Exam 41. Which of the following versions supports 16-bit applications?

A. 32-bit Windows 7

B. 64-bit Windows 7

C. 32-bit and 64-bit Windows 7

D. None of the above

Answer: A

When using 64-bit Windows 7, you are not able to run 16-bit applications. Instead, you need to install XP mode if you still need access to 16-bit applications.

2. Which feature in Windows 7 enables you to flip through all open windows in a three-dimensional stack?

A. Aero Peek

B. Aero Snap

C. Aero Flip 3D

D. Aero Shake

Answer: C

Windows Flip 3D enables you to flip through all open windows in a three-dimensional stack without having to click the taskbar.

3. Where do you place your gadgets?

A. Task Bar

B. The Desktop

C. Notification Area

D. Quick List

Answer: B

Different from Windows Vista, gadgets are placed on the Desktop.

4. What is the minimum amount of memory needed to install a 64-bit version of Windows 7 Ultimate edition?

A. 512 MB

B. 1 GB

C. 2 GB

D. 4 GB

Answer: C

To install most versions of 64-bit versions of Windows 7, you need 2 GB of RAM.

5. What kind of upgrade can you perform from Windows Vista Home Premium to Windows 7 Home Premium that maintains application and user settings?

A. In-Place Upgrade

B. Custom Install

C. Replace Upgrade

D. Enhanced Upgrade

Answer: A

Because you are upgrading like editions, you can use the in-place upgrade, which keeps user and application settings.

6. You work for a large corporation, and you just installed Windows. You try to check for Windows updates, but you cannot access the Windows update website. What should you do?

A. Be sure you are logged in as a domain administrator.

B. Add yourself to the Windows Update local group.

C. Activate Windows.

D. Check your proxy settings in Internet Explorer.

Answer: D

If Windows update fails to get updates, you should check your proxy settings in Internet Explorer to see if it can get through your proxy server or firewall.

7. You have a Windows XP computer that you need to upgrade to Windows 7, but you are not sure if the older video card is compatible with Windows 7. What should you do?

A. Run the Windows 7 Program Compatibility Assistant tool.

B. Run the Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor.

C. Run Windows update.

D. Open the device manager and update its drivers.

Answer: B

To see if your system is compatible with Windows 7, you need to run the Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor.

8. When using USMT, which file is used to migrate user folders, files, and file types to computers running 7?

A. MigApp.xml

B. MigUser.xml

C. MigDocs.xml

D. MigSet.xml

Answer: B

The User State Migration Tool (USMT) is a scriptable command-line tool that enables you to migrate settings between Windows installations. The MigUser.xml file is used to migrate user folders, files, and file types to computers running Windows 7.

9. When using USMT, which option should you use to include the EFS files and digital certificates?

A. /key

B. /nocompress

C. /encrypt

D. /efs:copyraw

Answer: D

The /efs:copyraw copies the files in the encrypted format. If you are running Windows Vista or Windows 7 with the /efs:copyraw option, USMT will migrate EFS encrypted files and EFS certificates.

10. What do you use to validate a Windows 7 answer file?

A. Scanstate

B. Windows SIM

C. DISM

D. SMS

Answer: D

Although you can create an answer file with any text editor, it is recommended that you use Windows SIM to validate the answer file.

11. What command can you use to view the contents of a WIM file?

A. Syspep

B. Windows SIM

C. WINPE

D. ImageX

Answer: D

ImageX can be used to view the contents of a WIM file, capture Desktop images, mount images for offline image editing, and compress image files.

12. What tool would you use to create a VHD file?

A. BCDBoot

B. BCDEdit

C. ImageX.exe

D. Disk Management console.

Answer: D

The Disk Management console that is part of the Computer Management console can be used to create a VHD file.

13. Where do you check to see how much memory your system has?

A. Device Manager

B. Hardware console

C. System applet in the Control Panel

D. Display settings

Answer: C

You can view a summary of important information about your computer by opening System in the Control panel (including the system type 32-bit or 64-bit), your Windows Experience Index, and the amount of RAM you have.

