Entrance Exams 2020-21 (Patterns and Analysis)

Entrance Exams 2020 – 21 (Patterns and Analysis)

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Index

MANAGEMENT __________________________________ 06

Delhi University (DU-JAT) 07

IIM Indore (IPMAT) 12

IIM Rohtak (IPMAT) 16

Narsee Monjee Institute of Management Studies (NPAT) 20

Symbiosis Center for Management Studies (SET) 23

St. Xavier's College (BMS) 26

Christ University (BBA) 28

Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (CET BBA) 31

Jamia Millia Islamia University (BBA) 35

Manipal University (MUOET) 37

Bharati Vidyapeeth University (BUMAT) 38

LAW __________________________________________ 40

Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) 41

All India Law Entrance Test (AILET) 45

Symbiosis Law Admission Test (SLAT) 47

Christ University (CULEE) 50

Maharashtra Common Entrance Test (MHCET) 51

Jamia Millia Islamia University (Law) 53

Panjab University (Law) 54

Law School Admission Test (LSAT) 56

MASS COMMUNICATION __________________________ 57

Delhi University (BMMC) 58

Delhi University 5 Year Integrated Programme 59


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St. Xavier's College (BMM) 60

Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (CET BJMC) 61

Christ University (Mass Communication) 63

Manipal University (MUOET) 65

HOTEL MANAGEMENT ___________________________ 66

Ministry of Tourism (NCHMCT) 67

Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (CET HM) 69

Christ University (HM) 71

Jamia Milia Islamia University (JMIEEE-BHM) 73

Bharti Vidyapeeth University (BHMCT) (BVPHM) 76

IHM Aurangabad 77

Oberoi's Systematic Training and Education Programme (STEP) 79

Manipal University 81

B.Com ________________________________________ 82

Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (CET B. Com) 83

Christ University (B.Com.) 85

Jamia Millia Islamia University (B.Com.) 86

Banaras Hindu University (BHU - UET) 87

ECONOMICS ____________________________________ 88

Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (CET Eco Hons.) 89

Christ University BA (Eco Hons.) 91

Jamia Millia Islamia University BA (Hons.) Economics 92


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PSYCHOLOGY __________________________________ 93

Christ University (Psychology) 94

Jamia Millia Islamia University (Psychology) 96

Banaras Hindu University (BHU-UET) 97

Mount Carmel College (Psychology) 98

Aligarh Muslim University (Psychology) 99

Ashoka University, Sonepat 100

MIT-World Peace University, Pune 102

ENGLISH HONS ________________________________ 103

Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (CET Eng. Hons.) 104

Jamia Milia Islamia 105

University of English & Foreign language, Hyderabad 106

Christ University 107

Integrated MA in English Studies IIT Chennai 108

Banaras Hindu University 109

Presidency University, Kolkata 110

LIBERAL ARTS _________________________________ 111

Symbiosis School for Liberal Arts 112

Jyoti Dalal School of Liberal Arts 115

Jindal School of Liberal Arts and Humanities 118

FLAME University, Pune 119

BCA _________________________________________ 121

Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (CET BCA) 122

Bharatiya Vidyapeeth University 123

All India Management Association 124


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OTHERS ______________________________________ 125

Indian Statistical Institute, Bangalore 126

Indian Statistical Institute, Kolkata 127

SAT __________________________________________ 128

MANAGEMENT

Delhi University (DU-JAT) IIM Indore (IPMAT) IIM Rohtak (IPMAT) Narsee Monjee Institute of Management Studies

(NPAT) Symbiosis Center for Management Studies (SET) St. Xavier's College (BMS) Christ University (BBA) Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (CET BBA) Jamia Millia Islamia University (BBA) Manipal University (MUOET) Bharati Vidyapeeth University (BUMAT)


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1. Delhi University (DU-JAT)

COURSES:

1. Bachelor of Management Studies (BMS) 2. Bachelor of Business Administration – Financial Investment Analysis (BBA-FIA) 3. B.A.(Honours) Business Economics (BBE)

NO. OF STAGES – 1 1. Written Test – DUET ( Delhi University Entrance Test) NO. OF SEATS TOTAL – 1424 (BMS – 687, BBA-FIA – 171, BBE – 566)

ELIGIBILITY

A candidate must have passed 10+2 or equivalent examination with 60% marks in best of 4 subjects.

Mathematics and English are compulsory subjects. The applicant should have “passed” individually in each subject

required (including practical if any) for calculating merit and eligibility to the course they seek admission in.

Applicants with “compartment” results are not eligible to apply. ENTRANCE DATE 7 September 2020 MODE Online

PATTERN

Number of Questions: Total – 100 Qs (MCQ)

General Awareness/ Current Affairs / Business Awareness Logical Reasoning Quantitative Ability Verbal Ability Marking Scheme: Maximum Marks: 400

Right Answer: +4 Wrong Answer: -1 Total Duration: 120 Minutes

WEIGHTAGE Entrance Test: 65% & Qualifying Examination: 35%.

PREVIOUS/POTENTIAL

CHANGES/SPECIAL

REMARKS

1. Mode of examination changed to online from 2017. 2. Use of simple calculators is allowed from 2017.


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PREVIOUS/POTENTIAL

CHANGES/SPECIAL

REMARKS

2017 (Written 65% and Class 12th 35%) 2018 (Written 65% and Class 12th 35%) 2019 (Written 65% and Class 12th 35%) 2020 (Written 65% and Class 12th 35%)

DUET 2020 was conducted by National Testing Agency for the first time and it was conducted in two different sessions for shift-1 courses and for shift-2 courses in Delhi University. The slots had different papers, which was evaluated through the process of normalization, to ensure parity. Special Remarks: 2020

1. Like last year, National Testing Agency (NTA) was assigned the job of conducting the DUET this year also.

2. Like last two year, the questions were not divided into sections; and were jumbled up.

3. Quantitative Aptitude: Surprisingly, this year, a majority of the questions was from Quantitative Aptitude. The major surprise was change in number of question from 25 to around 38.Overall the number of questions of basic math and higher math were nearly same. So one could have maximized his/her score by attempting maximum questions from basic math section as the questions from higher math were on difficult side. The difficulty level of the questions in this section can be summed up as easy-moderate. In shift 1, there were 2 questions from Permutation And Combination, 2-3 questions from Arithmetic Progression (AP), Geometric (GP), 2 questions from Limits, 1-2 questions from Matrices, 1 from Trigonometry, 8 questions were from Functions and Graph, 2 questions from Inequalities, 2 questions from Coordinate Geometry, 1 question from logarithm, 2 Questions from Geometry, 2 Questions from Time and Work, 2 questions from Time-Speed & Distance, 2 questions from percentage, 1 questions from SI/CI, 2 questions from Ratios, 3 questions from Algebra and 3 questions from Number Systems. General Awareness: Most surprising thing in the paper was the less no. of General Awareness questions There were just 12 Questions in Shift 1 and 10 questions in Shift 2 that too mainly from Current Affairs. In Shift 1, 10 questions were from Current Affairs and 2 questions were from General Science - Diseases (Pandemic) and Virus, this is also because of the current scenario of Pandemic (COVID-19). Questions from Current affairs were based on Ranking (Ease of Doing Business), 2 questions on Awards and Honours (Nobel Peace Prize 2019 and BCCI C.K. Nayudu Lifetime Achievement Award), Science and Technology (Parker Probe Mission – NASA), National Security Advisor, Central Vista Project, full form of CMIE, Deal for Digital India, 1 question was there from Business Awareness


