Name: ________________________ Class: ___________________ Date: __________ ID: A

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final exam 2014 spring practice

Multiple ChoiceIdentify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Which ancient astronomer developed a geocentric model of the universe explaining the observable motions of the planets?a. Aristotle b. Ptolemy c. Copernicus d. Newton

____ 2. Which of the following was unknown to the ancient Greeks?a. Earth b. Mars c. Venus d. Uranus

____ 3. Aristotle concluded that Earth was round because ____.a. it always casts a curved shadow during a lunar eclipse b. he sailed around the world c. he calculated Earth’s circumference d. it exhibited retrograde motion

____ 4. The apparent westward movement of a planet against the background of stars is called ____.a. retrograde motion b. revolution c. rotation d. universal gravitation

____ 5. According to the ancients, the stars traveled around Earth on the transparent, hollow ____.a. equatorial plane b. celestial sphere c. solar orb d. ellipse

____ 6. The geocentric model of the universe stated that ____.a. Earth revolved around the celestial sphere b. the sun was the center of the universe c. Earth was a “wanderer” d. Earth was the center of the universe

____ 7. In the Ptolemaic model of the universe, ____.a. Earth was flat b. Earth was the center of the universe c. the sun was the center of the solar system d. Earth was much larger than the sun

____ 8. One astronomical unit (AU) averages about ____.a. 39 million kilometers b. 93 million kilometers c. 150 million kilometers d. 210 million kilometers

____ 9. A measure of the total amount of matter an object contains is called ____.a. density b. mass c. volume d. weight

____ 10. Using Tycho Brahe’s data, which scientist proposed three laws of planetary motion?a. Newton b. Kepler c. Galileo d. Copernicus

____ 11. The first early astronomer to propose a sun-centered solar system was ____.a. Galileo b. Newton c. Copernicus d. Brahe

____ 12. Which scientist discovered that Venus has phases, just like the moon?a. Ptolemy b. Copernicus c. Kepler d. Galileo

____ 13. The force that gravity exerts on an object is called ____.a. mass b. weight c. density d. volume

____ 14. What is the shape of a planet’s orbit?a. elliptical b. circular c. irregular d. parabolic

____ 15. Which law states that each planet revolves so that an imaginary line connecting it to the sun sweeps over equal areas in equal time intervals?a. the first law of planetary motion b. the second law of planetary motion c. the third law of planetary motion d. the law of universal gravitation

Name: ________________________ ID: A

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____ 16. Which scientist determined the nature of the forces that keep the planets in their orbits?a. Copernicus b. Galileo c. Brahe d. Newton

____ 17. Which scientist was the first to use the telescope in astronomy?a. Newton b. Galileo c. Copernicus d. Kepler

____ 18. The true shape of planetary orbits was discovered by ____.a. Newton b. Galileo c. Brahe d. Kepler

____ 19. Which astronomer spent 20 years plotting the positions of the planets?a. Newton b. Galileo c. Brahe d. Kepler

____ 20. Which of the following was NOT discovered by Galileo?a. sunspots b. mountains on the moon c. Jupiter’s four largest moons d. the two moons of Mars

____ 21. According to the third law of planetary motion, the period of revolution of a planet is related to the planet’s ____.a. distance to the sun b. size c. gravitational attraction d. orbital speed

____ 22. Earth is closest to the sun at a point called ____.a. perihelion b. aphelion c. apogee d. precession

____ 23. Earth’s axis slowly but continuously points in different directions, a movement known as ____.a. retrograde motion b. revolution c. rotation d. precession

____ 24. What movement of Earth is responsible for night and day?a. rotation b. revolution c. precession d. perigee

____ 25. The turning or spinning of a body on its axis is known as ____.a. rotation b. revolution c. precession d. apogee

____ 26. Seasons are caused by ____.a. Earth’s rotation b. precession c. Earth’s tilted axis d. Earth’s distance from the sun

____ 27. The moon is closest to Earth at ____.a. perigee b. apogee c. perihelion d. aphelion

____ 28. During the period that the moon’s phases are changing from new to full, the moon is ____.a. waning b. approaching Earth c. waxing d. exhibiting retrograde motion

____ 29. How long does it take the moon to go from full-moon phase to new-moon phase?a. one week b. two weeks c. three weeks d. four weeks

____ 30. What occurs when the moon casts its shadow on Earth?a. lunar eclipse b. solar eclipse c. sidereal month d. synodic month

____ 31. What must happen for a solar eclipse to occur?a. The moon must pass behind Earth. b. The moon must be full. c. The moon’s orbit must cross the plane of the ecliptic. d. The moon’s orbit must not cross Earth’s penumbra.

