CHAPTER 1

1) This is the study of the functions of body structures.

a) anatomyb) physiologyc) endocrinology d) histologye) immunology

Answer: b

2) This is defined as a group of cells that work together to perform a particular function.

a) tissueb) organc) molecules d) compounds e) organism

Answer: a

3) Using your fingers to find your pulse on your wrist is an example of

a) auscultation. b) palpation. c) percussion.

d) laparoscopy.e) electrocardiography.

Answer: b

4) Percussion techniques can be used to detect

a) heart beats.b) pulse rate.c) arthritis.d) fluid in the lungs. e) enlarged organs.

Answer: d

5) This is the sum of all chemical processes that occur in the body.

a) metabolism b) anabolism c) catabolism d) auscultation e) palpation

Answer: a

6) List the basic processes of life. Answer:

The basic processes of life include metabolism, responsiveness, movement, growth, differentiation and reproduction.

7) This is the condition of equilibrium (balance) in the bodys internal environment.

a) palpationb) metabolism c) homeostasis d) autopsye) differentiation

Answer: c

8) The two organ systems that regulate and maintain homeostasis are the

a) cardiovascular and integumentary systems. b) nervous and endocrine systems.c) cardiovascular and respiratory systems.d) respiratory and muscular systems.

e) urinary and integumentary systems.

Answer: b

9) The composition of this body fluid, which fills the narrow spaces between cells and tissues, directly affects the proper functioning of cells.

a) lymphb) blood plasmac) interstitial fluid d) intracellular fluid e) vitreous body

Answer: c

10) Describe the differences between positive and negative feedback systems. Answer:

A positive feedback system will strengthen or reinforce a change in one of the bodys controlled conditions while a negative feedback system will reverse a change in a controlled condition.

11) This is the structure of a feedback system that receives output from the control center.

a) receptorb) stimulusc) responsed) effectore) efferent pathway

Answer: d

12) This is the structure of a feedback system that provides input to the control center.

a) receptorb) musclec) responsed) effectore) efferent pathway

Answer: a

13) A condition NOT regulated by a negative feedback loop would be:

a) childbirthb) body temperature c) blood pressured) heart ratee) blood sugar

Answer: a

14) Objective changes in a patients normal body function that can be directly observed or measured by a clinician are referred to as

a) symptoms. b) disorders. c) disturbance. d) diseases

e) signs. Answer: e

15) Describe the anatomical position. Answer:

In the anatomical position, the subject stands erect facing the observer with the head level and the eyes facing forward. The feet are flat on the floor and directed forward and the arms are at the sides with the palms turned forward.

16) The brain is located in the

a) cranial cavity.b) vertebral cavity. c) abdominal cavity. d) pericardial cavity. e) pleural cavity.

Answer: a

17) The lungs are located in the

a) cranial cavity.b) vertebral cavity. c) abdominal cavity. d) pericardial cavity. e) pleural cavity.

Answer: e

18) The stomach is located in the

a) cranial cavity.b) vertebral cavity. c) abdominal cavity. d) pericardial cavity. e) pleural cavity.

Answer: c

19) This cavity is located inferior to the abdominal cavity.

a) vertebral canalb) cranial cavityc) abdominal cavity d) pericardial cavity e) pelvic cavity

Answer: e

20) Which cavity contains the heart?

a) cranial cavityb) vertebral cavity c) abdominal cavity d) pericardial cavity e) pleural cavity

Answer: d

21) The function of the secretions of a serous membrane, like the pleura, is to

a) separate the thoracic and abdominal cavities. b) protect the central nervous system.c) prevent infection.d) sreduce friction between neighboring organs. e) carry nervous impulses.

Answer: d

22) This plane divides the body into equal right and left halves.

a) frontalb) midsagittal c) transverse d) obliquee) coronal

Answer: b

23) This plane divides the body into anterior and posterior portions.

a) frontalb) sagittalc) transverse d) obliquee) midsagittal

Answer: a

24) A transverse plane will cut a body or organ into

a) anterior and posterior portions.b) left and right portions.c) superior and inferior portions.d) portions separated at an angle to its longitudinal axis. e) unequal left and right portions.

Answer: c

25) This directional term means farther from the midline.

a) medial b) anterior c) proximal d) deepe) lateral

Answer: e

26) This directional term means farther from the attachment of a limb to the trunk or farther from the origination of a structure.

a) deepb) contralateral c) laterald) cephalice) distal

Answer: e

27) This directional term is the opposite of deep.

a) superficial b) superior c) inferiord) distal

e) proximal Answer: a

28) Choose the directional term that would make the following sentence correct. The heart is _____ to the liver.

a) inferiorb) anteriorc) contralateral d) superiore) superficial

Answer: d

29) Choose the directional term that would make the following sentence correct. The sternum is ____ to the heart.

a) posterior b) anterior c) inferior d) superior e) lateral

Answer: b

30) Which of the following organs is not found in the abdominal cavity?

a) stomachb) spleenc) liverd) gallbladder e) diaphragm

Answer: e

31) This serous membrane covers the viscera within the abdominal cavity, and lines the abdominal wall and the inferior surface of the diaphragm.

a) pericardium b) pleurac) mediastinum d) dura mater e) peritoneum

Answer: e

44) Name the cavities of the trunk and the serous membranes that line them. Answer:

The two main cavities of the trunk are the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities. The thoracic cavity can be divided into three smaller cavities called the pericardial cavity, and two fluid-filled spaces called pleural cavities. The pericardial cavity is lined by the pericardium. The pleural cavity is lined by the pleura. The central part of the thoracic cavity is an anatomical region called the mediastinum. It is between the lungs, extending from the sternum to the vertebral column and from the first rib to the diaphragm. The abdominopelvic cavity can be divided into the abdominal and pelvic cavities, both of which are lined by the peritoneum.

45) List the eleven organ systems of the human body. Answer:

The eleven organ systems of the human body include the integumentary, skeletal, muscular, nervous, digestive, urinary, respiratory, immune and lymphatic, cardiovascular, endocrine, and reproductive systems.

46) Name the structural levels of the body and briefly describe each level. Answer:

The chemical level consists of atoms and molecules. The cellular level consists of cells which are the smallest form of life. The tissue level consists of groups of cells that work to provide a single function. The organ level consists of organs, constructed from different types of tissue that can provide several different specific functions. The organ systems consist of one or more organs that are interlinked in general functions. The organism is made up of all the organ systems, which work to provide homeostasis.

47) List and briefly describe the six basic life processes. Answer:

The six basic life processes include: 1)Metabolism is the sum of all chemical processes in the body. 2)Responsiveness is the bodys ability to detect and respond to internal and external stimuli. 3)Movement includes motions that range from movements within individual cells to movement of the entire body. 4)Growth means an increase in body size or an increase in the number of cells. 5)Differentiation is the process that converts a cell from unspecialized to specialized. 6)Reproduction refers to formation of new cells for growth and repair or production of a new individual.

48) Describe a feedback system and list its general components. Answer:

A feedback loop is a cycle of events in which the status of the body condition is monitored, evaluated and changed to maintain homeostasis. A feedback system will include a receptor that detects the stimuli, a control center that receives the input from the receptor and generates an output, and an effector that receives the output and produces a response.

49) Which of the following noninvasive diagnostic techniques is an example of inspection?

a) tapping and listening for an echo to detect fluid in the lungs b) feeling the abdomen to detect tender organsc) listening for crackling sounds during breathingd) examining the surface of patients skin for presence of a rash e) feeling the gonads to detect abnormal masses

Answer: d

50) Which subspecialty of physiology deals with the study of the functional properties of nerve cells?

a) endocrinologyb) cardiovascular physiology c) neurophysiologyd) immunologye) pathophysiology

Answer: c

51) Which subspecialty of physiology deals with the study of the chemical regulators in the blood?

a) endocrinologyb) cardiovascular physiology c) neurophysiologyd) immunologye) pathophysiology

Answer: a

52) Which subspecialty of physiology deals with the study of functions of the kidneys?

a) exercise physiology b) renal physiologyc) neurophysiologyd) immunology

e) pathophysiology Answer: b

53) Which subspecialty of physiology deals with the study of changes in organ functions due to muscular activity?

a) exercise physiology b) renal physiologyc) neurophysiologyd) immunology

e) pathophysiology Answer: a

54) Which subspecialty of physiology deals with the study of functional changes associated with disease and aging?

a) exercise physiologyb) renal physiologyc) pathophysiologyd) cardiovascular physiology e) immunology

Answer: c

55) Which subspecialty of physiology deals with the study of the bodys defense against disease- causing agents?

a) exercise physiologyb) renal physiologyc) pathophysiologyd) cardiovascular physiology e) immunology

Answer: e

56) Which subspecialty of anatomy deals with the study of structural changes associated with disease?

a) embryologyb) developmental biology c) radiographic anatomy d) pathological anatomy e) immunology

Answer: d

57) Which of the following anatomical terms refers to the groin?

a) pelvicb) umbilical c) sternald) otice) inguinal

Answer: e

58) Which of the following anatomical terms refers to the front of the elbow?

a) olecranalb) antecubital c) carpald) digitale) antebrachial

Answer: b

59) Which of the following anatomical terms refers to the ear?

a) oticb) orbital c) ocular d) orale) occipital

Answer: a

60) Which of the following anatomical terms refers to the body region between the anus and the external genitals?

a) gluteal b) crural c) lumbar d) perineal e) inguinal

Answer: d

61) Which of the following anatomical terms refers to the great toe?

a) pollex b) tarsal c) hallux d) pedal e) carpal

Answer: c

62) Which of the following anatomical terms refers to the thumb?

a) pollex b) tarsal c) hallux d) volar e) carpal

Answer: a

85) Feeling the presence of a mosquito biting your arm is an example of

a) growth.b) movement.c) responsiveness. d) reproduction.

e) differentiation. Answer: c

86) During a visit to your doctor, you complain about headache and nausea. These changes in your body functions are considered to be

a) signs.b) symptoms.c) pharmacology.d) controlled condition. e) epidemiology.