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i.e. on Merger and Acquisition. Overall, the level of difficulty was easy. Every student must have felt comfortable answering the questions, except for the fact that the number of questions was lesser than expected. In Shift 2, 10 questions were there, all from Current Affairs. Questions were like Chairman of IRDAI, Ranking (Human Development Index), Awards and Honours – Best Actor Award – Dadasaheb Phalke Award, Chandrayaan – 2, UNESCO’s partnership for Online Classes, Speaker of Lok Sabha, Unbreakable – Autobiography of Mary Kom, UDAY Scheme, MGNREGA scheme, Mergers of Banks. Logical Reasoning: LR section in shift 1 had 31-32 questions and in Shift 2 had 24 questions. Like other areas, the questions based on reasoning were easy. The questions based on Reasoning were mostly from Analytical Reasoning, with just a couple of questions from Verbal Reasoning. The difficulty level of the questions can be summed up as easy-moderate; and with proper time management, one could have easily attempted most of the questions. In shift 1, there were 7-8 questions from Arrangements, 6 questions from Series and Sequence, 4 questions from Odd one out, 2-3 questions from Visual Reasoning, 1 question from each topic like Family Tree, Coding, Statement-Conclusion, Clocks, Calendars and 4-5 questions on other topics of easy level were there. In shift 2, questions from simple arrangement, series, Visual Reasoning, Coding/Decoding, Critical Reasoning, Dice, Directions and Data Sufficiency were asked. The overall level of difficulty was easy. Verbal Ability: Much like last year, the questions based on English were easy. The total number of questions in Shift 1 and Shift 2 were 18 and 22 respectively. In shift 1, there was only one RC/Passage with 6 questions, which gave students time to work with other areas. The questions which followed the passage were direct and fact based. There were 2 questions on Short passages, 2-3 questions on Antonyms, 2 questions on Para jumbles, 2 questions on Fill in the blanks, 2-3 questions on Active-Passive Voice, 2 questions on word pairing. In shift 2, this section had questions covering conventional areas such as vocabulary grammar, completion, & comprehension. The level of the questions was easy except one or two moderate level questions. There was one RC with 5 questions. All the questions based on it were direct and factual. As usual this section was dominated by vocabulary, followed by vocabulary based questions. There were 9-10 questions from Vocabulary and Fill in the blanks, 2-3 Sentence arrangements questions, 2-3 questions on Active-passive voice. And few other easy questions were there. Overall, the level of this section in the paper was easy-moderate.


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CUT OFFS

(CLOSING CUT OFFS)

Delhi University Entrance Test (DUET):

Admissions for

SSCBS BMS BBAFIA

2018 Closed at Rank 173 Closed at Rank 181 2019 Closed at Rank 163 Closed at Rank 107 2020 Closed at Rank185 Closed at Rank 113

Overall Cutoff:

Overall Score of 80+ Marks out of 100 (JAT + Class 12th) is a good benchmark for Final Selection into SSCBS.

ORDER OF

PREFERENCE OF

COLLEGES (EXAM

SPECIFIC)

FOR BMS

1. Shaheed Sukhdev College of Business Studies - 232 seats (UR – 93, SC – 35, ST – 17, OBC – 63, EWS – 24 )

2. Deen Dyal Upadhyaya College – 60 seats (UR – 24, SC – 9, ST – 5, OBC – 16, EWS – 6 )

3. Keshav Mahavidyalaya –59 (Gen-24, SC-9, ST-4, OBC-16, EWS-6,) 4. Sri Guru Gobind Singh College of Commerce – 51 seats 5. College of Vocational Studies – 58 seats 6. Ram Lal Anand College – 58 seats 7. Ramanujan College – 58 seats 8. Aryabhatta College – 58 seats 9. Shaheed Rajguru College of Applied Sciences – 58 seats FOR BBA-FIA

1. Shaheed Sukhdev College of Business Studies - 113 seats (UR – 45, SC – 13, ST – 8, OBC – 31, EWS – 12 )

2. Shaheed Rajguru College of Applied Sciences for Women – 58 seats

FOR BBE

1. Sri Guru Gobind Singh College of Commerce – 40 seats 2. Sri Guru Tegh Bahadur Khalsa College – 40 seats 3. Gargi College – 59 seats 4. College of Vocational Studies – 78 seats 5. Maharaja Agrasen College – 58 seats 6. Aryabhatta College – 58 seats 7. Shivaji College – 78 seats 8. Lakshmibai College – 38 seats 9. Sri Guru Nanak Dev Khalsa College – 40 seats 10. BR Ambedkar College – 77 seats

FEES

FOR BMS

1. Shaheed Sukhdev College of Business Studies - Rs. 14,025 2. Deen Dyal Upadhyaya College – Rs. Rs 21,525 3. Keshav Mahavidyalaya – Rs 14,836 4. Sri Guru Gobind Singh College of Commerce – Rs. 44,200


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5. College of Vocational Studies – Rs. 10,150 6. Ram Lal Anand College – Rs 25,930 7. Ramanujan College – Rs 30,000 8. Aryabhatta College – Rs 23,830 9. Shaheed Rajguru College of Applied Sciences – Rs 15,620 FOR BBA-FIA

1. Shaheed Sukhdev College of Business Studies - Rs 25,025

2. Shaheed Rajguru College of Applied Sciences for Women – Rs. 26,620 FOR BBE

1. Sri Guru Gobind Singh College of Commerce - Rs 44,200 2. Sri Guru Tegh Bahadur Khalsa College - Rs 43,965 3. Gargi College - Rs 41,220 4. College of Vocational Studies – Rs. 27,000 5. Maharaja Agrasen College - Rs 16,000 6. Aryabhatta College - Rs 26,130 7. Shivaji College - Rs 36,270 8. Lakshmibai College - Rs 19,385 9. Sri Guru Nanak Dev Khalsa College - Rs 39,025

10. BR Ambedkar College - Rs 24,575

(Above mentioned fee is for three years)


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2. IIM Indore (IPMAT)

COURSES: 5 YEARS INTEGRATED PROGRAMME IN MANAGEMENT (IPM)

NO. OF STAGES – 3

1. Aptitude Test (IPMAT) 2. Written Ability Test (WAT) 3. Personal Interview

NO. OF SEATS 150

ELIGIBILITY

Minimum 60% in Standard X/ SSC and Standard XII/ HSC or equivalent examinations (55% for the candidates from SC/ ST/ PwD category)

Maximum 20 years of age as on July 31, 2020. ENTRANCE DATE 7

th

September 2020

MODE ONLINE

PATTERN

1. Aptitude Test (IPMAT)

Number of Questions:

The structure of the exam was different from the previous year, with Quantitative Aptitude Section divided into two. 1. Quantitative Ability (MCQ) – 20 Questions 2. Quantitative Ability (Short Answers) – 10 Questions 3. Verbal Ability (MCQ) – 30 Questions Total – 60 Questions

Marking Scheme:

Right Answer: +4 Wrong Answer: -1 No Negative Marking in Quantitative Ability (Short Answers) Maximum Marks: 240

2. Written Ability Test (WAT) Total Duration: 30 Minutes Word Limit: 150 Words Candidates are made to write an essay on subjective or topics of current relevance.

3. Video Assessment (instead of Personal interview) This year the students were assessed through video based assessment process. Candidates shortlisted were required to upload a self-recorded video file within stipulated time period after the announcement of the Aptitude Test Result. Candidates were given a set of questions on which they were required to record their video and upload it.

