Ft-1 Aiims Offline Final

7/21/2019 Ft-1 Aiims Offline Final

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1WHIZDOM EDUCARE AITS__AIIMS__FULL TEST-1

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PART I : PHYSICS

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 60 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY

ONE is correct.

1. Two satellites A and B go around a planet P in circular orbits having radius 4R and R

respectively. If the speed of satellite A is 3v, then the speed of satellite B will be

(a) 6 v (b) 9v (c) 3v (d) none of these

2. A charged ball B hangs from a silk thread S, which makes an angle with a large charged

conducting sheet P, as shown in fig. The surface charge density of the sheet is proportional to

(a) sin (b) cos (c) tan (d) cot

3. If S is stress and Y is Young’s modulus of the material of a wire, then the energy stored in the

wire per unit volume is

(a) S2 /2Y (b) 2Y/S

2(c) S/2Y (d) 2S

2 /Y

4. A lead sphere of mass m falls in a viscous liquid with a terminal velocity v 0. Another lead

sphere of mass 8m will fall through the same liquid with a terminal velocity

(a) v0 (b) 4v0 (c) 8v0 (d) 64 v0

5. Figure Shows three points, A, B and C in a region of uniform electric field E. The line AB is

perpendicular and BC is parallel to the field lines. Then which of the following holds good ?







(a) VA = VB = VC (b) VA = VB > VC (c) VA = VB < VC (d) VA > VB = VC

6. First law of thermodynamics concerns that

(a) energy can be conserved

(b) heat taken can be completely converted into work

(c) energy can be created and destroyed

(d) degree of disorder of a reaction

7. A perfect gas is found to obey the relation PV3/2

= constant, during an adiabatic process. If such

a gas initially at a temperature T, is compressed to half of its initial volume, then its final

temperature will be

(a) 2T (b) 4T (c) (2)1/2

T (d) 2(2)1/2

T

8. A sample of gas is at 0°C. To what temperature must it be raised in order to double the r.m.s.

speed of its molecule ?

(a) 103°C (b) 273°C (c) 819°C (d) 1092°C

9. In a simple pendulum of length l, the bob is pulled aside from its equilibrium position through

an angle and then released. The bob passes through the equilibrium position with speed

(a) (2 sin )gl (b) 2 (1 cos )gl (c) (2 )gl (d) 2 (1 cos )gl

10. The period of oscillation of a mass m suspended from a spring is 2 second. If along it anothermass of 2 kg is also suspended, the period of oscillation increases by one second. The mass m

will be

(a) 2 kg (b) 1 kg (c) 1.6 kg (d) 2.6 kg







11. A wave is represented by the equation y = Asin(10x + 15t + /3) where x is in metre and t is

in second. The expression represents

(a) a wave travelling in the positive x-direction with a velocity 1.5 m/s

(b) a wave travelling in the negative x-direction with a velocity 1.5 m/s

(c) a wave travelling in the negative x-direction with a wavelength of 0.5 m

(d) a wave travelling in the positive x-direction with a wavelength 0.2 m

12. Simple harmonic wave is represented by the relation

y (x, t) = a0sin2 x

vt

If the maximum particle velocity is three times the wave velocity, the wavelength of the wave

is

(a) a0 /3 (b) 2a0 /3 (c) a0 (d) a0 \2

13. Two point charges +3C and 8C repel each other with a force of 40 N. If a charge of – 5C is

added to each of them, then the force between them will become

(a) – 10 N (b) + 10 N (c) + 20 N (d) – 20 N

14. Two point charges exert on each other a force F when they are placed r distance apart in air.

When they are placed r distance apart in air. When they are placed R distance apart in a medium

of dielectric constant K, they exert the same force. The distance R equals :

(a)r

k (b) rk (c) r k (d)

r

k

15. The work required to put the four charges at the corners of a square of side a, as shown in Fig. is







(a)2

0

1

4

q

a (b)

2

0

2.6

4

q

a

(c)

2

0

2.6

4

q

a

(d) none of these

16. A current through a wire depends on time as I = 10 + 4t. The charge through the section of the

wire in 10 seconds is :

(a) 50 C (b) 300 C (c) 400 C (d) 4 C

17. What will be the resistance between P and Q in the following circuit ?

(a) (1/3) (b) (2/3) (c) 2 (d) 5

18. The potential difference between points A and B in the circuit shown in fig. will be

(a) 12 V (b) 8 V (c) 3 V (d) 4 V

19. On increasing the plate separation of a charged capacitor, the energy of the capacitor

(a) increases (b) decreases

(c) remains unchanged (d) becomes zero







20. A circular disc of area3ˆ ˆ(4 5 ) 10i j m

2is placed in a uniform magnetic field of intensity

ˆ ˆ(0.2 0.3 )i j tesla. The flux crossing the disc will be

(a) 23 weber (b) 23 × 10 – 3

weber (c) 23 × 10 – 4

weber (d) 23 × 10 – 2

weber

21. The instantaneous magnetic flux in a circuit is2

4 4 1t t . The total resistance of circuit is

10 . At1

,2

t s the induced current in circuit is

(a) 0 (b) 0.6 (c) 0.4 (d) 0.2

22. A square loop of side a is placed in the same plane as a long straight wire carrying a current i.

The centre of the loop is at a distance r from the wire, where r >> a .The loop is moved away

from the wire with a constant velocity v. The induced e.m.f in the loop is

(a) 0

2

iav

r

(b)3

0

32

ia v

r

(c) 0

2

iv

(d)2

0

22

ia v

r

23. If i = t2

for 0 < t < T, then r.m.s. value of current is

(a)2

2

T (b)