Answer: b

87) An embryonic stem cell undergoes ______ to become a neuron.

a) catabolismb) growthc) reproduction d) anabolisme) differentiation

Answer: e

88) Which of the following describes a body process that is controlled using a positive feedback loop?

a) increasing body temperature in response to a drop in body temperature b) decreasing body temperature in response to elevated body temperature c) decreasing blood [glucose] in response to elevated blood [glucose]d) increasing strength of uterine contractions in response to cervical stretch e) decreasing heart rate in response to elevated blood pressure

Answer: d

89) Which of the following organs contains the control center for the feedback system that regulates blood pressure?

a) skinb) arteriesc) braind) hearte) pituitary gland

Answer: c

90) Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of a negative feedback system?

a) regulates conditions in body that remain fairly stable over long periods b) important in maintaining homeostasisc) involves control centers in the nervous or endocrine systemsd) stimulates changes that reverse the direction of the stimulus

e) usually requires an event outside the feedback system to shut it off Answer: e

91) Which of the following represents the largest and most complex level of structural organization in the human body?

a) chemical level b) cellular level c) tissue leveld) organ level

e) organismal level

Answer: e

92) Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic types of tissues found in the human body?

a) epithelial tissue b) connective tissue c) muscular tissue d) necrotic tissuee) nervous tissue

Answer: d

93) Which of the following correctly list the levels of structural organization in the human body from largest to smallest?

a) chemical - cellular - tissue - organ - organ system - organism b) cellular - chemical - tissue - organ - organ system - organism c) organism - organ system - organ - tissue - cellular - chemical d) organ - organ system - organism - tissue - cellular - chemical e) tissue - cellular - organ - organ system - organism - chemical

Answer: c

94) Which of the following structures or regions could you clearly see when you are viewing the anterior side of an individual standing in the standard anatomical position?

a) shoulder bladeb) palm of the handc) plantar surface of footd) popliteal region of the knee e) gluteal region

Answer: b

95) Which of the following is a safe non-invasive imaging technique that uses the reflection of high frequency sound waves off of body tissues to visualize a fetus during pregnancy?

a) computed tomographyb) magnetic resonance imaging c) ultrasound scanningd) radionuclide scanninge) amniocentesis

Answer: c

96) Mammography and bone densitometry are good examples of which of the following types of medical imaging.

a) computed tomographyb) magnetic resonance imaging c) ultrasound scanningd) radionuclide scanninge) low-dose radiography

Answer: e

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CHAPTER 12

1) Which of the following is NOT a function of the nervous system?

a) Sensory functionb) Integrative functionc) Motor functiond) All are functions of the nervous system

Answer: d

2) Which of the following are divisions of the peripheral nervous system?

a) Somatic nervous systemb) Autonomic nervous system c) Enteric nervous systemd) All of these choices

Answer: d

3) The motor portion of the autonomic nervous system can be divided into

a) somatic and sympathetic divisions.b) somatic and parasympathetic divisions.c) enteric and somatic divisions.d) sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions. e) voluntary and involuntary divisions.

Answer: d

4) Which of the following types of cells display the property of electrical excitability?

a) Muscle cellsb) Neuronsc) All of these choices d) None of these choices

Answer: c

5) Which of following organelles is a common site of protein synthesis in neurons?

a) mitochondria b) nucleusc) Nissl bodyd) Golgi apparatus e) nucleolus

Answer: c

6) With respect to neurons, the term nerve fiber refers to a) an axon.

b) a dendritec) a Nissl body.d) both axons and dendrites. e) all of these choices

Answer: d

7) This type of neuron has one dendrite and one axon emerging from the cell body.

a) Multipolar neuron b) Bipolar neuronc) Unipolar neuron d) Purkinje cell

e) Renshaw cell

Answer: b

8) Schwanns cells begin to form myelin sheaths around axons in the peripheral nervous system

a) when neurons are injured.b) during fetal development.c) after birth.d) only in response to electrical stimulation by neuroglial cells. e) during the early onset of Alzheimers disease.

Answer: b

9) This type of nervous tissue contains neuronal cell bodies, dendrites, unmyelinated axons, axon terminals, and neuroglial cells.

a) Gray matter b) White matter c) Nissl bodies d) Ganglia

e) Nuclei Answer: a

10) Which of the following is NOT a type of channel used in production of electrical signals in neurons?

a) Leakage channelb) Voltage-gated channelc) Ligand-gated channeld) Mechanically gated channel e) Ion-gated channel

Answer: e

11) The resting membrane potential in neurons ranges from:

a) +5 to 100 mV b) 25 to 70 mV

c) 40 to 90 mVd) 90 to 5 mVe) None of these choices

Answer: c

12) A polarized cell

a) has a charge imbalance across its membrane.b) includes most cells of the body.c) exhibits a membrane potential.d) includes most cells of the body and exhibits a membrane potential. e) All of these choices are correct.

Answer: e

13) Na+/K+ATPase is considered to be an electrogenic pump because

a) it contributes to the negativity of the resting membrane potential.b) the sodium ions are negatively charged.c) it exhibits low permeability.d) both it contributes to the negativity of the resting membrane potential and the sodium ions are negatively charged.

e) all of these choices Answer: a

14) A depolarizing graded potential

a) makes the membrane more polarized. b) makes the membrane less polarized.c) is considered a type of action potential. d) is the last part of an action potential.

e) is seen when the cell approaches threshold. Answer: b

15) When a depolarizing graded potential makes the axon membrane depolarize to threshold,

a) ligand-gated Ca+2 channels close rapidly. b) voltage-gated Ca+2 channels open rapidly. c) ligand-gated Na+ channels close rapidly. d) voltage-gated Na+ channels open rapidly. e) none of these choices occur.

Answer: d

16) During the resting state of a voltage-gated Na+ channel, 1. the inactivation gate is open.2. the activation gate is closed.3. the channel is permeable to Na+.

a) 1 onlyb) 2 onlyc) 3 onlyd) both 1 and 2 are true.e) all of these choices are true.

Answer: d

17) During this period, a second action potential can only be initiated by a larger than normal stimulus

a) Latent periodb) Absolute refractory period c) Relative refractory period d) All of these choicese) None of these choices

Answer: c

18) Saltatory conduction

a) can occur in unmyelinated axonsb) happens due to an even distribution of voltage-gated Na+ channelsc) encodes only action potentials that are initiated in response to pain.d) occurs in unmyelinated axons and happens due to even distribution of voltage-gated Na+ channelse) occurs only in myelinated axons

Answer: e

19) Which type of axons has the largest diameter?

a) A fibersb) B fibersc) C fibersd) A and B fibers e) B and C fibers

Answer: a

20) The nervous system can distinguish between a light touch and a heavier touch by

a) saltatory conduction.b) continuous conduction of graded potentials.c) changing the frequency of impulses sent to sensory centers. d) propagation action potential in both directions.e) modifying the length of the refractory period.

Answer: c

21) Which of the following terms is used to describe a type of synapse?

a) Axodendriticb) Axosomaticc) Axoaxonicd) None of these choices e) All of these choices

Answer: e Difficulty: Medium

22) Faster communication and synchronization are two advantages of

a) chemical synapsesb) electrical synapsesc) ligand-gated channelsd) voltage-gated channelse) mechanically-gated channels

Answer: b

23) An excitatory neurotransmitter _________ the postsynaptic membrane.

a) depolarizesb) repolarizesc) hyperpolarizesd) does not affect the polarity of e) moves across channels in

Answer: a

24) IPSP stands fora) inhibitory presynaptic summation potential

b) inhibitory postsynaptic summation potential c) inhibitory postsynaptic potentiald) inhibitory presynaptic potential.e) none of these choices

Answer: c

25) Diffusion, enzymatic degradation, and uptake by cells are all ways to

a) remove a neurotransmitterb) stop a spatial summationc) continue a temporal summation d) inhibit a presynaptic potential e) excite a presynaptic potential

Answer: a

26) When the summed total of postsynaptic potentials rises above threshold, creation of action potentials occurs

a) in the synaptic cleft. b) in the dendrites.c) at the trigger zone.d) in the neuron nucleus. e) in the neuroplasm.

Answer: c

27) A postsynaptic neuron responds to neurotransmitters released by a presynaptic neuron by creating

a) EPSPsb) water-filled channels in its membrane c) IPSPsd) either EPSPs or IPSPse) All the choices are correct

Answer: d

28) Which of the following is NOT considered a small molecule neurotransmitter?

a) Acetylcholineb) Biogenic amines c) Purinesd) Endorphinse) Serotonin

Answer: d

29) This type of neural circuit consists of a single presynaptic neuron synapsing with several postsynaptic neurons.

a) Diverging circuit b) Converging circuit

c) Reverberating circuitd) Parallel after-discharge circuit e) Normal circuit

Answer: a

30) Plasticity means

a) ability to regenerate after being damaged.b) sending a signal through a converging circuit. c) signal transmission at a synapse.d) ability to change based on experience.e) ability to stretch and recoil without damage.

Answer: d

31) What factors limit neurogenesis in the CNS of adults? Answer:

Neurogenesis in adults is limited by: 1) Inhibitory influences from neuroglia, mainly from oligodendrocytes, and 2) the absence of growth-stimulating cues present during fetal development.

32) Describe four ways drugs can modify the effects of neurotransmitters.

Answer:

Drugs can modify neurotransmitter effects by: 1) stimulating or inhibiting their synthesis, 2) enhancing or blocking their release, 3) activating or blocking their receptor, and 4) stimulating or inhibiting their removal.