____ 32. Which of the following are you most likely to experience?a. total solar eclipse b. total lunar eclipse c. full moon d. partial lunar eclipse

____ 33. Round depressions on the moon’s surface are called ____.a. highlands b. maria c. craters d. meteorites

Name: ________________________ ID: A

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____ 34. Maria formed from which of the following?a. basaltic lava b. lunar regolith c. ancient water erosion d. none of the above

____ 35. Which statement best explains why the moon has more craters than Earth?a. Earth has never been struck by rapidly moving debris. b. Weathering and erosion do not occur on the moon. c. The moon is tectonically active. d. The moon has a thicker atmosphere.

____ 36. How old is the moon?a. much older than Earth b. about the same age as Earth c. much younger than Earth d. older than the sun

____ 37. One of the planets known to have rings is ____.a. Venus b. Mars c. Uranus d. Pluto

____ 38. Which of the following is NOT a Jovian planet?a. Earth b. Saturn c. Neptune d. Uranus

____ 39. Which of the following is NOT a terrestrial planet?a. Mercury b. Earth c. Mars d. Jupiter

____ 40. The most obvious difference between the terrestrial and the Jovian planets is ____.a. color b. size c. orbital velocity d. length of day

____ 41. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the Jovian planets?a. large size b. composed mainly of gases and ices c. thin atmospheres d. located beyond the orbit of Mars

____ 42. The formation of the solar system from a huge cloud of dust and gases is called the ____.a. protoplanet theory b. nebular theory c. planetesimal theory d. solar theory

____ 43. Which of the following is NOT considered part of the solar system?a. terrestrial planets b. Jovian planets c. galaxies d. sun

____ 44. The Jovian planets contain a large percentage of the gases ____.a. nitrogen and argon b. hydrogen and helium c. oxygen and nitrogen d. hydrogen and oxygen

____ 45. Which of the following is proportionally more abundant on terrestrial planets than on Jovian planets?a. hydrogen b. silicate minerals c. methane d. ammonia ice

____ 46. Which planet shows evidence of water erosion?a. Mars b. Venus c. Jupiter d. Mercury

____ 47. Which planet has a cratered surface similar to Earth’s moon?a. Mars b. Venus c. Mercury d. Saturn

____ 48. The planet with the greatest temperature extremes is ____.a. Earth b. Venus c. Mars d. Mercury

____ 49. Which planet has a dense carbon dioxide atmosphere and high surface temperatures?a. Venus b. Earth c. Mars d. Mercury

____ 50. On which thickly clouded planet has radar mapping revealed a varied topography consisting of plains, highlands, and thousands of volcanic structures?a. Mercury b. Venus c. Neptune d. Jupiter

____ 51. How many known satellites does Mars have?a. 1 b. 2 c. 5 d. 0

Name: ________________________ ID: A

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____ 52. The atmosphere of Venus is composed primarily of ____.a. water vapor b. oxygen c. hydrogen d. carbon dioxide

____ 53. Mons Olympus, a volcano the size of Ohio, is found on ____.a. Earth b. Mars c. Mercury d. Saturn

____ 54. Which of the following planets does NOT have rings?a. Mars b. Uranus c. Neptune d. Saturn

____ 55. Which planet, when viewed through a telescope, appears as a reddish ball interrupted by some permanent dark regions that change intensity?a. Mercury b. Earth c. Mars d. Saturn

____ 56. Which of the following is currently responsible for shaping Mars’ surface?a. wind b. volcanoes c. water d. tectonics

____ 57. Which features on Mars point to the possibility of liquid water on the planet?a. mountain ranges with faults b. gullies and streamlike channels c. volcanic cones with craters d. impact craters with sharp rims

____ 58. Which planet is second only to the moon in brilliance in the night sky?a. Mercury b. Mars c. Jupiter d. Venus

____ 59. Which planet has a greater mass than the combined mass of all the remaining planets and their moons?a. Venus b. Saturn c. Jupiter d. Pluto

____ 60. Which planet might best be described as a large, dirty iceball?a. Mercury b. Venus c. Pluto d. Mars

____ 61. Which planet is associated with the Great Dark Spot?a. Neptune b. Jupiter c. Mars d. Saturn

____ 62. Which planet’s axis of rotation lies nearly parallel with the plane of its orbit?a. Mercury b. Earth c. Uranus d. Saturn

____ 63. What characteristic distinguishes Neptune from the other planets?a. Neptune is blue. b. Neptune is extremely cold. c. Neptune is the largest planet. d. Neptune is extremely windy.