2

2

T (c)

2

5

T (d) none of these

24. The instantaneous values of current and voltage in an A.C. circuit are I = 4 sin t and E = 100

cos(t + /3) respectively . The phase difference between voltage and current is

(a) 7 /5 (b) 6 /5 (c) 5 /6 (d) /3







25. Which of the following electromagnetic waves have the longest wavelength ?

(a) heat waves (b) visible light waves (c) radiowaves (d) microwaves

26. Two wave originating from sources S1 and S2 having zero phase difference and common

wavelength will show complete destructive interference at a point P is (S1P – S2P) =

(a) 5 (b)3

4

(c)

4

2

(d)

11

2

27. The displacement of interfering light waves are y1 = 4 sint and y2 = 3sin(t + /2). What is the

amplitude of the resultant wave ?

(a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 1 (d) zero

28. A conducting square loop of side L and resistance R moves in a plane with a uniform velocity v

perpendicular to one of its sides. A magnet induction B constant in time and space, pointing

everywhere. The current induced in the loop is

(a) clockwise B l v

R(b) anticlockwise

B l v

R

(c)2

anticlockwise B l v

R

(d) zero

29. In the Bohr model of the hydrogen atom, let R, V and E represent the radius of the orbit, the

speed of electron and the total energy of the electron respectively. Which of the following

quantities is proportional to the quantum number n







(a) R

E (b)

E

V (c) RE (d) VR

30. What percentage of original radioactive atom is left after four half lives ?

(a) 20% (b) 10% (c) 5.5% (d) 6.5%

31. The equations of motion of a projectile are given by x = 36t metre and 2y = 96t – 9.8 t2

metre.

The angle of projection is

(a)1 4

sin5

(b)1 3

sin5

(c)1 4

sin3

(d)1 3

sin4

32. A body at rest explodes into 2 equal parts. Then

(a) they move with different speeds in different directions

(b) they move with same speed in same direction

(c) they move with same speed in same direction

(d) they move with same speed in opposite directions

33. A body moves a distance of 10 m along a straight line under the action of a 5 N force. If the

work done is 25 J, then angle between the force and direction of motion of the body is

(a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 75°

34. Two bodies of masses m and 2m have equal kinetic energies. The ratio of their linear momenta is

(a) 1 (b)1

2(c)

1

2(d) 2

35. A rod of mass m and length l is made to stand at an angle of 60° with the vertical. Potentialenergy of the rod in its position is

(a) mgl (b)2

mgl(c)

3

mgl(d)

4

mgl







36. A body of mass 5 kg moving with a velocity 10 m/s collides with another body of mass 20 kg at

rest and comes to rest. The velocity of second body after collision is

(a) 2.5 m/s (b) 5 m/s (c) 7. 5 m/s (d) 10 m/s

37. The angular momentum of a system of particles is conserved

(a) when no external force acts upon the system

(b) when no external torque acts upon the system

(c) when no external impulse acts upon the system

(d) when axis of rotation remains the same

38. An infinite wire bent in the form of L (Fig) carries current I. What is the magnetic field at the

point O ?

(a) zero (b) 0

4

i

d

(c) 0

4 2

i

d

(d) 0 2

4

i

d

39. In the absence of external torque for a body revolving about any axis, the quantity that remains

constant is

(a) kinetic energy (b) potential energy

(c) linear momentum (d) angular momentum

40. Consider a system of two particles having masses m1 and m2 . If the particle of mass m1 is

pushed towards the mass centre of particles through a distance d, by what distance would the

particle of mass m2 move so as to keep the mass centre of particles at the original position ?







(a) 1

1 2

md

m m(b) 1

2

md

m(c) d (d) 2

1

md

m

Assertion-Reason

Choose any one of the following four responses :

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the

assertion.

(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the

assertion.

(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.

(d) If the assertion and reason both are false.

(e) If assertion is false but reason is true.

41. Assertion : ‘ Light year ’ and ‘Wavelength’ both measure distance.

Reason : Both have dimensions of time.

42. Assertion : Light year and year, both measure time.Reason : Because light year is the time that light takes to reach the earth from the sun.

43. Assertion : A body can have acceleration even if its velocity is zero at a given instant of time.

Reason : A body is momentarily at rest when it reverses its direction of motion.

44. Assertion : Two balls of different masses are thrown vertically upward with same speed.

They will pass through their point of projection in the downward direction with the same speed.

Reason : The maximum height and downward velocity attained at the point of projection are

independent of the mass of the ball.

45. Assertion : Inertia is the property by virtue of which the body is unable to change by itself the

state of rest only.

Reason :The bodies do not change their state unless acted upon by an unbalanced externalforce.