33) List the three ways that neurotransmitters can be removed from a synapse. Answer:

Neurotransmitters can be removed by: 1) diffusion, 2) enzymatic degradation or 3) uptake by cells.

34) List the three major factors that contribute to the creation of the resting membrane potential in excitable cells.

Answer: The major factors that lead to creation of resting potential are: 1) unequal distribution of ions across the plasma membrane, 2) inability of most anions to leave the cell, and 3) the electrogenic nature of the Na+,K+ -ATPase.

35) Briefly describe the events that occur during the depolarizing phase of an action potential. Answer:

Voltage-gated Na+ channels open rapidly allowing Na+ to rush into the cell driven by both the electrical and chemical gradient. The inward rush of Na+ causes the membrane potential to become less negative, resulting in depolarization.

63) Which of the following types of neurons have one axon and one dendrite emerging from the cell body and are found in the retina of the eye, inner ear, and olfactory region of the brain?

a) bipolar neuronb) multipolar neuron c) unipolar neuron d) nonpolar neuron e) pseudounipolar

Answer: a

64) Which of the following types of neurons is exclusively found in the cerebellum?

a) bipolar neuronb) multipolar neuron c) Purkinje cellsd) unipolar neuron e) pyramidal cells

Answer: c

75) Name the type of membrane channel that opens in response to chemical binding and is found in dendrites of some sensory receptors like pain receptors, and in the dendrites and cell bodies of interneurons and motor neurons.

a) leakage channelb) ligand-gated channelsc) mechanically gated channels d) voltage-gated channelse) pressure-sensitive channel

Answer: b

76) Name the type of membrane channel that opens in response to touch, pressure, vibration, or tissue stretching and is found in the auditory receptors of the ear, and in touch and pressure receptors in the skin.

a) leakage channelb) ligand-gated channelsc) mechanically gated channels d) voltage-gated channelse) temperature-sensitive channel

Answer: c

77) Name the type of membrane channel that opens in response to changes in membrane potential and is located in axons of all types of neurons.

a) leakage channelb) ligand-gated channelsc) mechanically gated channels d) voltage-gated channelse) temperature-sensitive channel

Answer: d

78) Chromatolysis refers to

a) break up of lysosomes after neural injury. b) Wallerian degeneration after neural injury. c) plasticity of neuron.d) break up of Nissl bodies after neural injury. e) none of these choices

Answer: d

79) Wallerian degeneration refers to

a) degeneration of the proximal end of axon and myelin sheath after neural injury. b) degeneration of the distal end of axon and myelin sheath after neural injury.c) break of Nissl bodies after neural injury.d) plasticity of neuron.

e) none of these choices Answer: b

80) Describe the difference between spatial and temporal summation in a postsynaptic neuron. Answer:

Spatial summation is summation of postsynaptic potentials in response to stimuli that occur at different locations in the membrane of a postsynaptic cell at the same time. This typically occurs when multiple presynaptic neurons synapse with one postsynaptic neuron and fire simultaneously. Temporal summation is summation of postsynaptic potentials in response to stimuli that occur at the same location in the membrane of the postsynaptic cell but at different times. This typically occurs when one presynaptic neuron fires in rapid succession leading to a summing of the resulting EPSPs, which then triggers the generation of action potentials in the postsynaptic neuron as it moves above threshold.

81) Hearing your cell phone ring in an otherwise quiet lecture hall is an example of which of the following types of nervous system functions?

a) Sensory functionb) Integrative functionc) Motor functiond) More than one of the types of nervous system functions e) None of the types of nervous system functions

Answer: a

82) Which of the following types of electrical signals allow rapid long-distance communication within the nervous system?

a) resting potentialb) nerve action potential c) muscle action potential d) graded potentiale) long-term potentiation

Answer: b

83) In an action potential, the current that flows down the axon of a neuron is generated by the movement of ______ across the membrane.

a) electronsb) protonsc) ionsd) free radicals e) neutrons

Answer: c

84) In the process of spatial summation, ______ are added together and _____ are subtracted from that total to determine whether _____ will be created at the trigger zone of the postsynaptic neuron.

a) EPSPs; IPSPs; action potentials b) IPSPs; EPSPs; action potentials c) EPSPs; IPSPs; graded potentials d) IPSPs; action potentials; EPSPs e) EPSPs; action potentials; IPSPs

Answer: a

85) In temporal summation, a single presynaptic neuron stimulates the creation of action potentials in a postsynaptic neuron when it

a) stops firing long enough to allow the postsynaptic neuron to recover.b) fires at a fast enough rate that the sum of EPSPs in the postsynaptic neuron moves above threshold.c) fires at a steady rate that allows the postsynaptic neuron to return to resting potential.d) recruits other presynaptic neurons to begin to fire.e) runs out of neurotransmitter.

Answer: b

86) Which of the following neurotransmitters are used in virtually all of the inhibitory synapses found in the spinal cord?

a) gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) and acetylcholine b) gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) and glycinec) epinephrine and norepinephrined) serotonin and melatonin

e) glutamate and aspartate Answer: b

87) A neurotransmitter that binds to an ionotropic receptor that contains a chloride channel would be classified as an

a) inhibitory neurotransmitter and would produce an EPSP in the postsynaptic neuron. b) inhibitory neurotransmitter and would produce an IPSP in the postsynaptic neuron. c) excitatory neurotransmitter and would produce an EPSP in the postsynaptic neuron. d) excitatory neurotransmitter and would produce an IPSP in the postsynaptic neuron. e) excitatory neuropeptide and would hyperpolarize the postsynaptic neuron.

Answer: b

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CHAPTER 13

1) Which of the three spinal meninges is the most superficial?

a) Arachnoid mater b) Dura materc) Meninx mater d) Pia mater

e) Epi mater Answer: b

2) Which of the structures listed below contains cerebrospinal fluid?

a) Epidural spaceb) Subarachnoid space c) Dural spaced) Meninxe) Pia mater

Answer: b

3) Denticulate ligaments are thickenings of

a) arachnoid mater. b) pia mater.c) dura mater.d) interstitial fluid. e) subdural space.

Answer: b

Question type: Essay

4) The spinal cord does not extend the entire length of the vertebral column in an adult. Why? Answer:

During early childhood, both the spinal cord and the vertebral column grow longer as part of overall body growth. Elongation of the spinal cord stops around age four or five but growth of the vertebral column continues. This is why the spinal cord does not extend the entire length of the vertebral column.

5) What spinal cord feature is the area where the nerves that supply the lower limb emerge?

a) Lumbar enlargement b) Filum terminalec) Cauda equinad) Cranial nerve XII

e) Cervical enlargement

Answer: a

6) Which of the following structures contains only sensory axons that conduct nerve impulses from sensory receptors in the skin, muscles and internal organs to the CNS?

a) Spinal nervesb) Cauda equinac) Anterior root of spinal nerves d) Posterior root of spinal nerves e) Conus medullaris

Answer: d

7) Which layer of protective connective tissue is the outermost covering surrounding a spinal nerve?

a) dura mater b) pia materc) endoneurium d) perineurium e) epineurium

Answer: e

8) What types of axons are wrapped in a protective endoneurium? 1. Myelinated2. Unmyelinated3. Only dendrites are surrounded by endoneurium

a) 1 onlyb) 2 onlyc) 3 onlyd) Both 1 and 2e) None of these choices

Answer: d

9) Spinal nerves1. Are parts of PNS.2. connect the CNS to sensors and effectors in all parts of the body.3. are named according to the region of the cord from which they emerge.

a) 1 onlyb) 2 onlyc) 3 onlyd) both 1 & 3 e) 1, 2 & 3

Answer: e

10) This division of a spinal nerve reenters the vertebral cavity through the intervertebral foramen and serves the vertebrae, vertebral ligaments, blood vessels of the spinal cord, and meninges.

a) Dorsal ramusb) Ventral ramusc) Rami communicantes d) Meningeal branche) Brachial plexus

Answer: d

11) Intercostal nerves

a) are also known as cervical nerves.b) do not enter into a plexus and directly connect to the structures they supply. c) are found in the C6-T4 area of the vertebral column.d) extend through the sacrum.e) do not exist in humans.

Answer: b

12) A man presents with median nerve palsy in his left hand. What is the most likely site of injury?

a) Dorsal scapular nerve b) Intercostal nervec) Lumbar plexusd) Median nerve

e) Radial nerve Answer: d Difficulty: Medium

13) Which region of the spinal cord carries nerve impulses for proprioception?

a) Posterior white column b) Anterior gray hornc) Anterior white column d) Lateral white column e) Dermatome tract

Answer: a

14) These white matter tracts of the spinal cord carry sensory information.

a) Ascending tracts b) Descending tracts c) Integration tracts d) Columnar tracts e) Epidural tracts

Answer: a

15) What type of information is carried in the descending tracts of the spinal cord? 1. Sensory

2. Motor3. Integration

a) 1 onlyb) 2 onlyc) 3 onlyd) Both 1 & 2 e) Both 2 & 3

Answer: b

16) Another term for the summing of EPSPs and IPSPs in the gray matter of spinal cord is

a) refraction. b) facilitation. c) integration. d) adaptation. e) tetany.