WEIGHTAGE 1. IPMAT Score – 85% 2. Video Assessment – 15%

PREVIOUS/POTENTIAL

CHANGES/SPECIAL

REMARKS

1. Earlier the exam was postponed twice due to Covid-19 pandemic. This year IIM Indore introduced many changes in the IPMAT exam pattern like number of questions, sectional and overall time duration,


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difficulty level among others. IPMAT 2020: Changes in Exam Pattern Total number of questions reduced to 60 from 100 Test duration reduced to 90 minutes from earlier 120 minutes Sectional Time limit reduced to 30 minutes for each section from 40

earlier Maximum Marks reduced to 240 from 400 earlier IPMAT 2020 was conducted in afternoon session instead of morning

session last year Selection process is based on Video Assessment instead of personal

interview

2. Like last two years Quantitative Aptitude Section divided into

two – QA MCQ and QA Subjective. Change in the pattern of IPMAT – IIM Indore is as follows: 2017: 1. QA – 60 Qs 2. VA – 40 Qs Total – 100 Questions (90 MCQ and 10 open end in QA) 2018: 1. Quantitative Ability (MCQ) – 40 Qs

2. Quantitative Ability (Short Answers) – 20 Qs 3. Verbal Ability (MCQ) – 40 Qs

Total – 100 Questions

2019: 1. Quantitative Ability (MCQ) – 40 Qs 2. Quantitative Ability (Short Answers) – 20 Qs 3. Verbal Ability (MCQ) – 40 Qs


2020: 1. Quantitative Ability (MCQ) – 20 Qs 2. Quantitative Ability (Short Answers) – 10 Qs 3. Verbal Ability (MCQ) – 30 Qs


3. Sectional time limit introduced in 2017 and after that it is

implemented in the exam every year. One could move to the next section any time before the completion of the sectional time limit, but could not come back to the previous section. The order of sections was pre-defined. Candidate must answer the sections in a pre-specified order and this order remains same for all the candidates. Changes in the duration of Time of the Exam over the years is as follows: 2017: Total Duration: 120 Minutes QA – 75 minutes VA – 45 minutes 2018: Total Duration: 120 Minutes (40 minutes each) Quantitative Ability (MCQ) – 40 Minutes Quantitative Ability (Short Answers) – 40 Minutes


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Verbal Ability (MCQ) – 40 Minutes 2019: Total Duration: 120 Minutes (40 minutes each) Quantitative Ability (MCQ) – 40 Minutes Quantitative Ability (Short Answers) – 40 Minutes Verbal Ability (MCQ) – 40 Minutes 2020: Total Duration: 90 Minutes (30 minutes each) Quantitative Ability (MCQ) – 30 Minutes Quantitative Ability (Short Answers) – 30 Minutes Verbal Ability (MCQ) – 30 Minutes

4. Use of calculators is not allowed but on-screen calculators are provided.

SPECIAL REMARKS

1. The Quantitative Aptitude (MCQ) section had a wide mix of topics. There was a case let of 5 questions on Data Interpretation. Three questions from data interpretation set were inference based; while the other two were slightly difficult. 2 questions from probability and P & C, 2 questions from Averages, 1 questions from each topics like Numbers and number applications, Geometry, Coordinate Geometry, Logarithms, Functions, Ratio and proportion, Percentages, Trigonometry, Set Theory, Matrices, Function etc. Instead of solving, elimination options would have helped in 6-8 Questions. Just like last year, questions from higher maths were limited. Time was a restraint. Overall, this was a Moderate -Difficult section.

2. Quantitative Ability (SA) section contained 10 short answer type questions. The level of difficulty of this section was easy-moderate. There were 3 questions each from Numbers, 1 question each from Geometry/coordinate geometry, Time-Speed-Distance, matrices, Averages and Percentages, Ratio and Proportion, Sets and Functions, Logarithms and Determinants. An attempt of 6-7 questions can be considered good, despite no negative marking.

3. The questions in Verbal Ability section could easily be completed in around the given time frame. The section was dominated by RC, grammar & vocabulary. Overall, it was not a difficult section. 1 passage of 300 words with 5-6 Questions, 6 questions from Fill-in-the-blanks (Usage of appropriate words), 5 questions from Fill-in-the-blanks (Usage of 3 words), 5 questions from Incorrect word usage, 3 questions from Fill-in-the-blanks (Logical word usage), 3 questions from Para jumbles (Type-in-The-Answer), 2 questions from Fill in the blanks (Paragraph completion).


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CUT OFFS (CLOSING

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2018 Cut-off: VA – 85 QA MCQ – 24 QA SA - 12 2019 Cut-off: VA – 71 QA MCQ – 31 QA SA – 28 2020 Cut-off: QA SA – 20

QA MCQ – 26

VA MCQ - 68

FEES

Rs. 4 lakh per annum for first 3 years and for the next 2 years, its Rs.

16 lakh : Total - Rs. 28 Lakh


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3. IIM – ROHTAK (IPMAT)

IIM Rohtak conducted its first-ever Integrated Program in Management Aptitude Test (IPMAT) this year at various centers to select students for its five-year Integrated Program in Management after Class XII. IIM Rohtak now becomes the second IIM, after IIM Indore, to start the IPM program.

COURSES: 5 YEARS INTEGRATED PROGRAMME IN MANAGEMENT (IPM)

NO. OF STAGES - 3

1. Aptitude Test (IPMAT) 2. Written Ability Test (WAT) 3. Personal Interview

NO. OF SEATS 150

ELIGIBILITY

Minimum 60% in Standard X/ SSC and Standard XII/ HSC or equivalent examinations (55% for the candidates from SC/ ST/ PwD category)

Maximum 20 years of age as on July 31, 2020. Reservation will be applicable as per GOI norms after meeting the

minimum eligibility criteria. ENTRANCE DATE 20

th

July 2020


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MODE ONLINE

PATTERN

Aptitude Test (IPMAT) 2020


1. Quantitative Ability (MCQ) – 20 Qs 2. Logical Reasoning (MCQ) – 20 Qs 3. Verbal Ability (MCQ) – 20 Qs Total – 60 Qs

Marking Scheme:

Right Answer: +4 Wrong Answer: -1 Maximum Marks: 240 Total Duration: 45 Minutes (No sectional TIME LIMIT) Written Ability Test (WAT) Total Duration: 30 Minutes Word Limit: 150 Words Candidates are made to write an essay on subjective or topics of current relevance. Personal Interview The duration of the Interview was 15-20 minutes each. Strong focus on Academics and Current Affairs. Aptitude Test (IPMAT) 2019


1. Quantitative Ability (MCQ) – 40 Qs 2. Logical Reasoning (MCQ) – 40 Qs 3. Verbal Ability (MCQ) – 40 Qs Total – 120 Qs

Marking Scheme:

Right Answer: +4 Wrong Answer: -1 Maximum Marks: 480 Total Duration: 120 Minutes (No sectional TIME LIMIT) Written Ability Test (WAT) Total Duration: 30 Minutes Word Limit: 150 Words Candidates are made to write an essay on subjective or topics of current relevance. Personal Interview The duration of the Interview was 15-20 minutes each. Strong focus on Academics and Current Affairs. The questions asked in the interview were majorly from Academics. The questions were from the academic background of the candidates. The questions were also asked about current affairs. Some students were questioned on the city they belong to. Questions were also asked based on hobbies and extra-curricular activities

WEIGHTAGE 1. IPMAT Score – 50%


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2. WAT Score – 10% 3. Interview (Online) – 30% 4. Past Academics – 10%

SPECIAL REMARKS

IPMAT- Rohtak 2020: Changes in Exam Pattern Total number of questions reduced to 60 in 2020 from 120 in 2019 Test duration reduced to 45 minutes in 2020 from earlier 120 minutes

in 2019 Maximum Marks reduced to 240 in 2020 from 480 in 2019

1. After having faced technical glitches in conduction of the Remote

proctored Online test earlier, the institute decided to go in for a Google forms based online test. The technical requirement for taking up the test was very basic – laptop with minimum internet bandwidth requirement of 512 kbps. A smartphone also could have been used in case of an emergency.

