B. Warren Hastings

C. Robert Clive

D. Lord Cornwallis

ANS: B. Warren Hastings

40. Which Charter Act has provided a sum of Rs.1

lakh for the education of Indians in British India?

A. Charter Act 1813

B. Charter Act 1833

C. Charter Act 1853

D. Charter Act 1873

ANS: A. Charter Act 1813

41. Who was the commander-in-chief of the Madras

army responsible for Vellore mutiny?

A. T.B.Macalauy

B. John Craddock

C. Iyer Coot

D. General o tyre

ANS: B. John Craddock

42. During which war, Hyder Ali died?

A. Third Anglo-Mysore war

B. First Anglo-Mysore war







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C. Second Anglo-Mysore war

D. Fourth Anglo-Mysore war

ANS: C. Second Anglo-Mysore war

43. Which princely state has been acquired first

under Doctrine of Lapse by Dalhousie?

A. Satara

B. Udaipur

C. Jhansi

D. Jaipur

ANS: A. Satara

44. The Carnatic wars were essentially fought

between whom?

A. French & Nizam

B. English & French

C. English & Marathas

D. Marathas & Hyder Ali

ANS: B. English & French

45. Who was the first Secretary of State for India?

A. Lord Wellington

B. Lord Hardinge

C. Lord Stanley

D. Lord Cornwallis

ANS: C. Lord Stanley

46.Who was the president of Indian National

Congress 1907 Surat session where moderates and

extremists were split?

A. Rash Behari Gosh

B. Dadabhai Naoroji

C. Jawaharlal Nehru

D. Subhash Chandra Bose

ANS: A. Rash Behari Gosh

47. In which year was the Ramakrishna mission

founded?

A. 1897

B. 1899

C. 1895

D. 1893

ANS: A. 1897

48. Who is responsible for the transferred list subjects

introduced through Government of India Act, 1919?

A. Britian prime minister

B. Viceroy

C. Ministers

D. Governor

ANS: C. Ministers

49. Which commission was set up to inquire into the

jallianwala bagh massacre?

A. William commission

B. Robert commission

C. Dyer commission

D. Hunter commission

ANS: D. Hunter commission

50. Who has led the Home Rule movement in India?

A. Annie Beasant, Bal Gangadhar Tilak

B. Madame Blavatsky, Bipin Chandra Pal

C. Annie Beasant, Aurobindo Ghosh







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D. H.S.Olcott, Bal Gangadhar Tilak

ANS: A. Annie Beasant, Bal Gangadhar Tilak

51. Wagon Tragedy of 1921 is related to which

rebellion?

A. Coorg rebellion

B. Moplah rebellion

C. Madras rebellion

D. Nizam rebellion

ANS: B. Moplah rebellion

52. Which countries were the major Axis Powers of

World War 2?

A. Germany, Italy, Japan

B. Germany, Britian, USA

C. Germany, USA, Japan

D. Britian, USSR, China

ANS: A Germany, Italy, Japan

53. Which Act was the result of Round Table

Conferences?

A. Government of India Act, 1858

B. Government of India Act, 1909

C. Government of India Act, 1919

D. Government of India Act, 1935

ANS: D. Government of India Act, 1935

54. Vaikom Satyagraha in Kerala was related to

which issue?

A. Industrial wages

B. Temple entry of depressed classes

C. Salt tax

D. Indigo plantations

ANS: B. Temple entry of depressed classes

55. Who was the secretary of Swaraj party formed in

1923?

A. Chittaranjan Das

B. Subhash Chandra Bose

C. Motilal Nehru

D. Jawaharlal Nehru

ANS: C Motilal Nehru

56. In which year was the August Offer announced?

A. 1930

B. 1935

C. 1940

D. 1945

ANS: C. 1940

57. What is the other name for the Gandhi-Irwin

Pact, 1931?

A. Lucknow Pact

B. Delhi Pact

C. Clacutta Pact

D. Madras Pact

ANS: B. Delhi Pact

58. Which viceroy has organised the Shimla

Conference?

A. Lord Wavell

B. Lord Linlithgow

C. Lord Irwin

D. Stafford Cripps







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ANS: A. Lord Wavell

59. Who was the last Governor General of

independent India?

A. Lord Chelmsford

B. Lord Reading

C. Lord Mountbatten

D. C. Rajagopalachari

ANS: D. C.Rajagopalachari

60. Nana Saheb was the adopted son of which

Peshwa?

A. Baji Rao

B. Baji Rao II

C. Raghunath Rao

D. Madhav Rao

ANS: B Baji Rao II

61. In 1917, at Champaran, the government forced

the farmers to undertake……………?

A. Opium cultivation

B. Indigo cultivation

C. Land ceiling

D. Hallow cultivation

ANS: B. Indigo cultivation

62. Which political organisation was formed by

B.R.Ambedkar in 1936?

A. Socialist Party

B. Dalit Party

C. Independent Labour Party

D. Swaraj Party

ANS: C. Independent Labour Party

63. August Offer was issued on __________ 1940

A. 8 August

B. 15 August

C. 20 August

D. 30 August

ANS: A. 8 August

64. ‘August Offer’ was issued by ___

A. Crown

B. Parliament

C. Viceroy

D. Secretary of State

ANS: C. Viceroy

65. The Indians were allowed to frame their

Constitution by?

A. The Council Act of 1909

B. Montford Reforms

C. August Offer

D. The Government of India Act of 1935

ANS: C. August Offer

66. Jinnah gave his opposition to Wavell’s Plan in the

Conference held at

A. Delhi

B. Shimla

C. Calcutta

D. Madras

ANS: B. Shimla

67. The Cabinet Mission which arrived Delhi in 1946







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was headed by

A. Lord Pethick Lawrence

B. Sir Stafford Cripps

C. A V Alexander

D. Lord Alex

ANS: A. Lord Pethick Lawrence

69. In the Provinces were allowed to form groups

with common executives an legislatures?

A. Wavell Plan

B. Dikie Bird Plan

C. Cabinet Mission Plan

D. Mountbatten Plan

ANS: C. Cabinet Mission Plan

70. As per Cabinet Mission Plan, the strength of the

Constituent Assembly would be?

A. 389

B. 289

C. 250

D. 350

ANS: A. 389

71. In the Cabinet Mission Plan, provision was made

for the Commissioner’s Provinces to represent by

_________ members in the Constituent Assembly?

A. 14

B. 10

C. 8

D. 4

ANS: D .4

72. As per Cabinet Mission Plan, the Princely States

would be represented by __________ members in the

Constituent Assembly?

A. 90

B. 93

C. 103

D. 100

ANS:B. 93

73. Vande Mataram was adopted as a slogan for

agitation in which of the following movements?

A. Quit India movement in 1942

B. Revolt of 1857

C. Partition of Bengal in 1905

D. Non-Cooperation movement in 1922

ANS: C. Partition of Bengal in 1905

74. Lord William Bentinck was the governor general

during the period

A. 1848-56

B. 1813-24

C. 1828-35

D. 1841-44

ANS: C 1828-35

75. The unilateral domain of East India Company

was brought under British rule

A. 1793

B. 1783

C. 1773

D. 1795







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ANS: C .1773

76. In 1866, Dadabhai Naoroji had founded East

Indian Association in the following city--

A. Paris

B. London

C. New York

D. Tokyo

ANS: B. London

77. In which of the following sessions did Indian

National Congress split into Moderate Party and

Extremist Party ?

A. Nagpur

B. Allhabad

C. Surat

D. Kolkata

ANS: C. Surat

78. Who was mainly worshipped in the Rig Vedic

period?

A. Indra

B. Vishnu

C. Sun

D. Trimurti

ANS: A. Indra

79. Who is regarded as the great law-giver of ancient

India ?

A. Panini

B. Manu

C. Kautilya

D. None of these

ANS: B. Manu

80. To which king belongs the Lion capital at

Sarnath?

A. Chandragupta

B. Ashoka

C. Kanishka

D. Harsha

ANS: B. Ashoka

81. Gautam Buddha attained Nirvana at?

A. Bodh Gaya

B. Sarnath

C. Kushinagar

D. Lumbini

ANS: A. Bodh Gaya

82. Who was the founder of the Gupta dynasty?

A. Chandragupta I

B. Chandragupta II

C. Samudragupta

D. Sri Gupta

ANS: D. Sri Gupta

83. Chandragupta Maurya spent his last days at ?

A. Shravanabelagola

B. Nalanda

C. Ujjain

D. Patna

ANS: A. Shravanabelagola

84.The Battle of Talikota was fought in the year ?







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A. 1565

B. 1526

C. 1586

D. 1576

ANS: A 1565

85. The capital of Harsha’s empire was ?

A. Ujjain

B. Kannauj

C. Thanesar

D. Prayag

ANS: B. Kannuj

86. The Ajanta caves were built during the period of

the ?

A. Guptas

B. Kushans

C. Mauryas

D. Chalukyas

ANS: A. Guptas

87.___was named Vikramaditya

A. Samudragupta

B. Chandragupta II

C. Bindusara

D. Ashoka

ANS: B Chandragupta II

88.Shivaji’s war strategy used against the Mughals

was ?

A. Alert army

B. Political supremacy

C. Large army

D. Guerilla warfare

ANS: D. Guerilla warfare

89. Gandhiji’s famous ‘Quit India’ movement call to

the British was given in

A. 1940

B. 1942

C. 1941

D. 1943

ANS: B. 1942

90.Indian National Army was formed by ?

A. Gandhiji

B. Subhash Chandra Bose

C. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

D. Lala Lajpat Rai

ANS: B Subhash Chandra Bose

91.The first Satyagraha campaign of Gandhiji was

started in ?

A. Champaran

B. Bardoli

C. Dandi

D. Baroda

ANS: A. Champaran

92.The first Muslim President of the INC was ?

A. Ajmal Khan

B. M.A Jinnah

C. Abul Kalam Azad

D. Badrudin Tyabhji







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ANS: D. Badrudin Tyabhji

93.The National calendar based on the Saka era

began on

A. AD 58

B. AD 376

C. AD 78

D. AD 606

ANS: C. AD 78

94.Who was the first President of the Indian National

Congress ?

A. A.O Hume

B. W.C Banerjee

C. Annie Besant

D. Motilal Nehru

ANS: B. W.C. Banerjee

95.Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place in the city of

A. Agra

B. Meerut

C. Amritsar

D. Lahore

ANS: C. Amritsar

96.Gandhiji’s Dandi March started from ?

A. Bardoli

B. Ahmedabad

C. Surat

D. Bombay

ANS: B. Ahmedabad

97. Non-Cooperation movement was suspended in

which of the following year?

A. 1922

B. 1930

C. 1925

D. 1928

ANS: A. 1922

98. Who among the following eminent personality

gave the slogan ‘Dilli Chalo’?

A. Jawaharlal Nehru

B. G.K Gokhale

C. Lal Bahadur Shastri

D. Subhash Chandra Bose

ANS: D. Subhash Chandra Bose

99. The greeting ‘Jai Hind’ was started by which

famous person ?

A. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

B. Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi

C. Subhash Chandra Bose

D. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

ANS: C. Subhash Chandra Bose

100.The capital of India was transferred from

Kolkata to Delhi in

A. 1858

B. 1911

C. 1923

D. 1943







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ANS: B. 1911

101.Which one of the following was the first fort

constructed by the British in India ?

A. Fort William

B. Fort St. George

C. Fort St. David

D. Fort St. Angelo

ANS: B. Fort St. George

102.The song ‘Amaar Sonar Bangla’ composed

during the Swadeshi Movement of India inspired the

struggle for liberationthis song of Bangladesh and its

was adopted as National Anthem by Bangladesh.

Who had composed

A. Rajanikant Sen

B. Dwijendra Lal Roy

C. Mukund Das

D. Rabrindranath Tagore

ANS: D. Rabrindranath Tagore

103.Who was the Mughal emperor to introduce the

custom of ‘’Jharokha Darsan’’ ?

A. Akbar

B. Hamayun

C. Babur

D. Jahangir

ANS: A. Akbar

104.Which one of the following monuments has a

dome which is said to be one of the largest in the

world ?

A. Tomb of Sher Shah, Sasaram

B. Jama Masjid, Delhi

C. Tomb of Ghiyas-ud-din Tughlaq, Delhi

D. Gol Gumbaz, Bijapur

ANS: D. Gol Gumbaz, Bijapur

105.‘Amir Khusro’ was the court poet of--

A. Akbar

B. Giyasuddin Balban

C. Jahangir

D. Alauddin Khilji

ANS: D. Alauddin Khilji

106.Which battle was fought between Akbar and

Rana Pratap of Mewar ?

A. Battle of Plassey

B. Battle of Haldighati

C. Battle of Panipat

D. Battle of Chandawar

ANS: B. Battle of Haldighati

107. In which year was “Jana Gana Mana” adopted

as the National Anthem

A. 1948

B. 1949

C. 1950

D. 1951

ANS: C. 1950

108.Where was the capital of Pandya dynasty

situated?

A. Mysore







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B. Kanchipuram

C. Madurai

D. Delhi

ANS: C. Madurai

109.Sikh Guru Arjundev was contemporary to which

of the following rulers?

A. Humayun

B. Akbar

C. Shahjahan

D. Jahangir

ANS: D. Jahangir

110.The capital of pallavas was

A. Arcot

B. Kanchi

C. Malkhed

D. Banavasi

ANS: B. Kanchi

111. Subhash Chandra Bose set up the provincial

Government of Free India in………….?

A. Singapore

B. Burma

C. Thailand

D. Indonesia

ANS: A. Singapore

112. Ellora Caves in Maharashtra were built during

the rule of which of the following dynasties?

A. Rashtrakoot

B. Pallav

C. Pala

D. Chola

ANS: A Rashtrakoot

113.The first division of congress took place in -

A. Surat

B. Kolkata

C. Allahabad

D. Chennai

ANS: A. Surat

114.Battle of Kalinga was fought at which of the

following places ?

A. Udaigiri

B. Dhauli

C. Balasore

D. Barabaki

ANS: B. Dhauli

115.The language of chola rulers was:

A. Sanskrit

B. Kannada

C. Tamil

D. Telugu

ANS:C. Tamil

116. The Bhoodan Movement, a voluntary land

reform movement in India was started by…………?

A. Vinoba Bhave

B. Mahatma Gandhi

C. Jaiprakash Narain

D. Rammanohar Lohia







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ANS: A. Vinoba Bhave

117. Ashoka was related to:

A. Haryana dynasty

B. Mauryan dynasty

C. Gupta dynasty

D. vardan dynasty

ANS: B. Mauryan dynasty

118.The number of puranas is

A. 18

B. 21

C. 23

D. 16

ANS: A. 18

119. Who spoke: ‘At the stroke of midnight, when

the world sleeps, India awakes to life and freedom?

A. C. Rajagopalachari

B. Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose

C. Mahatma Gandhi

D. Jawaharlal Nehru

ANS: D. Jawaharlal Nehru

120. Name the persian version of the mahabharata,

translated during Akbar’s reign:

A. Akbar Namah

B. Iqbal Namah

C. Saminatu-ul-Aluliy

D. Razmnamah

ANS: D. Razmnamah

121.The single biggest item of british capital

investment in india was/were:

A. Railways

B. Plantation and mines

C. Banking and insurance

D. All the above

ANS: A. Railways

122. Acharya Vinoba Bhave started the Individual

Satyagraha in 1940 from which of the following

place?

A. Guntur, Andhra Pradesh

B. Pavnar, Maharashtra

C. Nadiad, Gujarat

D. Adyar, Tamil Nadu

ANS: B. Pavnar, Maharashtra

123.Lala Lajpat Rai suffered fatal injuries during the

demonstration against the:

A. Cripps Mission

B. Simon commission

C. Jallianwala Bagh massacre

D. Rowlatt Act

ANS: B Simon commission

124. The only annual session of the congress presided

over by Gandhiji was:

A. Kakinada-1923

B. Belgaum-1924

C. Kanpur-1925

D. Guwahati-1926

ANS: B. Belgaum-1924







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125.Who wrote a book describing the theory of

economic drain of India during British rule

A. Dadabhai Naoriji

B. Lala Lajpat Rai

C. Mahatma Gandhi

D. J.L. Nehru

ANS: A. Dadabhai Naoriji

126.Partition of Bengal was done during the period

of:

A. Lord Curzon

B. Lord Clive

C. Lord Cornwallis

D. Lord Dalhousie

ANS: A. Lord Curzon

127.The golden period of Indian culture was during

A. Rajput Period

B. Gupta Period

C. Chola Period

D. Maurya Period

ANS: B. Gupta Period

128.Who introduced the silver coin called “Taka” or

‘Rupia’ ?

A. Sher Shah Suri

B. Akbar

C. Timur

D. Humayun

ANS: A Sher Shah Suri

129.Who started the Saka Era ?

A. Kanishka

B. Vikramaditya

C. Ashoka

D. None of these

ANS: A. Kanishka

130.Where was fought the battle of plassey?

A. Karnal

B. Haldighati

C. Mysore

D. Bengal

ANS: D. Bengal

131.Who was the founder of of Sikhism ?

A. Guru Nanak

B. Guru Ramdas

C. Guru Gobind Singh

D. Guru Arjun

ANS: A. Guru Nanak

132.Chanakya was the Prime Minister of

A. Chandra Gupta Maurya

B. Chandra Gupta

C. Ashoka

D. Bimbisar

ANS: A Chandra Gupta Maurya

133.In which year did the National Congress Passed

the resolution of total independence?

A. 1930

B. 1929

C. 1927







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D. 1916

ANS: B.1929

134.Which Governor General ended the Sati System?

A. Sir John Shore

B. Lord William Benttick

C. Lord Curzon

D. Lord Cornwallis

ANS: B. Lord William Benttick

135.Who formed the Asiatic Society of Bengal?

A. Cunningham

B. William Jones

C. R.D. Banerjee

D. Dayaram Sahney

ANS: B. William Jones

136.Who completed the construction of the Kutub

Minar ?

A. Kutubuddin Aibak

B. Iltutmish

C. Razia Begum

D. Shahjehan

ANS: B. Iltutmish

137. In Shivaji’s Council of Ministers, the Prime

Minister was called…………...?