Answer: c

17) This type of descending motor pathway conveys nerve impulses that originate in the cerebral cortex and are destined to cause precise, voluntary movements of skeletal muscles.

a) Indirect pathway b) Direct pathway c) Reflex arcd) Somatic arc

e) Muscle spindle

Answer: b

18) This type of descending motor pathway originates in the brainstem and governs automatic movements that help regulate muscle tone, posture and balance.

a) Indirect pathway b) Direct pathway c) Reflex arcd) Somatic arc

e) Muscle spindles Answer: a

19) Which of the following parts of a reflex arc monitors body conditions?

a) Sensory receptor b) Integrating center c) Motor neurond) Effector

e) Interneuron Answer: a

20) Which of the following parts of a reflex arc receives sensory information and decides how to respond to a change in the bodys condition?

a) Sensory receptor b) Sensory neuron c) Motor neurond) Effector

e) Integration center Answer: e

21) Which of the following parts of a nervous reflex arc is usually a muscle or gland?

a) Sensory receptor b) Sensory neuron c) Motor neurond) Effector

e) Integration center

Answer: d

22) Which of the following parts of a reflex arc would have a cell body in the posterior root ganglion?

a) Sensory receptor cell b) Sensory neuronc) Motor neurond) Effector

e) Interneuron

Answer: b

23) A reflex pathway having only one synapse in the CNS is called a

a) visceral reflex arc.b) somatic reflex arc.c) polysynaptic reflex arc. d) autonomic reflex arc. e) none of these choices

Answer: e

24) A nerve impulse initiated at a muscle spindle has to travel through which of the following structures to get into the spinal column?

a) Anterior root of spinal nerve b) Posterior root of spinal nerve c) Tectospinal tractd) Central canal

e) Lateral reticulospinal tract Answer: b

25) In response to a muscle being stretched, a muscle spindle initiates a somatic spinal reflex that causes1. contraction of the agonist muscle.2. relaxation of the antagonist muscle.

3. contraction of the antagonist muscle. 4. relaxation of the agonist muscle.

a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 4 only e) 1 and 2

Answer: e

26) In response to a tendon being stretched excessively, a tendon organ initiates a somatic spinal reflex that causes1. contraction of the agonist muscle.2. relaxation of the antagonist muscle.

3. contraction of the antagonist muscle. 4. relaxation of the agonist muscle.

a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 4 only e) 3 and 4

Answer: e

27) A somatic spinal reflex that involves one effector muscle being stimulated while the opposing muscle is inhibited is called_______ innervation.

a) reversalb) relaxedc) representative d) reciprocale) relegated

Answer: d

28) Which of following is NOT a function of the spinal reflexes that use muscle spindles and tendon organs as sensors?

a) Awareness of muscle tension in body b) Prevention of damage to musclesc) Protection of spinal nervesd) Prevention of damage to tendons

e) Maintenance of muscle tone

Answer: c

29) An ipsilateral, intersegmental, spinal somatic reflex will most likely control

a) only one flexor muscle on the same side of the body as the sensor.b) many flexor muscles on the same side of the body as the sensor.c) many flexor and extensor muscles on the same side of the body as the sensor. d) many flexor muscles on the opposite side of the body as the sensor. e) many flexor and extensor muscles on the opposite side of the body as the sensor. Answer: c

30) A typical spinal nerve has how many connections to the spinal cord?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5

Answer: b

31) This branch of a spinal nerve serves the deep muscles and skin of the posterior surface of the trunk.

a) Meningeal branchb) Rami communicantes c) Brachial plexusd) Posterior ramuse) Anterior ramus

Answer: d

32) The thoracic nerves are also called the

a) brachial nerves.b) lumbar nerves.c) sacral nerves.d) cervical nerves.e) intercostals nerves.

Answer: e

54) Describe the gross external anatomy of the spinal cord. Answer:

The spinal cord is roughly cylindrical, but slightly flattened anterior/posterior. It extends from the medulla to the superior border of L2. The length ranges from 42-45 cm and is approximately 2 cm in diameter. There is a cervical enlargement from C4-T1 and a lumbar enlargement from T9-T12. The conus medullaris is the tapered inferior end. The filum terminale is an extension of the pia mater that anchors the cord to the coccyx. The cauda equina is the roots of spinal nerves angling inferiorly in the vertebral canal from the end of the spinal cord. 31 pairs of spinal nerves leave the cord at regular intervals through the intervertebral foramina.

55) Name and describe the locations of the four major plexuses of spinal nerves. Answer:

1. Cervical: alongside C1 through C4; 2. Brachial: inferior and lateral to C4 through T1 and superior to rib, posterior to clavicle; 3. Lumbar: lateral to L1 through L4 passing obliquely

posterior to psoas major and anterior to quadratus lumborum; 4. Sacral: L4-S3; anterior to sacrum.

56) Identify and describe the function of each of the components of a spinal reflex arc. Answer:

1. Receptor: responds to specific changes in body conditions by producing graded potential; 2. Sensory neuron: conducts impulse from receptor to integrating center in gray matter of spinal cord; 3. Integrating center: site of synapse between sensory and other neurons; decision-making area in gray matter of spinal cord; 4. Motor neuron: conducts impulse from integrating center to effector; 5. Effector: is the structure that promotes change in body conditions by responding to motor nerve impulse, such as a muscle or a gland.

83) A severed obturator nerve will lead into paralysis of which region of the body?

a) Cervical b) Thoracic c) Lumbar d) Thigh

e) Arms Answer: d

84) During childbirth, anesthesia is administered into the epidural space of the spinal column between which of the following vertebrae?1. L4 and L52. T3 and T4

3. S4 and S5 4. C3 and C4

a) 1 onlyb) 2 onlyc) 3 onlyd) 4 onlye) Both 1 and 4

Answer: a

85) Which of the following spinal nerves DOES NOT travel through an intervertebral foramen to reach its destination?

a) cervical spinal nerve 1 b) thoracic spinal nerve 12 c) lumbar spinal nerve 2 d) sacral spinal nerve 1e) cervical spinal nerve 7

Answer: a

86) The cell bodies of the sensory neurons that carry information from the periphery to the spinal cord are located in the

a) anterior white commissure. b) central canal.c) lateral gray horn.d) posterior root ganglion.

e) posterior gray horn. Answer: d

87) Which of the following lists the connective tissue coverings of the axons, fascicles, and entire nerve in the correct order?

a) endoneurium, perineurium, epineurium b) endoneurium, epineurium, perineurium c) perineurium, epineurium, endoneurium d) epineurium, endoneurium, perineurium

Answer: a

88) Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of dermatomes?

a) Can be used clinically to determine area of spinal cord damageb) Each dermatome is only served by a single spinal nervec) Complete anesthesia of a single dermatome often requires blocking three adjacent spinal nervesd) Dermatomes are designated based on the cranial or spinal nerve that serves that area of the skine) The dermatome serving the face is supplied by the trigeminal cranial nerve

Answer: b

89) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the spinothalamic tract?

a) Begins in the spinal cordb) Terminates in the thalamusc) Found in the white matter of the spinal cordd) Carries motor information down the corde) Is composed of multiple axons carrying information in the spinal cord

Answer: d

90) Both the gracile fasciculus and cuneate fasciculus are ________ tracts found in the ______ white column of the spinal cord.

a) ascending; posterior b) descending; anterior c) ascending; anterior d) descending; posterior e) descending; lateral

Answer: a

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CHAPTER 14

1) The brain and spinal cord develop from the ______ neural tube.

a) mesodermal b) endodermal c) ectodermal d) cranial

e) caudal Answer: c

2) This brain vesicle gives rise to the midbrain and cerebral aqueduct.

a) Prosencephalonb) Mesencephalonc) Rhombencephalon d) Telencephalone) Myelencephalon

Answer: b

3) Which of the following is NOT a major region of the brain?

a) Brain stemb) Cerebellum c) Cauda equina d) Diencephalon e) Cerebrum

Answer: c

4) Which of the following brain structures consists of the medulla oblongata, pons and midbrain?

a) Brain stemb) Cerebrumc) Cerebellum d) Diencephalon e) Dura mater

Answer: a

5) Which of the following brain structures consists of the thalamus, hypothalamus and epithalamus?

a) Cerebellum b) Brain stemc) Cerebrumd) Diencephalon e) Dura mater

Answer: d

6) Which of the following meninges has two layers?

a) Spinal dura materb) Cranial dura materc) Spinal arachnoid mater d) Cranial arachnoid mater e) All of these choices

Answer: b

7) This extension of the dura mater separates the two hemispheres of the cerebrum.

a) Falx cerebrib) Falx cerebellic) Tentorium cerebelli d) Tentorium cerebrie) None of these choices

Answer: a

8) The adult brain represents only ____ of the total body weight.

a) 2% b) 5% c) 10% d) 12% e) 20%

Answer: a

9) This protects the brain by preventing the movement of harmful substances and pathogens from the blood into the brain tissue.

a) Dura materb) Arachnoid materc) Cerebrospinal fluid d) Blood brain barrier e) All of these choices

Answer: d

10) Cerebrospinal fluid carries small amounts of chemicals like glucose from the ______ to neurons and neuroglia.

a) interstitial fluid b) bilec) intracellular fluid d) arachnoid space e) blood

Answer: e

11) Which of the following is a fluid-filled cavity located in each hemisphere of the cerebrum?

a) Lateral ventricleb) Septum pellucidum c) Fourth ventricled) Third ventriclee) Corpus callosum

Answer: a

12) This is a narrow fluid-filled cavity found along the midline superior to the hypothalamus and between the right and left halves of the thalamus.

a) Lateral ventricleb) Septum pellucidum c) Third ventricled) Fourth ventriclee) Fifth ventricle

Answer: c

13) Which of the following describes a function of cerebrospinal fluid? 1. Mechanical protection2. pH homeostasis3. Circulation

a) 1 onlyb) 2 onlyc) 3 onlyd) Both 1 and 2e) All of these choices

Answer: e

14) These are networks of capillaries found in the walls of the ventricles of the brain that produce cerebrospinal fluid.

a) Choroid plexusesb) Lateral aperturesc) Interventricular foramina

d) Brachial plexusese) Aqueduct of the midbrain

Answer: a

15) Cerebrospinal fluid is reabsorbed through these fingerlike projections found in the dural venous sinuses.

a) Choroid plexuses b) Microvillic) Arachnoid villi d) Dural villi

e) Lemnisci Answer: c

16) This is a netlike region of white and gray matter that extends throughout the brainstem and functions to help maintain consciousness.

a) Cuneate nucleusb) Gracile nucleusc) Medial lemniscusd) Reticular formatione) Decussation of pyramids

Answer: d

17) This structure in the brain contains centers responsible for the startle reflex in response to loud sounds.

a) Superior colliculus b) Inferior colliculus c) Pontine nucleusd) Medial lemniscus e) Arbor vitae

Answer: b

18) This region of the brain contains pneumotaxic and apneustic areas that help control respiration.

a) Spinal cord b) Midbrain c) Ponsd) Thalamus e) Cerebellum

Answer: c

19) Pyramids are

a) gray matter protrusions found on the medulla oblongata. b) white matter protrusions found on the medulla oblongata. c) gray matter protrusions found on the pons.d) white matter protrusions found on the pons.

e) a network of white and gray matter found in the medulla oblongata. Answer: b

20) Medullary nuclei are1. masses of gray matter in the medulla oblongata. 2. masses of white matter in the medulla oblongata. 3. decussations of the pyramids.

a) 1 only.b) 2 only.c) 3 only.d) Both 1 and 2.e) None of these choices.