2. In Quantitative Aptitude (MCQ) section, Arithmetic was the most dominant area comprising of 7-8 questions. Questions were spread across the topics of Simple Interest- Compound Interest, Profit & Loss, Time Speed Distance, Percentage and Averages. Permutation & Combinations and probability together had another 7 questions. Students have reported typo error/data inconsistency in approx 2 arithmetic questions. There was a single question on Linear Equations as well. Questions on Square root & cube root were easy. Not much questions from Higher Mathematics were seen in IPMAT this year. Overall QA section was easy but there were a few time-consuming questions as well.

3. This Logical Reasoning section was very easy as most of the questions were straight forward and doable. There were around 15 questions on Analytical Reasoning and Mental Ability whereas 5 questions on Verbal Reasoning. There were 2 questions on series – one each on the identification of the missing number and finding the incorrect number in the given series. There was an easy question on Number coding. Blood relations questions (2-3 questions) were also easy. 1 question each on Dices and Directions was there. There were 5-6 questions from Linear and circular arrangements which were a little time-consuming. There were 5 questions on Syllogisms which were of moderate difficulty level.

4. In Verbal Ability section, there were around 8 questions based on vocabulary with 2-3 questions on One-word substitution, 2-3 questions on Fill in the blanks and 2 questions on analogies. There was a single question based on Sentence Rearrangement. The format in which Sentence Rearrangement was asked in this paper was quite interesting. There was a Match the following based question in which 4 sentences were divided into two columns and the student had to find the correct match. There were 3 questions based on Spotting the


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error and Identifying the correct/incorrect sentence. One interesting question type that came up in the test were the questions which had 4 sentences and 2 of these 4 sentences were required to be connected using one of the conjunctions given in the options. There were 2 such questions and students would have found these questions to be time-consuming. This section had 3 passages, of around 3-4 lines, with 2 questions each. Most of the questions from these passages were direct and could be answered quite easily. Overall, the difficulty level was easy.

CUT OFFS (CLOSING

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Category Minimum cut off marks

General 144

NC-OBC 120

SC 96

ST 96

EWS 120

Category Minimum Cut Off marks 2019

General 256

NC-OBC 195

SC 157

ST 141

EWS 205

FEES

Rs. 4, 51, 000 per annum for first 3 years and for the next 2 years, its Rs. 7, 60, 000 Total - Rs. 28, 73, 000/-


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4. Narsee Monjee Institute of Management Studies (NPAT)

COURSES: BBA, B.Sc (Finance), B.Com (Hons.) and B.Sc Economics, BBA (Branding & Advertising)

NO. OF STAGES - 1 Written Test - NMIMS Programs After Twelfth (NPAT)

NO. OF SEATS BBA: Mumbai – 600, Bengaluru – 120, Hyderabad – 60, Navi Mumbai –

180, Indore – 120, Dhule – 60, Chandigarh – 120 BBA (Branding & Advertising): Mumbai – 120

ELIGIBILITY

A candidate must have passed 10+2 or equivalent examination and must have obtained a minimum of 60% aggregate marks for being able to do BBA/B.Sc. Finance & B.Com (Hons) with Mathematics / Statistics at their 10+2 or equivalent examination in one or the first attempt. For BBA (Branding & Advertising): Mathematics or Statistics is not compulsory.

ENTRANCE DATE 26th, 27th and 28th June 2020 MODE Online

PATTERN

Number of Questions: 120 1. Logical Reasoning – 40 Qs 2. Quantitative Aptitude – 40 Qs 3. Verbal Ability – 40 Qs Total – 120 Qs (MCQ) Marking Scheme: No Negative Marking Right Answer: +1 Maximum Marks: 120 Total Duration: 100 Minutes NPAT 2020 was remote proctored exam which was conducted over three days i.e. 26th, 27th and 28th June 2020. Candidates had the choice of appearing for the test two times and the best score out of two was considered for the further examination process.

WEIGHTAGE

Final Merit Ranks are compiled from the overall NPAT Score based on the “Course and Campus Preferences” as filled by candidates.

PREVIOUS/POTENTIAL

CHANGES/SPECIAL

REMARKS

1. There was no Sectional Time in 2020 same like 2019 and Duration of the paper was 100 minutes same like 2019.

2. Sectional time limit was introduced in 2017 (LR – 45 minutes, QA – 45 minutes and VA – 30 minutes) and Duration of the paper was reduced from 120 Minutes to 100 Minutes. 2016 : Time Duration – 120 Minutes (No Sectional Time Limit)

2017 : Time Duration – 120 Minutes (Sectional Time Limit)

LR – 45 minutes


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QA – 45 minutes VA – 30 minutes 2018 : Time Duration – 100 Minutes (No Sectional Time Limit)

2019 : Time Duration – 100 Minutes (No Sectional Time Limit)


3. Topic-wise split of questions was provided beforehand on the university's website along with the application form and was largely followed in the exam. 2016 : Total Questions - 150 (QA - 50, VA - 50, LR – 50)

2017 : Total Questions - 120 (QA - 40, VA - 40, LR – 40)




4. There was NO NEGATIVE MARKING in this exam like last year. Special Remarks

Quant and Numerical Ability section were of moderate to difficult, difficulty level. There were a few lengthy questions of good difficulty in this section. There were 6-7 questions from Statistics, 4-5 questions on Functions, 3-4 questions on Trigonometry, 4 questions on Set-Theory, 3-4 questions on Percentage, 3-4 questions on Profit & Loss, 2-3 questions on fraction, 2 questions on quadratic equation. There were 1-2 questions from topics like Ratio and Proportion, Surds & Indices, Time – Speed & Distance, SI CI, Algebra, Mensuration and BODMAS.

Logical Reasoning was a fairly standard section with mixed topics. There were 3 DI case lets (Pie chart-4 questions, Graph – 2 questions, Tables – 4 questions) with total 10 questions, 5 questions each on selection criteria (set based), 4 questions were from data sufficiency, 4 Questions on Syllogism, 3-4 questions on Logical Inequalities, 3-4 questions from Visual Reasoning, 2-3 questions on Venn Diagram, 1-2 questions from Mathematical Operations, Family Tree, Ranking. 1 question from each topics like Linear Arrangement and Cubes. There were 2 questions on Statement Argument Statement Assumption. The questions were time consuming, as few of them were tricky. Overall, this section was easy-moderate.

Verbal Ability Section was dominated by Reading Comprehension and Grammar. There were 3 RC with total 15 questions. 3 RC passages on Day 1 were based on topics like Astrology, Environment – Recycle and reusage of Paper and Upcycle of Apparels/Fashion. So, they were based on variety of topics like astrology, environment, fashion, economy, online platform etc. RC passages were easy, but one of the passages was tricky. 15-17 questions were from Vocabulary, Prepositions, Conjunctions and Tenses, Sentence Correction based on tenses, Tenses, Subject-Verb Agreement, Missing Pronoun, Indefinite Pronoun, Error Identification and Parallelism. 5


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questions from Para-Jumbles, 4-5 questions on Idioms and Phrases: Sentence Based, Identification of meaning based on usage. Overall they were moderate to difficult.

Overall, the paper was of moderate difficulty level but the challenge was to manage the time effectively.

CUT OFFS (CLOSING

CUT OFFS)

While NPAT authorities have not published overall cut-offs since 2016, 80+ is likely to be a good score to see you through.