46. Assertion : If the net external force on the body is zero, then its acceleration is zero.

Reason : Acceleration does not depend on force.







47. Assertion : On a rainy day, it is difficult to drive a car or bus at high speed.

Reason : The value of coefficient of friction is lowered due to wetting of the surface.

48. Assertion : When a bicycle is in motion, the force of friction exerted by the ground on the two

wheels is always in forward direction.

Reason : The frictional force acts only when the bodies are in contact.

49. Assertion : A person working on a horizontal road with a load on his head does no work.

Reason : No work is said to be done, if directions of force and displacement of load are

perpendicular to each other.

50. Assertion : The work done during a round trip is always zero.

Reason : No force is required to move a body in its round trip.

51. Assertion : Smaller the orbit of the planet around the sun, shorter is the time it takes to

complete one revolution.

Reason : According to Kepler’s third law of planetary motion, square of time period isproportional to cube of mean distance from sun.

52. Assertion : Gravitational force between two particles is negligibly small compared to the

electrical force.

Reason : The electrical force is experienced by charged particles only.

53. Assertion : The coulomb force is the dominating force in the universe.

Reason : The coulomb force is weaker than the gravitational force.

54. Assertion : If three capacitors of capacitance C 1 < C 2 < C 3 are connected in parallel then their

equivalent capacitance C p > C s

Reason :321

1111

CCCC p







55. Assertion : The resistivity of a semiconductor increases with temperature.

Reason : The atoms of a semiconductor vibrate with larger amplitude at higher temperatures

thereby increasing its resistivity

56. Assertion : In a simple battery circuit the point of lowest potential is positive terminal of the

battery

Reason : The current flows towards the point of the higher potential as it flows in such a circuit

from the negative to the positive terminal.

57. Assertion : Cyclotron does not accelerate electron.

Reason : Mass of the electron is very small.

58. Assertion : Cyclotron is a device which is used to accelerate the positive ion.

Reason : Cyclotron frequency depends upon the velocity.

59. Assertion : A red object appears dark in the yellow light

Reason : A red colour is scattered less

60. Assertion : The stars twinkle while the planets do not.

Reason : The stars are much bigger in size than the planets.

PART II : CHEMISTRY



ONE is correct.

61. Which fact is correct for gases?

(a) At low pressure Z > 1

(b)

2H

PV

P







(c) Excluded volume is 4 N, v when N gas molecules are in molin and v is volume of one

molecule

(d) Loss of pressure due to attraction 2v

62. Which fact is correct for joul Thomson effect 1T and 2T and are temperature of gas before and

after expansion?

(a) Positive joule Thomson effect, if 21 TT

(b) Negative joule Thomson effect, if 21 TT

(c) 0H during joule Thomson effect

(d) Less the difference in pressure inside and out side jet, greater is the change in temperature

63. Which fact is wrong out of following?

(a) Lorenz named a particle having mass kg10108.9 31 and charge equal to C10602.1 19 is

electron

(b) Gold em observed the em iron of canal rays

(c) Chadwick bombarded Al foil with high speed -particles

(d) Electromagnetic radiation can be obtained from ratio waves

64. Out of following which is spinel structure?

(a) 42OAB (b) 42BOA (c) 4ABO (d) 422 OBA

65. Which one is true?

(a)bT

1P.O

(b)

p

pTb (c)

p

1Tf

(d)Af

BbB

wT

wK1000ixm

B is soloute, A is solvent and I is Vant Hoff factor.

66. Which one will be cyclic structure?

(a) Tri metaphosphoric acid (b) Hypo phosphoric acid

(c) Pyro phosphoric acid (d) Ortho phosphoric acid

67. Which statement is wrong?

(a) atomic size decreases from left to right in s and p block element







(b) electron affinity increases from left to right in s and p element

(c) electronegativity increases from left to right in s and p block element

(d) size of d4 and d5 elements are approximately same on coming due to group

68. Which statement is correct

(a) HTSG (b) RTngHE (c) GST total (d) Entropy at absolute zero is zero

69. Heat of hydrogenation of cyclohexen is 119.5 Kcal. Heat of hydrogenation of benzene is 248

Kcal. Resonance energy will be

(a) 128.5 Kcal (b) 64.25 Kcal (c) 256.5 Kcal (d) 110.5 Kcal

70. Which cell is possible?

(a) 4 4Fe | FeSO || ZnSO | Zn (b) 2 2PtH (1 atm) | HCl || SnCl |Sn

(c) 4 3Cu | CuSO || AgNO | Ag (d) 2Ag | AgCl || HCl | H

71. Which equation is correct for given acid solution?

(a) pH0591.E2H (b) pH0591.E

2H (c)

p0591.E

2H (d) none of these

72. Units of 2nd

order will be

(a) 1sec (b) moles litre 1sec

(c) 111 seclitremoles (d) 11 seclitremoles

73. Which oxidizing agent will have equivalent weight as ?4

wtMole

(a) Cl2ClOClO3 3 (b) OHClHClClO 223

(c) 22324 PONaHPHOHNaOHP (d) none of these

74. Factors affecting adsorption will be

(a) nature of adsorbed(b) critical temperature of gases

(c) physical methods to make adsorbent more susceptible for adsorption

(d) all of these







75. Gel is

(a) solid dispersed in gas (b) liquid dispersed in gas

(c) liquid dispersed in solid (d) solid dispersed in solid

76. If S is solubility product of 42CrOAg , solubility of 42CrOAg in 422 CrOK10 will be

(a)210

S

(b)210

S2

(c)004.