A. Mantri

B. Peshwa

C. Sachiv

D. Samanta

ANS: B. Peshwa

138. Who dethroned the Mauryan dynasty ?

A. Pulkeshin 2

B. Jai Singh

C. Vikramaditya

D. Pushyamitra sunga

ANS: D. Pushyamitra sunga

139.During whose rule was Guru Arjun Dev hanged ?

A. Aurangzeb

B. Shahjehan

C. Jahangir

D. Farrukhasiar

ANS: C. Jahangir

140.Which of the following is called the mad emperor

?

A. Iltutmish

B. Kutubuddin Aibak

C. Muhammad Bin Tughlak

D. Aurangzeb

ANS: C. Muhammad Bin Tughlak

141.Which ruler died while coming down the ladders

?

A. Babur

B. Akbar

C. Dara Sikoh

D. Humayun

ANS: D Humayun

142.The poet Kalidas was contemporary of

A. Ashoka







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B. Chandragupta II

C. Alexander the great

D. Akbar

ANS: B. Chandragupta II

143.First Muslim invader who came to India in 712,

was

A. Mohammad Ghandi

B. Babur

C. Alauddin Ghori

D. Mohammad Bin Kasim

ANS: D. Mohammad Bin Kasim

144. Which among the following battle led to the

foundation of Muslim power in India?

A. The first battle of Panipat

B. The first battle of Tarain

C. The second battle of Tarain

D. The second battle of Panipat

Answer: C. The second battle of Tarain

145. Who among the following was the Guru of

Shivaji?

A. Ramdas

B. Namdev

C. Tukaram

D. Eknath

Answer: A. Ramdas

146. Who among the following was the founder of the

city of Agra?

A. Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq

B. Sikandar Lodhi

C. Firoz Tughlaq

D. Alauddin Khilji

Answer: B. Sikandar Lodhi

147.Chauri-chora incident is related to

A. Quit India movement

B. Non-cooperative movement

C. Civil disobedience movement

D. Partition of Bengal

ANS: B. Non-cooperative movement

148.Which of the following is the oldest dynasty of

India ?

A. Vardhan

B. Kushan

C. Maurya

D. Gupta

ANS: C. Maurya

149.Lala Lajpat Rai was opposing against - while he

become the victim of police atrocities

A. Rowlatt Act

B. Morley - Minto Reforms

C. Pitt’s India Act

D. Simon Commission

ANS: D. Simon Commission

150. ……………. was the first Muslim women who

ruled Northern India?

A. Nurjahan

B. Razia Sultana







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C. Mumtaz


Answer: B. Razia Sultana

151. ‘Do or Die’ was a forceful slogan during freedom

struggle. Who gave this call?

A. Gandhiji

B. J.L. Nehru

C. S.C. Bose

D. B.G. Tilak

ANS: A. Gandhiji

152.‘Red Fort’ at New Delhi was built by

A. Jehangir

B. Akbar

C. Shahjahan

D. None

ANS: C. Shahjahan

153. When was chillianwala war fought?

A. 1865

B. 1892

C. 1849

D. 1856

ANS: C. 1849

154.Which of the following Chola King is considered

as the greatest king?

A. Pulkeshjn II

B. Raj Simha

C. Karikala

D. Nandi Verman

ANS: C. Karikala

155.Chittorgarh was the capital of ________ dynasty.

A. Chauhan

B. Sisodia

C. Hada

D. Rathore

ANS: B. Sisodia

156.Doctrine of lapse is launched by:

A. Lord Curzen

B. Lord Mountbatten

C. Lord Dalhousie

D. Robert Clive

ANS: C. Lord Dalhousie

157. Swadeshi movement was officially declared on

A. 15 December, 1905

B. 7 August, 1905

C. 26 February, 1906

D. 18 July 1905

ANS:B 7 August, 1905

158.Who is known as frontier Gandhi?

A. Mahatma Gandhi

B. Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan

C. Rajgopalachari

D. Lal Lajpat Rai

ANS: B. Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan

159.Who was the first king of the Vijaya Nagar

empire?

A. Bukkaraya I







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B. Krishnadevaraya

C. Harihara I

D. Ramadevaraya

ANS: C. Harihara I

160. Which of the following pallava king used to right

Sanskrit drama.

A. Raja Raja chola

B. Mahendra Verman I

C. Raj Simha

D. Vikramaditya

ANS: B. Mahendra Verman I

161.Who led the Battle of Plassey?

A. Robert Clive

B. Lord Dalhousie

C. Warren Hasting

D. James Heartly

ANS: A. Robert Clive

162. Who was the architect who have designed New

Delhi?

A. Le Corbusier

B. Sir Edwin Lutyens

C. Andrew Paul

D. George Baker

ANS: B. Sir Edwin Lutyens

163.How many kingship state were in India during

Independence?

A. 347

B. 490

C. 565

D. 418

ANS: C. 565

164.The story of which of following King is describe

in Mudrarakshasa drama

A. Jaychand

B. Chandragupta II

C. Chandrapede

D. Chandragupta Maurya

ANS: D. Chandragupta Maurya

165.Which of the following queen of Ahmednagar

fought against Badshah Akbar?

A. Rani Durgavati

B. Zeenat Mahal

C. Chand Bibi

D. Razia Sultan

ANS: C. Chand Bibi

167.Who is known as the father of Modern Indian

Renaissance?

A. Mahatma Gandhi

B. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

C. Vinoba Bhave

D. Raja Ram Mohan Roy

ANS: D. Raja Ram Mohan Roy

168.At which place, Mohammad Bin Tughluq shift

his capital from Delhi?

A. Daulatabad

B. Aurangabad







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C. Allahabad

D. Saharanpur

ANS: A. Daulatabad

169.In which of the following country was hetaki

dynasty developed?

A. Sri Lanka

B. China

C. Nepal

D. Afghanistan

ANS: D. Afghanistan

170.Where was Rani Laxmibai died during fighting

against Britishers?

A. Varanasi

B. Gwalior

C. Morar

D. Jhansi

ANS: B. Gwalior

171.Which of the following Chinese monk had

travelled to India during Gupta Period.

A. Hiven Tsang

B. Fa Hien

C. I Ching

D. Le Xica

ANS: B. Fa Hien

172.Vidyapati was the famous poet and author of

which language?

A. Bhojpuri

B. Dogri

C. Maithili

D. Marathi

ANS: C. Maithili

173.First Hindi newspaper was published in 30 May,

1826. This day is observed as “Hindi Patrakarita

Day”. What was name of the newspaper?

A. Bengal Gazette

B. Amar Ujala

C. Udant Martand

D. Samachar Sudha Varshan

ANS: C. Udant martand

174.When was the “All India Muslim league”

established?

A. 1905

B. 1906

C. 1914

D. 1918

ANS: B. 1906

175. When was the national symbol of India adopted

by Indian government?

A. 15th August, 1947

B. 14th August, 1947

C. 26th January, 1950

D. 20th August, 1950

ANS: C .26th January, 1950

176.Harappan people did not worship which one of

the following Gods?

A. Shiva







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B. Vishnu

C. Pigeon

D. Swastik

ANS: B. Vishnu

177.The Indian National Army reclaimed the

Andaman and Nicobar Island from British rule and

named them

A. Swaraj Islands

B. Shaheed and Swaraj Island

C. Free Islands

D. Swatantra and Swaraj Island

ANS: B. Shaheed and Swaraj Island

178.What title did the British confer Gandhi with,

which was relinquished by him?

A. Rai Bahadur

B. Rai Sahib

C. Hind Kesari

D. Kaiser-e-Hind

ANS: D. Kaiser-e-Hind

179.When did the first and second Anglo-Sikh war

take place?

A. 1845-1850 and 1850-1851

B. 1843-1845 and 1846-1847

C. 1845-1846 and 1848-1849

D. 1850-1851 and 1852-1853

ANS: C. 1845-1846 and 1848-1849

180.The term “Indian Independence Movement” or

“Indian Freedom Struggle” encompasses

A. End of East India Company Rule (1757-1858)

and British Raj (1858-1947)

B. End of British Raj (1757-1947)

C. End of East India Company Rule(1750-1836) and

British Raj (1836-1947)

D. End of British Raj (1612-1947)

ANS: A. End of East India Company Rule (1757-1858)

and British Raj (1858-1947)

181.Chinese pilgrim Fa-Hein Visited India during the

period of which ruler?

A. Samudragupta

B. Chandragupta I

C. Kumaragupta

D. Chandragupta II

ANS: D. Chandragupta II

182.The Lion Capital (National Emblem of India) was

built during

A. The Mughal Empire

B. The Mauryan Empire

C. The Gupta Empire

D. The Buddhism/Jainism Period

ANS: B. The Mauryan Empire

183. Who among the following was the last Mughal

emperor?

A. Bahadur Shah II

B. Alamgir II

C. Akbar II

D. Shah Alam II







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Answer: A. Bahadur Shah II

184.India came directly under the rule of the British

Crown in the year ____.

A. 1857

B. 1858

C. 1859

D. 1856

ANS: B 1858

185. In which year Goa was captured by portuguese?

A. 1510

B. 1512

C. 1515

D. 1516

ANS: A. 1510

186.Tashkent Declaration followed Indo- Pak war of

A. 1947

B. 1965

C. 1971

D. 1999

ANS: B. 1965

187.Who replaced Viscount Louis Mountbatten as the

Governor General of India?

A. Pt. JawaharLal Nehru

B. SardarVallabhai Patel

C. Dr.Rajendra Prasad

D. Rajagopalachari

ANS: D. Rajagopalachari

188.Which of the Minarets were built by Muhammad

Quli Qutb Shah in membrance of plague eradiction.

A. Alai Minar

B. Char Minar

C. Fateh Burj

D. Qutub Minar

ANS: B. Char Minar

189.Which of the following Tourist place was built in

memory of King George-I and Queen Mary’s visit to

India?

A. India Gate

B. Gateway of India

C. Prince of Wales Museum

D. Victoria Terminus

ANS: B. Gateway of India

190. .In which year was the Ved Samaj established in

Madras?

A. 1860

B. 1852

C. 1847

D. 1864

ANS: D. 1864

191. Prior to independence, which of the following

isn’t a French Colony

A. Pondicherry

B. Patna

C. Surat

D. Goa

ANS: B. Patna







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192. Who ordered the Jallianwallah Bagh Massacre?

A. Colonel Reginald Dyer

B. Michael O’ Dwyer

C. H. H. Asquith

D. Winston Churchil

ANS: A. Colonel Reginald Dyer

193.Which country got Independence in 2011?

A. Eritrea

B. South Sudan

C. Slovakia

D. Brunel

ANS: B. South Sudan

194.Which of the following Mosques was built by

Mughal Emperor Shahjahan.

A. Jama Masjid, Delhi

B. Badshahi Masjid, Lahore

C. Kabuli Bagh Masjid, Haryana

D. Quila-e-Kuhna Masjid, Delhi

ANS: A. Jama Masjid, Delhi

195.Srilanka got independence as Dominion of

Ceylon in which year?

A. 1948

B. 1972

C. 1947

D. 1968

ANS: A. 1948

196.Who among the following Indian Prime Ministers was

born after India attained Independence?

A. Manmohan Singh

B. K. Gujral

C. Rajiv Gandhi

D. Narendra Modi

ANS: D Narendra Modi

197.Which one of the following does not belong to the

group?

A. Buland Darwaza

B. Agra fort

C. Gateway of India

D. Jodha Bai’s Palace

ANS: C. Gateway of India

198.Whom did Mahatma Gandhi consider as his

political guru or mentor?

A. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

B. Dadabhai Naoroji

C. Rabindranath Tagore

D. Motilal Nehru

ANS: A. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

199.In which year; Bhagat Singh was executed-

A. 1930

B. 1931

C. 1932

D. 1933

ANS: B 1931

200.Who was first women president of Indian

congress post independence?

A. Sonia Gandhi







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B. Indira Gandhi

C. Ambika Soni

D. Sarojini Naidu

ANS: B. Indira Gandhi

201. Who among the following was the first governor

of Portuguese who introduced the ‘policy of Blue

water’?

A. Martin Alfonso de Souza

B. Nino da Cunha

C. Francisco de Almeida

D. Alfonso d’ Albuquerque

ANS: C. Francisco de Almeida

202. Which among the following governor-general

introduced the Permanent Settlement System in the

year 1793?

A. Lord Chelmsford

B. Lord Ripon

C. Lord Cornwallis

D. Lord Canning

Answer: C. Lord Cornwallis

203.In which year the wall of Berlin was demolished?

A. 1999

B. 1982

C. 1991

D. 2000

ANS: C. 1991

204. Which is the ancient Sanskrit dictionary?

A. Vakyawratti

B. Dictionary

C. Amarakosha

D. Harshcharit

ANS: C. Amarakosha

205.Who advocated the introduction of western

education and English language in India?

A. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

B. Raja Ram Mohan Roy

C. Dadabhai Naoroji

D. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

ANS: B Raja Ram Mohan Roy

206.The origin of the tantric yogini cult is believed to

be from-

A. Uttar Pradesh

B. Bihar

C. Odisha

D. Rajastha

ANS: C Odisha

207.Shimla Agreement 1972 was signed by :

A. Foreign Ministers of India and Pakistan

B. Indira Gandhi and Zulfikar Ali Bhutto

C. Indira Gandhi and Benazir Bhutto

D. Atal Bihari Vajpayee and Pervez Musharraf.

ANS: B. Indira Gandhi and Zulfikar Ali Bhutto.

208.In which year was Rowlatt Act passed?

A. 1919

B. 1921

C. 1929







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D. 1916

ANS: A. 1919

209.Emperor Ashoka was successor of

A. Chandragupta Maurya

B. Bindusara

C. Sushima

D. Dasratha

ANS: B. Bindusara

210.When did Vasco da Gama land in India?

A. 1492

B. 1498

C. 1952

D. 1841

ANS: B. 1498

211.Which of the following is not a memorial to dead

person?

A. Bibi ka Maqbara

B. Taj Mahal

C. Charminar

D. Itmad ud Daulah

ANS: C. Charminar

212.Who is believed to have built Konark temple?

A. Narasimhadeva I

B. Mahendravarman

C. Kharvela

D. Pulakesin I

ANS: A .Narasimhadeva I

213.In which state are the famous Karla Buddhist

caves located?

A. Odisha

B. Maharashtra

C. Bihar

D. Assam

ANS: B .Maharashtra

214.Aruna Asaf Ali is remembered for hoisting the

INC flag at

A. Bombay

B. London

C. Berlin

D. Kolkata

ANS: A .Bombay

215.Who served as the first Deputy Prime Minister of

Independent India?

A. K. Kamaraj

B. Morarji Desai

C. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

D. Rajagopalachari

ANS: C. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

216.Who was the founder of Brahmo samaj?

A. Raja Ram Mohan Roy

B. Dayanand Saraswati

C. Mahatma Gandhi

D. Lokmanya Tilak

ANS: A. Raja Ram Mohan Roy

217.Who was the father of Subhash Chandra Bose?

A. Satyendra Nath Bose







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B. Janki Nath Bose

C. Jagdish Chandra Bose

D. S.N. Bose

ANS: B. Janki Nath Bose

218.Which one of these was a Indian mathematician?

A. Bharat

B. Bana

C. Bhaskara II

D. Bhavbhuti

ANS: C. Bhaskara II

219.What was another name of Chanakya?

A. Dev Varman

B. Vishnu Gupta

C. Ram Gupt

D. Brijeshwar

ANS: B. Vishnu Gupta

220.Famous Titanic ship belongs to which country?

A. U.S.A.

B. China

C. Great Britain

D. France

ANS: C. Great Britain

221.Who is called as “Bismark of India”.

A. Jawaharlal Nehru

B. Vallabhbhai Patel

C. Sarojini Naidu

D. Lokmanya Tilak

ANS: B. Vallabhbhai Patel

222.What was the code name of India- Pakistan

Kargil war?

A. Operation blue

B. Operation Vijay

C. Operation Virat

D. Operation Kargil

ANS: B .Operation Vijay

223. Which of the following British Prime Minister

headed the First Round Table Conference in

London?

A. Churchill

B. Ramsay McDonald

C. Chamberlain

D. Disraeli

ANS: B. Ramsay McDonald

224. Three freedom fighters including Bipin Chandra

Pal were popularly known as Lal-Bal-Pal. Who were

the other two?

A. Subhash Chandra Bose & Bal Gangadhar Tilak

B. Bal Gangadhar Tilak & Lala Lajpat Rai

C. Lala Lajpat Rai & Bhagat Singh

D. Ram Prasad Bismil & Bhikaiji Cama

ANS: B. Bal Gangadhar Tilak & Lala Lajpat Rai

225.Slave Dynasty was founded by

A. Qutubuddin Aibak

B. Mahmud Ghazni

C. Muhammad Ghori

D. Razia Sultana







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ANS: A. Qutubuddin Aibak

226.When did Bangladesh become an independent

parliamentary democracy?

A. December, 1971

B. January, 1972

C. March, 1972

D. February, 1972

ANS: B. January, 1972

227.Which religion has the concept of Triratna?

A. Sikhism

B. Jainism

C. Buddhism

D. Zorastrianism

ANS: C. Buddhism

228.The Mughal Empire extended upto Tamil

Territory in South under the reign of

A. Akbar

B. Aurangzeb

C. Jahangir

D. Shahjahan

ANS: B. Aurangzeb

229.The earliest city discovered in India was

A. Harappa

B. Punjab

C. Mohenjo Daro

D. Sindh

ANS: A .Harappa

230.Epigraphy means

A. The study of coins

B. The study of inscriptions

C. The study of epics

D. The study of geography

ANS: B. The study of inscriptions

231.The Harappan Civilisation was discovered in the

year

A. 1935

B. 1942

C. 1901

D. 1921

ANS: D. 1921

232.Which was the only Indus site with an artificial

brick dockyard?

A. Lothal

B. Kalibangan

C. Harappa

D. Mohenjo Daro

ANS: A .Lothal

233.Which of the following domesticated animals was

absent in the terracottas of the Indus civilisation?

A. Buffalo

B. Sheep

C. Cow

D. Pig

ANS: C. Cow

234.The language used to write source materials in

ancient time was







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A. Sanskrit

B. Pali

C. Brahmi

D. Kharosthi

ANS: B. Pali

235.The first metal used by man was

A. Alumunium

B. Copper

C. iron

D. Silver

ANS: B. Copper

236.Which Of the following scholars who was the first

to discovr the traces of the Harappan Civilisation?