ORDER OF

PREFERENCE OF

COLLEGES

1. Mumbai, 2. Bengaluru 3. Navi Mumbai 4. Indore 5. Hyderabad 6. Dhule 7. Chandigarh.

FEES

Program fees for 1st

year - BBA program – (Academics Fees) Mumbai Campus (Rs. 2,81,000/-) Bengaluru campus (Rs. 2,76,000/-) Indore Campus (Rs. 2,51,000/-) Navi Mumbai (Rs. 2,76,000/-) Dhule Campus (Rs. 1,51,000/-) Hyderabad (Rs. 2,51,000/-)


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5. Symbiosis Center for Management Studies (SET)

COURSE: Bachelor of Business Administration (BBA)

NO. OF STAGES - 2

1. Symbiosis Entrance Test (SET) 2. Written Ability Test (WAT) and Personal Interview (PI) Important Note:

SET Score is applicable for BBA, BSC, Eco (H), B.A. (Mass Comm.), B.Sc. Culinary Arts, BCA, B.A/B.Sc. – Liberal Arts Hons. & Bachelor of Design

NO. OF SEATS 780 (Pune – 300, Noida – 300 & Nagpur - 180)

ELIGIBILITY

Standard XII (10+2) or equivalent examination passed from any recognized board with minimum 50% marks or equivalent grade (45% marks or equivalent grade for Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribes).

ENTRANCE DATE 26 July-29 July 2020

MODE ONLINE

PATTERN

1. Symbiosis Entrance Test (SET - B)


1. General Awareness – 20 Qs (instead of 40 questions in 2019) 2. Logical Reasoning – 15 Qs (instead of 30 questions in 2019) 3. Quantitative Aptitude – 20 Qs (instead of 40 questions in 2019) 4. Verbal Ability – 20 Qs (instead of 40 questions in 2019) Total – 75 Qs (MCQ) instead of 150 Questions in 2019

Marking Scheme: No Negative Marking Right Answer: +1 Maximum Marks: 75 (instead of 150 in 2019)

Total Duration: 75 Minutes (instead of 150 Minutes) 2. Written Ability Test (WAT)

Total Duration: 30 Minutes Word Limit: None Weightage – 50% REMARKS

Candidates are made to write an essay on subjective or topics of current relevance. The topics given are not very complex. Personal Interview (PI)

Duration – The duration of the Interview is 10 minutes each. Weightage – 50% Extra-curricular and Personal Focused.

WEIGHTAGE

Final Merit List is compiled from the overall score of:

1. Symbiosis Entrance Test(SET): 50 % 2. Personal Interaction and Written Ability Test (PI-WAT): 50 %

PREVIOUS/POTENTIAL 1. Symbiosis SET-B BBA exam tested the aptitude of the candidates


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CHANGES/SPECIAL

REMARKS

through an online computer based entrance test conducted in the remote-proctored manner. As such, a number of changes were introduced in the SET-B BBA 2020 exam pattern. Candidates were required to have a desktop/laptop and an internet question to attempt the exam from a location of their convenience. It was of 105 minutes test, which was divided into two parts; first 75 minutes for MCQ section followed by 30 minutes for WAT.

SET-B 2020: Changes in Exam Pattern Total number of questions reduced to 75 from 150 Test duration reduced to 75 minutes from earlier 150 minutes Maximum Marks reduced to 75 from 150 earlier Special Remarks

1. The Verbal Ability section consisted of 20 questions divided across Reading Comprehension, Grammar and Vocabulary. Reading Comprehension: There was one passage followed by 5 questions. The topic of discussion was “foreign policy” and the length of the passage was approximately 200 to 250 words. One question was vocabulary based, one was a specific detail question and the other three were inference based questions. Overall the passage was of easy to moderate difficulty level. Vocabulary: There was a variety of vocabulary question types including synonyms and antonyms, fill in the blanks, one word substitution, identify the correct spelling, idioms and phrasal verbs. The words were not highly uncommon and could have been attempted by a well prepared student. Grammar: Grammar was tested in two formats: Sentence Correction and Fill in the Blanks. Concepts like prepositions, conjunctions and verbs were tested and the sentences were very short and simple, making it easy to attempt these questions in around a minute per question. Overall, the difficulty level was easy to moderate.

2. The Quantitative Aptitude section was the easiest among others. Candidates expected it to be the most difficult and with majority questions from Arithmetic. These questions were from Percentages, Simple interest and Compound interest, Profit and Loss, Averages, Allegations, Time and Work and Time Speed Distance. Except a question from SICI, all questions were simple and straight forward. In addition to this, there were questions on Probability, Set Theory, Surds and Indices and Number series, which were again easy. There were 2 questions on Data Interpretation and 1 question on data sufficiency. Overall, the difficulty level was Easy.

3. Like every year, General Awareness section followed its trend of asking unconventional questions. There were a total of 20 questions,


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almost equally distributed between Current Affairs and Static GK. Static GK questions were based on World History (World War-I, Perestroika); Geography (related to Port Blair, waterfall in Meghalaya); Important Organizations (Prasar Bharati, UNICEF, DRDO), and Art & Culture (main language of Kerala, Pawl Kut festival of Mizoram). Current Affairs questions were based on Awards & Recognitions (Times Next 100 list, Dada Saheb Phalke award); Persons in News (Chief of Defense Staff, Indian-American nominated to IBRD); International Affairs (Russian war medal to Kim Jong-Un) and Sports. The Current Affairs section was easy to moderate, while Static GK section was Moderate to Difficult. That’s takes the overall difficulty level of GK section to Moderate-Difficult.

4. The Logical Reasoning section had similar types of questions to those of last year’s SET General exam. There were 5 questions on Puzzles, 2 questions on Coding-Decoding, 2 questions on Direction Sense, 1 question on Blood Relations and 1 question on Calendar. All the questions very straight forward. There were 2 questions each on Statement – Course of Action and Syllogisms. Overall, this section was the easiest one. Overall difficulty level of the paper was easy to moderate.

CUT OFFS (CLOSING

CUT OFFS)

SET BBA:

Pune: 50 Marks for PI in 2020, 84 Marks for PI in 2019 Noida: 45 Marks for PI in 2020, 74 Marks for PI in 2019 Nagpur: 40 Marks for PI

ORDER OF

PREFERENCE OF

COLLEGES (EXAM

SPECIFIC)

1. Symbiosis, Pune 2. Symbiosis, Noida

3. Symbiosis, Nagpur

FEES

Symbiosis, Pune: Rs. 3, 10, 000 per year Symbiosis, Noida: Rs. 3, 10, 000 per year Symbiosis, Nagpur: Rs. 3, 10, 000 per year All the fee mentioned is only for Academics or Tuition Fee


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6. St. Xavier's College (BMS)

COURSE: Bachelor of Management Studies (BMS) NO. OF STAGES – 1 Entrance Test NO. OF SEATS 60

ELIGIBILTY

1. The candidate belonging to General/Open category should have passed the final Examination of 10 + 2 system conducted by any recognized Central / State Board with at least 65% aggregate marks

2. Minimum percentage requirement for Christian Minority Candidate is 60% & SC/ST candidate is 55%.

ENTRANCE DATE July 30 and July 31 in 4 different slots MODE ONLINE

PATTERN

1. Online Test


Total – 100 Qs (MCQ based) comprising of: English - 20% Logical Reasoning & Visual Reasoning - 20% Data Interpretation* - 20% Mathematics* - 20% General Knowledge & General Awareness - 20%

* (Mathematics and Data Interpretation will be based on the Syllabus of Std. X across all Boards)

Marking Scheme: No Negative Marking

Right Answer: +1 Maximum Marks: 100 Total Duration: 135 Minutes (instead of 2 hours)

WEIGHTAGE

1. Test Score – 60%

2. Class 12th

– 40%

PREVIOUS/POTENTIAL

CHANGES/SPECIAL

REMARKS

1. Mode of examination changed to online from 2019. 2. WAT & PI removal and introduction of new weightage for admission

in 2019. 2017: Test Score – 60% (Written Test, WAT & PI) and Class 12th – 40% 2018: Test Score – 60% (Written Test, WAT & PI) and Class 12th –40% 2019: Online Test – 60% and Class 12th – 40% 2020: Online Test – 60% and Class 12

th

– 40% 3. The pattern of the Exam has also been changed in 2019. Earlier, the

questions were asked on CA, GA, DI, LR, QA, VA and Critical Analysis etc. But now the online exam has clear cut weightage of 5 sections i.e. English - 20%, Logical Reasoning & Visual Reasoning - 20%, Data Interpretation - 20%, Mathematics - 20%, General