S(d)

002.

S

77. 5PCllitres10

8c23 10K,ClPCl

Degree of dissociation will be

(a)2

10411 7(b)

2

10411 7(c)

2

11041 7

(d) none of these

78. CBAElecrolyseKOH

K573

OV.air 52

C will be(a) a product obtained on heating propylene bromide with zinc

(b) cyclohexane

(c) ethane

(d) a product obtained by passing electricity through graphite electrodes in an atmosphere of

hydrogen

79. 1 butyne is converted to 2 butyne by using

(a) NaNH2 (b) Alc. KOH

(c) ONaHC 52 (d) Methyl alcohol & sodium

80. Mustard gas obtained by

(a) mustard oil reaction (b) carbylamine reaction

(c) swart’s reaction (d) none of these







81. Which one explodes on heating in dry state?

(a) carbides (b) acetylides (c) alkenides (d) none of these

82. Which one will shows Beackman’s rearrangement?

(a) 23CONHCH (b)

2CONH

(c)

O

(d)

NOH

83. BACHCHCH 2

22

62 SOCl

OHalk

HB23 . B will be

(a) 2-chloropropane (b) 1-chloropropane (c) Ethyl chloride (d) methyl chloride

84. Expected shape of Br3 –

is

(a) Linear (b) Trigonal planar (c) Pyramidal (d) Angular

85. Anhydride is obtained when

(a) sodium salt of carboxylic acid is treated with acid chloride

(b) acetic acid is treated with conc. 42SOH

(c) both (a) and (b)

(d) amide is treated with alkane nitrile

86. Out of following which reacts with KCN?

(a) ClCHCH 23 (b) CHOHC 36 (c) both (a) and (b) (d) CHOCH3

87. In contact process, 2SO is converted to 3SO

322 SO2OSO2

The best condition for the maximum yield are

(a) 623 K and 2 atm pressure (b) Catalyst 52OV

(c) Excess of O2 (d) All of these88. For the electronic configuration [Ne] 22npns how many empty orbitals are there if 3n ?

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 6







89. Which of the following molecular orbital has tow nodal planes?

(a) s2 (b) py2 (b) px2* (d) px2

90. At constant temperature for a heterogeneous equilibrium the value of pK will be

)g(2OH4)s(Fe3 )g(2)s(43 H4OFe

(a) 42 )pH( (b)

42

42

)OpH(

)pH((c) 4

24

2 )OpH()pH( (d) none of these

91. When 1 mole of 3NO is converted into 1 mole 2NO , 0.5 mole 2N and 0.5 mole ON2

respectively, it accepts X, Y and Z moles of electrons, X, Y and Z are respectively

(a) 1, 5, 4 (b) 1, 2, 3 (c) 2, 1, 3 (d) 2, 3, 4

92. The amino acid glycine exists prediominantly in the form

COOCHNH 23its conjugate base and

conjugate acid will be respectively

(a) –

2 2 3 2NH CH COO , N H CH COO

(b) 2 2 3 2NH CH COOH, NH CH COO

(c) 3 2 2 2NH CH COOH, NH CH COO (d) none of these

93. A group of acidic oxide is

(a) 322 OAl,ONa (b) 32OAl,ZnO (c) MgO,OLi2 (d) 723 OMn,CrO

94. A mixture of 2H and 2O in the 2 : 1 volume ratio is allowed to diffuse through a porous plug.

The composition of gas mixture coming out initially is

(a) 4 : 1 (b) 8 : 1 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 3 : 1

95. Polyethylene can be produced from calcium carbide according to the following sequence of

reaction s

2 2CaC H O CaO HC CH

2 2 2 nnHC CH nH (CH CH )

The mass of polythlene which can be produced from 20 kg of 2CaC is

(a) 6.75 kg (b) 7.75 kg (c) 8.75 kg (d) 8.25 kg







96. In the following compounds, the order of acidity is

OH OH OH OH

3CH2NO

2NO)i( )ii( )iii( )iv(

(a) )ii()i()iv()iii( (b) )ii()iii()iv()i(

(c) )iv()iii()i()ii( (d) )ii()i()iii()iv(

97. Production of chloroform form 4CCl needs

(a) CCl4, water vapour (b) 4 2CCl , Fe/H O

(c) CCl4, 1, 2-dichloroethene (d) CCl4, KOH and phenol

98. If there are 17 carbon atoms present in the carbon chain attached to COONa group. The soap is

called

(a) Sodium stearate (b) Sodium palmitate (c) Sodium oleate (d) Sodium acetate

99. Enzymes are basically(a) edible proteins (b) carbohydrates

(c) carbohydrates containing nitrogen (d) specially structured proteins

100. BACHCH 5

24

2 PCl

])CO(Co[

HCO22

. B will be

(a) Propylchloride (b) Sec. Propylchloride

(c) Iso propylidene dichloride (d) Propylidene dichloride

Each question contains STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT-2 (Reason). Each

question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

(A) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True; Statement – 2 is a correct explanation for

Statement – 1.