14. You just started Device Manager. How can you determine if a device is disabled?

A. There is a red X.

B. It is grayed out.

C. There is a down arrow.

D. It is flashing.

Answer: C

A down black arrow indicates a device is disabled. A disabled device is a device that is physically present in the computer and consumes resources but does not have a driver loaded.

15. Where can you manage all your devices that are connected through your USB ports?

A. Devices folder

B. Devices and Printers folder

C. USB folder

D. Plug and Play folder

Answer: B

The Devices and Printers folder gives you a quick view of devices connected to your computer. These devices are typically external devices that you can connect to or disconnect from your computer through a port or network connection.

16. How do scan for new devices with Windows 7?

A. Run the sigverif.exe command.

B. Run the Scandisk.exe command.

C. Click Hardware and Sound in the Control Panel and select Add a device under the Devices and Printers section.

D. Run the scanhw.exe command.

Answer: C

Usually when you connect a device, it is automatically recognized, and Windows 7 automatically tries to load the proper driver. If not, you need to select the Add a device under the Devices and Printers section in the Control Panel so that Windows scans for hardware changes.

17. To support Windows Aero, which of the following is not true?

A. You need to have a color depth of 32 bits per pixel.

B. You need to have a refresh rate of less than 10 hertz.

C. You need to set a Windows Aero theme.

D. You need to have Windows frame transparency on.

Answer: B

You need to have a refresh rate that is higher than 10 hertz.

18. What is the minimum WEI score for your system to support Windows Aero?

A. 1.0

B. 2.0

C. 3.0

D. 4.0

Answer: C

For Windows 7 to support Windows Aero, you must have a Windows Experience Index of 3.0 or higher.

19. Which command enables you to manage your partitions and volumes?

A. diskpart

B. scandisk

C. defrag

D. fdisk

Answer: A

The two main programs or utilities to manage your volumes and partitions are the diskpart command and the disk management console.

20. Which of the following describes the system volume?

A. The volume that contains the Windows boot files

B. The volume that contains the Windows operating system

C. The Z drive

D. The fastest drive

Answer: A

As strange as it sounds, the system volume contains the Windows boot files, whereas the boot volumes contains the Windows operating system.

21. How many disks do you need to create RAID0?

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. Four

Answer: B

RAID0 is called stripping, which uses 2 to 32 disks to create a single volume that is spread out through all of the disks. Because it is spread out throughout all the disks, the spanned disk provides better performance.

22. How many drive letters can Windows 7 support for disks, excluding the floppy disks?

A. 8

B. 16

C. 24

D. 32

Answer: C

Because there are 26 letters in the alphabet and two are reserved for floppy disks, you are limited to 24 drive letters (C through Z).

23. How can you ensure that a single user does not use too much disk space?

A. Defrag the hard drive.

B. Establish disk quotas.

C. Run the disk cleanup tool.

D. Schedule the disk cleanup tool with the /q option.

Answer: B

To limit how much space a user can use within a volume, use disk quotas.

24. What is the default subnet mask for the host address of 172.32.32.67?

A. 255.0.0.0

B. 255.255.0.0

C. 255.255.255.0

D. 255.255.255.255

Answer: B

The 172.32.32.67 address is a class B address and a private address. The default subnet mask for a class B address is 255.255.0.0.

25. What is the CIDR notation for the 255.255.240.0 subnet mask?

A. /18

B. /20

C. /22

D. /24

Answer: B

If you translate 255.255.240.0 to binary, you have 11111111.11111111.11110000.00000000. Because there are 20 bits masked, the CIDR notation is /20.

26. Which of the following is NOT a private address?

A. 172.31.34.7

B. 10.31.0.1

C. 192.168.3.39

D. 172.32.32.32

Answer: D

The private address is assigned 10.x.x.x, 172.16.x.x to 172.31.x.x, and 192.168.0.x and 192.168.255.x. The 172.32.32.32 does not follow any of those ranges.