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Knowledge & General Awareness - 20% in Online Exam. Remarks based on 2020:

General Awareness Section was of moderate level. This section was a mixture of Static GK, Business Awareness and Current Affairs. There were 8 Questions from Current Affairs 6 Questions from Static GK, and 6 Questions from Business Awareness. Some of the GK topics were cyclone, personalities, logos & taglines, general sciences. Overall section was of easy - moderate difficulty level In Quantitative Aptitude section, Questions came from Probability, Simplification, boats and streams, pipes and cisterns, Mensuration (Geometry), time, speed, work and distance, profit and loss, simple interest & compound interest, ratio proportion and variation, permutation & combination, number and sequence series, percentage, etc. Questions were from basic mathematics topics. Overall this section was easy – moderate. English Section had questions from all the topics. The key topics were vocabulary, active and passive voice, collective nouns, analogies. There was 1 RC/passage with 5 Questions. Overall section was of moderate difficulty level Data Interpretation was of moderate difficulty level. There was one difficult set, the remaining 3 sets were easy with 5 Q in each set. Logical Reasoning questions were very easy. Except 2-3 tricky Questions, the rest were of easy. The section covered almost all the topic but the important topics covered were blood relations, coding decoding, series etc.

CUT OFFS (CLOSING

CUT OFFS)

First Cut Off 2020 – 84.65 for General (Composite Score) In 2019 First Cut Off 2019 – 76 for General Second Cut Off 2019 – 72.68 for General

FEES First Year of B.M.S. - Rs. 36,009 Second Year of B.M.S. - Rs. 27,225 Third Year of B.M.S. - Rs. 29,144


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7. Christ University (BBA)

COURSES:

Bachelor of Business Administration (BBA) BBA ( Honours ) BBA (Finance and International Business) BBA (Tourism and Travel Management) BBA (Finance and Accountancy) BBA (Business Analytics) BBA (Fin Tech Honours)

NO. OF STAGES - 4

1. Christ University Entrance Test 2. Skill Assessment 3. Micro Presentation (Extempore) 4. Personal Interview

NO. OF SEATS 1200 (Approx.) in all 3 Campuses (Bengaluru, Ghaziabad & Lavasa)

ELIGIBILITY

Basic eligibility for the programme is a pass at the +2 level (Karnataka PUC / ISC / CBSE / NIOS / State Boards) in any stream (Humanities, Social Sciences, Commerce & Management, and Science) from any recognized Board in India.

ENTRANCE DATE

Session 1 – 2nd May, 2020 Session 2 – 3rd & 4th May, 2020 Session 3 – 17th May 2020

MODE ONLINE

PATTERN

1. Christ BBA – Test 2020 similar to 2019

Number of Questions: 1. Current Affairs / General Awareness – 25 Qs 2. Data Interpretation – 20 Qs 3. Logical Reasoning – 20 Qs 4. Quantitative Aptitude – 25 Qs 5. Verbal Ability – 30 Qs Total – 120 Qs (MCQ) Marking Scheme:

Right Answer: +1 Wrong Answer: -0.25 Maximum Marks: 120 Total Duration: 120 Minutes

2. Skill Assessment

Total Duration: 60 Minutes Word Limit: None

3. Micro Presentation (Extempore)

Total Duration: 90 Seconds

4. Personal Interview

Total Duration: PIs are 15-20 Minutes each. WEIGHTAGE Final Merit List is compiled from the overall score of all 4 assessment


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rounds and Academic Performance. 1. Written Exam 2. Skill Assessment 3. Micro Presentation 4. Personal Interview 5. Academic Performance

PREVIOUS/POTENTIAL

CHANGES/SPECIAL

REMARKS

Written Exam

1. The GA section is medium difficulty level focused on the Static GK and Current Affairs; however, the weightage of the Static part was visibly much higher than the Current Affairs part. Infact, the questions on Current Affairs were not from 2019-20 but on the events happened in 2017, 2018 and 2019.

2. Like last year, there is only basic Mathematics tested in the QA

section with more weightage of Average and Linear Equations, Numbers, Ratio & Proportion, Percentage and Profit & Loss. Few questions were asked from Probability, Set Theory, and Clocks & Calendars as well.

3. Like last year, LR section was relatively easy and one of the most scoring sections in this exam. Majority of the questions were from Analytical and Logical Reasoning. There were 4-5 questions in a set of Puzzles. 5-6 questions each on Coding-Decoding and Blood Relations. Few questions were from Statement & Conclusion and Series, Sequence.

4. Data Interpretation questions are usually based on tabular and Bar Graphs. This section consisted of two to three sets of Data Interpretation. All the sets were from Tables. The questions were calculative in nature i.e. percentage change, highest/lowest percentage increase/decrease.

5. Like last year, VA section was dominated by Grammar and Reading Comprehension. Grammar consisted Fill in the blanks of Prepositions, Verbs, and Adverbs. There were two passages of Reading comprehension with six questions in each, which can be categorized as easy. There were four to five questions of Synonyms and Antonyms. There were two easy questions of Critical Reasoning. Overall this section can be termed as easy. Skill Assessment Candidates are made to write an essay on subjective or topics of current relevance and they are tested on their Written Skills, Communication Skills and Reasoning Skills. The topics presented are not very complex. Micro Presentation (Extempore)

Candidates are asked to speak (Extempore) on any of the topics that they randomly pick as part of the selection process. The topics are provided on the university's website beforehand. Personal Interview


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Strong focus on HR type and Personal Questions and sometimes have the tendency to get quirky trying to make candidates uncomfortable and/or under stress. Along with PI, assessment of past performance in classes 10, 11 and 12 is also done.

CUT OFFS (CLOSING

CUT OFFS) 85+ Marks in the written exam is a good benchmark for Final Selection

ORDER OF

PREFERENCE OF

COLLEGES (EXAM

SPECIFIC)

1. Bengaluru

2. Lavasa (Pune)

3. Ghaziabad

FEES Rs. 4, 95, 000 (Full Course tuition fee)


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8. Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (CET BBA)

COURSES: Bachelor of Business Administration (BBA) BBA (Banking & Insurance) BBA (Computer Aided Management)

NO. OF STAGES - 2 Common Entrance Test BBA (CET BBA) NO. OF SEATS 5500 approx.

ELIGIBILITY

Pass in 12th Class of 10+2 of CBSE or equivalent with a minimum of 50% marks in aggregate* and must also have passed English (core or elective or functional) as a subject.

ENTRANCE DATE 14th

September, 2020

MODE ONLINE (at Centre)

PATTERN

Number of Questions in 2020:

1. General Awareness & Business Awareness 2. Management Aptitude & Communication Skills 3. Logical Reasoning 4. Verbal Ability Total – 100 Qs (MCQ) instead of 150 in 2019

Marking Scheme:

Right Answer: +4 Wrong Answer: -1 Maximum Marks: 400

Total Duration: 150 Minutes

WEIGHTAGE Admission shall be on the basis of the merit of the written test / CET.

PREVIOUS/POTENTIAL

CHANGES/SPECIAL

REMARKS

Special Remarks 2020:

1. Total Questions were 100 instead of 150, out of which 45 questions were from English Language & Comprehension, 30 questions combined from General Awareness (20-21 Questions) and Management Aptitude & Communication Skills (8-9 Questions) and 25 questions were from Logical & Analytical reasoning.