____ 64. Jupiter’s Great Red Spot is believed to be a ____.a. volcanic area b. large desert c. cyclonic storm d. zone of high ammonia concentration

____ 65. Which of the following is a characteristic of Jupiter?a. huge rotating storms b. dense atmosphere c. thin ring system d. all of the above

____ 66. The relatively small, rocky bodies generally found orbiting between Mars and Jupiter are known as ____.a. comets b. asteroids c. satellites d. meteoroids

____ 67. Most asteroids lie between the orbits of ____.a. Mercury and Venus b. Venus and Earth c. Earth and Mars d. Mars and Jupiter

____ 68. A comet’s tail always points ____.a. away from the sun b. toward the sun c. sideways d. downward

____ 69. The small particles that produce a streak of light upon entering Earth’s atmosphere are called ____.a. comets b. meteors c. satellites d. asteroids

Name: ________________________ ID: A

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____ 70. The remains of extraterrestrial particles that are found on Earth’s surface are called ____.a. comets b. asteroids c. meteoroids d. meteorites

____ 71. Most meteor showers are associated with the orbits of ____.a. satellites b. comets c. planets d. meteorites

____ 72. Which of the following is NOT a form of electromagnetic radiation?a. radio waves b. gravity c. gamma rays d. visible light

____ 73. Which color has the longest wavelength?a. red b. blue c. green d. orange

____ 74. Gamma rays, X-rays, visible light, and radio waves are all types of ____.a. nuclear energy b. chromatic aberration c. ultraviolet radiation d. electromagnetic radiation

____ 75. The fact that light can exert a pressure on matter suggests that it is made of particles called ____.a. electrons b. protons c. photons d. neutrons

____ 76. The energy of a photon is related to its ____.a. rate of movement b. mass c. wavelength d. size

____ 77. Which color has the most energetic photons?a. red b. orange c. blue d. violet

____ 78. What does a prism do?a. combines the colors of visible light into white light b. separates sunlight into ultraviolet and infrared radiation c. separates visible light into several colors d. changes the wavelength of electromagnetic waves

____ 79. A typical incandescent light bulb produces a(n) ____.a. absorption spectrum b. emission spectrum c. discontinuous spectrum d. continuous spectrum

____ 80. What information does a star’s spectrum offer about the star?a. size b. chemical composition c. age d. none of the above

____ 81. Which type of spectrum is associated with the radiation of most stars?a. absorption spectrum b. emission spectrum c. discontinuous spectrum d. continuous spectrum

____ 82. Which of the following refers to the change in wavelength that occurs when an object moves toward or away from a source?a. Doppler effect b. chromatic aberration c. spectroscopy d. wave theory of light

____ 83. What will happen to an object’s wavelength as the object moves toward you?a. The wavelength will be shortened. b. The wavelength will be lengthened. c. The wavelength will not change. d. The wavelength will vary.

____ 84. Large Doppler shifts indicate ____.a. low speeds b. high speeds c. low temperatures d. high temperatures

____ 85. Using the Doppler effect, astronomers can determine a star’s ____.a. temperature b. chemical composition c. movement toward or away from Earth d. age

____ 86. A refracting telescope produces an image using a(n) ____.a. mirror b. spectroscope c. objective lens d. prism

____ 87. A reflecting telescope produces an image using a(n) ____.a. concave mirror b. lens c. prism d. antenna

Name: ________________________ ID: A

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____ 88. Which famous scientist first used a telescope for astronomical observations?a. Albert Einstein b. Isaac Newton c. Galileo d. George Hale

____ 89. The magnification of a telescope is changed by changing the ____.a. eyepiece b. wavelength c. focal length of the objective d. objective lens

____ 90. Which property of an optical telescope is associated with sharper images?a. light-gathering power b. resolving power c. magnifying power d. chromatic aberration

____ 91. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of radio telescopes over optical telescopes?a. Radio telescopes are less affected by atmospheric conditions. b. Radio telescopes are less expensive. c. Radio telescopes can operate 24 hours a day. d. Radio telescopes have better resolution.

____ 92. Chromatic aberration ____.a. blocks stars from most telescopes b. weakens the images of stars c. makes stars appear much larger than they are d. makes images of stars appear sideways

____ 93. Which of the following is NOT true about most large optical telescopes?a. They are refracting telescopes. b. They have greater light-gathering power. c. They have greater resolving power. d. They are reflecting telescopes.

____ 94. The James Webb Space Telescope will study ____.a. X-rays b. gamma rays c. infrared radiation d. radio waves

____ 95. What was the first space telescope built by NASA?a. Hubble Space Telescope b. Chandra X-Ray Observatory c. Compton Gamma-Ray Observatory d. James Webb Space Telescope

____ 96. What advantage do space telescopes have over telescopes used on Earth?a. They are much cheaper to build. b. They are not affected by Earth’s atmosphere. c. They do not need lenses or mirrors to gather light. d. They last longer.