27. What service can you use that translates from computer/NetBIOS names to IP addresses?

A. DNS

B. WINS

C. DHCP

D. NAT

Answer: B

To translate from the NetBIOS computer names, you use WINS, which is short for Windows Internet Name Service.

28. Which command is used to show all TCP/IP configurations including the DNS and WINS servers used by the host?

A. ipconfig

B. ipconfig /all

C. ipconfig /flushdns

D. ipconfig /registerdns

Answer: B

The ipconfig /all command is used to display full TCP/IP configuration information.

29. What command would you use to release the IPv6 address handed out by a DHCP server?

A. ipconfig /all

B. ipconfig /release

C. ipconfig /release 6

D. ipconfig /flushdns

Answer: C

The ipconfig /release6 releases the IPv6 address configured by a DHCP server.

30. If you have a wireless access point configured to use Temporary Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) security and you are using pre-shared keys, which option should you choose to connect to the wireless access point?

A. WPA2-Enterprise

B. WPA2-Personal

C. WPA-Enterprise

D. WPA-Personal

Answer: D

WPA uses TKIP encryption. Personal uses pre-shared keys.

31. A user connects to your corporate network using a VPN. What do you call it when the user can access an intranet resource through the VPN while surfing the Internet without going through the corporate VPN but while connected through the VPN?

A. Split tunneling

B. NAT

C. Name resolution

D. DHCP

Answer: A

Split tunneling is the process of allowing a remote VPN user to access a public network such as the Internet at the same time that the user is allowed to access resources through the VPN.

32. You need to configure multiple computers with the least amount of administrative effort to connect to your wireless network. What should you do?

A. Manually configure each computer’s wireless adapters.

B. Save the wireless network settings to a USB device and apply it to each computer.

C. Copy the wireless network settings to a shared folder and access the configuration from the share folder on each laptop.

D. Copy the wireless network settings to the hard disk of each of the new computers.

Answer: B

You can save the information to a USB device and then use the device to copy the configuration to each computer.

33. Which account is automatically created and disabled when you install a fresh copy of Windows 7?

A. Administrator

B. Administrators

C. RemoteIdentity

D. PowerUser

Answer: A

The built-in administrator account provides access to files, directories, and service. The Administrator and Guest accounts are disabled by default.

34. What enables you to store credentials such as user names and passwords that you use to log on to a website or other computers and that can be used to log you in automatically?

A. Password Cache

B. DLL Library

C. Credential Manager

D. Password Capture

Answer: C

Credential Manager enables you to store credentials so that you can use them in the future.

35. What is the first thing you need to do to enable auditing on some printers?

A. Enable user auditing.

B. Enable user quotas.

C. Enable object auditing.

D. Enable ACL auditing.

Answer: C

Files, folders, and printers are examples of objects. Therefore, the first step in enabling auditing for a printer, file, or folder is that you must enable object auditing.

36. Which of the following file systems is the most secure?

A. FAT

B. FAT32

C. NTFS

D. VFAT

Answer: C

NTFS is the only one that provides security features such as encryption and NTFS permissions and the capability to use transaction tracking to keep the file system reliable.

37. Which permission always wins out?

A. Explicit

B. Inherited

C. Full Control

D. Deny

Answer: D

The Deny permission always overrides the permissions that have been granted, including when a user or group has been given full control.

38. How do you prevent someone from connecting a USB drive to a corporate laptop and copying sensitive data to the USB drive?

A. Use group policies.

B. Use NTFS permissions.

C. Use disk quotas.

D. Use rights.

Answer: A

By using group policies with Windows 7, you can block the automatic installation of USB storage devices on the computers.

39. In which folder do you find x86 programs on a 32-bit version of Windows?

A. C:\Program Files

B. C:\Program Files (x86)

C. C:\Windows

D. C:\Windows\System32

Answer: A

The Program Files folder is the default program to contain programs that are not part of Windows.