A. Sir John Marshall

B. R. D. Banerji

C. A Cunningham

D. Daya Ram Sahani

ANS: C .A Cunningham

237.The Megalithic culture (500B.C-A.D. 100) brings

us to the historical period in South India, the

Megaliths used

A. weapons made of stone

B. tools & implements made of stone

C. graves encircled by big pieces of stones

D. articles of daily use made of stone

ANS: C graves encircled by big pieces of stones

238.Which ruler murdered his father Bimbisara to

ascend the throne ?

A. Ashoka

B. Ajatasatru

C. Kanishka

D. Simukha

ANS: B . Ajatasatru .

239.Who amidst the following was a wife of emperor

Ashoka who in Influenced him?

A. Chandalika

B. Charulata

C. Gautami

D. Karuwaki

ANS: D .Karuwaki

240.Tripitaka is the religious book of

A. Jains

B. Buddhists

C. Sikhs

D. Hindus

ANS: B. Buddhists

241.Charak was the famous court physician of

A. Harsha

B. Chandra Gupta Maurya

C. Ashoka

D. Kanishka

ANS: D. Kanishka

242.The Greeks were driven out of India by

A. Chandragupta Maurya

B. Chandragupta Vikramaditya

C. Ashoka







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D. Bindusara

ANS: A. Chandragupta Maurya

243.Who is the mother of mahavir ?

A. Yashoda

B. Trishala

C. Jameli

D. Mahamaya

ANS: B. Trishala

244. Prince of Pilgrims was the name attributed to

A. Fahien

B. Itsing

C. Hiuen Tsang

D. Megasthenes

ANS: C. Hiuen Tsang

245.Kalinga war took place in the year

A. 261 BC

B. 263 BC

C. 232 BC

D. 240 BC

ANS: A .261 BC

246.From which modem State did the Alwar saints

originate?

A. Tamil Nadu

B. Kerala

C. Karnataka

D. Maharashtra

ANS: A .Tamil Nadu.

247. Pancha siddhantham of Varahamihira deals

with

A. Astrology

B. Astronomy

C. Medicine

D. Anatomy

ANS: B .Astronomy

248. Who termed Cripps proposals as a postdated

cheque in a crashing bank

A. Ambedkar

B. Annie Besant

C. Patel

D. Gandhi ji

ANS:D. Gandhi ji

249.From which among the following rulers has the

Government of India borrowed and adopted its

symbols?

A. Ashoka

B. Krishnadevaraya

C. Pulakesin

D. Kanishka

ANS: A. Ashoka

250.Who among the following Mughal rulers has

been called the Prince of Builders?

A. Akbar

B. Jahangir

C. ShahJahan

D. Babur

ANS: C ShahJahan







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251. Vindhyashakti was the founder of _____dynasty

A. Kakatiya

B. Chola

C. Pandava

D. Vakataka

ANS:D. Vakataka

252.Which of the following languages was in vogue

during Mughal period in the courts of India ?

A. French

B. Persian

C. Portugese

D. Arabic

ANS: B .Persian

253.The Assam State derives its name from that of a

tribe that conquered the region. Where did the

tribesmen come from ?

A. Tibet

B. Mongolia

C. Burma (now Myanmar)

D. Siam (now Thailand)

ANS: D. Siam (now Thailand)

254.Ranthambhor was

A. a Mughal palace

B. a Rajput fort

C. capital of the Khalji’s

D. Pilgrimase center of buddisht

ANS: B. a Rajput fort

255.Lakh Baksh was a title given to the ruler

A. Iltutmish

B. Balban

C. Raziya

D. Qutubuddin Aibak

ANS: D. Qutubuddin Aibak

256.The foreign traveller who visited India during the

Mughal period and who left us an experts description

of the Peacock Throne was

A. Geronimo Verroneo

B. Omrah Danishmand Khan

C. Travemier

D. Austin of Bordeaux

ANS: C. Travemier

257.Amir Khusrau was a musician and

A. Sufi saint

B. Persian and Hindi writer and scholar

C. historian

D. All of the above

ANS:D All of the above

258. Who among the following Viceroys became a

victim of one of the convicts during his visit to the

Andaman?

A. Curzon

B. Mayo

C. Ripon

D. Lytton

ANS: B. Mayo

259.Coronation of Shivaji took place in







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A. 1627 A.D.

B. 1674 A.D.

C. 1680 A.D.

D. 1670 A.D.

ANS: B. 1674 A.D.

260.The Muslim adventurer who destroyed the

Nalanda University was

A. Allauddin Khilji

B. Muhammadbin Tughlak

C. Muhammad bin Bhaktiyar

D. Muhammad bin kashim

ANS: C. Muhammad bin Bhaktiyar

261. What was the name of the party launched by

Subhash Chandra Bose in 1939

A. Communist paty of India

B. Socialist Party of India

C. All India Forward Bloc

D. Azad Bengal Fauj

ANS: C. All India Forward Bloc

262. Which Battle laid the foundation of Mughal rule

in India

A. Battle of Plassey

B. Battle of Talikota

C. First Battle of Panipat

D. Battle of Haldighati

ANS: C. First Battle of Panipat

263. Dayananda saraswathi was the founder of which

of the following missions?

A. Chinmaya mission

B. Arya Samaj

C. Brahmo Samaj

D. Prarthana Samoj

ANS: B. Arya Samaj

264. Name the language that was designated as the

Camp Language during the Medieval Period

A. Sanskrit

B. Pali

C. Hindi

D. Urdu

ANS:D. Urdu

265.Khalsa Panth was created by Guru Gobind Singh

in which year ?

A. 1599

B. 1707

C. 1699

D. 1657

ANS:C. 1699

266. Who gave the title of Sardar to Vallabhbhai

Patel?

A. Rajaji

B. Gandhiji

C. Nehru

D. M.A. Jinnah

ANS:B . Gandhiji

267. Which of the following pairs is incorrect?

A. Babar vs. Sangram Singh







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B. Sher Shah vs. Humayun

C. Chengiz Khan vs. Alauddin Khilji

D. Akbar vs. Hemu

ANS: C. Chengiz Khan vs. Alauddin Khilji.

268.Who among the following attacked the Somnath

temple?

A. Mahmud of Ghazni

B. Muhammad Ghori

C. Iltutmish

D. Qulbuddin Aibak

ANS: A. Mahmud of Ghazni

269.When the rule of the Delhi Sultan began?

A. 1106 A.D

B. 1206 A.D

C. 1306 A.D

D. 1406 A.D

ANS:B. 1206 A.D

270.Tulsidas wrote Ram charit manas in the reign of

A. Babur

B. Akbar

C. Aurangzeb

D. Jahagir

ANS: B. Akbar

271.Who of the following became a member of the

Din-a- ilahi?

A. Todarmal

B. Raja Birbal

C. Raja Man Singh

D. Tansen

ANS: B. Raja Birbal

272. The Rig veda consists of -----hymns including the

apocryphal valakhilya hymns

A. 760

B. 1549

C. 1028

D. 1875

ANS: C.1028

273. The system of communal electorate in India was

first introduced by

A. Indian Council Act of 1892

B. Minto Morey reforms of 1909

C. Mantagu Cheknsford reforms of 1919

D. Indian Council Act of 1935

ANS: B. Minto-Morey reforms of 1909

274.When was the first train steamed off in India ?

A. 1848

B. 1853

C. 1875

D. 1880

ANS: B. 1853

275.In which session of Indian National Congress the

tricolour flag was unfurled for the first time ?

A. Calcutta Session 1920

B. Annual Session of Congress at Nagpur 1920

C. Lahore Congress 1929

D. Haripura Congress Conference 1938







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ANS: C. Lahore Congress 1929

276.Which among the following regulations made

English as a medium of education compulsory in

government aided schools and colleges ?

A. Pitts India Act 1784

B. Educational Despatch 1854

C. Macaulay Minute 1835

D. Regulating Act 1773

ANS: C. Macaulay Minute 1835

277.In which of the following years 26th January was

celebrated as an independence day

A. 1950

B. 1929

C. 1942

D. 1947

ANS:B. 1929

278. In which year did the Bostson Tea party take

place

A. 1773

B. 1774

C. 1775

D. 1776

ANS: A. 1773

279. In which year Salt Satyagraha took place?

A. 1929

B. 1930

C. 1931

D. 1932

ANS: B. 1930

280.Cabinet Mission came to India in the year

A. 1946

B. 1945

C. 1942

D. 1940

ANS: A. 1946

281. Which day was declared as the Direct Action

Day by the Muslim League

A. 3rd September 1946

B. 16th August 1946

C. 6th May 1946

D. 4th December 1946

ANS: B. 16th August 1946

282.When was the All India Womens Conference

founded

A. 1924

B. 1925

C. 1926

D. 1927

ANS: D. 1927

283.When and which Governor General decided to

make English the medium of instruction in India?

A. 1805 Lord Wellesley

B. 1845 Lord Hardinge

C. 1835 Lord William Bentick

D. 1850 Lord Dalhousie

ANS:C1835 Lord William Bentick







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284.The home of Gargi and Kapila was at

A. Vidisha

B. Ujjain

C. Pataliputra

D. Mithila

ANS:D. Mithila

285.The Social System of the Harappan’s was

A. Fairly egalitarian

B. Slave Labour based

C. Colour (Varna) based

D. Caste based

ANS: A. Fairly egalitarian

286.Which of the following Vedas provides

information about the civilisation of the Early Vedic

Age?

A. Rigveda

B. Yajurveda

C. Atharvaveda

D. Samaveda

ANS: A Rigveda

287.The university which became famous in the post

Gupta Era was

A. Kanchi

B. Taxlla

C. Nalanda

D. ValJabhi

ANS: C. Nalanda

288.Banabhatta was the court poet of which emperor

?

A. Vikramaditya

B. Kumaragupta

C. Harshavardhan

D. Kanishka

ANS: C. Harshavardhan

289.What Inspired the paintings of Ajanta ?

A. Compassionate Buddha

B. Radha Krishan Leela

C. Jain Thirthankaras

D. Mahabharata encounters

ANS: A. Compassionate Buddha

290.With which of the following is the classic Jivaka

Chintamani in Tamil associated ?

A. Jainism

B. Buddhism

C. Hinduism

D. Christianity

ANS: A. Jainism

291.Where did Lord Buddha breathe his last?

A. Rajgir

B. Bodh Gaya

C. Samath

D. Kushinagar

ANS: D. Kushinagar

292. In the integration of Princely States the following

played a major role.

A. Pannikar and Kunzru







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B. S.K. Dhar and Fazal Ali

C. Vallabhbhai Patel and V.P. Menon

D. Vallabhbhai Patel and Jawa har Lal Nehru

ANS: C Vallabhbhai Patel and V.P. Menon

293. Ganhadra school of art came into existence in

A. Hinayanasect

B. Mahayanasect

C. Vaishnavasect

D. Shaivasect

ANS: B. Mahayanasect

294.Who amongst the following also had the name

Devanama Piyadassi?

A. Mauiyan King Ashoka

B. Mauryan King Chandragupta Maurya

C. Gautam Buddha

D. Bhagwan Mahavira

ANS: A. Mauiyan King Ashoka

295.Whose achievements are recorded in the

Allahabad Pillar inscription ?

A. Chandra Gupta Maurya

B. Samudra Gupta

C. Vikramaditya

D. Skand Gupta

ANS: B. Samudra Gupta

296.The essential feature of the Indus Valley

Civilisation was

A. worship of forces of nature

B. organised city life

C. pastoral farming

D. caste society

ANS: B. Organised city life

297.Who was the author of the Kadambari a great

romantic play ?

A. Banabhatta

B. Harshavardhana

C. Baskaravardhana

D. Bindusara

ANS: A. Banabhatta

298.St. Thomas is said to have come to India to

propagate Christianity during the reign of

A. Cheras

B. Parthians

C. Pandyas

D. Cholas

ANS: B. Parthians

299.In which state was the Nalanda University

located in India?

A. Bengal

B. Bihar

C. Orissa

D. Uttar Pradesh

ANS: B. Bihar

300.Which event brought about a profound change in

Ashoka’s administrative policy?

A. The third Buddhist Council

B. The Kalinga War







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C. His embracing of Buddhism

D. His sending of missionary to Ceylon

ANS: B. The Kalinga War

301.The monk who influenced Ashoka to embrace

Buddhism was

A. Vishnu Gupta

B. Upa gupta

C. Brahma Gupta

D. Badrinath

ANS: B. Upa gupta

302.Harshvardhan was defeated by

A. Prabhakaravardhana

B. Pulakesin II

C. Narasimha svanna Pallava

D. Sasanka

ANS: B. Pulakesin II

303. The Greek ambassador sent to Chandragupta

Maurya’s Court was

A. Kautilya

B. Seleucus Nicator

C. Megasthenes

D. Justin

ANS: C. Megasthenes

304. Which one of the following was the last Buddhist

text produced In India

A. Divya Vandana

B. Dohakosa

C. Vajrachedika

D. Vamsathapakasini

ANS: D. Vamsathapakasini

305.Worship of Mother Goddess was associated with

A. Aryan Civilization

B. Mediterranean Civilization

C. Indus Valley Civilization

D. Later Vedic Civilization

ANS: C. Indus Valley Civilization

306.Alexander and Porus fought a battle at

A. Hydaspes

B. Jhelum

C. Panipat

D. Tarain

ANS: A .Hydaspes

307.After Alexanders death the Eastern part of his

empire came under

A. Seleucus Nicator

B. Menander

C. Rudradaman

D. Kanishka

ANS: A. Seleucus Nicator

308.In Mohanjadaro the largest building is

A. the great bath

B. a granary

C. the Pillared Hall

D. a two storeyed house

ANS: B. a granary

309.Who is called as the Second Ashoka?







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A. Samudra Gupta

B. Chandra Gupta Maurya

C. Kanishka

D. Harshavardhana

ANS: C. Kanishka

310. The famous Kailashnath Temple at Kanchi was

built by

A. Mahendra varman

B. Narasimha varman II

C. Nandi varnan

D. Danti varman

ANS: B. Narasimha varman II

311.The first Defence Minister of India was

A. K. M. Cariappa

B. Gopala swami iyer

C. Baldev Singh

D. Sardar Patel

ANS: C. Baldev Singh

312.What is the name of the era on which the

National Calendar of India is based?

A. Vikram era

B. Kali era

C. Saka era

D. None of above

ANS: C. Saka era

313. After Independence Hyderabad the State of

Nizam was taken over by the Indian Government

through

A. Police action

B. Military action

C. Persuasion

D. Negotiations

ANS: B. Military action

314.Who discovered sea route to India via the Cape of

Good Hope?

A. Vasco di Gama

B. Amundsen

C. Christopher Columbus

D. John Cabot

ANS:A. Vasco di Gama

315. The first Satyagraha of Gandhiji for the cause of

indigo farmers was observed at

A. Champaran

B. Chaura Chauri

C. Bardoli

D. Sabarmati

ANS:A .Champaran

316.During British rule who was instrumental for the

introduction of the Ryotwari system in the Madras

Presidency ?

A. Macartney

B. Elphinstone

C. Thomas Munro

D. John Lawrence

ANS:C. Thomas Munro

317.When the East India Company was formed the







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Mughal emperor in India was

A. Jehangir

B. Humayun

C. Aurangzeb

D. Akbar

ANS:D. Akbar

318.Which one of the following events did not take

place during the Viceroyalty of Lord Curzon?

A. Establishment of the Department of Archaeology

B. Second Delhi Durbar

C. Founding of Indian National Congress

D. Partition of Bengal

ANS: C. Founding of Indian National Congress

319.The sepoy mutiny of 1857 occurred during the

Governor Generalship of

A. Lord Dalhousie

B. Lord Lyttori

C. Lord William Bentick

D. Lord Canning

ANS:D. Lord Canning

320.Who coined the term Satyagraha?

A. Gandhi

B. Sri Aurobindo Ghosh


D. Ram Mohan Roy

ANS: A. Gandhi

321.Who is known as the Father of Indian Unrest ?

A. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

B. Lala lajpat Rai

C. Aurobindo Ghosh

D. Bipin Chandrapal

ANS:A. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

322.The first country which discovered sea route to

India was

A. Portugal

B. Dutch

C. French

D. Britain

ANS:A. Portugal

323.Which rebellion in Bengal was highlighted by

Bankim Chandra Chatterjee in his novel Anand

Math?

A. Chaur Uprising

B. Sanyasi Rebellion

C. Kol Uprising

D. Santhal Uprising .

ANS:B. Sanyasi Rebellion

324. The battle of Plassey was fought between

A. East India Company and Shah Alam

B. East India Company and Shujauddaula

C. East India Company and Sirajuddaula

D. East India Company and An waruddin

ANS: C. East India Company and Sirajuddaula

325. Who was the founder of Satya Shodak Sabha in

Maharashtra ?

A. Dr. Baba Saheb Ambedkar







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B. Dr. Atmaram Pandurang

C. Gopal Baba Wala

D. Jyothiba Phule

ANS: D. Jyothiba Phule

326.Under whose leadership was the Chittagong

Armory Raid organised ?

A. Sukhdev

B. Bhagat Singh

C. Surya Sen

D. Rajguru

ANS: C. Surya Sen

327.In 1939 Subhash Chandra Bose was elected as

President of the Congress Party defeating

A. Pattabhi Sitharamayya

B. Jawaharlal Nehru

C. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

D. VB Patel

ANS: A Pattabhi Sitharamayya

328.Who founded the Indian National Party In Berlin

during 1914?

A. Subhash Chandra Bose

B. W.C. Banerjee

C. Surendra nath Baneijee

D. Chempakaraman Pillai

ANS: D. Chempakaraman Pillai

329. The Poona Pact (1932) was an agreement

between

A. Nehru and Ambedkar

B. Gandhi and Ambedkar

C. Malaviya and Ambedkar

D. Gandhi and Nehru

ANS: B. Gandhi and Ambedkar.

330.Who was the viceroy when Delhi became the

capital of British India?

A. Load Curzon

B. Lord Minto

C. Lord Hardinge

D. Lord Wavell

ANS: C. Lord Hardinge

331.Who established the Indian Civil Liberties Union

in 1936 ?