____ 97. The layer of the sun that radiates most of the light that reaches Earth is the ____.a. photosphere b. corona c. chromosphere d. ionosphere

____ 98. The outermost layer of the sun is called the ____.a. ionosphere b. photosphere c. corona d. chromosphere

____ 99. Which part of the sun lies directly above the visible “surface” of the sun?a. photosphere b. chromosphere c. corona d. ionosphere

____ 100. The sun’s surface has a grainy texture produced by numerous bright markings called ____.a. granules b. umbras c. sunspots d. solar flares

____ 101. The thin red rim seen around the sun during a total solar eclipse is called the ____.a. aurora b. chromosphere c. corona d. photosphere

____ 102. The sun’s surface is made up mostly of ____.a. helium b. ammonia c. hydrogen d. oxygen

____ 103. Streams of electrons and protons that shoot out from the sun’s corona make up the solar ____.a. atmosphere b. wind c. rays d. granules

____ 104. What are the most explosive events that occur on the sun?a. umbras b. prominences c. solar flares d. solar winds

Name: ________________________ ID: A

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____ 105. In Figure 24-1, what feature is labeled A?a. corona b. photosphere c. chromosphere d. prominence

____ 106. Using Figure 24-1, what solar features are labeled C?a. prominences b. solar winds c. solar flares d. sunspots

____ 107. By observing sunspots, Galileo concluded that the sun ____.a. was dying b. was solid c. rotated on its axis d. dimmed and brightened

____ 108. Sunspots appear dark because they are ____.a. relatively cool b. relatively hot c. deep holes d. solid areas

____ 109. What effect do solar flares have on Earth?a. auroras b. global warming c. magnetic pole reversal d. tides

____ 110. The product of nuclear fusion is ____.a. hydrogen b. oxygen c. helium d. nitrogen

____ 111. The source of the sun’s energy is ____.a. chemical burning b. nuclear fission c. nuclear fusion d. photosynthesis

____ 112. In the equation E = mc2, what does c represent?a. gravitational attraction b. atomic mass c. speed of light d. chemical composition

____ 113. The sun can continue to exist in its present stable state for about another ____.a. 5.5 billion years b. 10 billion years c. 15.5 billion years d. 100 billion years

____ 114. Stars of which color have the highest surface temperature?a. red b. orange c. yellow d. blue

____ 115. A star with a surface temperature between 5000 K and 6000 K appears ____.a. blue b. red c. yellow d. white

____ 116. The mass of a star can be determined by studying ____.a. the wavelength of light emitted by the star b. the color of the star c. the distance between the star and Earth d. binary star systems

Name: ________________________ ID: A

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____ 117. Stars of which color have the coolest surface temperature?a. red b. orange c. yellow d. blue

____ 118. A light-year is approximately ____km.a. 9.5 trillion kilometers b. 95 trillion kilometers c. 150 million kilometers d. 150 billion kilometers

____ 119. Stellar distances are usually expressed in what units?a. miles b. kilometers c. light-years d. none of the above

____ 120. Which of the following is true about parallax?a. It is used to measure distances to stars. b. The parallax angles of distant stars are too small to measure. c. The nearest stars have the smallest parallax angles. d. both a and b

____ 121. The measure of a star’s brightness is called its ____.a. magnitude b. parallax c. intensity d. color index

____ 122. Which of the following does NOT affect the apparent brightness of a star?a. how old the star is b. how big the star is c. how hot the star is d. how far away the star is

____ 123. If star A is farther from Earth than star B, but both stars have the same absolute magnitude, what is true about their apparent magnitude?a. Both stars have the same apparent magnitude. b. Star A has the greater apparent magnitude. c. Star B has the greater apparent magnitude. d. Apparent magnitude is not related to distance.

____ 124. Which magnitude would be associated with the brightest star?a. 15 b. 10 c. 5 d. –5

____ 125. The difference in the brightness of two stars with the same surface temperature is attributable to their ____.a. densities b. colors c. ages d. sizes

____ 126. Which of the following is NOT a type of nebula?a. reflection b. emission c. spiral d. dark

____ 127. A Hertzsprung-Russell (H-R) diagram shows the relationship between ____.a. absolute magnitude and apparent magnitude b. temperature and absolute magnitude c. parallax and temperature d. apparent magnitude and parallax

____ 128. About 90 percent of stars on the H-R diagram are ____.a. supergiants b. main-sequence stars c. white dwarfs d. black holes

____ 129. Which main-sequence stars are the most massive?a. red b. orange c. yellow d. blue

____ 130. Which main-sequence stars are the least massive?a. red b. orange c. yellow d. blue

Name: ________________________ ID: A

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____ 131. According to Figure 25-1, which main-sequence stars are brightest?a. the smallest b. the coolest c. the hottest d. none of the above

____ 132. According to Figure 25-1, the sun has an absolute magnitude of ____.a. –5 b. 0 c. 5 d. 5000

____ 133. Another name for the interstellar matter that will eventually form a star is ____.a. supernova b. red giant c. black hole d. nebula

____ 134. A star is said to be born when ____.a. a protostar reaches a temperature high enough for nuclear fusion to begin b. a red giant collapses on itself and becomes a black hole c. pressure within a protostar becomes so great that a supernova occurs d. a dark, cool interstellar cloud begins to contract

____ 135. Which force is most responsible for the formation of a star?a. gravity b. nuclear force c. interstellar force d. electromagnetic force

____ 136. In the Milky Way, the most abundant gas in emission nebulae is ____.a. helium b. hydrogen c. argon d. nitrogen

____ 137. Massive stars terminate in a brilliant explosion called a ____.a. red giant b. protostar c. neutron star d. supernova