Answer: a

21) Which of the following regions of the brain contains the inferior olivary nucleus?

a) Ponsb) Medulla oblongata c) Pyramidsd) Hypothalamuse) Midbrain

Answer: b

22) The medial lemniscus is a band of white matter that extends through 1. the medulla oblongata.2. the pons.3. the midbrain.

a) 1 onlyb) 2 onlyc) 3 onlyd) both 2 & 3 e) 1, 2 & 3

Answer: e

23) Which of the following nuclei are found in the pons?

a) Pontine nucleib) Apneustic areac) Pneumotaxic aread) All of these choices e) None of these choices

Answer: d

24) Which of the following is a nucleus found in the medulla oblongata that receives sensory information associated with touch, pressure and vibration?

a) Tectumb) Superior colliculus c) Substantia nigrad) Pontine nucleuse) Gracile nucleus

Answer: e

25) Which of the following is a nucleus found in the midbrain that releases dopamine?

a) Substantia nigrab) Inferior olivary nucleus

c) Inferior colliculus d) Cerebral peduncle e) Apneustic area

Answer: a

26) This portion of the cerebellum contributes to equilibrium and balance.

a) Tentorium cerebelli b) Anterior lobec) Posterior lobed) Flocculonodular lobe e) Transverse fissure

Answer: d

27) The cerebellar cortex consists of folia, which are

a) parallel folds of white matter. b) found in the vermis only.c) portions of the pyramids.d) parallel folds of gray matter. e) used in the RAS system.

Answer: d

28) This structure carries sensory information coming from proprioceptors found in the trunk and limbs into the cerebellum.

a) Inferior cerebellar peduncle

b) Middle cerebellar peduncle c) Superior cerebellar peduncle d) Anterior lobee) Posterior lobe

Answer: a

29) This region of the brain serves as the major relay station for most sensory impulses that reach the primary sensory areas of the cerebral cortex from the spinal cord and brain stem.

a) Thalamusb) Hypothalamus c) Epithalamus d) Ponse) Midbrain

Answer: a

30) Which of the following is NOT a nucleus found in the thalamus?

a) Anterior nucleusb) Medial nucleusc) Red nucleusd) Reticular nucleuse) Lateral geniculate nucleus

Answer: c

31) Which of the following are NOT controlled by the hypothalamus?

a) Hungerb) Thirstc) Blood calcium concentration d) Emotional behaviore) Body temperature

Answer: c

32) Which of the following glands is directly controlled by hormones produced by the hypothalamus?

a) Posterior pituitary gland b) Anterior pituitary gland c) Thymus glandd) Pancreas

e) Pineal gland Answer: b

33) Which of the following regions of the brain contain the pineal gland?

a) Thalamusb) Cerebellumc) Hypothalamus d) Cerebrume) Epithalalmus

Answer: e

34) During brain development, the gyri of the cerebrum are formed because

a) the white matter enlarges faster than the overlying gray matter. b) the cerebrum grows faster than the dura mater.c) the hypothalamus is larger than the epithalamus.d) the gray matter grows faster than the underlying white matter. e) the lobes of the cerebrum are not symmetrical.

Answer: d

35) Which of the following structures conducts nerve impulses between the two different hemispheres of the cerebrum?

a) Association tracts b) Corpus callosum c) Projection tracts d) Pyramids

e) Sulci Answer: b

36) Together the lentiform and caudate nuclei are known as the

a) globus pallidus.b) putamen.c) medial geniculate nucleus. d) corpus striatum.e) internal capsule.

Answer: d

37) This portion of the limbic system lies between the hippocampus and the parahippocampus gyrus.

a) dentate gyrus b) septal nucleic) cingulate gyrus d) olfactory bulbs e) amygdala

Answer: a

38) Which of the following functional areas of the cerebrum is responsible for sensing body touch and temperature?

a) Brocas areab) Primary visual areac) Common integrative aread) Prefrontal cortex areae) Primary somatosensory area

Answer: e

39) Which of the following functional areas of the cerebrum is responsible for vision?

a) Brocas areab) Primary visual areac) Common integrative aread) Primary olfactory areae) Primary somatosensory area

Answer: b

40) Which of the following functional areas of the cerebrum is responsible for conscious movements of the body?

a) Brocas areab) Primary visual areac) Somatosensory association area d) Primary motor areae) Primary somatosensory area

Answer: d

41) Which of the following functional areas of the cerebrum is responsible for speech?

a) Brocas areab) Primary gustatory areac) Common integrative aread) Prefrontal cortex areae) Primary somatosensory area

Answer: a

42) Which of the following cranial nerves carries sensory information coming from the nasal cavity to the olfactory area of the cerebrum?

a) cranial nerve Ib) cranial nerve V c) cranial nerve VI d) cranial nerve VIII e) cranial nerve X

Answer: a

43) Which of the following cranial nerves control movements of the eyeball?

a) II, III and IV b) I, V and Xc) III, IX and V d) III, IV and VI e) X, XI and XII

Answer: d

44) Cranial nerve V is also known as the _______________nerve.

a) trochlearb) oculomotor c) trigeminal d) vaguse) abducens

Answer: c

45) Which of the following cranial nerves is responsible for regulating visceral activity?

a) Oculomotorb) Trigeminalc) Spinal accessory d) Faciale) Vagus

Answer: e

46) Which of the following cranial nerves is primarily responsible for changing facial expressions?

a) Oculomotorb) Trigeminalc) Spinal accessory d) Faciale) Vagus

Answer: d

73) Patients with damage in the left hemisphere often exhibit aphasia (inability to use or comprehend words). This is an example of

a) apraxia.b) delirium.c) cerebral lacerations.d) hemispheric lateralization. e) decussations.

Answer: d

74) An electroencephalogram (EEG) measures brain waves primarily generated by

a) neurons in the pons.b) neurons in the medulla oblongata. c) neurons in the thalamus.d) neurons in the cerebral cortex.e) neurons in the cerebellum.

Answer: d

75) This type of brain wave occurs at regular intervals when a person is awake but not when a person is sleeping.

a) Alpha wavesb) Beta wavesc) Theta wavesd) Delta waves.e) All of the selections are correct

Answer: b

76) Brain waves that generally appear during periods of sensory input and mental activity are called

a) alpha waves. b) beta waves. c) theta waves. d) delta waves. e) P waves.

Answer: b

77) Brain waves that appear in adults and children during periods of emotional stress are called

a) alpha waves. b) beta waves.

c) theta waves. d) delta waves. e) P waves.

Answer: c

78) Brain waves that appear during deep sleep are called

a) alpha waves. b) beta waves. c) theta waves. d) delta waves. e) P waves.

Answer: d

79) Blood flows to the brain through the ________ arteries and away from the brain through the _______ vein.

a) internal carotid and vertebral; internal jugular b) external carotid and vertebral; external jugular c) internal jugular and vertebral; internal carotid d) internal carotid and axillary; internal jugular e) external jugular and axillary; external jugular

Answer: a

80) Which of the following statements best describes the structure of the blood-brain barrier that provides its functional characteristics?

a) Processes of astrocytes wrap tightly around capillaries in the brain.b) Tight junctions tightly seal endothelial cells of capillaries in the brain.c) Gap junctions tightly seal endothelial cells of capillaries in the brain.d) Spot desmosomes tightly link capillary endothelial cells together.e) The basement membrane of capillaries in the brain contains extremely small pores.

Answer: b

81) A deep indentation found along the medial plane that separates the right and left cerebral hemispheres is called the

a) septum pellucidum. b) transverse fissure. c) tentorium cerebelli. d) corpus callosum.e) longitudinal fissure.

Answer: e

82) The central sulcus of the cerebrum separates the

a) two cerebral hemispheres.b) frontal lobe from the parietal lobe. c) frontal lobe from the temporal lobe. d) parietal lobe from the temporal lobe.

e) temporal lobe from the occipital lobe. Answer: b

83) This lobe of the cerebrum is found deep to the other four lobes and thus cannot be observed from the surface.

a) occipital lobe b) temporal lobe c) parietal lobe d) insula

e) corpus callosum Answer: d

84) Which of the following types of tracts are used to conduct nerve impulses between gyri within the same cerebral hemisphere?

a) Association tractsb) Commissural tractsc) Projection tractsd) Mammillothalamic tracts e) Stria medullaris

Answer: a

85) These three areas of gray matter found in each cerebral hemisphere are important in helping to control the initiation and termination of skeletal muscle movements.

a) red nucleib) vestibular nucleic) lateral olivary nuclei d) basal nucleie) autonomic ganglia

Answer: d

86) Damage to this portion of the limbic system results in loss of memory of recent events and difficulty committing anything new to memory.

a) amygdalab) dentate gyrus c) cingulate gyrus d) hippocampus e) septal nuclei

Answer: d

87) A common type of disabling senile dementia that affects about 11% of the population over 65 and results in loss of reasoning and ability to care for oneself, is called

a) agnosia.b) prosopagnosia.c) Alzheimer disease.d) transient ischemic attack syndrome. e) amylotrophic lateral sclerosis.