(B) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True; Statement – 2 is NOT a correct explanationfor Statement – 1.

(C) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is False.

(D) Statement – 1 is False, Statement – 2 is True.







101. Statement-1 : Octane number of 2,2,3-trimethyl butane is more than 100.

Statement-2 : Octane number of 2,2,4- tirmethyl pentane is equal to 100.

102. Statement-1 : Anti conformation of butane is most stable.

Statement-2 : Chair form of cyclohexane is less stable than boat form.

103. Statement-1 : Metallic silver reacts with copper sulphate giving a colourless solution.

Statement-2 : The standard oxidation potential of silver is higher than that of copper.

104. Statement-1 : ])CN(Co[])NH(Cr[ 663 and ])CN(Cr[])NH(Co[ 663 are two different compounds

Statement-2 : They are pair of linkage isomers.

105. Statement-1 : The oxidation state of Cr in 5CrO is +6.

Statement-2 : CrO5 molecule is oxidiperoxiochromium(IV) which possesses two peroxide

linkages.

106. Statement-1 : Reddish brown gas, NO2 when passed through alkalies gives nitrite only.

Statement-2 : NO2 is acidic in nature and is a mixed anhydride of nitric and nitrous acids.

107. Statement-1 : The complex [Cr(SCN)(NH3)5]Cl2 is linkage isomeric with

[Cr(NCS)(NH3)5]Cl2.Statement-2 : SCN – is an ambident ligand.

108. Statement-1 : Ether are highly soluble in water but less soluble in Conc. H2SO4

Statement-2 : Lone pair of oxygen of ether act as a lewis base so it reacts with acid to form

oxonium salt.

109. Statement-1 : Boiling point of isomeric amines varies as 1º > 2 º > 3º Amines

Statement-2 : Steric hinderance in 3º amines is more at N atom which decreases the tendency

of H bond

110. Statement-1 : Ph – CH = CMe2 gives 2-Bromo-2-methyl-1-phenylpropane with HBr/Peroxide

Statement-2 : The reaction involves formation of more stable free radical intermediate.

111. Statement-1 : Dimethylsulphide is commonly used for the reduction of an ozonide of an alkeneto get the carbonyl compounds.

Statement-2 : It reduces the ozonide giving water soluble dimethyl sulphoxide and excess of it

evaporates.







112. Statement-1 : Water is a good solvent for ionic compounds but poor one for covalent

compounds.

Statement-2 : Hydration energy of ions releases sufficient energy to ovecome lattice energy

and break hydrogen bonds in water while covalent bonded compounds interact so weakly that

even van der Waal’s forces between molecules of the covalent compounds cannot be broken.

113. Statement-1 : Pressure exerted by a mixture of reacting gases is equal to the sum of their partialpressures.

Statement-2 : Reacting gases react to form a new gas having pressure equal to the sum of both.

114. Statement-1 : A one molal solution prepared at 20°C will retain the same molality at 100°C,

provided there is no loss of solute or solvent on heating.

Statement-2 : Molality is independent of temperature as mass remains constant even on

heating.

115. Statement-1 : 2Rb[ Cl ] RbCl Cl

Statement-2 : The product ICl is less reactive in comparison to Cl2(the alternative product)

116. Statement-1 :3 2NH H O(a) (a) [(a) is vander waals constant]

Statement-2 : Liquification pressure of Ammonia is more than liquification pressure of steam.117. Statement-1 : Above the critical temperature attractive tendency may dominate over the

repulsive tendency for a particular gas.

Statement-2 :Higher critical temperature implies that the gas is more easily liquifiable.

118. Statement-1: The dissociation of CaCO3 can be represented as, CaCO3(s) CaO(s) +

CO2(g). Some solid CaCO3 is placed in an evacuated vessel enclosed by a piston and heated so

that a portion of its decomposes. If the piston is moved so that the volume of the vessel is

doubled, while the temperature is held constant, the number of moles of CO 2 in the vessel

increases.

Statement-2: The pressure of CO2 in the vessel will remain the same to attain equilibrium

119. Statement-1 : No. of paired & unpaired electrons are same in valid resonating structure.

Statement-2 : Electrons which are in p-orbital will always go in resonance.

120. Statement-1 : When Triphenyl methyl bromide is placed in liquid SO2, the solution becomes

good conductor of electricity.

Statement-2 : Liquid SO2 does not react with carbocation but it solvates the ions.







PART III : BOTANY



ONE is correct.