Name: ________________________ ID: A

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____ 138. Which stars are composed of matter in which electrons have combined with protons?a. black holes b. black dwarfs c. white dwarfs d. neutron stars

____ 139. All stars, regardless of size, eventually ____.a. turn into black dwarfs b. explode c. run out of fuel and collapse d. become black holes

____ 140. Before being engulfed, matter that is pulled into a black hole should become very hot and emit ____.a. infrared radiation b. hydrogen nuclei c. atoms d. X-rays

____ 141. When a main-sequence star has exhausted the fuel in its core, it becomes a ____.a. black hole b. black dwarf c. neutron star d. red giant

____ 142. The sun is a ____.a. black hole b. black dwarf c. main-sequence star d. red giant

____ 143. What is the next stage in the sun’s life cycle?a. white dwarf b. red giant c. planetary nebula d. black dwarf

____ 144. What will be the final stage in the sun’s life cycle?a. white dwarf b. red giant c. planetary nebula d. black dwarf

____ 145. Light cannot escape the intense gravitational pull of a ____.a. black hole b. black dwarf c. main-sequence star d. red giant

____ 146. Our galaxy is called the ____.a. Local Group b. Orion c. Andromeda d. Milky Way

____ 147. Where is our sun located in the Milky Way?a. within one of the spiral arms b. at the exact center of the galactic nucleus c. in the galactic halo d. at the tip of one of the spiral arms

____ 148. Which of the following is NOT a type of galaxy?a. nebular b. irregular c. spiral d. elliptical

____ 149. According to Hubble’s law, galaxies are retreating at a speed that is proportional to their ____.a. orientation b. distance c. galactic position d. mass

____ 150. Which of the following indicates that the universe is expanding?a. red shift of distant galaxies b. red shift of the galaxies in the Local Group c. blue shift of distant galaxies d. blue shift of the Milky Way

____ 151. Based on the observed red shifts in the spectral lines of distant galaxies, astronomers conclude that ____.a. Earth is in the center of the universe b. the universe is contracting c. the universe is expanding d. the universe is smaller than once believed

____ 152. Greater red shifts in the spectra of galaxies indicate ____.a. faster speeds b. slower speeds c. higher temperatures d. lower temperatures

____ 153. According to the big bang theory, the universe began about ____.a. 4.5 billion years ago b. 13.7 billion years ago c. 49.6 billion years ago d. 130 billion years ago

____ 154. Which of the following supports the big bang theory?a. pulsars b. cosmic background radiation c. galactic clusters d. irregular galaxies

Name: ________________________ ID: A

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____ 155. A fault is ____.a. a place on Earth where earthquakes cannot occur b. a fracture in the Earth where movement has

occurred c. the place on Earth’s surface where structures move during an earthquake d. another name for an earthquake

____ 156. An earthquake’s epicenter is ____.a. the place on the surface directly above the focus b. a spot halfway between the focus and the surface

c. the spot below the focus d. any spot along the nearest fault

____ 157. When an earthquake occurs, energy radiates in all directions from its source, which is called the ____.a. epicenter b. focus c. fault d. seismic center

____ 158. Major earthquakes are sometimes preceded by smaller earthquakes called ____.a. aftershocks b. focus shocks c. surface waves d. foreshocks

____ 159. The San Francisco earthquake of 1906 occurred along what fault?a. the San Francisco fault b. the Pacific fault c. the California fault d. the San Andreas fault

____ 160. Which seismic waves travel most rapidly?a. P waves b. S waves c. surface waves d. tsunamis

____ 161. A seismogram shows that P waves travel ____.a. at the same speed as surface waves b. more slowly than S waves c. at the same speed as S waves

d. faster than S waves

____ 162. Overall, which seismic waves are the most destructive?a. P waves b. S waves c. compression waves d. surface waves

____ 163. What is the minimum number of seismic stations that is needed to determine the location of an earthquake’s epicenter?a. two b. one c. four d. three

Name: ________________________ ID: A

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____ 164. According to Figure 8-1, what is the distance between the seismic station and an earthquake epicenter, if the first S wave arrives 4.0 minutes after the first P wave?a. 1500 kilometers b. 2500 kilometers c. 3000 kilometers d. 2000 kilometers

____ 165. Use the graph in Figure 8-1 to determine the difference in the travel-times between the first P wave and the first S wave, if the seismic station is 4000 kilometers from the epicenter.a. 10.0 minutes b. 4.5 minutes c. 5.2 minutes d. 4.2 minutes

____ 166. How much of an increase in wave amplitude is seen from an earthquake measuring 5.4 on the Richter scale compared to one measuring 4.4?a. two times b. ten times c. 20 times d. 100 times

Name: ________________________ ID: A

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____ 167. In which of the following areas would the damage from an earthquake measuring 6.8 likely be the greatest?a. lightly populated rural area b. area with older brick structures c. area with modern steel-framed structures d. area with wood-framed structures