Answer: c

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CHAPTER 15

1) Interoceptors are found in

a) blood vesselsb) visceral organsc) musclesd) all of these choices e) none of these choices

Answer: d

2) Autonomic motor neurons regulate visceral activities by1. increasing activities in effector tissue.2. decreasing activities in effector tissue.3. changing the direction of impulse conduction across synapses.

a) 1 onlyb) 2 onlyc) 3 onlyd) Both 1 and 2e) None of these choices

Answer: d

3) The autonomic nervous system is NOT involved in controlling a) exocrine glands.

b) skeletal muscle. c) cardiac muscle. d) smooth muscle. e) endocrine glands.

Answer: b

4) Which of the following descriptions of a preganglionic neuron is NOT correct?

a) Has axons that exit the CNS in a cranial or spinal nerve. b) Has myelinated axons.c) Forms the first part of an autonomic motor pathway.d) Has its cell body in the brain or spinal cord.

e) Forms gap junctions with postganglionic neurons in autonomic ganglia. Answer: e

5) A postganglionic neuron in the ANS

a) releases neurotransmitter that binds to the effector cell. b) is the first part of an autonomic motor pathway.c) has its cell body in the brain or spinal cord.d) has its axons exiting the CNS through cranial nerves. e) carries information into the sympathetic chain ganglia.

Answer: a

6) Which of the following types of neurons would normally have the shortest axon?

a) Somatic motor neuronsb) Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons c) Postganglionic sympathetic neuronsd) Preganglionic sympathetic neuronse) Somatosensory neurons.

Answer: d

7) Which of the following does NOT describe the sympathetic division of the ANS?

a) Ganglia primarily found in the headb) Stimulates sweat glandsc) Synapses with smooth muscle in blood vessel walls d) Short preganglionic neuronse) Thoracolumbar output

Answer: a

8) Which of the following does NOT describe the parasympathetic division of the ANS?

a) Long preganglionic neuronsb) Synapses with smooth muscle in blood vessels walls c) Vagus nerve outputd) Ganglia found near visceral effectorse) Sacral spinal cord output

Answer: b

9) Which of the following terms is used to designate an effector that is innervated by both the parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions of the ANS?

a) Preganglionic stimulation b) Biganglion excitationc) Multi-autonomic output d) Bipolar innervation

e) Dual innervation Answer: e

10) Which of the following is NOT a sympathetic prevertebral ganglion?

a) Celiac ganglionb) Ciliary ganglionc) Superior mesenteric ganglion d) Inferior mesenteric ganglion e) All are prevertebral ganglia

Answer: b

11) Which of the following is NOT a parasympathetic terminal ganglion?

a) Ciliary ganglionb) Pterygopalatine ganglionc) Submandibular gangliond) Otic ganglione) All are parasympathetic terminal ganglia

Answer: e

12) The largest autonomic plexus is called the

a) superior mesenteric plexus. b) renal plexus.c) cardiac plexus.d) celiac plexus.

e) hypogastric plexus. Answer: d

13) This autonomic plexus is located anterior to the fifth lumbar vertebra and serves the pelvic viscera.

a) Inferior mesenteric plexus b) Renal plexusc) Celiac plexusd) Hypogastric plexus

e) Superior mesenteric plexus Answer: d

14) These are structures containing sympathetic preganglionic axons that connect the anterior ramus of the spinal nerve with the ganglia of the sympathetic trunk.

a) Lumbar splanchnic nerve b) Greater splanchnic nervec) Inferior cervical ganglion d) White rami communicantes e) Gray rami communicantes

Answer: d

15) These ganglia contain the cell bodies of the parasympathetic postganglionic neurons that serve the parotid salivary glands.

a) Ciliary gangliab) Pterygopalatine ganglia c) Submandibular ganglia d) Otic gangliae) None of these choices

Answer: d

16) The two main neurotransmitters of the autonomic nervous system are

a) nicotine and adrenaline.b) muscarine and acetylcholine.c) norepinephrine and muscarine.d) norepinephrine and acetylcholine. e) somatostatin and nicotine.

Answer: d

17) Acetylcholine is released by _____________postganglionic neurons and is removed from the synaptic cleft at a ______ rate than norepinephrine.

a) sympathetic; slowerb) sympathetic; fasterc) parasympathetic; slowerd) parasympathetic; fastere) both parasympathetic and sympathetic; slower

Answer: d

18) Which of the following are types of cholinergic receptors?

a) Nicotinic and adrenergic receptors b) Muscarinic and somatic receptors c) Adrenergic and somatic receptors d) Nicotinic and muscarinic receptors e) Somatostatic and nicotinic receptors

Answer: d Difficulty: Easy

19) Autonomic tone is regulated by the

a) medulla oblongata. b) cerebellum.c) cerebrum.d) vermis.

e) hypothalamus. Answer: e

20) Which of the following responses is NOT caused by activation of the parasympathetic division of the ANS?

a) Decreased heart rateb) Airway dilationc) Decreased pupil diameterd) Increased secretion of digestive juices e) Increased gastric motility

Answer: b

21) Which of the following does NOT contribute to the longer lasting and more widespread effects observed with sympathetic activation versus parasympathetic activation?

a) Norepinephrine is more slowly removed from synapses than ACh.b) Additional norepinephrine is released from the adrenal gland.c) Greater divergence occurs in sympathetic neural pathways.d) Blood flow to hypothalamus is decreased when sympathetic activation occurs.

Answer: d

22) Which of the following responses is NOT caused by activation of the sympathetic division?

a) Increased heart rateb) Airway constrictionc) Decreased blood flow to kidneys and gastrointestinal tractd) Increased blood flow to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle, liver and fat e) Increased blood glucose level

Answer: b

38) Describe the possible ways in which the axon of a sympathetic preganglionic neuron connects with postganglionic neurons after it reaches the sympathetic trunk ganglia.

The axon may 1) synapse with postganglionic neurons in the first ganglion it reaches, 2) ascend or descend to higher or lower ganglia via sympathetic chains, or 3) continue without synapsing through sympathetic trunk ganglia to end at a prevertebral ganglion and synapse with postganglionic neurons there. 4) also pass, without synapsing, through the sympathetic trunk ganglion and a prevertebral ganglion and then extend to chromaffin cells of the adrenal medullae that are functionally similar to sympathetic postganglionic neurons.

39) Explain why the sympathetic division of the ANS has more widespread and longer-lasting effects than the parasympathetic division.

Answer:

A single sympathetic preganglionic fiber has many axon collaterals (branches) and synapses with 20 or more postganglionic neurons, whereas a parasympathetic preganglionic neurons synapses with only 4 or 5 postganglionic neurons. The sympathetic neurotransmitter, norepinephrine is broken down more slowly than acetylcholine, so postganglionic cells are stimulated longer. The sympathetic division also stimulates release of catecholamines (mostly epinephrine) from the adrenal medulla, thus enhancing the sympathetic effects via the endocrine system. Also, more visceral effectors have receptors for catecholamines (norepinephrine and epinephrine) than for acetylcholine.

40) Describe the potential roles that autonomic neurons that release the neurotransmitter acetylcholine perform in the ANS. Be sure to describe the types of postsynaptic effector cells including their receptors that could be potentially activated by acetylcholine release from autonomic neurons.

Answer:

The neuron could be a preganglionic neuron in either division of the ANS, a parasympathetic postganglionic neuron, or one of a few sympathetic postganglionic neurons (innervating sweat glands). The postsynaptic cell must possess either nicotinic or muscarinic receptors in order to respond to acetylcholine. This effector cell could be a postganglionic neuron of either division, a parasympathetic visceral effector, or one of the few sympathetic effectors stimulated by cholinergic neurons.

41) Patient with chronic skeletal muscle spasms was placed on an anticholinergic medication. After taking the medication, the patients muscle spasms ceased, but now the patient reports a loss of muscle strength. In addition, the patients resting heart rate has increased. Explain the effects of the medication the patient received.

Answer:

Medications that block the action of acetylcholine are described as anticholinergic. Since ACh stimulates skeletal muscles to contract, blocking ACh should help reduce muscle spasms. In high enough doses, the medication might prevent the normal contraction of skeletal muscles and could, perhaps, cause a flaccid paralysis. Heart rate increases because ACh usually slows heart rate so a drug that blocks AChs effect would lead to increased heart rate. Perhaps a medication that specifically blocked nicotinic receptors would eliminate the muscle spasms without causing increased heart rate.

42) Explain how blood flow to tissues changes during the fight-or-flight response. Answer:

During the fight-or-flight response, vasodilation occurs in those vessels serving the heart and skeletal muscles crucial to fight or flight. In contrast, vasoconstriction occurs in those vessels serving areas less vital to fighting/fleeing like skin, digestive organs, and the urinary system. The changes in blood vessel diameter are induced by activation of the sympathetic division of the ANS.

43) Compare and contrast the overall responses of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.