121. Selaginella and Salvinia are considered to represent a significant step toward evolution of seedhabit because :

(a) Megaspore possess endosperm and embryo surrounded by seed coat

(b) Embryo develops in female gametophyte which is retained on parent sporophyte

(c) Female gametophyte is free and gets dispersed like seeds

(d) Female gametophyte lacks archegonium

122. Consider the following four statements whether they are correct or wrong.

A. The Gymnosperms are heterosporous

B. Chlorophyll ‘a’ absent in phaeophyceae

C. Zygote undergo reduction division immediately in Bryophytes

D. The synergids and antipodals degenerate after fertilization in Angiosperm

The two wrong statements together are :

(a) Statements A and C (b) Statements B and D

(c) Statements A and B (d) Statements B and C

123. Which one of the following aspects is an exclusive characteristic of living organisms?

(a) Isolated metabolic reaction occur in vitro

(b) Increase in body mass by accumulation of material both on surface as well as internally

(c) Increase in mass from inside only

(d) Ability to sense environmental stimuli and respond

124. Vaxillary aestivation is present in

(a) Calotropis, banana (b) Citrus, Mango

(c) Pea, Beans (d) Strawberry, Apple







125. In the given graph, broken line indicates :

(a) r

(b) K – N

(c) K

(d) Density independent effect

126. Which of the following statement is not correct about ecological nich of an organism :

(a) includes the physical space occupied by it (b) its functional role in the community

(c) it represents trophic position of a species (d) competition is absent in ecological nich

127. Bulliform cells are present in –

(a) abaxial epidermis of dicot leaf (b) Adaxial epidermis of monocot of leaf

(c) adaxial epidermis of dicot leaf (d) Abaxial epidermis of monocot leaf

128. Consider the following four statements (A – D) related to population interaction and select the

correct option stating which ones are true (T) and which ones are false (F).

A. Poisonous candic glycosides produces by calotropis.

B. Brood parasitism in birds is a fascinating example of parasitism.

C. The female mosquito is considered a parasite, it needs our blood for reproduction.

D. The Mediterranean orchid ophrys does not employs sexual deceit to get pollination done by

a species of bee.

Options :

A B C D

(a) F F T T(b) F T T F

(c) T T F F

(d) T F F T







129. Which of the following options gives the correct matching of a disease with its causative

organisms :

Disease Causative organisms

(a) Hensen’s disease Mycobacterium leprae

(b) Pneumonia Treponema pallidium

(c) Paralytic shell fish poisoning Noctiluca

(d) Late blight of potato Alternaria solani

130. Function of companion cells is :

(a) Loading of sucrose into sieve elements by passive transport

(b) Loading of sucrose into sieve elements

(c) Providing energy

(d) Providing water to phloem

131. Which of the following is used by prehistoric man to split rock and boulders -

(a) Osmotic pressure (b) Turgor pressure

(c) Suction pressure (d) Imbibitional pressure

132. In Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheath cells have :

(a) thick wall, no intercellular space and having a large number of chloroplast

(b) thin walls, no intercellular spaces and several chloroplast

(c) thick walls, many intercellular spaces and few chloroplast

(d) thin walls, many intercellular spaces and no chloroplast

133. Which one of the following is a wrong matching of a microbe and its industrial product, whilethe remaining three are correct.

(a) Aspergillus niger – citric acid (b) Trichoderma polysporum – cyclosporin A

(c) Yeast – statins (d) Clostridium butylicum – lactic acid







134. An ion involved in photolysis of water and maintaining cation – anion balance, the deficiency of

which also causes bronze colouration of wilted leaves and stunted roots is :

(a) Cl –

(b) Mn2+

(c) Ca+2

(d) Fe+2

135. Which is powerful herbicide inhibits the flow of electrons from QA to QB is :

(a) Paraquat (b) DCMU (c) Hydroxylamine (d) CCCP

136. When tripalmitin is used as respiratory substrate then RQ is-

(a) 0.7 (b) 1.8 (c) 2.3 (d) 0

137. Match the following :

Column I Column II

A. Binding of mRNA to smaller ribosomal subunit (i) IF1 and eIF4

B. Binding of mRNA to larger ribosomal subunit (ii) IF3 and eIF2

C. Codon anticodon interaction (iii) E-FG and eEF2

D. Translocation (iv) IF2 and eIF3

(a) A (ii), B (i), C (iv), D (iii) (b) A (i), B (ii), C (iii), D (iv)

(c) A (ii), B (i), C (iii), D (iv) (d) A (i), B (ii), C (iv), D (III)

138. How many inactivated hetero-chromatinised X-chromosomes are present in 44 + XXX female?

(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1

139. Match column I with column II and select the correct option :

Column I Column II

A. Rhizopus stolonifer (i) Lung and ear infections

B. Aspergillus (ii) Soft rot or leek disease of strawberry

C. Amanita caesarea (iii) Red rot of sugarcaneD. Colletotrichum falcatum (iv) Caeser’s mushroom

(a) A (ii), B (i), C (iv), D (iii) (b) A (i), B (ii), C (iii), D (iv)

(c) A (iv), B (iii), C (i), D (ii) (d) A (iii), B (iv), C (ii), D (i)







140. Geitonogamy is –

(a) Transfer of pollen grain from one plant to another

(b) Transfer of pollen grain within the same flower

(c) Transfer of pollen grain from anther to stigma of another flower of same plant

(d) None of these

In the following questions (21 to 30) a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of

Reason (R).