2. In General Awareness section, there was significantly higher weightage of static GK with the overall difficulty level of this section being Moderate. There were questions like Full Form of NBFC, Founder of Ramakrishna mission, 1 questions was on Fungi, India’s only active Volcano, there was a question on the educational background of Gita Gopinath, Chief economist of IMF, 2019 Nobel Economics Prize, Books and Authors – Author of the book – “Business@SpeedofThought”, Richest source of Vitamin C, One Polity questions on Fundamental Duties, Kondaikanal is in which state etc. In shift 2, there were questions on Polity like term of members of Union Government, year of the establishment of Public Service


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Commission of India,Term of Rajya Sabha Member, First/Highest Law Officer. There were questions on the establishing year of ISRO, Important Personality – Verghese Kurien (Dairy Development), 2 questions on National Anthem – First sung at (Year & Place), Time of National Anthem. There were few questions on Awards and Honours like First Non-Indian to receive Bharat Ratna, Pulitzer Prize is related to which field. There were few questions on Sports also like First Indian to win a medal in individual Olympic event, ICC Cricketer of the Year Award 2019, Olympic Flame symbolize etc. 1 question on books and Authors (India Positive), Geography Questions like which river crosses equator twice. 1 science question on Lactometer used to measure Density of Milk. Few CA questions were there like India’s first Lunar Probe Programme by ISRO, Chief Election Commissioner who also served as first CEC of Nepal and Suda, Delhi Police anti-street crime vans. Other Questions were Full form of NITI Aayog, Sister planet of Earth Sabrimala Temple, There was 1 question like “Kai Po Che” based on which novel because of the top news of that time related to Sushant Singh Rajput. Few Business Awareness Questions were also there, on Punchlines – Badhti ka naam Zindagi, Chairman of Tata Group, Type of Unemployement, Demonetisation, Indian Businessman in Forbes magazine, Black Zero, Monopolistic Competition, Stock Exchange “Big Board”, Grofers, etc. Overall, this section was a mixture of Static GK, Current Affairs and Business Awareness with easy to moderate difficulty level.

3. In Logical Reasoning Section, there were 3 sets of Puzzles with 5 questions each (Total – 15 questions) – 1 puzzle was on Friends and their subject, another was on Family members, their names and professions, 3rd was on Teachers and their subjects. There were 5 Questions from Analogies which were doable, 2 questions were from Blood Relation which were very easy, 3 questions from Statement-Conclusion which were easy. There was no question from topics like Syllogism, Series & Sequence, Odd one out. It was very different from last year’s paper. Compared to the rest of the question paper, the Logical Reasoning Section was relatively simpler and easier. No separate QA Section but few basic questions were asked in Logical Reasoning section

4. Again, for Management Aptitude and Communication Skills the overall difficulty level of the section was moderate or average. Only 8-9 8 questions were asked from this section. Questions were from topic like benefit of Digital Transformation, Value Creation, purpose of Social Media etc. Overall, it was and easy and manageable section.

5. The English Section primarily focused on reading Comprehension in Shift 1 but RC was missing in another shifts. In shift 1, there were 5 RCs with 5 questions each which mean total 25 Questions. Few questions of RC can be considered as difficult. 5-6 Questions were


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there from Sentence Correction, 5-6 questions from One word Substitution, 9-10 Questions Fill in the blanks questions like Vocabulary – Antonym and Synonym. Few questions on Idioms, Direct-Indirect speech. Etc.

6. The overall level of difficulty of the paper was moderate.

CUT OFFS (CLOSING

CUT OFFS)

300+ Marks in the written exam is a good benchmark for Final Selection into Top 5 colleges in 2020 400+ Marks in the written exam is a good benchmark for Final Selection into Top 5 colleges in 2019

ORDER OF PREFERENCE

OF COLLEGES (EXAM

SPECIFIC)

&

CUT-OFFs

Online Counseling 2020 Cut-Offs 1. Maharaja Surajmal Institute, C 4 Janak Puri, New Delhi 11005

Cut off 2020: Maximum Rank for Delhi: 1184 & For Outside Delhi: 741

2. Maharaja Agrasen Institute of Management Studies, Sec 22, Rohini, Delhi 110085 Cut off 2020: Maximum Year Rank For Delhi: 2310 & For Outside Delhi: 1468

3. Vivekananda Institute of Professional Studies, AU Block (Outer Ring Road), Pitampura, New Delhi Cut off 2020: Maximum Rank For Delhi: 1250 & For Outside Delhi: 1055

4. Jagannath International Management School, OCF, Poc 9 Sec b Vasant Kunj New Delhi 110070 Cut off 2020: Maximum For Delhi: 3740 & For Outside Delhi: 1870

5. Jagan Institute of Management Studies, 3, Institutional AREA, Sec 5 Rohini (Near Rajiv Gandhi Cancer Resarch Institute) Delhi 110085 Cut off 2020: Maximum Rank For Delhi: 3253 & For Outside Delhi: 1806

6. Jagannath International Management School, MOR Pkt 105 Kalkaji, (Opp. Kalkaji Police Station) New Delhi 110019 Cut off 2020: Maximum Rank For Delhi: 3932 & For Outside Delhi: 1849

7. Ideal Institute of Management and Technology, 16 X Karkardooma, (Near Telephone Exchange), Vivek Vihar, Delhi-92 Cut off 2020: Maximum Rank For Delhi: 7758 & For Outside Delhi: 3507

8. Trinity Institute of Professional Studies, Sec 9 Dwarka, (Adjacent to Metro Pillar No. 1160), New Delhi 110075 Cut off 2020: Maximum Rank For Delhi: 7350 & For Outside Delhi: 3727

9. Bhai Parmanand Institute of Business Studies, Opp. Madhuban, Sharkarpur (Extn.), Delhi 110092 Cut off 2020: Maximum Rank For Delhi: 3901 & For Outside Delhi: 2357

10. Management Education & Research Institute, Janak Puri


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Cut off 2020: Maximum Rank For Delhi: 16492 & For Outside Delhi: 12221

FEES

1. Maharaja Surajmal Institute, C 4 Janak Puri, New Delhi 11005: Rs.

79,000 2. Maharaja Agrasen Institute of Management Studies, Sec 22, Rohini,

Delhi 110085: Rs. 79,000 3. Vivekananda Institute of Professional Studies, AU Block (Outer Ring

Road), Pitampura, New Delhi: Rs. 79,000 4. Jagannath International Management School, OCF, Poc 9 Sec b

Vasant Kunj New Delhi 110070: Rs. 79,000 5. Jagan Institute of Management Studies, 3, Institutional AREA, Sec 5

Rohini (Near Rajiv Gandhi Cancer Resarch Institute) Delhi 110085: Rs. 79,000

6. Jagannath International Management School, MOR Pkt 105 Kalkaji, (Opp. Kalkaji Police Station) New Delhi 110019: Rs. 79,000

7. Trinity Institute of Professional Studies, Sec 9 Dwarka, (Adjacent to Metro Pillar No. 1160), New Delhi 110075: Rs. 79,000

8. Ideal Institute of Management and Technology, 16 X Karkardooma, (Near Telephone Exchange), Vivek Vihar, Delhi-92: Rs. 79,000

9. Bhai Parmanand Institute of Business Studies, Opp. Madhuban, Sharkarpur(Extn.), Delhi 110092: Rs. 79,000

10. Management Education & Research Institute, Janak Puri: Rs. 79,000 (Above mentioned fee for only tuition Fee)


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9. Jamia Millia Islamia University (BBA)

COURSE: Bachelor of Business Administration (BBA) NO. OF STAGES - 1 Written Exam- Jamia BBA NO. OF SEATS 44 ELIGIBILITY Senior Secondary School Certificate or an equivalent examination with

not less than 50% marks in aggregate of best 5-papers. ENTRANCE DATE 1

st

November 2020

MODE OFFLINE

PATTERN

Number of Questions in 2020 similar to in 2019:

1. General Awareness – 40 Qs 2. Logical Reasoning – 20 Qs 3. Quantitative Aptitude – 20 Qs 4. Verbal Ability – 20 Qs Total – 100 Qs (MCQ) Marking Scheme: Right Answer: +1 Wrong Answer: -0.25 Maximum Marks: 100 Total Duration:

105 Minutes WEIGHTAGE Final Ranks are compiled from the overall Jamia BBA Score. PREVIOUS/POTENTIAL

CHANGES/SPECIAL

REMARKS

Special Remarks (Based on 2020):

1. There is only basic mathematics tested in the Quantitative Aptitude section. The section had questions from every possible area one can think of and it covered almost all the topics like Percentage, Profit & Loss, Numbers, Ratio & Proportion, Average and Linear Equations. A couple of questions were asked from Set Theory, Probability and Logarithm etc.