40. What enables you to encrypt an entire volume?

A. BitLocker

B. FAT32

C. EFS

D. PAP

Answer: A

BitLocker is designed to help protect all of the personal and system files of the drive that Windows is installed on if your computer is stolen.

41. The Documents library includes the My Documents folder and _______.

A. The All Documents folder

B. Public Documents

C. Favorites

D. The Administrator folder

Answer: A

The Documents library includes the My Documents folder and the Public Documents folder.

42. Which of the following is NOT a folder-sharing technology available in Windows 7?

A. Public Sharing

B. Basic Sharing

C. NFS

D. Advanced Sharing

Answer: C

The three types of sharing available in Windows 7 are Public Sharing, Basic Sharing, and Advanced Sharing. NFS sharing is associated with UNIX machines.

43. You share a couple of folders in your Windows 7 computer. Unfortunately, they are not visible on anyone’s network map so that users can find the shares easily. What is most likely the problem?

A. You need to enable the Network Discovery service.

B. You did not give the proper NTFS permissions.

C. You did not give the proper Share permissions.

D. You did not register your system in your DNS server.

Answer: A

To vie the computer using network map, you need to have the Link Layer Topology Discovery (LLDT) operational. Therefore, you need to have the Network Discovery service enabled. This is done using the Network and Sharing Center.

44. You have a shared folder on an NTFS volume. What is the best way to share folders and lock it down?

A. Set Everyone to have full control share permissions and lock it down with NTFS permission.

B. Set Everyone to have full control NTFS permissions and lock it down with Share permissions.

C. Set Everyone to have full control NTFS and share permissions and lock it down with file attributes.

D. Lock it down with both share and NTFS permissions.

Answer: A

With Microsoft’s best practices, you should grant full control to Everyone and use NTFS to lock it down.

45. What do you call the component that holds and forwards the print jobs that are sent to the physical printer?

A. The printer driver

B. The spooler

C. The PrintTemp folder

D. The Processor area

Answer: B

The printer spooler is often referred to as a queue, which accepts each document being printed, stores it, and sends it to the printer device when the printer device is ready.

46. You have a print job that you cannot delete, and it does not finish. What should you try?

A. Restart the printer.

B. Restart the Server service.

C. Restart the print spooler.

D. Make sure the printer is connected.

Answer: C

If the print spooler becomes unresponsive or you have print jobs that you cannot delete, you should try to restart the Print Spooler service.

47. What do you call a package of multiple SHIMs bundled together by Microsoft?

A. An MSI package

B. An XP Package

C. A Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit

D. A Microsoft Application Reconfig Kit

Answer: C

In new versions of Windows, Microsoft includes numerous “SHIMs” or minor fixes that are used to improve compatibility with existing non-Microsoft software. Microsoft analyzed the application and provided an application compatibility SHIM. These SHIMs are bundled together with the Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit.

48. You upgraded your computer running Windows XP with SP2 to Windows 7 Professional. What should you do when you run the PickUp.exe program and you receive the following error: This application is only designed to run on Windows XP or later.

A. You should run the application with elevated privileges.

B. You should run the application in VGA mode.

C. You should install Windows XP mode and run the application under Windows XP mode.

D. You should make sure your machine has all the Windows updates.

Answer: C

When an application that was written for an older version of Windows does not run under Windows 7, you should try compatibility mode or run the application under Windows XP mode.

49. What can you use to easily invoke an online service by using only the mouse?

A. Cookies

B. ActiveX

C. Accelerators

D. SmartScreen Filter

Answer: C

An accelerator is a form of selection-based search that allows a user to invoke an online service from any page using only the mouse.

50. How do you remove the stored passwords from a computer?

A. On the Security tab in Internet Options, set the Internet zone security to High.

B. On the Privacy tab in Internet Explorer, set the level to Medium.

C. On the Privacy tab in Internet Options, set the level to High.

D. In Explorer, click Tools, and then click Delete Browsing History. Click Delete passwords.

Answer: D

To delete saved passwords in Internet Explorer, you must delete the browsing history.