____ 168. Which of the following areas would most likely be the safest during a major earthquake?a. area with granite bedrock b. area with loosely consolidated soil c. area with structures built on a landfill d. area with steep slopes of unconsolidated sediments

____ 169. Tsunamis are ____.a. often generated by movements of the ocean floor b. waves that are produced by tidal forces c. waves that cannot cause damage on land d. also known as tidal waves

____ 170. A tsunami can occur when there is vertical movement at a fault under ____.a. a mountain range b. the San Andreas Fault c. the ocean floor d. a small inland lake

____ 171. Why do earthquakes often cause damaging fires?a. Lightning strikes are common during earthquakes. b. Earthquake vibrations can break gas lines, water lines, and electrical lines. c. Tsunamis from earthquakes generate enough heat to start fires. d. Magma from deep underground escapes through faults.

Name: ________________________ ID: A

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____ 172. What layer of Earth is labeled C in Figure 8-2?a. the crust b. the asthenosphere c. the mantle d. the lithosphere

____ 173. What layer of Earth is labeled E in Figure 8-2?a. the continental crust b. the lithosphere c. the oceanic crust d. the mantle

____ 174. What layer of Earth is labeled B in Figure 8-2?a. the continental crust b. the lithosphere c. the oceanic crust d. the mantle

____ 175. Earth’s thin, rocky outer layer is its ____.a. core b. mantle c. outer core d. crust

____ 176. The supercontinent in the continental drift hypothesis was called ____.a. Panthalassa b. Pangaea c. Mesosaurus d. Africa

____ 177. The lithospheric plates move an average of ____.a. 5 inches per year b. 50 inches per year c. 5 centimeters per year d. 50 centimeters per year

Name: ________________________ ID: A

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____ 178. What kind of plate boundary occurs where two plates grind past each other without destroying or producing lithosphere?a. divergent boundary b. convergent boundary c. transitional boundary d. transform fault boundary

____ 179. A divergent boundary at two oceanic plates can result in a ____.a. rift valley b. volcanic island arc c. continental volcanic arc d. subduction zone

____ 180. What type of boundary occurs where two plates move together, causing one plate to descend into the mantle beneath the other plate?a. transform fault boundary b. divergent boundary c. convergent boundary d. transitional boundary

____ 181. Which of the following is a geographic example of a transform fault boundary?a. the East African Rift valley b. the San Andreas Fault c. the Mid-Atlantic Ridge d. the Andes Mountains

____ 182. New ocean crust is formed at ____.a. divergent boundaries b. convergent boundaries c. continental volcanic arcs d. transform fault boundaries

____ 183. Which of the following results when divergence occurs between two oceanic plates?a. seafloor spreading b. a subduction zone c. an ocean trench d. a volcanic island arc

____ 184. An example of a divergent plate boundary on continental lithosphere would be ____.a. the Mid-Atlantic Ridge b. East Pacific Rise c. the East African Rift Valley d. the Andes Mountains

____ 185. What forms when one oceanic plate is forced beneath another plate?a. an ocean basin b. an ocean ridge c. a subduction zone d. a rift valley

____ 186. Deep ocean trenches are associated with ____.a. ocean ridge systems b. subduction zones c. transform fault boundaries d. rift zones

Name: ________________________ ID: A

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____ 187. What type of plate boundary is illustrated in Figure 9-1?a. transform fault boundary b. divergent boundary c. convergent oceanic-oceanic boundary d. convergent oceanic-continental boundary

____ 188. What feature is labeled B in Figure 9-1?a. trench b. ocean ridge c. volcanic island arc d. continental volcanic arc

____ 189. What layer of Earth is labeled C in Figure 9-1?a. asthenosphere b. continental lithosphere c. oceanic crust d. continental crust

____ 190. What process is illustrated by the area labeled G in Figure 9-1?a. seafloor spreading b. continental volcanism c. rifting d. subduction

____ 191. The Himalayas in South Asia are an example of what type of plate boundary?a. convergent oceanic-continental boundary b. convergent continental-continental boundary c. divergent boundary d. transform fault boundary

____ 192. At a transform fault boundary, ____.a. new oceanic crust is formed b. oceanic lithosphere is destroyed c. lithosphere is neither destroyed nor produced d. new continental crust is formed

____ 193. According to the property of paleomagnetism, ____.a. iron-rich rocks show the location of the magnetic poles at the time of their formation b. all rocks, regardless of when they are formed, have the same polarity c. all rocks have a reversed polarity d. rocks do not possess magnetic properties

____ 194. The Hawaiian Islands were formed when the Pacific Plate moved over ____.a. a subduction zone b. an ocean ridge c. the Aleutian Plate d. a hot spot

____ 195. The age of the rocks in the ocean basins was determined by ____.a. ocean drilling b. the fit of continents across ocean basins c. the depth of earthquake foci d. the amount of magnetism in the rocks