A. Subhash Chandra Bose

B. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

C. Jawahar Lal Nehru

D. Rajendra Prasad

ANS: C. Jawaharlal Nehru

332. Which of the following was established first ?

A. Banaras Hindu University

B. University of Bombay

C. Aligarh Muslim University

D. University of Allahabad

ANS: B University of Bombay

333. Who gave the title of Mahamana to Madan

Mohan Malaviya ?

A. Dada Bhai Naurozi

B. Gopal Krishna Gokhale







of 349



C. Rabindra Nath Tagore


ANS: C. Rabindra Nath Tagore

334.Who said Truth is the ultimate reality and it is

God ?

A. Swamy Vivekananda

B. Rabindra Nath Tagore

C. M.KGandhi

D. Radhakrishnan

ANS: C .M.K.Gandhi .

335.Who founded the Naujawan Bharat Sabha ?

A. B.C.Pal

B. G. Subramania Iyer

C. Bagat Singh

D. Rukmani Lakshttiipath

ANS: C. Bagat Singh

336.The Peshwarship was abolished by the British at

the time of Peshwa

A. Raghunath Rao

B. Narayan Rao

C. Madhav Rao II

D. Baji Rao II

ANS: D. Baji Rao II

337. The Governor General of India impeached by

the House of Commons in England

A. Waaren Hastings

B. Cornwallis

C. Wellesley

D. William Bentick

ANS: A.Waaren Hastings

338.What is the name of the Fort built by the English

in Calcutta ?

A. Fort St. David

B. Fort St. Andrew

C. Fort William

D. Fort Victoria

ANS: C. Fort William

339.C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru formed the Swaraj

Party after

A. Swadeshi Movement

B. Non Cooperation Movement

C. Civil Disobedience Movement

D. Quit India Movement

ANS: B .Non Cooperation Movement

340. The Khilafath Movement was launched to

protest against the humiliation of

A. The Turkish Caliph

B. Aga Khan

C. Muhammad Ali Jinnah

D. Abul Kalam Azad

ANS: A. The Turkish Caliph

341. On April 12 1944 Subhash Chandra Bose hoisted

the INA Flag in a town. In which State Union

Territory is that town now ?

A. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

B. Tripura







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C. Manipur

D. Mizoram

ANS: C. Manipur

342.Who among the following revolutionaries was

executed by the British?

A. Jatin Das

B. Chandra shekhar Azad

C. Rajguru

D. Kalpana Dutt

ANS: C. Rajguru

343. Mahatma Gandhi launched the Civil

Disobedience Movement in 1930 from

A. Sabarmati Ashram

B. Ahmadabad

C. Porbandar

D. Dandi

ANS: A. Sabarmati Ashram

344.Kesari the Newspaper was started by

A. G.K. Gokhale

B. B.G. Tilak

C. Sardar Patel

D. Raja Ram Mohan Roy

ANS: B. B. G. Tilak

345.Whom did Bal Gangadhar Tilak refer to as his

Political Guru ?

A. Swami Vivekananda

B. Ram Mohan Roy

C. Sisir Kumar Ghosh

D. Dadabhai Naoroji

ANS: A. Swami Vivekananda

346.The Lahore Conspiracy Case was registered

against whom?

A. V.D. Savarkar

B. Bhagat Singh

C. Chandrashekhar Azad

D. Aurobindo Ghosh

ANS: B .Bhagat Singh

347.Aurobindo was arrested in connection with

A. Allipore Bomb Case

B. Kolhapur Bomb Case

C. Lahore Conspiracy Case

D. Kakori Case

ANS: A. Allipore Bomb Case

348.The National Anthem was first sung in the year

1911 at the Annual session of the Indian National

Congress held at

A. Pune

B. Mumbai

C. Kolkata

D. Lucknow

ANS: C. Kolkata

349.Who Is known as the Indian Bismarck ?

A. Vallabhai Patel

B. Subh ash Chandra Bose

C. Bhagat Singh








of 349



ANS: A Vallabhai Patel

350.India was granted freedom during the British

Prime Minister

A. Clement Attlee

B. Winston Churchill

C. Ramsay MacDonald

D. William Pitt

ANS: A Clement Attlee

Environmental

1. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?

A. Nitrous Oxide

B. Methane

C. Sulphur Hexa fluoride

D. Copper dioxide

ANS: D. Copper dioxide

2. Re-location of endangered of rare species from

their natural habitat to protected areas equipped

for their protection and preservation is called

A. Ex-situ conservation

B. In-situ conservation

C. Exile conservation

D. Escaped conservation

ANS: A. Ex-situ conservation

3. Where did the Chipko movement began?

A. Uttarakhand

B. Assam


D. Mizoram

ANS: A. Uttarakhand

4. Project tiger started in

A. 1975

B. 1976

C. 1948

D. 1973

ANS: D. 1973

5. Bharat Stage Emission standards refers to

A. Vehicular pollution

B. Industrial pollution

C. Water pollution

D. Soil pollution

ANS: A. Vehicular pollution

6. The group of gases which contribute to Global

warning

A. Methane, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone

B. Nitrogen dioxide, Hydrogen, Oxygen

C. Methane, Nitrogen dioxide, Oxygen

D. Methane, Hydrogen, Nitrogen

ANS: A. Methane, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone

7. When was the Environment Protection Act passed?

A. 1982

B. 1972

C. 1986

D. 1992







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ANS: C. 1986

8. Which of the following is NOT an effect of Noise

Pollution?

A. Death of Animals

B. Tinnitus

C. Hypertension

D. Ozone Depletion

ANS: D. Ozone Depletion

9. Minamata disease is caused by pollution of water

by:

A. Tin

B. Methyl isocyanate

C. Mercury

D. Lead

ANS: C. Mercury

10. Spraying of DDT on crops causes pollution of

__________

A. Air & Soil

B. Crops & Air

C. Soil & Water

D. Air & Water

ANS: C. Soil & Water

11. Acid rain is caused due to pollution of atmosphere

by

A. oxides of nitrogen and sulphur

B. oxides of nitrogen and phosphorous

C. oxides of carbon and nitrogen

D. oxides of nitrogen and methane

ANS: A. oxides of nitrogen and sulphur

12.Chernobyl disaster is the result of pollution

by_____________

A. Oil spill

B. Acid rain

C. Carbon dioxide

D. Radioactive waste

ANS: D. Radioactive waste

13. Which of the following disease is not caused by

water pollution?

A. Cholera

B. Typhoid

C. Asthma

D. Diarrhoea

ANS: C. Asthma

14. Highly polluted industries come under the colour

category of

A. Red

B. Blue

C. Black

D. Orange

ANS: A. Red

15. Ozone at the highest levels of the atmosphere is a

product of

A. UV radiation acting on oxygen

B. UV radiation acting on Helium

C. UV radiation acting on Hydrogen

D. UV radiation acting on Nitrogen







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ANS: A. UV radiation acting on oxygen

16. The most abundant of the rare gases is?

A. Helium

B. Argon

C. Neon

D. Nitrogen

ANS: B. Argon

17. Which of the following is an example of impact of

development activities on the Hydrosphere?

A. Air pollution

B. Soil pollution

C. Water pollution

D. Soil erosion

ANS: C. Water pollution

18. The equivalent of one Dobson unit is

A. 0.1m

B. 0.01m

C. 0.1mm

D. 0.01mm

ANS: D. 0.01mm

19. The living planet report releases every two years

is the flagship of which organsation?

A. The Nature Conservancy

B. Wildlife Conservation Society

C. World Wide Fund for Nature

D. Conservation International

ANS: C. World Wide Fund for Nature

20. Which hazardous substances can cause lung

cancer?

A. Benzene vapours

B. Asbestos particles

C. Arsenic

D. Herbicides

ANS: B. Asbestos particles

21. Substances that are broken down by biological

processes are said to be

A. Non-biodegradable

B. Reusable

C. Biodegradable

D. Non-reusable

ANS: C. Biodegradable

22.____protection must be worn whenever noise

levels exceed the noise exposure standard

A. Hearing

B. Eye

C. Foot

D. Head

ANS: A. Hearing

23. Breathing in about 900 parts of ____ in a million

parts of air for a short time causes fatigue, dizziness

and headache

A. Arsenic

B. Pesticides

C. Chloroform

D. Asbestos particle

ANS: C. Chloroform







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24. Which of the following classes of chemicals can

damage the ozone layer

A. Aromatic compounds

B. Phenols

C. Chloroflurocarbons

D. Antimicrobials

ANS: C. Chloroflurocarbons

25. Who among the following coined the term Global

Warming?

A. John Muir

B. Aldo leopold

C. Wallace Smith Boecker


ANS: C Wallace Smith Boecker

26. What is the greenhouse effect?

A. Turning of house green because of algae cove

B. Tuning of house green because of green

compound of white light

C. Warming of the Earth because of trapping of

radiations by the earth's atmosphere

D. None of these

ANS: C. Warming of the Earth because of trapping of

radiations by the earth's atmosphere

27. Which of the following is the largest compounding

of solar energy?

A. Bacteria

B. Protozoa

C. Fungus

D. Green plants

ANS: D. Green plants

28. Which among the following is not a natural

ecosystem?

A. Forest

B. Pond

C. Lake

D. Gardens

ANS: D. Gardens

29. Reduce. Reuse and ___are the three R's to save

the environment

A. Revise

B. Restore

C. Recycle

D. Recall

ANS: C. Recycle

30. Relative contribution of which of the following

green house is the most towards total global

warming?

A. Methene

B. Chlorofluocabons

C. Carbon dioxide

D. Nitrus oxide

ANS: C. Carbon dioxide

31. Which of the following primarily causes lead

pollution?

A. CFL lamp

B. Automobile Industry







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C. Polymer

D. Diesel engine

ANS: B. Automobile Industry

32.What was the main aim of Montreal protocol?

A. Protection of Ozone layer

B. Bio diversity conservation

C. Global Warming

D. Climate change

ANS: A. Protection of Ozone layer

33. Which of the following is a greenhouse gas or a

gas which can deplete the ozone layer?

A. BBr3

B. NH3

C. CH2N2

D. CCl2F2

ANS: D. CCl2F2

34. The solid waste is also known as

A. Sedge

B. Toxic waste

C. Sludge

D. Scubber

ANS: C. Sludge

35. The most abundant element in the earth's

atmosphere is

A. Argon

B. Nitrogen

C. Oxygen

D. Krypton

ANS: B. Nitrogen

36. Which of the following is the treatment of water

pollution?

A. Bag house filter

B. Windrow composing

C. Venturi Scrubber

D. Reverse osmosis

ANS: D. Reverse osmosis

37. Ultraviolet radiations in the stratosphere is

observed by

A. SO2

B. Ozone

C. Oxygen

D. Argon

ANS: B. Ozone

38. Which of the following caused radioactive

pollution along the coast of kerala

A. Plutonium

B. Zinc

C. Thorium

D. Radium

ANS: C. Thorium

39. What is called scientific analysis and study of

other very between organism and the environment?

A. Ecology

B. Microbiology

C. Entomology

D. Ornithology







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ANS: A. Ecology

40. What does BOD 5 refers to

A. Biochemical Oxygen demand in 5 days

B. Biochemical Oxygen demand in 5 hours

C. Biochemical Oxygen demand in 5 minutes

D. Biochemical Oxygen demand in 5 months

ANS: A. Biochemical Oxygen demand in 5 days

41. Sulphur dioxide pollution is indicated by an

excessive growth of which of the following?

A. Algal blooms

B. Lichens

C. Bryophytes

D. Potozoa

ANS: B. Lichens

42. Methane an air pollutant is produced

A. By action of ultraviolet light on nitogenous

compounds

B. As a by-product of manufacturing ammonial

fertilizers

C. By burning of coal in insufficient air

D. By digestion of food by animals

ANS: D. By digestion of food by animals

43. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?

A. CO2

B. CO

C. CH4

D. Water vapour

ANS: B. CO

44. The poisonous gas accidently released in Bhopal

gas tragedy is

A. Methane

B. Nitrous oxide

C. Methyl Isocyanate

D. Cyanogen

ANS: C. Methyl Isocyanate

45. Disadvantage of using DDT as Pesticide is

A. It becomes ineffective after some time

B. Not easily degradable in nature

C. Less effective than others

D. its high cost

ANS: B. Not easily degradable in nature

46. The Climate of which of the following national

park varies from tropical to sub-tropical, temperate

and arctic?

A. Mrugavani National Park

B. Namdapha National Park

C. Mouling National Park

D. Kaziranga National Park

Answer: B. Namdapha National Park

47. Taj Mahal is said to be suffering from marble

cancer due to

A. Smokes

B. Acid rain

C. Fungus

D. yellowing of marble

ANS: B. Acid rain







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48. Which one of the following gas is not a part of

atmosphere?

A. Nitrogen

B. Helium

C. Chlorine

D. None of these

ANS: C. Chlorine

49. Black Lung disease occurs in people working in

A. Electroplating industry

B. Organic solvent industry

C. Paint manufacturing industry

D. Coal mines

ANS: D. Coal mines

50. Brown air means

A. Acidic smoke

B. Industrial smoke

C. Photochemical smog

D. Sulphur smoke

ANS: C. Photochemical smog

51. Acid-Rain is mainly caused due to the emission of

which of the following two gases?

A. Sulphurdioxide and Nitrogen oxide

B. Methane and Sulphurdioxide

C. Methane and Nitrous oxide

D. Oxygen and Nitrous oxide

ANS: A. Sulphurdioxide and Nitrogen oxide

52. What is the term used for the gas molecules that

absorb thermal infrared radiation and are present in

large quantity to change climate system?

A. Ozone gases

B. Beta Radiations

C. Greenhouse gases

D. Alpha Radiations

ANS: C. Greenhouse gases

53. A hard fluid present in smog which cause

irritation in eyes

A. Nitric Acid

B. Sulphur

C. Peroxylacetyl nitrate

D. Carbon dioxide

ANS: C. Peroxylacetyl nitrate

54. Oxides of sulphur present in atmosphere washed

down by rain to cause

A. Industrial smog

B. Depletion of fossil fuel

C. Eutrophication in lakes

D. Lowering of pH of soil

ANS: D. Lowering of pH of soil

55. Which of the following metal highly pollute the

water?

A. Arsenic

B. Lead

C. Magnesium

D. Potassium

ANS: A. Arsenic

56. BOD value of water indicates







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A. Amount of organic debris

B. Amount of oxygen used for biochemical

oxidation

C. Amount of oxygen used for biochemical

reduction

D. Amount of ozone used for biochemical reduction

ANS: B. Amount of oxygen used for biochemical

oxidation

57.Supersonic jet causes pollution by thinning of

A. O3 layer

B. O2 layer

C. Co2 layer

D. So2 layer

ANS: A. O3 layer

58.Van Mahotsav is associated with

A. Cutting of trees

B. Planting of trees

C. Genetic modification of trees

D. increase in crops

ANS: B. Planting of trees

59. Which of the following is not a natural source of

hydrocorbon

A. Natural gas

B. Coal

C. Petroleum

D. Mica

ANS: D. Mica

60.Which of the following is a biodegradable

pollutant

A. Dye effluent

B. Bleaching effluent

C. Sewage

D. Heavy metals

ANS: C Sewage

61.Ozone layer is essential because it absorbs most of

the

A. Infrared radiations

B. Heat

C. Solar radiation

D. Ultraviolet-radiation

ANS: D. Ultraviolet-radiation

62.The Tajmahal is threatened due to the effect of

A. Oxygen

B. Hydrogen

C. Chlorine

D. Sulphur

ANS: D. Sulphur

63.Major aerosol pollutant in jet plane emission is

A. Sulphur dioxide

B. Carbon monoxide

C. Methane

D. Chloflurocarbon

ANS: D. Chloflurocarbon

64. Sound becomes hazardous noise pollution at level

A. Above 30 dB

B. Above 80dB







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C. Above 100 dB

D. Above 120 dB

ANS: B. Above 80dB

65._____ affect(s) the rate of humus formation of soil

A. Flora and Fauna

B. Time

C. Temperature

D. Parent rock

ANS: A. Flora and Fauna

66. Primary constituents of photochemical smog are

A. SO2 and CO

B. O3 and CO2

C. NO2 and hydrocarbons

D. Co2

ANS: C. NO2 and hydrocarbons

67. Montreal Protocol, an international

environmental agreement with universal ratification

to protect the earth’s ozone layer by eliminating use

of ozone was finalized in which year?

A. 1987

B. 1985

C. 1988

D. 1990

Answer: A.1987

68. Eutrophic lakes are highly

A. Productive

B. Enriched with phosphates

C. Both A and B


ANS: C. Both A and B

69. Result of deforestation

A. Increase in co2 concentration

B. Decrease in co2 concentration

C. Water pollution

D. All of the above

ANS: A. Increase in co2 concentration

70. Maximum noise permissible during daytime to

residential areas is

A. 75 dB

B. 55 dB

C. 65 dB

D. 45 dB

ANS: B. 55 dB

71. Greenhouse effect refers to

A. Cooling of earth

B. Trapping of UV rays

C. Production of cereals

D. Warming of earth

ANS: D. Warming of earth

72. Gases referred to as ‘greenhouse gases’ are

A. CO2,O2,NO2,NH3

B. CFC,CO2,NH3,N2

C. CH4,N2,CO2,NH3

D. CFC,CO2,CH4,N2O

ANS: D. CFC, CO2, CH4, N2O

73. El nino effect is due to __







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A. Odd climatic changes

B. Air pollution

C. Eutrophication

D. Biomagnification

ANS: A. Odd climatic changes

74. The act passed for air, water and soil pollution

was

A. Environment act 1986

B. Air act 1981

C. Water act 1974

D. Noise pollution act 2000

ANS: A. Environment act 1986

75. Sources of solid wastes are

A. Municipal wastes

B. Electrical wastes

C. Hospital wastes

D. All of these

ANS: D All of these

76. Identify the incorrect statement

Food chains and food webs play a very important role

in the ecosystem because

A. Energy flow takes place through them

B. Nutrient cycle takes place through them

C. It helps to maintain ecological balance

D. It shows biological magnification of all chemicals

ANS: D. It shows biological magnification of all

chemicals

77. The energy flow in an ecosystem takes place

through the food chain and it is

A. Multidirectional flow

B. Unidirectional flow

C. Two way flow

D. Downward flow

ANS: B. Unidirectional flow

78. The glasses of artificial green houses are

A. Transparent to incoming solar radiation but

opaque to outgoing infrared radiation

B. Opaque to incoming infrared radiation but

transparent to outgoing infrared radiation

C. Opaque to incoming solar radiation as well as

outgoing infrared radiation

D. Opaque to incoming solar radiation but

transparent to outgoing infrared radiation

ANS: A. Transparent to incoming solar radiation but

opaque to outgoing infrared radiation

79. The suspended solids present in surface water can be

determined by

A. Gravimetric test

B. Colourimetric test

C. Titrimetric test

D. Spectrophotometric test

ANS: A. Gravimetric test

80. The undesirable taste and odours caused by

dissolved gases may be removed by

A. Chemical treatment

B. Aeration







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C. Disinfection

D. Reverse osmosis

ANS: B. Aeration

81. The fluoride concentration less than prescribed

permissible limit may cause

A. Dental cavities

B. Spotting teeth

C. Discoloration of teeth

D. Flurosis

ANS: A. Dental cavities

82. According to Central Pollution Control Board

(CPCB), which particulate size in diameter (in

micrometres) of the air pollutants is responsible for

greatest harm to human health?