Answer:

The sympathetic division acts to prepare the body for maximal skeletal muscle activity to either fight or flee a perceived threat. Some of the changes stimulated by sympathetic activation include: 1) increased heart rate and contractions, 2) shunting blood away from the digestive organs to the lungs, liver, heart and skeletal muscles allowing these organs to increase function, 3) bronchodilation leads increased O2 delivery to the blood, and 4) liver also releases more glucose. These changes increase blood oxygen and glucose to provide the body cells with the ability to increase ATP production. The parasympathetic system tends to return the body to normality, and to prepare the body to acquire energy. For instance, the parasympathetic division stimulates increased blood flow to digestive, reproductive and urinary organs. More digestion and defecation occurs, sexual activity can be supported, and urine production is increased. Decreased heart rate and blood pressure also occur.

63) Which disorder is characterized by the digits becoming ischemic after exposure to cold or emotional stress?

a) Raynauds phenomenonb) Autonomic dysreflexiac) Reflex sympathetic dystrophy d) Diabetic neuropathye) Horners Syndrome

Answer: a

64) Which disorder is characterized by spontaneous pain, painful hypersensitivity to light touch, and excessive coldness and sweating in the affected area?

a) Raynauds phenomenonb) Autonomic dysreflexiac) Reflex sympathetic dystrophy d) Diabetic neuropathye) Horners Syndrome

Answer: c

65) Which disorder is a type of neuropathy often caused by long term diabetes mellitus?

a) Raynauds phenomenonb) Autonomic dysreflexiac) Reflex sympathetic dystrophy d) Diabetic neuropathye) Horners Syndrome

Answer: d

66) Which disorder involves the loss of sympathetic innervation to one side of the face due to inherited mutation, injury or disease?

a) Raynauds phenomenonb) Autonomic dysreflexiac) Reflex sympathetic dystrophy d) Diabetic neuropathye) Horners Syndrome

Answer: e

67) Based on your knowledge of ANS receptors, explain how beta blockers are able to manage conditions such as hypertension (high blood pressure)?

Answer:

Norepinephrine and epinephrine binds to beta adrenergic receptors on heart muscle cells and stimulate an increase in heart rate and force of contraction. Beta blockers are antagonists of norepinephrine and epinephrine meaning that beta blockers can bind and block their effects, leading to a decrease in heart rate and force of contraction and lowering of blood pressure.

68) Thoracolumbar is another name for which division of ANS?

a) Parasympatheticb) Sympatheticc) Somatic nervous system d) Autonomic gangliae) Craniosacral division

Answer: b

69) Which division of ANS innervates the sweat glands and the hair follicles?

a) Parasympatheticb) Sympatheticc) Neither division innervates these effectors d) Both divisions innervate these effectors

Answer: b

70) Which endocrine gland is directly innervated by sympathetic preganglionic axons?

a) Pituitary gland b) Hypothalamus c) Pancreasd) Adrenal gland e) Thyroid gland

Answer: d

71) Which of the following types of adrenergic receptors are only found in brown adipose tissue where their activation stimulates heat production?

a) 1-adrenergic b) 2-adrenergic c) 1-adrenergic d) 2-adrenergic e) 3-adrenergic

Answer: e

72) Which of the following types of adrenergic receptors are found on cardiac muscle fibers where their activation stimulates increased force and rate of contraction of the heart?

a) 1-adrenergic b) 2-adrenergic c) 1-adrenergic

d) 2-adrenergic e) 3-adrenergic

Answer: c

73) The chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla possess this type of receptor which makes them responsive to the ACh released by preganglionic sympathetic neurons.

a) muscarinic receptors b) nicotinic receptors c) 1-adrenergicd) 2-adrenergic

e) 3-adrenergic Answer: b

74) Catechol-O-methyltransferase is an enzyme that performs which of the following functions in the ANS?

a) Inactivates ACh in a synapse.b) Activates ACh in a synapse.c) Inactivates norepinephrine in a synapse.d) Activates norepinephrine in a synapse.e) Promotes uptake of norepinephrine back into the synaptic knob.

Answer: c

75) Which of the following statements describes a common response of an autonomic effector during the fight-or-flight response?

a) Gastric motility and secretory activity increases.b) Blood vessels serving skeletal muscles constrict.c) Adipose tissues stores away triglycerides for later use.d) The pupils of the eyes dilate.e) Blood vessels serving the kidneys and digestive organs dilate.

Answer: d

76) Which of the following lists the components of an autonomic reflex arc in the proper sequence of activation?

a) receptor sensory neuron integrating center motor neuron effector b) receptor motor neuron integrating center sensory neuron effector c) effector sensory neuron integrating center motor neuron receptor d) integrating center receptor sensory neuron motor neuron effector e) receptor sensory neuron motor neuron effector integrating center

Answer: a

77) One of the main differences between a somatic reflex and autonomic reflex is the type of effectors that are activated. The effectors in somatic reflexes are _______, while the effectors in autonomic reflexes are _______________.

a) skeletal muscles; smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glandsb) striated muscles; smooth muscle and glandsc) skeletal muscles and glands; smooth muscle and cardiac muscle d) glands; skeletal muscles, smooth muscle, and cardiac musclee) skeletal muscles; smooth muscle only

Answer: a

78) Which the following regions of the brain serve as the major control and integration center of the ANS?

a) cerebrumb) cerebellulum c) thalamusd) hypothalamus e) pituitary

Answer: d

79) Stimulation of these areas of the hypothalamus would result in decreased heart rate, lower blood pressure, constriction of the pupils, and increased digestive activity.

a) posterior and lateral areasb) posterior and medial areasc) anterior and lateral areasd) anterior and medial arease) any area of the hypothalamus

Answer: d

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CHAPTER 16

1) How many sensory modalities can a single sensory neuron have?

a) Oneb) Dozensc) Hundreds d) Thousands e) None

Answer: a

2) Which of the following is NOT an event in the process of sensation?

a) Stimulation of sensory receptors b) Transduction of the stimulusc) Activation of effectord) Generation of impulses

e) Integration of sensory input. Answer: c

3) These are sensory receptors that are located in blood vessels and visceral organs and their signals are not usually consciously perceived.

a) Exteroreceptors b) Interoceptors c) Proprioceptors

d) Nociceptorse) None of the answers selections are correct

Answer: b

4) This type of sensory receptor responds to stimuli resulting from physical or chemical damage to tissue.

a) Photoreceptorsb) Mechanoreceptors c) Proprioceptorsd) Nociceptorse) Thermoreceptors

Answer: d

5) The process in which the frequency of nerve impulses in the first-order neuron decreases during prolonged stimulus is called

a) selectivity. b) adaptation. c) perception. d) modality.e) transduction.

Answer: b

6) Which of the following is a type of slowly adapting touch receptor?

a) Meissner corpuscle b) Merkel discc) Pacinian corpuscle d) Hair root receptor e) Photoreceptor

Answer: b

7) Which of the following is a type of a rapidly adapting touch receptor?

a) Meissner corpuscleb) Merkel discc) Pacinian corpuscled) Both Meissner corpuscle and Merkel disc e) All of these choices

Answer: a

8) What layer of the skin contains the cold thermoreceptors?

a) Stratum lucidum b) Dermisc) Stratum basale d) Stratum corneum e) Hypodermis

Answer: c

9) Visceral pain results from stimulating

a) nociceptors.b) Pacinian corpuscles. c) exteroreceptors.d) proprioceptors.e) thermoreceptors.

Answer: a

10) Which of the following statements about proprioception is INCORRECT?

a) Proprioceptive sensations allow us to estimate the weight of certain objects.b) Proprioceptors are slowly adapting receptors.c) Proprioceptors are embedded in muscles and tendonsd) Proprioceptive sensations allow us to determine position of body structures relative to each other.

e) Proprioceptive sensations are used to activate the nervous system in response to threatening situations.

Answer: e

11) The main function of muscle spindles is

a) to sense tension applied to a tendon. b) to sense referred pain.c) to perceive cutaneous sensations.d) to sense changes in muscle length. e) to sense muscle fatigue.

Answer: d

12) Which of the following are proprioceptors found in the articular capsules of synovial joints?

a) Tendon organsb) Gamma motor neurons c) Muscle spindlesd) Kinesthetic receptors e) Tactile receptors

Answer: d

13) The postcentral gyri of the parietal lobes of the cerebral cortex

a) are considered the primary gustatory area. b) receive body sensory information.c) control voluntary body movements.d) receive visual information.

e) provide the ability to move the eyeballs. Answer: b

14) Which of the following types of neurons conduct impulses from the peripheral somatic sensory receptors to the brain stem or spinal cord?

a) First order neuronb) Second order neuron c) Third order neuron d) Fourth order neuron e) Higher order neuron

Answer: a

15) Which of the following types of neurons conduct sensory impulses from the brain stem and spinal cord to the thalamus?

a) First order neuronb) Second order neuron c) Third order neuron d) Fourth order neuron e) Higher order neuron

Answer: b

16) Which of the following types of neurons conduct impulses from the thalamus to the primary somatosensory area of the cerebral cortex?

a) First order neuronb) Second order neuron c) Third order neuron d) Fourth order neuron

e) Higher order neuron

Answer: c

17) Proprioception means awareness of

a) visual acuity.b) body temperature. c) color vision.d) body position.e) pain.

Answer: d

18) Which of the following type of neurons have their cell bodies in the spinal cord or brain stem and their axons terminating in neuromuscular junctions?

a) upper motor neuronsb) lower motor neuronsc) somatic sensory neuronsd) preganglionic autonomic neurons e) postganglionic autonomic neurons

Answer: c

19) Which of the following types of neurons have axons that extend from the brain to the lower motor neurons?

a) upper motor neuronsb) primary neuronsc) somatic sensory neuronsd) preganglionic autonomic neurons e) postganglionic autonomic neurons

Answer: a

37) The basal nuclei regulate skeletal muscle movements by

a) suppressing unwanted movements.b) influencing muscle tone.c) initiating and terminating movements.d) both suppressing unwanted movements and influencing muscle tone. e) All of these choices

Answer: e

38) Which of the following does NOT occur during sleep?

a) Sympathetic division of ANS is stimulated. b) Decreased heart rate.c) Decreased blood pressure.d) Skeletal muscle tone decreases.

e) Dream during REM sleep. Answer: a

39) You are sitting on a sunny Florida beach experiencing the sensation of warmth. Describe the anatomical structures and physiological events that allow you to perceive the warmth of the sun.