Name: ________________________ ID: A

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____ 196. In what type of rocks would geologists most likely find evidence of past life forms?a. igneous rocks b. metamorphic rocks c. volcanic rocks d. sedimentary rocks

____ 197. An example of a geologic event that could be recorded in rocks is ____.a. a civil war b. the occurrence of sun spots c. a volcanic eruption d. a lunar eclipse

____ 198. What is the youngest feature shown in Figure 12-1?a. rock layer J b. rock layer A c. fault M d. igneous intrusion L

____ 199. Which of the following sequences correctly lists the geologic events in Figure 12-1 in order from oldest to youngest (oldest listed first)?a. A, B, K, X, C, D, E, F, G, H, M, Y, I, J, L b. L, J, I, Y, M, H, G, F, E, D, C, X, K, B, A c. A, B, C, X, K, D, E, F, M, G, H, Y, L, I, J d. K, A, B, C, X, D, E, M, F, G, H, Y, I, J, L

____ 200. In what type of rocks are most fossils found?a. sedimentary rocks b. igneous rocks c. metamorphic rocks d. granite and marble

ID: A

1

final exam 2014 spring practiceAnswer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. ANS: B OBJ: 22.1 2. ANS: D OBJ: 22.1 3. ANS: A OBJ: 22.1 4. ANS: A OBJ: 22.2 5. ANS: B OBJ: 22.2 6. ANS: D OBJ: 22.2 7. ANS: B OBJ: 22.2 8. ANS: C OBJ: 22.3 9. ANS: B OBJ: 22.3 10. ANS: B OBJ: 22.3 11. ANS: C OBJ: 22.3 12. ANS: D OBJ: 22.3 13. ANS: B OBJ: 22.3 14. ANS: A OBJ: 22.3 15. ANS: B OBJ: 22.3 16. ANS: D OBJ: 22.3 17. ANS: B OBJ: 22.3 18. ANS: D OBJ: 22.3 19. ANS: C OBJ: 22.3 20. ANS: D OBJ: 22.3 21. ANS: A OBJ: 22.3 22. ANS: A OBJ: 22.4 23. ANS: D OBJ: 22.4 24. ANS: A OBJ: 22.4 25. ANS: A OBJ: 22.4 26. ANS: C OBJ: 22.4 27. ANS: A OBJ: 22.5 28. ANS: C OBJ: 22.5 29. ANS: B OBJ: 22.5 30. ANS: B OBJ: 22.6 31. ANS: C OBJ: 22.6 32. ANS: C OBJ: 22.6 33. ANS: C OBJ: 22.7 34. ANS: A OBJ: 22.7 35. ANS: B OBJ: 22.7 36. ANS: B OBJ: 22.8 37. ANS: C OBJ: 23.1 38. ANS: A OBJ: 23.1 39. ANS: D OBJ: 23.1 40. ANS: B OBJ: 23.1

ID: A

2

41. ANS: C OBJ: 23.1 42. ANS: B OBJ: 23.2 43. ANS: C OBJ: 23.2 44. ANS: B OBJ: 23.2 45. ANS: B OBJ: 23.2 46. ANS: A OBJ: 23.3 47. ANS: C OBJ: 23.3 48. ANS: D OBJ: 23.3 49. ANS: A OBJ: 23.3 50. ANS: B OBJ: 23.3 51. ANS: B OBJ: 23.3 52. ANS: D OBJ: 23.3 53. ANS: B OBJ: 23.3 54. ANS: A OBJ: 23.3 55. ANS: C OBJ: 23.3 56. ANS: A OBJ: 23.3 57. ANS: B OBJ: 23.3 58. ANS: D OBJ: 23.3 59. ANS: C OBJ: 23.4 60. ANS: C OBJ: 23.4 61. ANS: A OBJ: 23.4 62. ANS: C OBJ: 23.4 63. ANS: D OBJ: 23.4 64. ANS: C OBJ: 23.4 65. ANS: D OBJ: 23.4 66. ANS: B OBJ: 23.5 67. ANS: D OBJ: 23.5 68. ANS: A OBJ: 23.6 69. ANS: B OBJ: 23.7 70. ANS: D OBJ: 23.7 71. ANS: B OBJ: 23.7 72. ANS: B OBJ: 24.1 73. ANS: A OBJ: 24.1 74. ANS: D OBJ: 24.1 75. ANS: C OBJ: 24.1 76. ANS: C OBJ: 24.1 77. ANS: D OBJ: 24.1 78. ANS: C OBJ: 24.1 79. ANS: D OBJ: 24.2 80. ANS: B OBJ: 24.2 81. ANS: A OBJ: 24.2 82. ANS: A OBJ: 24.3 83. ANS: A OBJ: 24.3 84. ANS: B OBJ: 24.3 85. ANS: C OBJ: 24.3 86. ANS: C OBJ: 24.4