A. 2.0 or less

B. 2.5 or less

C. 1.5 or less

D. 3.5 or less

ANS: B. 2.5 or less

83. Which of the following waste can remain active

and dangerous for thousands of years

A. Factory waste

B. Biomedical waste

C. Nuclear waste

D. Domestic waste

ANS: C. Nuclear waste

84. What was the main aim of kyto protocol?

A. Climate change

B. Natural disaster

C. Global warming

D. Conservation of wetlands

ANS: A. Climate change

85. Soil erosion can be prevented by

A. Afforestation

B. Deforestation

C. Constructing Dams

D. All of these

ANS: A. Afforestation

86. Algal bloom results

A. Global warming

B. Eutrophication

C. Biomagnication

D. Salination

ANS: B. Eutrophication

87. Which of the following major pollutants are

released by the steel industry in India?

A. Oxides of sulphur

B. Oxides of carbon

C. Oxides od f nitrogen

D. All of the above

ANS: D. All of the above

88. Which of the following phenomenon adds carbon

dioxide to carbon cycle on the earth?

A. Respiration

B. Photosynthesis

C. Volcanic eruption







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D. Both A and C

ANS: D. Both A and C

89. The two components of ecosystem is

A. Hurb and Shurb

B. Abiotic and biotic

C. Forg and human

D. Plant and animal

ANS: B. Abiotic and biotic

90. Who had defined the concept of ecosystem?

A. Arthur Tansley

B. Evelyn Hutchinson

C. Raymond Lindeman

D. Charles Elton

ANS: A. Arthur Tansley

91. What is the noise level of normal conversation?

A. 60 dB

B. 70 dB

C. 80 dB

D. 90 dB

ANS: A. 60 dB

92. Cultivation is difficult on red soil because

A. .Its water holding capacity is less

B. Its highly contaminated

C. Biological components do not mix

D. Its red in colour

ANS: A. Its water holding capacity is less

93. Which of the following statement is true

A. Manures are generally added before the seeds are

sown

B. Manures can cause harmful effects to the soil

C. Fertilizers can be used for any crop

D. Manures are non-voluminous

ANS: B Manures can cause harmful effects to the soil

94. The process of removal of carbon particles from

the air involves which of the following principle?

A. Sedimentation

B. Filtration

C. Sedimentation

D. Electrophoresis

ANS: D Electrophoresis

95. Which of the following isn’t a source of water

pollution?

A. Ocean Dumping

B. Domestic Waste

C. Fishing in Sea

D. Oil Spill

ANS: C. Fishing in Sea

96. Which plant has been removed the purview of the

Indian Forest Act?

A. Acacia

B. Sand wood

C. Neem

D. Bamboo

ANS: D. Bamboo

97. Which of the following represent the maximum







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number of species among global biodiversity?

A. Fern

B. Lichen

C. Algae

D. Fungi

ANS: D. Fungi

98. Which of the following areas in India are known

as a hotspot of biodiversity?

A. Sunderbans Delta

B. Western Ghat

C. Eastern Ghat

D. Gangetic Plain

ANS: B. Western Ghat

99. The Red Data Book is the documentation of rare

and endangered species of

A. Animals

B. Plants

C. Fungi

D. All of these

ANS: D All of these

100. Which of the following is an example of a man-

made ecosystem?

A. Tissue culture

B. Aquarium

C. Herbarium

D. Forest

ANS: B. Aquarium

Computer

1.Optical Character Reader is an example of which

type of device?

A. Output device

B. Input device

C. Interface device

D. Storage device

ANS:B. Input device

2.___is the general term covering all the different

types of threats to your computer safety such as

viruses,spyware,worms.trojans,rootkits and so on?

A. Clickbait

B. Encryption

C. Malware

D. Spam

ANS:C. Malware

3._______is the most common way of connecting

computers on a network with a wired connection

A. Internet

B. Wi-Fi

C. LAN

D. Ethernet

ANS: D. Ethernet

4. Which among following first generation of

computers had ?







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A.Vaccum Tubes and Magnetic Drum

B. Integrated Circuits

C. Magnetic Tape and Transistors

D. All of above

ANS: A. Vaccum Tubes and Magnetic Drum

5.The sum of two binary numbers 1101111 and

1100101 is_______.

A. 11010100

B. 11110000

C. 10000011

D. 10001110

ANS:A.11010100

6. Which of the following first super computer series

is developed in Pune?

A. Science

B. Param

C. Dhanush

D. Shakti

ANS: B. Param

7. Which one is first super computer, developed in

1976?

A. Acorn Atom

B. Cray-1

C. PCW

D. PET

ANS: B. Cray-1

8.MMU stands for

A. Machine Memory Unit

B. Memory Management Unit

C. Main Memory Unit

D. Machine Management Unit

ANS: B. Memory Management Unit

9. Which one is input device?

A. Monitor

B. Printer

C. Floppy disk

D. Joy Stick

ANS: D. Joy Stick

10. Which of the following refers to the number of

pixels per inch, printed on a page?

A. Print Margin

B. Resolution

C. Filter

D. Colour mode

ANS: B. Resolution

11.In which generation of computer was

the mechanical language for programming

used?

A. First

B. Second

C. Third

D. Fourth

ANS: A. First

12. What is the full form of PDA?

A. Personal Data Assistant

B. Personal Digital Assistant







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C. Prime Data Assistant

D. Prime Digital Assistant

ANS: B. Personal Digital Assistant

13. Which of the following language is a official

language for development of Android?

A. Java

B. COBOL

C. FORTRON

D. Ada

ANS: A. Java

14. Who invented mouse of computer?

A. John Backus

B. Charles Babbage

C. Douglas Engelbart

D. Simon Calton

ANS: C. Douglas Engelbart

15. Which one is known as heart of the computer?

A. Software

B. Hardware

C. CPU

D. Monitor

ANS: C.CPU

16. Short key Alt+Enter is used for which of the

following function?

A. To assess one programme to another programme

B. To show the properties of the selected item

C. To open a new tab in a separate window

D. To force shutdown of the system

ANS: B. To show the properties of the selected item

17. Who is called the Father of Computer?

A. Vint Cerf

B. Tim Berner Lee

C. Charles Babbage

D. Steve Jobs

ANS: C. Charles Babbage

18. In a computer, what is the name of the high speed

memory used?

A. Cache

B. Ram

C. BIOS

D. Hard Disk

ANS: A. Cache

19. Which of the following keys should be pressed

simultaneously for highlighting the

text to the default font?

A. Ctrl + Home

B. Ctrl + Space bar

C. Ctrl + Shift + Z

D. Ctrl + Alt + F2

ANS: B. Ctrl + Space bar

20. A small city with limited geographical area

generally uses ___ for computer

networking.

A. CAN

B. MAN

C. LAN







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D. WAN

ANS: A.CAN

21. A compiler is a

A. Hardware

B. Software

C. Neither Hardware nor Software

D. Card

ANS: B. Software

22.Verification of log-in name and password is for

A. Authenticating the user

B. Re-confirming the user

C. Providing formal access to the user

D. Completing the formality of login-in

ANS: A. Authenticating the user

23.Project Loon is a search engine project by ___ for

providing internet access to rural

and remote areas using high-altitude helium-filled

ballons.

A. Google

B. Microsoft

C. Apple

D. Yahoo

ANS: A. Google

24.What does RAM stand for related to storage in

computers?

A. Random Access Memory

B. Real Access to Memory

C. Randomly Available Memory

D. Random Access Machine

ANS: A. Random Access Memory

25.What does CPU stand for in Computer Science?

A. Core Programming Utility

B. Central Processing Unit

C. Circuit Peripheral Unit

D. Controlled Power Usage

ANS: B. Central Processing Unit

26.What pointing device in computers functions by

detecting two-dimensional motion relative to its

supporting surface?

A. Pointer

B. Tracker

C. Mouse

D. Keyboard

ANS: C. Mouse

27.UNIX operating system is the Trademark of

A. Microsoft

B. Bell Laboratories

C. Apple

D. Motorola

ANS: B. Bell Laboratories

28.Which of the following isn’t an example of word

processor?

A. IBM Lotus Symphony

B. Microsoft Word

C. Google Docs

D. Microsoft Excel







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ANS: D. Microsoft Excel

29.The process when operating system is loaded from

Hard disc to main memory is called:

A. Booting

B. Fetching

C. Processing

D. Multi-Processing

ANS: A.Booting

30. Which of the following is NOT an early computer

A. Atlas

B. Leo

C. ENIAC

D. LINC

ANS: C.ENIAC

31.What is the full form of MICR?

A. Mutual Ink Character Reader

B. Magnetic Ink Character Recognition

C. Magnetic Ink Character Reader

D. Mutual Ink Code Reader

ANS: B. Magnetic Ink Character Recognition

32.On the basis of Memory size & performance,

which type of computer is known as "Big iron"?

A. Micro Computer

B. Mini Computer

C. Main Frame

D. Super Computer

ANS: C. Main Frame

33.Name the first search engine known to have

developed in the year 1990?

A. Bing

B. Google

C. Archie

D. Baidu

ANS: C. Archie

35.Which is NOT an operating system?

A. UBUNTU

B. DOS

C. BASIC

D. MAC OS X

ANS: C.BASIC

36. An error in computer programming is termed as--

A. Bug

B. Bit

C. Wires

D. None of these

ANS: A. Bug

37.IBM 701, IBM 702, IBM 650 are examples of ____

A. First generation computer

B. Second generation computer

C. Third generation computer

D. Fourth generation computer

ANS: A. First generation computer

38.The programs in a computer are called

A. Hardware







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B. Hard copy

C. Software

D. Softcopy

ANS: C. Software

39.Which of the following is also termed as main

memory of computer?

A. RAM

B. ROM

C. Hard disk

D. Compact disk

ANS: A.RAM

40.The process of connecting computer on a

communication system is known as?

A. Processing

B. Compiling

C. Networking

D. Hosting

ANS: C. Networking

41.Which of the following options is used to rename

the existing file and simultaneously save it a different

location in a computer?

A. Save

B. Find and Replace

C. Copy and Replace

D. Save as

ANS: D. Save as

42.The term 'hacker' was originally associated with

which of the following?

A. A computer program

B. Virus

C. Computer professionals who solved complex

computer problems

D. All options are correct.

ANS: C. Computer professionals who solved complex

computer problems

43.What is the file extension of a notepad in a

computer system?

A. .tet

B. .exe

C. .txt

D. .fil

ANS: C .txt

44.In Microsoft Word, File, edit, view etc. are

provided in _______________.

A. Standard tool bar

B. Menu bar

C. Formatting toolbar

D. Status bar

ANS: B. Menu bar

45.To delete columns or rows we can use the delete

option under the____in Microsoft Word.

A. Menu

B. Standard toolbar

C. Table Menu

D. Drawing toolbar

ANS: C. Table Menu







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46.Read only memory that can be modified only once

by a user is?

A. PROM

B. EEPROM

C. EPROM

D. MROM

ANS: A.PROM

47.The software which is used to prevent or remove

malicious software that damage the files in a

computer is?

A. Antivirus

B. No Worm

C. Anti Bug

D. Malware

ANS: A. Antivirus

48.An example of a Telecommunication device is?

A. Keyboard

B. Printer

C. Scanner

D. Modem

ANS: D. Modem

49.What is the full form of SMTP in computer

terminology?

A. Simple Mail Transport Protocol

B. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol

C. Sample Mobile Transmit protocol

D. Simple Mail Transmit Protocol

ANS:B. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol

50.Speed of modern day printers are measured in

A. Character per minute

B. Line per minute

C. Page per minute

D. Words per minute

ANS: C. Page per minute

51.What does CRISPR means?

A. Categorically Regularly Interspaced Short

Palindromic

B. Categorically Regularly Interspaced Short

Palindromic Repeats

C. Clustered Regularly Interspaced

Short Palindromic Repeats

D. Categorically Regularly Interspaced Short

Palindromic Repeats

ANS: C. Clustered Regularly Interspaced

Short Palindromic Repeats

52. After the Program is used by the users/the

creators. Which of the following program can’t

be modified in computer

A. EPROM

B. RAM

C. EEPROM

D. ROM

ANS: D.ROM

53. CAPTCHA is a computer program

A. To distinguish human input from machine input

B. To verify user identity







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C. To remove virus

D. A test administered by user.

ANS: A. To distinguish human input from machine

input

54. Which one of the following does not belong to the

group?

A. Malware

B. Phishing

C. Ransomware

D. Spam

ANS: D. Spam

55.Webpages are written using

A. HTTP

B. URL

C. HTML

D. FTP

ANS: C.HTML

56.What is cloud computing?

A. Service

B. Software

C. Hardware

D. Website

ANS: A. Service

57. Which of the following is not a search engine?

A. Yahoo

B. Bing

C. Flipkart

D. Gigablast

ANS: C. Flipkart

58.Which computer key is used to get help menu?

A. F1

B. F2

C. F10

D. F11

ANS: A.F1

59.Which of the following does not belong to the

group?

A. UNIX

B. MS-DOS

C. WINDOWS

D. FIREWALL

ANS: D.FIREWALL

60.IP address refers to.

A. A numerical network label

B. A dynamic link between two computers

C. A group of networks

D. Digital ‘know your client

ANS: A. A numerical network label

61. The function of BIOS is to

A. Initialize the system hardware components

B. Update the system

C. Ensure system performance

D. Save the system from crashing

ANS: A. Initialize the system hardware components

62.Which of the following is correct?

A. 1 Gigabyte=1,00,000 kb







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B. 1 Gigabyte=1,00,00 kb

C. 1 Gigabyte=10,000,00 kb

D. 1 Gigabyte=10,000,000 kb

ANS: C. 1 Gigabyte=10,000,00 kb

63.Which key on a windows keyboard sets to full

screen mode in most browsers?

A. F1

B. F10

C. F11

D. F12

ANS: C. F11

64.Which of the following statements is true with

respect to ASCII?

A. A programming language

B. ASCII chart is not for decimals

C. American security code for

information interchange

D. A character encoding scheme

ANS: C. American security code for

information interchange

65.What is light pen?

A. Micro tip pen

B. Input device

C. Pen to write in the dark

D. Weightless pen

ANS: B. Input device

66.What is LAN in computer language?

A. Largest Area Network

B. Local Area Network

C. Legal Area Network

D. Longest Area Network

ANS: B. Local Area Network

67.Which of the following does computing in a

personal computer?

A. CPU

B. Motherboard

C. RAM

D. BIOS

ANS: A.CPU

68.Debugging the process of

A. Rolling out a software programme

B. Modifying software programme

C. Checking errors in a software programme

D. Changing the design structure of programme.

ANS: C. Checking errors in a software programme

69.What is the full form of TCP in relation

of computer network?

A. Transmission Control Protocol

B. Transfer Cali Plan

C. Transfer Control Process

D. Transmission Call protocol

ANS: A. Transmission Control Protocol

70.What is cache memory.

A. RAM

B. ROM

C. EROM







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D. EPROM

ANS: A.RAM

71.What is MS Office?

A. System software

B. Application software

C. Operating system software

D. Coding language

ANS: B. Application software

72.The full form of BIOS is

A. Binary Interchange Operation System

B. Basic Input Output System

C. Biginners Input Operation Symbol

D. Basic Interface Oriented Service

ANS: B. Basic Input Output System

73.ICT is the common abbreviation of

A. International Communication Technology

B. Intelligent Communication Technology

C. Inter-state Communication Technology

D. Information and Communication Technology

ANS: D. Information and Communication Technology

74.The format for storing digital audio in Multimedia

application is :

A. JPEG

B. TIFF

C. WAV

D. BMP

ANS: C.WAV

75. Full form of URL is?

A. Uniform Resource Locator

B. Uniform Resource Link

C. Uniform Registered Link

D. Unified Resource Link

ANS: A. Uniform Resource Locator

76. Conceptually, the circuitry of a central processing

unit (CPU) can be subdivided into two major

subunits. Which one of the following units would

perform the required arithmetic and comparison

operations ?

A. ALU

B. Control unit

C. RAID unit

D. Fuzzy logic unit

ANS: A. ALU

77.The binary equivalent of 63 is:

A. 1100011

B. 1111111

C. 111111

D. None of these

ANS: C.111111

78.Which one of the is not an internal DOS command

?

A. RD

B. TIME

C. FORMAT

D. TYPE

ANS: C. FORMAT







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79. Which of the following has the smallest storage

capacity?

A. CD

B. DVD

C. Zip disk

D. Floppy disk

ANS: D. Floppy disk

80.What is the full form of the acronym VSAT ?

A. Very Small Aperture Terminal

B. Virtual System Aperture Terminal

C. Very Small Antenna Technology

D. Virtual System Antenna Technology

ANS: A. Very Small Aperture Terminal

81. The smallest unit in a digital system is a.........

A. Bit

B. Byte

C. Character

D. Kilobyte

ANS: A. Bit

82. Dot-matrix is a type of:

A. Tape

B. Disk

C. Printer

D. Bus

ANS: C. Printer

83. ‘Blaise Pascal’ is associated with

A. Calculating machine

B. Computer

C. Cinema

D. Light

ANS: A. Calculating machine

84.By default, your document print in ---- mode.