1. If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of Assertion then

mark (a)

2. If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the

Assertion, then mark (b)

3. If the Assertion is true statement but Reason is false statement then mark (c)

4. If both Assertion and Reason are false statement then mark (d)

141. A : It is not essential for a genus to have many species.

R : Genus is assemblage of related species.

142. A : Sorosis is a composite fruit.

B : It develops from hypanthodium inflorescence.

143. A : In plants which flower in short day conditions, the flowering response is primarily due to

the length of the light period.

R : The vegetative buds of SDP are converted into flower primordia in the light period.

144. A : Apomictic seeds fo a plant produce clonal population.R : During apomixis embryos are formed without meiosis and fertilization.

145. A : Pribnow box is a regulatory sequence found in prokaryotes.

R : It is found at – 10 position of promoter and will read AGGAGG in 5 ' 3' direction.







146. A : Organic farming is the farming practice with the use of biofertilizers.

R : Phosphate is solubilized by some bacteria and by some fungi that form association with

plant roots.

147. A : Scutellum is cotyledon in grass family.

R : Radical and root cap is enclosed by an undifferentiated sheath called coleorrhiza.148. A : Banana is parthenocarpic fruit.

R : Fruits develop without fertilization is parthenocarpy fruits.

149. A: Major source of O2 liberation is photo dissociation.

R: Photo dissociation liberates O2 from water at lower altitude

150. A: Plant quarantine is not an essential step in exotic collection

R: Such measures are time taking and expensive.

PART IV : ZOOLOGY



ONE is correct.

151. Which of the following is incorrect about the given graph?

(a) The curve is called oxygen dissociation curve

(b) The part ‘A’ represents percentage saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen

(c) The part ‘B’ represents partial pressure of carbon dioxide

(d) This curve is highly useful in studying the effect of factors like pCO2, H+

concentration,

etc.







152. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.

Column-I Column-II

A. Natural methods (i) Coitus interruptus

B. IUDs (ii) LNG – 20

C. Barrier methods (iii) Diaphragms

D. Surgical methods (iv) Multiload 375

E. Oral contraceptives (v) Saheli

(vi) Nirodh

(vii) Sterilization

(viii) Vasectomy

(ix) CuT

(a) A – (i), B – (ii); (iv); (ix), C – (iii); (vi), D – (vii); (viii), E – (v)

(b) A – (i), B – (ii); (iv), C – (iii); (vi); (ix), D – (vii); (viii), E – (v)

(c) A – (i), B – (ii); (iv); (ix), C – (iii); (ix), D – (vii); (viii), E – (v); (vi)(d) A – (i), B – (iv); (ix), C – (ii); (iii); (vi), D – (vii); (viii), E – (v)

153. The diagram given here is the :

(a) representation of Miller’s experiment

(b) representation of Redi’s experiment

(c) representation of Louis Pasteur’s experiment

(d) representation of Spallanzani’s experiment







154. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct answer from codes given below.

Column-I Column-II

A. Leishmania donovani (i) Malaria

B. Wuchereria bancrofti (ii) Amoebiasis

C. Trypanosoma gambiense (iii) Kala azar

D. Entamoeba histolytica (iv) Sleeping sickness

(v) Filariasis

(a) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (i) (b) A – (iii), B – (iv_, C – (v), D – (ii)

(c) A – (iii), B – (v), C – (iv), D – (ii) (d) A – (iii), B – (v), C – (ii), D – (i)

155. A restriction endonuclease breaks bonds between the :

(a) base pairs of a DNA molecule

(b) base pairs of a DNA-RNA hybrid molecule

(c) sugar and phosphate components of a nucleic acid molecule(d) exons and introns of a DNA molecule

156. pBR322 was the first artificial cloning vector to be constructed. What does “BR” stands for?

(a) Bacteriophage and Recombinant (b) Boliver and Rodriguez

(c) Boyer and Replicative (d) None of these

157. Which of the following genes were introduced in cotton to protect it from cotton bollworms?

(a) Cry Ac and Cry Ab (b) Bt Ac and Bt Ab

(c) Cry IAc and Cry II Ab (d) Nif genes

158. According to one of the most widely accepted theories, earth’s atmosphere before origin of life

consisted of a mixture of :(a) O3, CH4, O2 and H2O (b) O2, NH3, CH4 and H2O

(c) H2, CO2, NH3 and CH4 (d) CH4, NH3, H2 and H2O vapours







159. The given figure shows an example of :

(a) homologous organs (b) convergent evolution

(c) divergent evolution (d) both (a) and (c)

160. The given diagram shows axon terminal. Select the option that correctly matches the steps in

transmission of impulses (list i – vii) with the labellings (A – D) in diagram.

(i) Chemicals called neurotransmitters are released in the synaptic cleft through ion channels.

(ii) When an impulse arrives at the axon terminal, it stimulates the movement of synaptic

vesicles.

(iii) Neurotransmitters are endocytosed into the neurons.

(iv) The ion channels close with the binding of neurotransmitters to their specific receptors

vesicles.

(v) Synaptic vesicles move towards the membrane where they fuse with the plasma membrane.







(vi) Neurotransmitters are released in the synaptic cleft.

(vii)The released transmitters bind to their specific receptors on postsynaptic membrane.