Answer:

Thermoreceptors, which are distributed throughout the skin, must be present to sense the thermal stimuli. The warmth from the sun stimulates the warm thermoreceptors to become activated by warming the receptive field of thermoreceptors and stimulating the production of graded potentials. When the graded potentials reach threshold, they trigger nerve impulses in the themoreceptor, which serves as a first-order neuron that transmits the information to the CNS where a second order neuron conducts impulses via neurons of the spinothalamic tract to the thalamus. From the thalamus, third order neurons conduct impulses to the primary somatosensory area of the cerebral cortex where the impulses are perceived as a feeling of warmth.

40) Synesthesia is a condition in which stimulation of one sensory modality results in perception of another. One man reportedly tastes shapes. Many synesthetic people hear colors. Based on what you know about sensation, propose a physiological mechanism that explains the phenomenon of synesthesia.

Usually a given receptor can only convey a single type of sensory modality. For instance, photoreceptors can usually only relay impulses related to light intensity. Some receptors can relay different modalities based on the type of stimulus received. Lamellated corpuscles relay information about pressure in response to low frequency stimulation but relay information about vibration in response to higher frequency stimulation. Perhaps some types of synesthesia result from anomalous receptors that can send very different information in response to different frequency or intensity of stimulation. A stronger explanation for the phenomenon may be related to the fact that sensations are interpreted based on which part of the cerebral cortex receives the impulses from the 3rd order neuron in the sensory pathway. Synesthetic patients may have unusual distributions of neurons to the cerebral cortex. Most people would sense the taste sweet because their 3rd order neuron carrying those impulses terminated in the gustatory area. The man who tastes shapes may have a sweet neuron that terminates in the shape area of the visual cortex.

41) A viral infection has damaged a patients tectospinal tract. What signs of this damage probably helped the physicians diagnose the problem?

The tectospinal tract is an extrapyramidal, or indirect, motor pathway. It conveys nerve impulses from the superior colliculus to contralateral skeletal muscles that move the head and eyes in response to visual stimuli. One sign of such damage would be the inability of the patient to turn his head toward a flashing light. The patient would also be unable to follow movements of the physicians finger with his eyes. The patient would probably be unable to read words scrolling across a screen. Each of these deficits relates to the inability to move the head or eyes in response to visual stimuli and would alert the physician to damage of the tectospinal tract.

42) Describe the role of the reticular activating system in sleep, arousal, and consciousness. Answer:

A variety of sensory stimuli feed into the RAS, which feeds into the thalamus and cerebral cortex to increase neuronal activity, causing arousal from sleep and maintaining consciousness. During periods of high ATP use, adenosine accumulates and binds to A1 receptors, inhibiting cholinergic neurons in the RAS, and inducing sleep.

43) Compare short-term memory versus long-term memory with regard to specific changes that are thought to occur in the brain.

Short-term memory depends more on electrical and chemical events in the brain than on structural changes, such as forming new synapses. Long-term memory is thought to involve high-frequency stimulation within the hippocampus at glutamate synapses. Nitric oxide and other neurotransmitters may also be involved. For long term memory, neurons develop new presynaptic terminals, larger synaptic end bulbs, and more dendritic branches.

44) What category of receptor cell is used to sense touch, vibration and pressure?

a) photoreceptorb) mechanoreceptor c) thermoreceptor d) chemoreceptor e) osmoreceptor

Answer: b

45) What category of receptor cell is used to sense changes in temperature?

a) photoreceptorb) mechanoreceptor c) thermoreceptor d) chemoreceptor e) osmoreceptor

Answer: c

46) What category of receptor cell is used to sense light?

a) photoreceptorb) mechanoreceptor c) thermoreceptor d) chemoreceptor e) osmoreceptor

Answer: a

47) What category of receptor cell is used to sense changes in the concentration of chemicals in body fluids?

a) photoreceptorb) mechanoreceptor c) thermoreceptor d) chemoreceptor e) proprioceptor

Answer: d

48) What category of receptor cell is used to sense changes in the osmotic pressure of body fluids?

a) photoreceptorb) mechanoreceptor c) thermoreceptor d) chemoreceptor

e) osmoreceptor Answer: e

49) All of the following types of stimuli are sensed by free nerve endings EXCEPT

a) pain.b) tickle.c) temperature. d) pressure.e) itch.

Answer: d

50) Which of the following types of stimuli is sensed using encapsulated nerve endings?

a) painb) ticklec) temperature d) itche) vibration

Answer: e

51) Which of the following is an example of a specialized sensory receptor cell that is known as a separate cell?

a) Meissner corpuscle

b) photoreceptor cell in retina c) Pacinian corpuscled) hair root plexuse) astrocyte

Answer: b

62) Which disorder is characterized by a persons breathing repeatedly stopping for 10 or more seconds while sleeping?

a) narcolepsy b) insomnia c) sleep apnea d) coma

e) amnesia Answer: c

63) Which condition is a state of unconsciousness in which a persons responses to stimuli are reduced or absent?

a) narcolepsy b) insomnia c) sleep apnea d) coma

e) amnesia

Answer: d

64) Which condition is characterized by a lack of memory for events occurring after the trauma or disease that caused the condition?

a) narcolepsyb) retrograde amnesia c) sleep apnead) comae) anterograde amnesia

Answer: e

65) What are the three types of sensory receptors categorized based on their location and the origin of stimuli that activate them? What is the nature of the stimuli that cause their excitation?

(1) Exteroceptors are sensitive to stimuli originating outside the body and provide information about the external environment such as hearing, vision, smell, taste, touch, pressure and temperature. (2) Interoceptors monitor conditions in the internal environment such as blood pressure. The sensations are usually not consciously perceived. (3) Proprioceptors are located in muscles, joints, tendons and the inner ear. They provide information about body position by detecting muscle tension, the position and movement of the joints.

66) List the six types of sensory receptors categorized based on the type of stimulus they detect and describe the types of stimuli that each type can detect.

(1) Mechanoceptors: detect mechanical stimuli such as touch, pressure, and stretch. (2) Thermoreceptors: detect changes in temperature. (3) Nociceptors: respond to painful stimuli. (4) Photoreceptors: detect light. (5) Chemoreceptors: detect chemicals in the mouth (taste), nose (smell) and body fluids. (6) Osmoreceptors: detects osmotic pressure of body fluids.

67) What is phantom limb sensation and describe why the patient experiences these sensations? Answer:

When a limb has been amputated, the patient still feels the sensations of itch, pressure, tingling or pain as if the limb is still there. It is believed that the cerebral cortex interprets impulses arising in the proximal portions of sensory neurons that previously carried impulses from the limb as coming from the non-existing limb. Another possible explanation is that the brain contains networks of neurons that generate sensations of body awareness.

68) The process of sensation begins in a __________ , which can be either a primary sensory neuron or a separate cell.

a) sensory receptor cell.b) signal transducer cell.c) secondary sensory neuron. d) effector cell.e) association neuron.

Answer: a

69) ______________ is a term used to describe pain that is felt at a site remote from the place of origin.

a) Referred pain b) Visceral pain c) Slow paind) Fast pain

e) Sympathetic pain Answer: a

70) The integration centers for sensations that are consciously perceived (like vision, smell, taste, and pain) are found in the

a) cerebellum.b) basal nuclei.c) pontine nuclei. d) cerebral cortex. e) thalamus.

Answer: d

71) Which of the following regions of the brain compares the intentions of skeletal muscle movements with the actual movement performed and then sends out corrective feedback to upper motor neurons?

a) hypothalamus b) thalamusc) basal nuclei d) cerebellum

e) cerebrum

Answer: d

72) All of the following result from some form of malfunction by the basal nuclei EXCEPT

a) Huntingtons disease.b) Parkinsons disease.c) Tourettes syndrome.d) obsessive-compulsive disorder. e) synesthesia.

Answer: e

73) Infants spend approximately 50% of their sleeping time in a) stage one NREM sleep.

b) stage two NREM sleep. c) stage three NREM sleep. d) stage four NREM sleep. e) REM sleep.

Answer: e

74) Which of the following stages of non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep is considered the deepest level of sleep?

a) Stage oneb) Stage twoc) Stage threed) Stage foure) None of the selections are correct.

Answer: d

75) During the process of learning, the brain shows a characteristic called ______, which is the ability to change in response to intensive usage for a particular task like memorizing a page of physiology notes.

a) bradykinesia b) hypokinesia c) plasticityd) amnesia

e) palsyAnswer: c

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CHAPTER 17

1) Olfactory receptors are found

a) throughout the nasal cavity.b) only in the superior portion of the nasal cavity. c) only in the inferior portion of the nasal cavity. d) from the vestibule to the pharynx.e) only in the mid-nasal ridges.

Answer: b

2) The smell receptors that actually bind the odorants and begin signal transduction are located on

a) olfactory hairs.b) glial cells.c) basal stem cells.d) Bowmans glands.e) gustatory receptor cells.

Answer: a

3) These cells provide physical support, nourishment and electrical insulation for olfactory receptors cells.

a) Dendritic cellsb) Glial cellsc) Basal stem cells d) Bowmans glands e) Supporting cells

Answer: e

4) Adaptation of the olfactory sense to the continued presentation of an odorant

a) occurs rapidly.b) increases sensitivity to that odorant. c) occurs slowly.d) does not occur.e) enhan