A. Landscape

B. Portrait

C. Page Setup

D. Print View

ANS: B. Portrait

85.Compiler and interpreters are examples of :

A. System software

B. Application software

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of these

ANS: A. System software

86.Which of the following is a presentation graphics

software ?

A. MS Windows

B. MS Word

C. MS Excel

D. MS PowerPoint

ANS:D.MS PowerPoint

87.Which of the following flip-flops is used as Latch ?

A. JK flip-flop

B. RS flip-flop

C. D flip-flop

D. T flip-flop

ANS: B.RS flip-flop







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88.Which of the following is a universal gate ?

A. AND

B. NAND

C. NOR

D. Both NAND and NOR

ANS: D. Both NAND and NOR

89.The term 'Operating System' means :

A. A set of programmes which controls computer

working

B. The way a computer operator works

C. Conversion Of high level language into machine

level language

D. None of these

ANS: A. set of programmes which controls computer

working

90.Mac OS was introduced by

A. IBM

B. Microsoft

C. Apple

D. Micromax

ANS: C. Apple

91.Which one is not a network protocol?

A. SSH

B. HTML

C. PPP

D. POP

ANS: B.HTML

92'.docx' file is created with

A. Spreadsheet

B. Powerpoint

C. Word processor

D. Paint

ANS: C. Word processor

93.Windows 10 is

A. an utility software.

B. a browser.

C. an application software.

D. an operating system.

ANS: D.an operating system

94.Which of the storage device of computers has now

become obsolete?

A. Floppy

B. CD ROM

C. Pen drive

D. Hard disk

ANS: A. Floppy

95. WWW stands for ?

A. World Whole Web

B. Wide World Web

C. Web World Wide

D. World Wide Web

ANS: D. World Wide Web

96. Junk e-mail is also called ______

A. Spam

B. Spoof

C. Sniffer script







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D. Spool

ANS: A. Spam

97. A _______ is a software program used to view

Web pages.

A. site

B. host

C. link

D. browser

ANS: D. Browser

98. Which among the following is a network type in

which every computer and network device is

connected to a single cable?

A. Bus topology

B. Ring topology

C. Mesh topology

D. Star topology

ANS:A. Bus topology

99. _______ is a method of trying to gather personal

information using deceptive e-mails and websites?

A. Phishing

B. Hacking

C. Cyber Bullying

D. Cyber stalking

ANS:A. Phishing

100.Which among the following is not an extension of

a picture file on a computer

A. .jpg

B. .gif

C. .png

D. .tpg

ANS:D. tpg

Static GK

1.Which of the following folk dances is from Punjab?

A. Bagurumba

B. Giddha

C. Nati

D. Lezim

ANS:B.Giddha

2.Classical musician TR Mahalingam is associated

with which musical instrument?

A. Sarod

B. Santoor

C. Sitar

D. Flute

ANS:D.Flute

3.”My unforgettable Memories” is the autobiography

of

A. Nitish Kumar

B. Mamta Banerjee

C. Jayalalitha

D. Aravind Kejiriwal

ANS:B.Mamta Banerjee







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4.Who is popularly known as “The Picasso of India”?

A. Kanu desai

B. Ramkinkar Baji

C. Abanindranath Tagore

D. M.F.Hussain

ANS: D. M.F.Hussain

5.Which country does not from a part of the Middle

east?

A. Honduras

B. Yemen

C. Syria

D. Turkey

ANS:A.Honduras

6.Which one of these is a harvest festival?

A. Janmashtami

B. Onam

C. Deepawali

D. Teej

ANS:B.Onam

7.Name tha painter of the famous painting

‘Mahishasura’

A. Amrita sher-Gil

B. Raja Ravi Verma

C. MF Hussain

D. Tyeb Mehta

ANS:D.Tyeb Mehta

8.RK Narayanan is famous for his book

A. The Toom on the Roof

B. Two Lives

C. Malgudi days

D. A suitable boy

ANS:C.Malgudi days

9.Who was the first governor of the Reserve Bank of

India?

A. KR Puri

B. Sir Osborne A Smith

C. Sir James Braid taylor

D. HVR Iyengar

ANS:B.Sir Osborne A Smith

10.Latvia is a country on the Baltic Sea between

Lithuania and Estonia known for its strong national

identity, diverse culture, modern cities and

landscapes ranging from wide beaches to dense,

sprawling forests. Capital city of Latvia is?

A. Damascus

B. Havana

C. Bandar Seri Begawan

D. Riga

ANS: D.Riga

11.Whose autobiography is “Life on my terms?

A. Sharad Pawar

B. Shashi Tharoor

C. Chetan Bhagat

D. Pranab Mukherjee

ANS :A. Sharad Pawar

12. What is English Ivy?







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A. A famous football league

B. A flower of violet colour

C. A common poisonous plant in USA

D. A type of English tea

ANS: C. A common poisonous plant in USA

13. What do you understand by Pravasi Bhartiya

Divas (PBD), when was it started?

A. A Day commemoration NRI sportsmen, January

15th 2014

B. A Day to felicitate Indian Marine Engineers, 17th

July 2014

C. A Day commemorating the return of Mahatma

Gandhi from South Africa on 9 Jan 1915.

D. A Day celebrating Shri Atal BihariVajpayee’s

Economic Resurgence, 1st September 2014

ANS: C. A Day commemorating the return of

Mahatma Gandhi from South Africa on 9 Jan 1915.

14.Real currency belongs to which country?

A. China

B. Cuba

C. Brazil

D. Gambia

ANS: C. Brazil

15. Which Indian city is known as “The City Of

Pearls” as once it was the only global center of large

diamonds and natural pearls made?

A. Hyderabad

B. Jodhpur

C. Ahmedabad

D. Chennai

ANS: A. Hyderabad

16.Euro is the currency of

A. United Kingdom

B. Sweden

C. Euro Zone

D. Denmark

ANS: C.Euro Zone

17.National good governance day is observed in India

on-

A. December 24

B. December 25

C. December 26

D. December 31

ANS: B.December25

18.Rupee sign ‘___’ is a

A. Devanagari letter

B. Roman letter

C. Sanskrit Script

D. A combination of Roman and Devanagari letters

ANS: D. A combination of Roman and Devanagari

letters

19.Thomas cup belongs to which sport?

A. Tennis

B. Badminton

C. Table Tennis

D. Hockey







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ANS: B.Badminton

20.Who was the first recipient of Dada Saheb Phalke

Award?

A. Prithvi Raj Kapoor

B. Lata Mangeshker

C. Satyajit Roy

D. Devika Rani

ANS: D.Devika Rani

21.‘Grand Slam’ refers to winning certain major

tennis tournaments in a single calendar year. The

name of the tournaments are

A. Australian Open, French Open and US Open

B. Australian Open, French Open, US Open and

Wimbledon

C. French Open, US Open and Wimbledon

D. French Open, US Open and Wimbledon and

Olympic

ANS: B. Australian Open, French Open, US Open and

Wimbledon

22.When is Earth Day celebrated?

A. September 18th

B. August 25th

C. April 22nd

D. April 7th

ANS: C.April 22nd

23.Who wrote ‘The autobiography of an Unknown

Indian?

A. Mahatma Gandhi

B. Nirad C. Chaudhari

C. Salman Rushdie

D. R.K. Narayan

ANS: B. Nirad C. Chaudhari

24.What is The Laccadive Sea otherwise known as?

A. Mannar Sea

B. Sri Lanka Sea

C. Lakshadweep Sea

D. Maldives Sea

ANS: C. Lakshadweep Sea

25.Where is the Shore Temple located?

A. Mahabalipuram


C. Dwarka

D. Vishakhapatnam

ANS: A. Mahabalipuram

26.Name India’s first satellite.

A. Aryabhatta

B. Lagadha

C. Brahmagupta

D. Lalla

ANS: A. Aryabhatta

27.Who is popularly known as the Father of White

Revolution in India?

A. AnandDoodhwalla

B. Dr.VergheseKurien

C. Tribhuvandas Patel

D. Karsanbhas Patel







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ANS: B. Dr.VergheseKurien

28.In which year was the economic liberalization in

India initiated?

A. 2005

B. 2014

C. 1978

D. 1991

ANS: D.1991

29. Which chessman is most powerful in the game of

chess?

A. King

B. Queen

C. Elephant

D. Horse

ANS: B.Queen

30. Osama Bin Laden was killed at ____in 2011.

A. Pakistan

B. Sudan

C. Afghanistan

D. Iran

ANS: A. Pakistan

31. Which of the following is a tsunami warning sign?

A. Stormy weather

B. Hailstorm

C. Water falling back quickly from the beach.

D. Pets acting strangely

ANS: C .Water falling back quickly from the beach.

32. ____ was the first female Prime Minister of Sri

Lanka.

A. Ranasinghe Premadasa

B. Dingiri Band Wijetunge

C. Sirimavo Bandaranaike

D. Chandrika Kumaratunga

ANS: C. Sirimavo Bandaranaike

33. Bill Gates co-founded ‘Microsoft Corporation’ in

1975 with _______.

A. Chris Hughes

B. Tim Berners Lee

C. Steve Paul Jobs

D. Paul G. Allen

ANS: D. Paul G. Allen

34. The basic concept of Montessori education is

__________.

A. Discovery by travelling

B. Dreaming

C. Communicating

D. Self-discovery through experiment

ANS: D. Self-discovery through experiment

35. Who was the first person to walk inspace?

A. Neil Armstrong

B. Rakesh Sharma

C. Alexei Leonov

D. Johannes Kepler

ANS: C. Alexei Leonov







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36. Statue of Lord Bahubali (religious guru of Jains)

is also known by the name of ______.

A. Statue of Gomateshwara

B. Statue of Udayagiri

C. Statue of Borobudur

D. Statue of Pavapuri

ANS: A. Statue of Gomateshwara

37.The Wellington trophy is associated with which of

the following sport?

A. Polo

B. Yachting

C. Rowing

D. Shooting

ANS: C. Rowing

38. Banaras Hindu University was founded by

A. Gulzari Lal Nanda

B. Madan Mohan Malaviya

C. Jay Prakash Narayan

D. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan

ANS: B. Madan Mohan Malaviya

39. NGT stands for

A. National Geographic Television

B. National Green Transport

C. National Green Trust

D. National Green Tribunal

ANS: D. National Green Tribunal

40. Headquarters of NASA is at

A. New York

B. Washington

C. Boston

D. Texas

ANS: B. Washington

41. The technology developed to track enemy

submarines in World War II was

A. RADAR

B. SONAR

C. Echolocation

D. LIDAR

ANS: B. SONAR

42. Statue of Liberty is situated in

A. Paris

B. Washington

C. Geneva

D. New York

ANS: D. New York

43. Capital of Nagaland is

A. Dimapur

B. Kohima

C. Mokokchung

D. Tezpur

ANS: B. Kohima

44.In chess, which of the following piece moves

straight but captures the opponent diagonally

A. Knight

B. Rook

C. Bishop







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D. Pawn

ANS: D.Pawn

45. Maanch is the folk dance of

A. Haryana

B. Kerala

C. Assam

D. Madhya Pradesh

ANS: D. Madhya Pradesh

46. According to constitution what should be the

proportion of length and Breadth of the National

Flag.

A. 3 : 2

B. 3 : 1

C. 2 : 1

D. 4 : 3

ANS: A.3:2

47. National Anthem was written by:

A. Ravindra Nath Tagore

B. Bankimchandra Chatterjee

C. V. Subba rao

D. Pingali Venkaiah

ANS: A. Ravindra Nath Tagore

48. Ramkheliya is the Folk Dance of which state?

A. Haryana

B. Kerala

C. Bihar

D. Madhya Pradesh

ANS: C. Bihar

49. In the sport of Badminton which of these is a hard

hit overhead shot in which shuttle goes at a very fast

pace towards floor in opponents court.

A. Smash

B. Wood shot

C. Hairpin shot

D. Drive

ANS: A.Smash

50. Who was the chief architect of Indian Parliament

situated in New Delhi

A. Sir Edwin Lutens and Sir Herbert Baker

B. Duke of Connaught

C. Sir John Archer and Sir Edward Batley

D. Sir Claude Batley and Sir John Begg)

ANS: A. Sir Edwin Lutens and Sir Herbert Baker

51. Who is supposed to have said- ‘Live as if you were

to die tomorrow ; learn as if you were to Live

forever’.

A. Mahatma Gandhi

B. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

C. APJ Abdul Kalam

D. Chanakya

ANS: A. Mahatma Gandhi

52. Which of the following was built by ancient Incas?

A. City of petra

B. Hagia Sophia

C. Machu Picchu

D. Acropolis







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ANS: C. Machu Picchu

53. Who founded the twitter?

A. Mark Zuckerberg

B. Tim Cook

C. Noah Ark

D. Evan Williams

ANS: D.Evan Williams

54. What is specific about sword-billed

hummingbird?

A. It is the smallest bird in the world.

B. Its peeker is longer than its remaining body.

C. It is found in Antartica only.

D. It cannot fly.

ANS: B. Its peeker is longer than its remaining body.

55. “Free Style” world is related with:

A. Tennis

B. Kho-Kho

C. Kabaddi

D. Swimming

ANS: D. Swimming

56. Which marble temple is made by Vimal Shah?

A. Dilwara Temple

B. Brahdeshwar Temple

C. Omkareshwar Temple

D. Ranakpur Adinath Temple

ANS: A Dilwara Temple

57. What is the old name of Singapore?

A. Temasek

B. Myanmar

C. Ceylon

D. Bohemia

ANS: A. Temasek

58. The biggest statue of Jesus Christ is located in

which country

A. Brazil

B. Mexico

C. Italy

D. Peru

ANS: A. Brazil

59. What is the meaning of MRP written on package

of any product?

A. Marginal Retail Price

B. Maximum Retail Price

C. Monopoly Retail Product

D. Maximum Recycle Product

ANS: B. Maximum Retail Price

60. How much maximum score can be done in ten pin

bowling game?

A. 100

B. 200

C. 300

D. 400

ANS: C.300

61. The credit of construction of great wall of China

goes to

A. Qin Shi Huang







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B. Fa-Hien

C. Xuanzang or Hiuen Tsang

D. Yijing

ANS: A. Qin Shi Huang

62. Which of the following is the fastest animal in

world

A. Dog

B. Panther

C. Tiger

D. Horse

ANS: B.Panther

63. In which of the following game ‘ Bagel’ word use?

A. Tennis

B. Cricket

C. Squash

D. Boxing

ANS: A.Tennis

64. Where is Nobel Museum situated in the world?

A. Norway

B. Stockholm

C. Denmark

D. London

ANS: B. Stockholm

65.In which year were the Asian Games held in

India?

A. 1978

B. 1982

C. 1986

D. 1990

ANS: B. 1982

66. The first woman to become the Chief Minister of

an Indian State.

A. Nandini Satpathy

B. Mayawati

C. Sushma Swaraj

D. Sucheta Kriplani

ANS: D. Sucheta Kriplani

67.National Unity Day (Rashtriya Ekta Divas) was

observed in India in the year 2015 on.

A. 31st August

B. 30th September

C. 31st October

D. 30th November

ANS: C. 31st October

68.Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant is located in

which state?

A. Andhra Pradesh

B. Karnataka

C. Tamil Nadu

D. Kerala

ANS: C. Tamil Nadu

69.The term ‘Golden Revolution’ is most closely

related to which of the following missions ?

A. National Mission on Clean Coal Technologies.

B. National Bamboo Mission.

C. National Solar Mission.







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D. National Horticulture Mission.

ANS: D. National Horticulture Mission.

70."Halfway to Heaven" is the slogan adopted to

promote tourism by which Indian state?

A. Meghalaya

B. Jammu and Kashmir

C. Sikkim

D. Uttarakhand

ANS: A.Meghalaya

71.Raj Ghat is the memorial of ___________.

A. Indira Gandhi

B. Rajiv Gandhi

C. Mahatma Gandhi

D. Jawaharlal Nehru

ANS: C. Mahatma Gandhi

72.The headquarters of the Indian Institute of

Astrophysics is located in _____.

A. Shillong

B. Indore

C. Nainital

D. Bangalore

ANS: D. Bangalore

73.The hill station of Kalimpong is situated in _____.

A. West Bengal



D. Sikkim

ANS: A.West Bengal

74.The National Diamond Institute is located at:

A. Gandhinagar

B. Vadodara

C. Vapi

D. Surat

ANS: D.Surat

75.As of 2018, the largest producer of cocoa bean is

______.

A. Ivory Coast

B. Brazil

C. Cuba

D. India

ANS: A.Ivory Coast

76.Blue jay or Indian Roller is the state bird of how

many Indian states?

A. 4

B. 5

C. 2

D. 3

ANS: D.3

77.'Uthagamandalam' is the other name of which of

these hill stations?

A. Darjeeling

B. Kodaikanal

C. Nainital

D. Ooty

ANS: D. Ooty







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78.In which district of Jharkhand is Tagore Hill

located?

A. Simdega

B. Ranchi

C. Gumla

D. Lohardaga

ANS: B.Ranchi

79.Which Indian waterfall has four distinct falls

namely Raja, Rani, Rocket and Roarer in it?

A. Athirapilly

B. Dudhsagar

C. Jog

D. Hirni

ANS: C.Jog

80.Tipaimukh Dam is in which of the following

states?

A. Tripura

B. Mizoram

C. Nagaland

D. Manipur

ANS: D. Manipur

81.Who designed prevalling National flag of India?

A. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

B. Madam Cama

C. Pingali Venkayya

D. Sucheta Kriplani

ANS: C.Pingali Venkaya

82.In which country is Canton Tower situated?

A. China

B. Turkey

C. Kuwait

D. Dubai

ANS: A.China

83.Where is Sihravanabelagola situated?

A. Orisha

B. Kerala

C. Tamil Nadu

D. Karnataka

ANS: D. Karnataka

84.Which of the following is capital of Arunachal

Pradesh?

A. Agartala

B. Shillong

C. Itanagar

D. Dispur

ANS: C. Itanagar

85.In which of the year for the first time

Commonwealth Game was hosted by India?

A. In 1990

B. In 1998

C. In 2002

D. In 2010

ANS: D. In 2010

86.By which material the first wheel was made of-

A. Rubber

B. Glass







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C. Wood

D. Iron

ANS: C. Wood

87.Who is the father of Geometry?