A B C D

(a) (ii) (iii) (v) (i)

(b) (v) (vi) (ii) (iv)

(c) (ii) (vi) (v) (vii)

(d) (v) (iii) (ii) (iv)

161. The following graph shows the levels of ovarian hormones during a menstrual cycle. What do 1

and 2 represent?

1 2

(a) Progesterone Estrogen

(b) FSH LH

(c) LH FSH

(d) Estrogen Progesterone

162. Following is the list of skull bones, how many of them is/are in unpaired form-Parietal bone;

Temporal bone; Occipital; Ethmoid bone; sphenoid bone; Zygomatic bone, and Mandible.

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) All of these

163. A localized inflammatory response appears at the site of infection causes redness, swelling, painand heat due to certain chemical, they are :

(a) cerumen and mucus (b) histamine and cerumen

(c) histamine and prostaglandins (d) prostaglandins and cerumen







164. Following are the different stages of spermatogenesis, process of differentiation takes place

between which two stages :

A. Spermatogonia

B. Pri. Spermato cytes

C. Sec spermatocytesD. Spermatids

E. Spermatozoa

(a) Between A and B (b) Between B and C

(c) Between C and D (d) Between D and E

165. The Hardy-Weinberg principle cannot operate if :

(a) the population is very large

(b) frequent mutations occur in the population

(c) the population has no chance of interaction with other populations

(d) free interbreeding occurs among all members of the population166. Which of the following statements is incorrect for centrioles?

(a) Both the centrioles in a centrosome lie perpendicular to each other.

(b) Central proteinaceous hub is missing in a centriole.

(c) Each centriole has an organization like that of a cartwheel.

(d) Centrosome usually contains 2 cylindrical centrioles.

167. What does (i) and (ii) represent in the given flowchart?

M I M II

(i) (ii)

Parent cell 2 Daughter cells 4 Daughter cells

(a) (i) = 2n, (ii) = n

(b) (i) = n, (ii) = n

(c) (i) = n, (ii) = 2n

(d) (i) = 2n, (ii) = 2n







168. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.

Column-I (Types of cells) Column-II (Secretions)

A. Beta cells (i) Lysozyme

B. Mast cells (ii) Mucus

C. Paneth cells (iii) Histamine

D. Acinar cells (iv) Insulin

(v) Pancreatic enzymes

(a) A – (iv), B – (ii), C – (i), D – (v) (b) A – (v), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv)

(c) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (i), D – (v) (d) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (i), D – (v)

169. Given here is the figure of a section of Graafian follicle. Identify the labeled parts A to E and

select the correct option.

(a) A – Theca externa, B – Theca interna, C – Ovum, D – Antrum, E – Membrana granulosa

(b) A – Membrana granulosa, B – Theca externa, C – Ovum, D – Antrum, E – Theca interna

(c) A – Membrana granulose, B – Theca interna, C – Ovum, D – Antrum, E – Theca externa

(d) A – Theca externa, B – Theca interna, C – Ovum, D – Membrana granulose, E – Antrum

170. The principal tail piece of human sperm shows the microtubular arrangement of :

(a) 7 + 2 (b) 9 + 2

(c) 11 + 2 (d) 13 + 2







In the following questions (171 to 180) a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of

Reason (R).

1. If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of Assertion then

mark (a)2. If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the

Assertion, then mark (b)

3. If the Assertion is true statement but Reason is false statement then mark (c)

4. If both Assertion and Reason are false statement then mark (d)

171. A : Cardiac muscle of the heart is striated and has intercalated discs between its fibres (cells).

R : It provides quick, powerful and rhythmic contractions to the heart.

172. A : Urinary bladder is lined by transitional epithelium.

R : Transitional epithelium keeps the size of bladder constant at all time.

173. A : In prokaryotes mitochondria are absent.

R : In prokaryotes mesosomes are present which help in respiration.

174. A : Haemoglobin is an example of quaternary structure of proteins.

R : Haemoglobin molecule is composed of four polypeptide chains – two -chains and two -

chains.

175. A : About 70% of CO2 that enters RBCs changes into HCO –

3 for transport in plasma to the

lungs where it reconverts into CO2 for elimination.

R : About 40% of CO2 that enters RBCs changes into carbaminohaemoglobin which releases

O2 in the lungs.

176. A : Prothrombin is essential for blood clotting.R : Prothrombin is synthesized in the liver in the presence of Ca

++.

177. A : The SA node acts as pacemaker.

R : The SA node is located in the wall of the right atrium near the interatrial septum.





178. A : In the descending limb of loop of Henle, the urine is hypertonic, while in the ascending

limb of loop of Henle, the urine becomes hypotonic.

R : Descending limb is impermeable to Na+, while ascending limb is impermeable to H2O.

179. A : In a Graafian follicle, the primary oocyte and the follicle cells may be regarded sibling

cells.

R : Both arise from the same parent cell, the oogonium, by mitotic divisions.

180. A : Active immunity is developed when a person’s own cells produce antibodies in response to

infection or vaccine.

R : Injection of snake antivenom against snake bite is an example of active immunization.

Ft-1 Aiims Offline Final

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