51. What technology in Internet Explorer is used to protect you from spoofed sites that might try to trick you into divulging confidential information?

A. Protected mode

B. Phishing filter

C. Junk mail filter

D. Fake Site filter

Answer: B

Some sites are created to look as other sites that are used to lure people to divulge confidential information. Because these sites are “fishing” for information, these sites are referred to as phishing.

52. Which edition of Windows 7 enables you to sync with network folders?

A. Windows 7 Home Basic

B. Windows 7 Starter

C. Windows 7 Professional

D. Windows 7 Home Premium

Answer: C

The capability to sync with network folders is not included in Windows 7 Starter, Windows 7 Home Basic, and Windows 7 Home Premium.

53. You want to view someone’s Event Viewer without logging directly onto that person’s computer. What option should you use?

A. System Information

B. Computer Management console

C. System Information tool

D. Remote Management console

Answer: B

By using the Computer Management console, you can connect to remote computers to manage viewing the Event Viewer.

54. You need to give a presentation using your mobile computer. When you connect the project to the computer with an S-Video cable, how do you get the Desktop to display on the projector?

A. Open Display Settings. Select the icon that represents the project. Then, select the This is my main monitor option.

B. Open Display Settings. Select the icon that represents the laptop display. Then, clear the Extend the desktop onto this monitor option.

C. Clear the Lock the taskbar option of the taskbar’s context menu. Drag the taskbar as far to the right as possible.

D. Clear the Lock the taskbar option of the taskbar’s context menu. Drag the taskbar as far to the left as possible.

Answer: A

If you want to use the projector as the main monitor, open the display settings in the Control Panel. Then, select the icon that represents the project and make it the main monitor.

55. What program is used to directly connect to a network projector?

A. Remote Desktop

B. Remote Assistance

C. Remote Projector

D. Remote SideShow

Answer: C

A network projector is a video project that’s connected to a wireless or wired local area network (LAN). What sets the network projector apart from other presentation methods is that you can connect to and operate the project remotely over a network connection. If your computer can connect to the project, you can deliver a presentation from any location that has network access, whether it’s your private office or a configure room where the project is located.

56. How large does your USB drive have to be to make use of ReadyBoost?

A. 256 MB

B. 512 MB

C. 1 GB

D. 2 GB

Answer: B

USB flash devices that can be used with Windows ReadyBoost include USB 2.0 flash drives, Secure Digital (SD) cards, and CompactFlash cards. These devices must have sufficiently fast flash memory and be at least 512 MB or larger in size.

57. What should the minimum WEI be if you want to support multiplayer 3-D gaming and recording and playback of HDTV?

A. 2.0

B. 3.0

C. 4.0

D. 6.0

Answer: D

A computer with a base score of 6.0 or 7.0 has a faster hard disk and can support high-end, graphics-intensive experiences, such as multiple and 3-D gaming and recording a playback of HDTV content.

58. What tool can you use to increase the number of processors used during boot?

A. Computer Management Console

B. System Information

C. System Configuration

D. IIS

Answer: C

If you start System Configuration, click the Boot tab and clicked the Advanced Options button.

59. You are going to upgrade a couple of applications, and you want to backup all system and data files. What should you use?

A. Create a System Image Backup.

B. Use System Restore.

C. Use previous versions of files.

D. Use System Configuration.

Answer: A

System Image Backup, sometimes referred to as the Complete PC Backup, is a copy of the system drives required for Windows to run and is one of the fastest ways to restore your hard drive. It can also include additional drives.

60. You have a computer running Windows 7 with C and D drives. Both hard drives are formatted with NTFS file system. You need to disable the previous versions on the D drive. What should you do?

A. Modify the Quota settings.

B. Modify the Sharing settings.

C. Use the Disk Management snap-in.

D. Modify the System protection settings from System properties.

Answer: D

To enable or disable what is affected by System Restore and previous versions, you must use the System Protection Settings from System Properties.