A. Euclid

B. Pythagoras

C. Ramanujan

D. Fibonachi

ANS: A. Euclid

88.Name the boxer who nickname is “The Real Deal’?

A. Evander Holyfield

B. Mecike Tyson

C. James Smith

D. Tony Tucker

ANS: A. Evander Holyfield

89.World Tuberculosis Day is celebrated on

A. 24th March

B. 28th March

C. 28 February

D. 2 April

ANS: A. 24th March

90.What is the capital of Cyprus?

A. Ankara

B. Brussels

C. Nicosia

D. Antwerp

ANS: C. Nicosia

91.In the acronym BRICS, the letter ‘B’ stands for

A. Bangladesh

B. Bermuda

C. Brazil

D. Bulgaria

ANS: C. Brazil

92.What was the name of Maharana Pratap’s horse?

A. Chetak

B. Shera

C. Jivan

D. Vayu

ANS: A. Chetak

93.Kuchipudi originated from

A. Andhra Pradesh

B. Tamil Nadu

C. Odisha

D. Kerala

ANS: A. Andhra Pradesh

94.National Science Day falls on

A. 26th February

B. 27th February

C. 28th February

D. 29th February

ANS: C. 28th February

98.National Institute for the Visually handicapped is

situated in

A. Kolkata

B. Hyderabad

C. Dehradun







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D. Mumbai

ANS: C. Dehradun

99. The International Day for Biological Diversity

was observed on:

A. 4th June

B. 22 nd May

C. 24th April


ANS: B. 22 nd May

100.What is the normal playing time of the full

version of our National Anthem ?

A. 2 minutes

B. 1 minute

C. 52 seconds

D. 50 seconds

ANS: C. 52 seconds

101.Which National Highway connects Delhi and

Kolkata ?

A. NH – 2

B. NH – 4

C. NH – 6

D. NH- 10

ANS: A.NH-2

102.National Institute of Homeopathy is at :

A. Kolkata

B. Jaipur

C. Chennai

D. Bengalure

ANS: A Kolkata

103.Which among the following is India's national

song ?

A. Vande-Mataram

B. Bare Jahan so Achcha

C. Jana-gana-mans

D. None of these

ANS: A. Vande-Mataram

104.Kaziranga National Park is situated in

A. Assam

B. Haryana

C. Gujarat

D. New Delhi

ANS: A. Assam

105.Where in India is silk producing too high?

A. Punjab

B. Karnataka

C. Kerala

D. Haryana

ANS: B. Karnataka

106.National Waterways No. 2 has been established

on which river?

A. Barak

B. Brahmaputra

C. Ganges

D. Yamuna

ANS: B. Brahmaputra

107.The World Happiness Report is prepared by







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A. International Monetary Fund

B. United Nations Development Programme

C. World Trade Organization

D. United Nations Sustainable Development

Solutions Network

ANS: D. United Nations Sustainable Development

Solutions Network

108.In which of the following States Tarapur Nuclear

Power Plant is located?

A. Maharashtra

B. Gujarat

C. Odisha

D. Rajasthan

ANS: A. Maharashtra

109. Lokpriya Gopinath Bordoloi International

Airport is located at :

A. Jaipur

B. Bangalore

C. Guwahati

D. Hyderabad

ANS: C. Guwahati

110.Which National Park is known for the 'Asiatic

lions' ?

A. Corbett National Park

B. Kantha National Park

C. Bandipur National Park

D. Gir National Park

ANS: D. Gir National Park

111.Which is the state animal of Andhra Pradesh?

A. Mithun

B. Ox

C. One-homed rhinoceros

D. Blackbuck

ANS:D. Blackbuck

112.The AIADMK party is a regional political party

of which state?

A. Karnataka

B. Telangana

C. Tamil Nadu

D. Andhra Pradesh

ANS: C. Tamil Nadu

113_______ is the state flower of Jharkhand.

A. Lotus

B. Rohira

C. Orchid

D. Palash

ANS: D. Palash

114.Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar University is a non-

profit public higher education institution located in

the urban setting of the large city of .....

A. Gorakhpur

B. Agra

C. Lucknow

D. Kanpur

ANS: B. Agra

115.Ratnagiri mines are found in which state?







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A. Gujarat

B. Telangana

C. Maharashtra

D. Karnataka

ANS: C. Maharashtra

116.Raja Ravi Verma was a painter and sculptor

from the state of ..........

A. Uttar Pradesh

B. Kerala

C. Tamilnadu

D. Assam

ANS: B. Kerala

117.Which Indian state is the home to the Taj Mahal?

A. Bihar

B. Delhi

C. Uttar Pradesh

D. Uttarakhand

ANS: C. Uttar Pradesh

118. _____is the first state of India to receive rainfall.

A. Kerala

B. Goa

C. Maharashtra

D. Gujarat

ANS: A. Kerala

119.The state animal of Haryana is ............

A. Alligator

B. Blackbuck

C. Ox

D. Rhinoceros

ANS: B. Blackbuck

120.Bauxite mines are abundantly found in which

state?

A. Bihar

B. Rajasthan

C. Andhra Pradesh

D. Odisha

ANS: D. Odisha

121. Kawal Tiger reserve is located in which state?

A. Mizoram

B. Telengana

C. Uttarakhand

D. West Bengal

ANS: B. Telengana

122. Which state of India celebrates the ‘Sangai

Festival’ in November?

A. Gujarat

B. Manipur

C. Assam

D. Tamil Nadu

ANS: B. Manipur

123. Which Indian state is the largest producer of

Soybean?

A. Himachal Pradesh

B. Madhya Pradesh

C. Andhra Pradesh

D. Arunanchal Pradesh







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ANS: B. Madhya Pradesh

124. ______is known as India's Spice Garden.

A. Rajasthan

B. Kerala

C. Karnataka

D. Maharashtra

ANS:B. Kerala

125.The state tree of Haryana is ............

A. Mango

B. Peepal

C. Guava

D. Neem

ANS: B. Peepal

126.‘Maharatna’ refers to a group of

A. Emerging small and medium enterprises.

B. Central public sector enterprises.

C. Leading private sector enterprises.

D. Leading multi-national companies.

ANS: B. Central public sector enterprises.

127.The periodicity of the Commonwealth games is

A. No fixed interval

B. 4 years

C. 5 years

D. 6 years

ANS: B.4 years

128.Indian Institute of science is situated at-

A. Kanpur

B. Bangalore

C. Mumbai

D. Chennai

ANS: B.Banglore

129.Robert Galbraith is known by which name?

A. Agatha Christie

B. Sidney Sheldon

C. Enid Blyton

D. J.K. Rowling

ANS: D J.K. Rowling

130.Where is the head office of ONGC?

A. Dibrugarh

B. Kandla

C. Visakhapatnam

D. Delhi

ANS: D. Delhi

131.Who wrote the book "Ignited Minds"?

A. Vikram Seth

B. APJ Abdul Kalam

C. Arundhati Roy

D. Manmohan Singh

ANS: B. APJ Abdul Kalam

132. The Nobel peace prize is awarded in which city?

A. Oslo

B. Stockholm

C. Brussels

D. Geneva

ANS:A.Oslo







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133. Which of the following personalities is known as

“Metro Man”?

A. PV Chandran

B. Elattuvalapil Sreedharan

C. Tessy Thomas

D. Man Mohan Sharma

ANS: B. Elattuvalapil Sreedharan

134. Which is the highest gallantry award in India?

A. Param Vishishtat Seva Medal

B. Param Vir Chakra

C. Kirti Chakra

D. Vir Chakra

ANS:B. Param Vir Chakra

135. The five permanent members of the UN security

council are

A. USA, China, France, Russia and Canada

B. China, France, Russia, UK and USA

C. Japan, Germany, Russia, UK and USA

D. Germany, China, USA. Russia and UK

ANS:B. China, France, Russia, UK and USA

136. The United Nations Organization came into

existence in

A. 1947

B. 1950

C. 1945

D. 1946

ANS: C. 1945

137. National Institute of Rural Development is

located at:

A. New Delhi

B. Mumbai

C. Hyderabad

D. Kanpur

ANS:C. Hyderabad

138. What is the capital of Australia?

A. Canberra

B. Sydney

C. Perth

D. Adelaide

ANS:A.Canberra

139.Takshashila University was located between

which two rivers?

A. Indus and Jhelum

B. Jhelum and Ravi

C. Beas and Indus

D. Satluj and Indus

ANS: A. Indus and Jhelum

140. The principle government agency in matters

related to seismology & allied subjects

A. Indian Weather Forecast Agency

B. India Meteorological Department

C. Geological Survey of India


ANS:B. India Meteorological Department







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141. Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre is an important

research institute situated in a

A. Sriharikota


C. Bengaluru

D. Chennai

ANS:B. Thiruvananthapuram

142. What does ‘A’ stands for in TRAI, a statutory

body set up by the Government of India?

A. Association

B. Authority

C. Asian

D. Area

ANS:B.Authority

143. What does ‘G’ in GAIL- A Public sector

enterprise stands for?

A. Government

B. Goa

C. Gas

D. Ganga

ANS:C. Gas

144. National Thermal Power Corporation is a

A. Navratna

B. Maharatna

C. Mini-Ratna

D. Diamond Ratna

ANS:B. Maharatna

145. The only Indian to be awarded with both

‘Bharat Ratna’ and ‘Nishan-e-Pakistan’ is

A. Jawaharlal Nehru

B. Morarji Desai

C. Atal Bihari Vajpayee

D. Dr Manmohan Singh

ANS:B.Moraji Desai

146. Birju Maharaj is a famous Indian personality

associated with ______________ dance form

A. Odissi

B. Bharat Natyam

C. Kuchipudi

D. Kathak

ANS:D. Kathak

147. Which famous world politician was nicknamed

as “The Iron Lady”?

A. Meryl Streep

B. Theresa May

C. Margaret Thatcher

D. Angela Merkel

ANS:C. Margaret Thatcher

148. Ustad Bismillah Khan was a famous

______________ player

A. Sitar

B. Shehnai

C. Veena

D. Sarod

ANS:B. Shehnai







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149. Who among the following is a popular world-

renowned player of Indian classical instrument Sitar?

A. Bhimsen Joshi

B. Baiju Dharmajan

C. Ustad Daulat Khan

D. Pandit Ravi Shankar

ANS:D. Pandit Ravi Shankar

150. ‘Godan’ is a famous novel of modern Indian

literature written by

A. Kanshi Ram

B. Munshi Premchand


D. Ramdhari Singh Dinkar

ANS:B. Munshi Premchand

151. Ace, Advantage, Deuce and Half volley are some

of the terms associated with which sport?

A. Golf

B. Polo

C. Lawn Tennis

D. Wrestling

ANS:C. Lawn Tennis

152. Keibul Lamjao National Park is based in which

state?

A. Nagaland

B. Manipur

C. Sikkim

D. Arunachal Pradesh

ANS: B. Manipur

153. Only species of apes found on Indian soil are

A. Orangutans

B. Gorilla

C. White Gorilla

D. Hoolock Gibbons

ANS:D. Hoolock Gibbons

154. Indian Rosewood is a deciduous tree found in

which of the following state(s)?

A. Kerala

B. Karnataka

C. Haryana

D. All of the above

ANS:D. All of the above

155. The largest Asian antelope is ……. , found in

Indian sub-continent.

A. Wild Ass

B. Nilgai

C. One-horned Rhinoceros

D. Asiatic Lion

ANS:B. Nilgai

156. Jammu & Kashmir is famous for _____trees

A. Palm

B. Chinar

C. Rubber

D. Banyan

ANS:B.Chinar

157. Largest sports stadium in India by seating

capacity is







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A. Sardar Patel Stadium

B. DY Patil Stadium

C. Eden Gardens


ANS: A. Sardar Patel Stadium

158. In the game of Kho-Kho, the number of players

participating are

A. 5

B. 9

C. 6

D. 11

ANS:B.9

159. ‘Target’, ‘Bulls Eye’, ‘Muzzle Flub’ are

terminologies associated with which of the following

sports?

A. Kho-Kho

B. Boxing

C. Marathon

D. Rifle Shooting

ANS:D. Rifle Shooting

160. “Golden Ball” is an award presented to an

outstanding player from which sport?

A. Volleyball

B. Baseball

C. Football

D. Basketball

ANS:C. Football

161. ‘Butterfly’ and ‘Breast stroke’ are terminologies

related to

A. Volleyball

B. Swimming

C. Baseball

D. Ice-Hockey

ANS: B.Swimming

162. M Chinnaswamy Cricket Stadium is situated in

the city of

A. Chennai

B. Mumbai

C. Bengaluru

D. Hyderabad

ANS:A.Chennai

163. The International Day of Yoga is observed on

________?

A. June 15

B. May 15

C. June 21

D. July 25

ANS: C. June 21

164. Human Rights Day is celebrated annually

A. 24 October

B. 10 December

C. 21 June

D. 22 April

ANS:B. 10 December







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165.Shilong is a hill station in northeast India and

capital of the state of?

A. Manipur

B. Tripura

C. Assaam

D. Meghalaya

ANS:D.Meghalaya

166.The Tehri Dam is located in

A. Uttrakhand

B. Kerala

C. Karnataka

D. Telungana

ANS:A.Uttrakhand

167.What is the currency of China?

A. Yen

B. Taka

C. Renminbi

D. Dollar

ANS:C.Renminbi

168.Traditional dance of Odisha

A. Chhau

B. Kathak

C. Satriya

D. Kuchipudi

ANS:A.Chauu

169.Ananthapura Lake Temple is a Hindu temple

built in the middle of a lake in

A. West Bengal

B. Kerala

C. Tamil Nadu

D. Punjab

ANS:B.Kerala

170.Which of the following city of india is known as

the ‘Garden city of India’?

A. Pune

B. Bengaluru

C. Chandigarh

D. Mangalore

ANS:B.Bengaluru

171.Garo tribes are not found in which of the

following place?

A. Assam

B. Manipur

C. Mizorom

D. Meghalaya

ANS:B.Manipur

172. National Defence Academy is located at:

A. Alipore (Kolkata)

B. Wellington (Nigiris)

C. Khadakwasla (Pune)

D. Ezhimala (Kannur)

ANS: C. Khadakwasla (Pune)

173. The hill station of Chail is located in

A. Himachal Pradesh

B. Madya Pradesh

C. Kerala







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D. Karnataka

ANS:A. Himachal Pradesh

174.Loktak Power Station is located in which state?

A. Assam

B. Manipur

C. Mizorom

D. Meghalaya

ANS:B.Manipur

175.Which of these is a National Park situated in

Haryana?

A. Sultanpur

B. Bandipur

C. Chandoli

D. Gir

ANS:A.Sultanpur

176.Which one of the three rivers at Triveni Sangam,

Allahabad, is an underground river?

A. Ganges

B. Yamuna

C. Saraswati

D. Kaveri

ANS:C.Saraswati

177.As per Census of India 2011, the population

density was about

A. 382 people per sq.km

B. 402 people per sq.km

C. 354 people per sq.km

D. 426 people per sq.km

ANS:A. 382 people per sq.km

178. Bhimbetka caves are located in

A. Uttar Pradesh

B. Madhya Pradesh

C. Andhra Pradesh

D. Himachal Pradesh

ANS:B.Madhya Pradesh

179.One of the best preserved Buddhist caves,Karla is

in which state

A. Bihar

B. Uttar Pradesh

C. Maharastra

D. Uttarakhand

ANS:C.Maharastra

180.From the following former Prime Minister whose

name can be found on Indian currency?

A. Vajpayee

B. Indira Gandhi

C. Manmohan singh

D. Narasimha Rao

ANS:C. Manmohan singh

181. Which day is celebrated as the National Doctors’

Day annually?

A. May 1

B. June 1

C. July 1

D. August 1

ANS: C. July 1







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182. Which is the form of market where there is lack

of competition?

A. Monopoly

B. Oligopoly

C. Perfect Competition

D. Maretization

ANS:A.Monopoly

183.What is income available with a person deducting

for taxes called?

A. Disposable Income

B. Cash Income

C. Salary

D. General Income

ANS:A. Disposable Income

184.The winner of the open competition for designing

the Rupee sign

A. Uday kumar

B. Vijay Kumar

C. Prem kumar

D. Pranav Kumar

ANS: A. Uday kumar

185. The United Nations Development Programme

focuses in

A. Solutions to gloabal development challenges

B. Developing nations

C. Under developed nations

D. Developed nations

ANS:A.Solutions to gloabal development challenges

186.How many gold fields are there in India?

A. 4

B. 5

C. 2

D. 3

ANS:D.3

187. The September 11 terrorist attacks completed

how many years in 2019?

A. 17

B. 19

C. 20

D. 18

ANS:D.18

188. Who was the Prime Minister of India when in

1975 was the emergency declared?

A. Rajeev Gandhi

B. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed

C. Indira Gandi

D. Sanjay Gandhi

ANS: C. Indira Gandi

189.Religious city situated in Uttarakhand

A. Puri

B. Kanchi

C. Mathura

D. Haridwar

ANS: D. Haridwar

190.India’s major information and technology

industry is concentrated in







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A. Noida

B. Bengaluru

C. Ahamedabad

D. Mumbai

ANS:B. Bengaluru

191.Which is the highest Civilian award given by the

Indian Government?

A. Param veer chakra

B. Padma Vibushan

C. Ashok Chakra

D. Bharat Ratna

ANS: D. Bharat Ratna

192. World press freedom day is celebrated on

A. 3 October

B. 13 June

C. 3 May

D. 3 August

ANS: C. 3 May

193. Agricultural Shot is associated with which

games?

A. Football

B. Cricket

C. Squash

D. Hockey

ANS:B.Cricket

194.Who had started the Bachao Mission, for which

the Nobel Peace Prize was given?

A. Jaggi Vasudev

B. Medha Patekar

C. Malala Yusufjai

D. Kailash Satyarthi

ANS:D. Kailash Satyarthi

195.Who painted the famous painting named “The

Last Supper”?

A. Leonardo da vinci

B. Claude monet

C. Mozart

D. Michelangelo

ANS:A. Leonardo da vinci

196.What is full form of PCA?

A. Prompt Collective Action

B. Prompt Corrective Action

C. Possible Collective Action

D. Possible Corrective Action

ANS:B. Prompt Corrective Action

197.The Lonar lake is in which state?