ID: A

3

87. ANS: A OBJ: 24.4 88. ANS: C OBJ: 24.4 89. ANS: A OBJ: 24.4 90. ANS: B OBJ: 24.4 91. ANS: D OBJ: 24.5 92. ANS: B OBJ: 24.5 93. ANS: A OBJ: 24.5 94. ANS: C OBJ: 24.6 95. ANS: A OBJ: 24.6 96. ANS: B OBJ: 24.6 97. ANS: A OBJ: 24.7 98. ANS: C OBJ: 24.7 99. ANS: B OBJ: 24.7 100. ANS: A OBJ: 24.7 101. ANS: B OBJ: 24.7 102. ANS: C OBJ: 24.7 103. ANS: B OBJ: 24.8 104. ANS: C OBJ: 24.8 105. ANS: B OBJ: 24.7 106. ANS: D OBJ: 24.8 107. ANS: C OBJ: 24.8 108. ANS: A OBJ: 24.8 109. ANS: A OBJ: 24.8 110. ANS: C OBJ: 24.9 111. ANS: C OBJ: 24.9 112. ANS: C OBJ: 24.9 113. ANS: A OBJ: 24.9 114. ANS: D OBJ: 25.1 115. ANS: C OBJ: 25.1 116. ANS: D OBJ: 25.1 117. ANS: A OBJ: 25.1 118. ANS: A OBJ: 25.2 119. ANS: C OBJ: 25.2 120. ANS: D OBJ: 25.2 121. ANS: A OBJ: 25.3 122. ANS: A OBJ: 25.3 123. ANS: C OBJ: 25.3 124. ANS: D OBJ: 25.3 125. ANS: D OBJ: 25.3 126. ANS: C OBJ: 25.4 127. ANS: B OBJ: 25.4 128. ANS: B OBJ: 25.4 129. ANS: D OBJ: 25.4 130. ANS: A OBJ: 25.4 131. ANS: C OBJ: 25.4 132. ANS: C OBJ: 25.4

ID: A

4

133. ANS: D OBJ: 25.5 134. ANS: A OBJ: 25.5 135. ANS: A OBJ: 25.5 136. ANS: B OBJ: 25.5 137. ANS: D OBJ: 25.6 138. ANS: D OBJ: 25.6 139. ANS: C OBJ: 25.6 140. ANS: D OBJ: 25.6 141. ANS: D OBJ: 25.7 142. ANS: C OBJ: 25.7 143. ANS: B OBJ: 25.7 144. ANS: D OBJ: 25.7 145. ANS: A OBJ: 25.7 146. ANS: D OBJ: 25.8 147. ANS: A OBJ: 25.8 148. ANS: A OBJ: 25.9 149. ANS: B OBJ: 25.10 150. ANS: A OBJ: 25.10 151. ANS: C OBJ: 25.10 152. ANS: A OBJ: 25.10 153. ANS: B OBJ: 25.11 154. ANS: B OBJ: 25.11 155. ANS: B OBJ: 8.1 156. ANS: A OBJ: 8.1 157. ANS: B OBJ: 8.1 158. ANS: D OBJ: 8.3 159. ANS: D OBJ: 8.3 160. ANS: A OBJ: 8.4 161. ANS: D OBJ: 8.4 162. ANS: D OBJ: 8.4 163. ANS: D OBJ: 8.5 164. ANS: B OBJ: 8.5 165. ANS: C OBJ: 8.5 166. ANS: B OBJ: 8.6 167. ANS: B OBJ: 8.7 168. ANS: A OBJ: 8.7 169. ANS: A OBJ: 8.8 170. ANS: C OBJ: 8.8 171. ANS: B OBJ: 8.8 172. ANS: D OBJ: 8.10 173. ANS: D OBJ: 8.10 174. ANS: C OBJ: 8.10 175. ANS: D OBJ: 8.10 176. ANS: B OBJ: 9.1 177. ANS: C OBJ: 9.5 178. ANS: D OBJ: 9.6

ID: A

5

179. ANS: A OBJ: 9.6 180. ANS: C OBJ: 9.6 181. ANS: B OBJ: 9.6 182. ANS: A OBJ: 9.6 183. ANS: A OBJ: 9.7 184. ANS: C OBJ: 9.7 185. ANS: C OBJ: 9.8 186. ANS: B OBJ: 9.8 187. ANS: D OBJ: 9.6 188. ANS: A OBJ: 9.8 189. ANS: C OBJ: 9.5 190. ANS: D OBJ: 9.8 191. ANS: B OBJ: 9.9 192. ANS: C OBJ: 9.10 193. ANS: A OBJ: 9.11 194. ANS: D OBJ: 9.12 195. ANS: A OBJ: 9.12 196. ANS: D OBJ: 12.1 197. ANS: C OBJ: 12.1 198. ANS: D OBJ: 12.3 199. ANS: A OBJ: 12.3 200. ANS: A OBJ: 12.5