A. West Bengal

B. Maharashtra

C. Karnataka

D. Madhya pradesh

ANS:B.Maharashtra

198.On which of the following river banks is the city

Agra located?

A. Yamuna

B. Ganga

C. Tapti







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D. Sabarmati

ANS:A. Yamuna

199.The Maharana Pratap Sagar reservoir on the

river Beas is also known as

A. Pong dam

B. Ukai dam

C. Dharoi dam

D. Tehri dam

ANS:A. Pong dam

200. National Technology Day celebrated across India

on

A. May 01

B. June 05

C. May 11

D. May 31

ANS:C.May11

201.Uganda is a landlocked country in East Africa.

What is the capital city of Uganda?

A. Lima

B. Kampala

C. Hawana

D. Rome

ANS:B.Kampala

202. North Korea, officially the Democratic People’s

Republic of Korea, is a country in East Asia, in the

northern part of the Korean Peninsula. What is the

capital of North Korea?

A. Seul

B. Beijing

C. Bangkok

D. Pyongyang

ANS:D.Pyongyang

203.UNIDO is the specialized agency of the United

Nations that promotes industrial development for

poverty reduction, inclusive globalization and

environmental sustainability. Where is the

headquarter of UNIDO?

A. Paris, France

B. New York, USA

C. Vienna, Austria

D. London, UK

ANS:C.Vienna,Austria

204. PSLV is a:

A. Satellite of India

B. Satellite launch vehicle of India

C. Space mission of India

D. Satellite launch centre of India

ANS: B. Satellite launch vehicle of India

205.The Dudhwa National Park is a national park in

the Terai of?

A. Madhya Pradesh

B. Uttar Pradesh

C. Rajasthan

D. Gujarat

ANS:B.Uttar Pradesh

206.The book “We the People” was written by?







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A. Kushwant Singh

B. Jawaharlal Nehru

C. Nani Palkhivala

D. Ramachandra Guha

ANS:C.Nani Palkhivala

207.Where is the headquarters of UNESCO located?

A. Geneva

B. Rome

C. Newyork

D. Paris

ANS:D.Paris

208.Ustad Amjad Ali Khan is famous for playing

which of the following instrument?

A. Tabla

B. Flute

C. Sarod

D. Harmonium

ANS:C.Sarod

209.Chhau is popular folk dance of which region of

India?

A. North

B. West

C. South

D. East

ANS:D.East

210.Which of the following is not a permannt member

of the United Nations Security Council?

A. Germany

B. France

C. UK

D. China

ANS:A.Germany

211._____is India’s sole National Issuing and

Guaranteeing Association for ATA Carnets (also

known as Passport for Goods)

A. Confederation of Indian Industry

B. International Resource for Fairer Trade

C. All India Management Association

D. Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and

Industry

ANS:D.Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce

and Industry

212. Which Dadasaheb Phalke Award recipient

produced and directed India’s first colour flim

‘Sairandhri’?

A. V Shanta ram

B. LV Prasad

C. Birendranath Sridar

D. Sivaji Ganesan

ANS: A. V. Shantaram

213.Name the celebrity who has authored ‘Mrs.

Funnybones’?

A. Bipasha Basu

B. Twinkle Khanna

C. Shraddha Kapoor

D. Sonakshi Sinha







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ANS:B.Twinkle Khanna

214.The hotel Taj Lake Palace, built in the middle of

lake Pichola, is in which city?

A. Udaipur

B. Jodhpur

C. Jaipur

D. Bikaner

ANS:A.Udaipur

215.Classical musician Vijay Khan is associated with

which musical instrument?

A. Sarod

B. Santoor

C. Sitar

D. Flute

ANS:C.Sitar

216.Which of the following folk dances is from

Himachal Pradesh?

A. Bagurumba

B. Giddha

C. Nati

D. Lezim

ANS: C. Nati

217.The National Skill Development

Corporation(NSDC)is a public –private partnership

formed under India’s?

A. Ministry of Finance

B. Ministry of Electronics

C. Ministry of science and technology

D. Minstry of Corporate Affairs

ANS:A.Ministry of Finance

218.Which of the following recipents of the

Dadasaheb Phalke Award received it posthumously?

A. Naushad

B. Durga khote

C. Vinod Khanna

D. Satyajit Ray

ANS:C.Vinod Khanna

219.Who invented the blue jeans?

A. Todd Oldham

B. Calvin Klein

C. Levi Strauss

D. Gianni Versace

ANS:C.Levi Strauss

220.The author of ‘The Monk who sold his Ferrari’

is

A. Manohar Malgonkar

B. Arundhati Roy

C. Aravind Adiga

D. Robin Sharma

ANS:D.Robin Sharma

221.The Umaid Bhawan Palace is in which city?

A. Udaipur

B. Jaipur

C. Bikaner

D. Jodhpur

ANS:D.Jodhpur







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222. Which of the following folk dance is from

Assam?

A. Bagurumba

B. Giddha

C. Nati

D. Lezim

ANS:A.Bagurumba

223.Classical musician Shivkumar Sharma is

associated with which musical instrument?

A. Sarod

B. Santoor

C. Sitar

D. Flute

ANS:B.Santoor

224.Chile is a part of which continent?

A. North America

B. Europe

C. South America

D. Asia

ANS:C.South America

225.In which year was the Eiffel Tower built,to

celebrate the 100th year anniversary of the French

Revolution?

A. 1889

B. 1900

C. 1886

D. 1914

ANS:A.1889

226.Which of the following is NOT a traditional

dance of Rajasthan?

A. Ghoomar

B. Kathputli

C. Dumhal

D. Gair

ANS:C.Dumhal

227.Which organization comprises of two institution

:The International Bank for Reconstructive and

Developmen(IBRD) and The International

Development Association(IDA)?

A. The Internationall Monetary Fund

B. The World Bank

C. International Finance Corporation

D. International Chamber of Commerce

ANS:B.The World Bank

228.Who founded Project Nanhi Kali in 1996?

A. Narayana Murthy

B. Anand Mahindra

C. Ratan Tata

D. Azim Premji

ANS:B.Anand Mahindra

229.Name the author of’The Incredible Adventures of

Professor Shonku’?

A. Ritwik Ghatak

B. Satyajit Ray

C. Arundhati Roy

D. Aravind Adiga







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ANS:B.Satyajit Ray

230.Hawa mahal is a palace in

A. Udaipur

B. Jaipur

C. Bikaner

D. Jodhpur

ANS:B.Jaipur

231.SURYA KIRAN is the joint military exercise

between

A. India and Srilanka

B. India and Bangladesh

C. India and Nepal

D. India and Russia

ANS:C.India and Nepal

232.Atapaka Bird Sanctuary is located in which

state?

A. Andhra Pradesh


C. Assam

D. Tamilnadu

ANS: A. Andhra Pradesh

233. Tunisia is a country in:

A. North America

B. South America

C. Africa

D. Europe

ANS: C. Africa

234. What is the tagline of Bank of Baroda?

A. India’s International Bank

B. Badhti ka naam zindagi

C. Relationship beyond banking

D. Ek parivaar, Ek Bank

ANS:A.India’s International Bank

235.Where is the Federation International de Football

Association located?

A. Gland

B. Zurich

C. Geneva

D. Bern

ANS:B.Zurich

236.Talley valley Wildlife Sanctuary is located in

which state?


B. Mizorom

C. Nagaland

D. Assam

ANS:A.Arunachal Pradesh

237.What is the Capital and Currency of Chile?

A. Santiago and Peso

B. Santiago and dollor

C. Santiago and euro

D. Santiago and berr

ANS:A.Santiago and Peso

238.World Day of social Justice is observed on which

day?

A. February 28







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B. February 25

C. February 20

D. February 21

ANS:C.February 20

239.Nuakhai Juhar festival is celebrated for

A. Harvesh crop

B. New year

C. Godess

D. Tourism

ANS:A.Harvesh crop

240.Which of the following states is the most

important producer of asbestos in India

A. Jharkhand

B. Karnataka

C. Rajasthan

D. Madyapradesh

ANS:C.Rajasthan

241.’An Era of Darkness ‘ book is written by?

A. Amitabha Bagchi

B. Shashi Tharoor

C. Jasbinder Bilan

D. Yashwant Sinha

ANS:B.Shashi Tharoor

242.Which of the following countries is the largest

producer of diamond?

A. Australia

B. Venezuela

C. Russia

D. Botswana

ANS:C.Russia

243.Which European country is known as the Land

of a thousand lakes?

A. Denmark

B. Finland

C. Norway

D. Sweden

ANS:B.Finland

244.Kavaratti, an island town, is the capital of which

Indian union territory?

A. Lakshadweep

B. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

C. Daman and Diu

D. None of these

ANS:A.Lakshadweep

245.Garba dance is native of which Indian state?

A. Punjab

B. Gujarat

C. Maharashtra

D. Haryana

ANS:B.Gujarat

246.Which is the largest hot desert in the world?

A. Thar

B. Sahara

C. Gobi

D. Kalahari

ANS:B.Sahara







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247.In which city are the headquarters of

International Olympic Committee located?

A. Paris

B. Geneva

C. Haugue

D. Lausanne

ANS:D.Lausanne

248.Bhogi,Surya,and Kanum are the parts of which

four day long harvest festival of Tamil Nadu?

A. Baisakhi

B. Pongal

C. Onam

D. Nuah

ANS:B.Pongal

249.Wheeler island is situated in-

A. Tamil Nadu

B. Odisha

C. Madhya Pradesh

D. Chhattisgarh

ANS:B. Odisha

250.Where is the headquarters of Food Safety and

Standards Authority of India(FSSAI)?

A. Chennai

B. Kolkata

C. New Delhi

D. Pune

ANS:C.New Delhi

251. Which art form was Mrinallini Sarabhai

associated with?

A. Pattachitra

B. Tanjore Painting

C. Bharatnatyam

D. Madhubani Painting

ANS: C. Bharatnatyam

252. The first captain of the Indian cricket team for

One day International

A. Ajit Wadekar

B. Sunil Gavaskar

C. Kapil Dev

D. C.K Nayudu

ANS: A. Ajit Wadekar

253. The Principle of regarding the beliefs, values and

practices, of a culture from the viewpoint of that

culture itself is called

A. Cultural Functionalism

B. Cultural Relativism

C. Cultural Independence

D. Cultural Interpendence

ANS: B. Cultural Relativism

254. Which of the following is the largest glacier in

India?

A. Gangotri Glacier

B. Drang Drung Glacier

C. Siachen Glacier

D. Shafat Glacier







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ANS: C. Siachen Glacier

255. Which was the first women’s sport to be

introduced in the Olympics?

A. Gymnastics

B. Volleyball

C. Golf

D. Badminton

ANS: C. Golf

256. Name the security force which does not fall

under Union Home Ministry

A. Sashastra Seema Bal

B. Border Security Force

C. Railway Protection Force

D. Indo-Tibetan Border Police Force

ANS: C. Railway Protection Force

257. Official language of Goa

A. English

B. Kannada

C. Konkani

D. Marathi

ANS: C. Konkani

258. Mizoram's capital

A. Dispur

B. Aizawl

C. Itanagar

D. Gauhati

ANS: B. Aizawl

259. Name of Pakistan Parliament

A. Majlis‐e‐Shoora

B. Islamic Parliament

C. Emirate of Pakistan

D. Islam-e-Shoora

ANS: A. Majlis‐e‐Shoora

260. Capital of Manipur

A. Dispur

B. Aizawl

C. Itanagar

D. Imphal

ANS: D. Imphal

261. H.S. Prannoy related to

A. Badminton

B. Tennis

C. Wrestling

D. Weight lifting

ANS: A. Badminton

262. The old name of Allahabad

A. Devaloak

B. Dauladabad

C. Prayagraj

D. Central Provinces

ANS: C. Prayagraj

263. Official language of Nagaland

A. English

B. Kannada

C. Konkani

D. Marathi







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ANS: A. English

264. The Hornbill festival is celebrated in


B. Nagaland

C. Odisha

D. West Bengal

ANS: B. Nagaland

265. Santosh trophy is related to

A. Badminton

B. Tennis

C. Foot ball

D. Weight lifting

ANS: C. Foot ball

266. Capital city of Syria?

A. Damascus

B. Havana

C. Bandar Seri Begawan

D. Riga

ANS: A. Damascus

267. Forbidden city of China situated at

A. Beijing

A. Xiamen

B. Shanghai

C. Guilin

ANS: A. Beijing

268. The Prime Minister is the ex-officio President of

A. CLRI

B. CSIR

C. ISRO

D. DRDP

ANS: B. CSIR

269. When the AAP Party was established?

A. December 2013

B. November 2012

C. September 2012

D. January 2013

ANS: B. November 2012

270. Mary Kom belongs to which state

A. Manipur

B. Mizorom

C. Assam

D. Mehalaya

ANS: A. Manipur

271. Indira point is located at

A. Andaman & Nicobar Islands

B. Kanyakumari

C. Lakshadweep

D. Mincoy

ANS: A. Andaman & Nicobar Islands

272. First satellite of India sent towards lunars is

A. Lunatic1

B. Chandrayaan 1

C. PSLV 20

D. Mangalyan

ANS: B. Chandrayaaan 1

273. Notre Dame Cathedral is located at?







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A. Paris

B. Rome

C. Germany

D. Switzerland

ANS: A. Paris

274. The inventor of fountain pen?

A. Todd Oldham

B. Calvin Klein

C. Petrache Poenaru

D. Gianni Versace

ANS: C. Petrache Poenaru

275. Who is inventor of revolver?

A. Todd Oldham

B. Samuel Colt

C. Petrache Poenaru

D. Gianni Versace

ANS: B. Samuel Colt

276. The Indian Statue of Unity is located near:

A. Sardar Sarovar Dam

B. Bhakra-Nangal Dam

C. Hirakud Dam

D. Tehri Dam

ANS: A. Sardar Sarovar Dam

277. Who is known as Frontier Gandhi?

A. Bala Ghangadhara Tilak

B. Abdul Gaffer Khan

C. Nelson Mandela

D. Gopala Krishana Gohalae

ANS: B. Abdul Gaffer Khan

278. Highest statue of Christ is located at

A. Rio de Janeiro

B. Newyork

C. Peru

D. Isrel

ANS: A. Rio de Janeiro

279. Goecha La pass is located in which state?

A. Sikkim

B. Mizorom

C. Mehalaya

D. Himachal Pradesh

ANS: A. Sikkim

280. The famous camel trading event is a part of this

annual fair

A. Udaipur mela

B. Thar Mela

C. Kumph Mela

D. Pushkar Mela

ANS: D. Pushkar Mela

281. Golden rock temple (kyaiktiyo pagoda) is located

in ?

A. Myanmar

B. Bengladesh

C. Indonesia

D. Malasiya

ANS: A. Myanmar

282. Shimla Agreement took place in







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A. 1975

B. 1976

C. 1972

D. 1974

ANS: C. 1972

283. What is the full form of UNFCCC?

A. United Nations Forest Convention on Climate

Change

B. United Nations Framework Convention on

Climate Change

C. United Nations Framework Conference on

Climate Change

D. United Nations Forest Conservation on Climate

Change

ANS: B. United Nations Framework Convention on

Climate Change

284. Who is known as “Father of All India Services”

A. Sardar vallabhbhai Patel

B. Nethaji Subash Chandrabose

C. Jawaharlal Nehru

D. Lord Ribbon

ANS: A. Sardar vallabhbhai Patel

285. Name of the operation that led to the capture

and death of Osama Bin Laden

A. Neptune Spear

B. Smiling Buddha

C. Operation Vijay

D. Operation Sakthi

ANS: A. Neptune Spear

286. Chenab, Jhelum are tributaries of which river?

A. Indus

B. Sutlej

C. Tapti

D. Godavari

ANS: A. Indus

287. What are number of balls in snooker?

A. 25

B. 24

C. 20

D. 22

ANS: D. 22

288. Nipah is a:

A. Computer program

B. Virus

C. Cyclone

D. Fighter plane

ANS: B. Virus

289. Who was first female Judge of High Court?

A. Anna Chandy

B. Fathima Beevi

C. Suchendra Kripalani

D. Rajakumari

ANS: A. Anna Chandy

290. EOS-01 is a:

A. March for unity in India

B. March for peace in Japan







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C. Satellite launched by India

D. Bullet train of France

ANS: C. Satellite launched by India

291. Who was the first Indian to become a Nobel

Laureate?

A. Rabindranath Tagore

B. Mahatma Gandhi

C. C.V. Raman

D. Mother Teresa

ANS: A. Rabindranath Tagore

292. In India, the highest cricket ground above sea

level lies in which state?

A. Himachal Pradesh

B. Sikkim

C. Uttar Pradesh

D. Assam

ANS: A. Himachal Pradesh

293. Syed Modi International Grand Prix Gold

Championship is held every year at

A. Chandigarh

B. Lucknow

C. Delhi

D. Hyderabad

ANS: B. Lucknow

294. What is Madhubani art?

A. The art of Storytelling

B. The art of Gujarat

C. A folk art practised in Bihar

D. The art of honey extraction

ANS: C. A folk art practised in Bihar

295. What is an archipelago?

A. Group, chain, cluster or collection of Islands

B. The meeting of Land and Sea

C. An Architect’s paradise

D. A type of Church

ANS: A. Group, chain, cluster or collection of Islands

296. Indian currency notes are printed in which

place?

A. New Delhi

B. Bombay

C. Nashik

D. Agra

ANS: C. Nashik

297. Mica is available abundantly in which state?

A. West Bengal

B. Madya Pradesh

C. Bihar

D. Rajasthan

ANS: C. Bihar

298. Between which stations does India’s longest train

run?

A. Kanyakumari-Baramulla

B. Dibrugarh-Naliya

C. Dibrugarh-Kanyakumari

D. Thiruvanathapuram-Newdelhi

ANS: C. Dibrugarh-Kanyakumari







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299. What is Sepak Takraw

A. A Bird

B. An ancient hunting team in Malaysia

C. Kick Volleyball

D. A Type of Combat Flight

ANS: C. Kick Volleyball

300. Male is the capital of which Country?

A. Mauritius

B. Lakshadweep

C. Maldives

D. Malaysia

ANS: C. Maldives





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