2. In Verbal Ability section, there was just one passage (Topic was related to Gandhi) followed by 5 questions which were directly from the passage. There were 5 Questions from Active-Passive Voice, 5 questions from one-word substitution, 5 questions from Vocabulary (Synonyms – Tetchy, odious, Vocation, Narrated and Candid). Overall, the difficulty level of this section was easy.

3. The Logical Reasoning section is relatively easy and one of the most scoring sections in this exam. There were questions based on series, coding-decoding, data sufficiency, blood relations, odd one out, arrangements, cause and effect, Series, Sequence etc. Overall, the difficulty level of this section was very easy.

4. In General Awareness section, there were questions from both Static GK – 22 Questions and Current Affairs – 18 Questions. In Static GK, the questions from different topics like History – 4 questions, Geography – 1 question, Indian Polity – 1 question,


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Economics – 6 Questions, General Science – 4 Questions, Miscellaneous – 6 Questions (Newspapers – 2 Questions, Personality – 1 question, Books & Authors – 2 Questions and Computer Awareness – 1 Question). There were 4 questions from History – Last independent Nawab of Bengal and Lord Ripon Hunter Commission, Lahore session of 1929, founder of Madras Labour Union. --- Current Affairs Questions were there and these questions were on things like status of House of Sparrow, IDSA renamed after Manohar Parrikar, Ra’ad Cruise Missile, Laureus World Sports Award 2020, Hosting Country of FIFA U-17 women’s football World Cup 2020, Set-up of Central Consumer Protection Authority, Important Days- World Day of Social Justice, Committees & Commissions – related to Assam Accord of 1985, Gross National Happiness Index, Ashraf Ghani – President of Afghanistan, 1st state in India to launch unified vehicle registration, International Organisation secured $ 118 million offshore, Books and Authors – Accidental Prime minister, Donald Trump’s visit in India, State with lowest percent of persons with poverty line, State with 1st position in cement production, State with largest number of representative in Rajya Sabha. There were questions on newspapers and their editors & publishers – Indian Mirror, Jugantar – Barinda Ghosh. Overall, this section was a mixture of Both Static GK and Current Affairs and the difficulty level was moderate.

CUT OFFS (CLOSING

CUT OFFS)

Cut off for 2020:

BBA – 53.25 (General Category) Cut off for 2019:

BBA – 69.00 (General Category) FEES Rs. 13,100 (6 Semester)


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10. Manipal University (MUOET)


NO. OF STAGES - 1

Manipal University Online Entrance Test (MUOET)

Important Note:

MUOET Score is applicable for BBA and B.Com (H)" NO. OF SEATS Not Available on the official website ELIGIBILITY

Pass in 10+2, A Level, IB, American 12th grade or equivalent with a minimum of 50% marks in aggregate.

ENTRANCE DATE No entrance Exam Conducted this year because of Pandemic

situation

MODE ONLINE (2019)

PATTERN (Based on

2019)

Number of Questions (Based on 2019):

1. General Awareness – 20 Qs 2. Logical Reasoning – 25 Qs 3. Quantitative Aptitude – 20 Qs 4. Verbal Ability – 20 Qs 5. Case Study – 15 Qs Total – 100 Qs (MCQ) Marking Scheme: No Negative Marking Right Answer: +1 Maximum Marks: 100 Total Duration: 120 Minutes

WEIGHTAGE Final Ranks are compiled from the overall MUOET Score. (2019)

PREVIOUS/POTENTIAL

CHANGES/SPECIAL

REMARKS

Special Remarks: (Based on 2019)

1. More emphasis on static questions in General Awareness Section. 2. There is only basic mathematics tested in the QA section. 3. The LR section had covered all the topics with direct and easy

questions. Questions were from arithmetic, algebra, geometry, data interpretation etc.

4. In VA section, the main focus was on Vocabulary and Grammar. It had 1 Reading Comprehension and questions on spotting errors, sentence improvement, vocabulary etc.

5. In Case Study section, questions were on the latest trends and developments in the media, social and economic areas.

CUT OFFS (CLOSING

CUT OFFS) 70+ Marks in the written exam is a good benchmark for Final Selection.

FEES Rs. 4,69,000 (3 Years) – Only tuition fee


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11. Bharati Vidyapeeth University (BUMAT)


NO. OF STAGES - 1 Bharati Vidyapeeth Management Aptitude Test (BUMAT)

Important Note: BUMAT is applicable for BBA and BCA

NO. OF SEATS BBA – 600 seats Delhi and Pune

ELIGIBILITY

A Candidate applying for the BBA Programme should have passed HSC (10+2) or equivalent examination from any statutory board with minimum 45% of marks in aggregate (40 % in case of SC/ST candidates).

ENTRANCE DATE 19th

August 2020

MODE ONLINE

PATTERN

Number of Questions in 2020 similar to in 2019:

1. Logical Reasoning – 60 Qs 2. Quantitative Aptitude – 60 Qs 3. Verbal Ability – 60 Qs 4. Reading Comprehension – 20 Qs Total – 200 Qs (MCQ) Marking Scheme: No Negative Marking Right Answer: +1 Maximum Marks: 200 Total Duration: 150 Minutes

WEIGHTAGE Final Ranks are compiled from the overall BUMAT Score.

PREVIOUS/POTENTIAL

CHANGES/SPECIAL

REMARKS

Special Remarks:

1. The LR section had covered almost all the topics with direct and easy questions.

2. There is only basic Mathematics tested in the QA section. 3. In VA and Reading Comprehension Section, the overall difficulty level

was Moderate. Most of the questions were asked from Reading comprehension & Vocabulary (two passages of 4 questions each were asked). Questions asked in passages were based on inferences which make the section difficult. Synonym, Antonym, para jumbles, idioms, phrases & cloze test were also asked.

CUT OFFS (CLOSING

CUT OFFS) 140+ Marks in the written exam is a good benchmark for Final Selection.

ORDER OF

PREFERENCE OF

COLLEGES (EXAM

SPECIFIC)

1. Institute of Management & Entrepreneurship Development, Pune (Intake BBA-240 & BCA-60) 2. Institute of Management & Research New Delhi Intake BBA-360 (Morning Shift-180+Afternoon Shift-80) & BCA-120

(Morning Shift -60+ Afternoon Shift -60) FEES

1. Institute of Management & Entrepreneurship Development, Pune Fees for BBA – Rs.1,00,000/- p.a.


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2. Institute of Management & Research New Delhi Fees for BBA – BBA Rs. 1,40,000

LAW

Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) All India Law Entrance Test (AILET) Symbiosis Law Admission Test (SLAT) Christ University (CULEE) Maharashtra Common Entrance Test (MHCET) Jamia Millia Islamia University (Law) Panjab University (Law) Law School Admission Test (LSAT)


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1. Common Law Admission Test (CLAT)

COURSES:

Different NLUs offer different courses. But the primary courses are a) B.A. LL.B. b) B.Com. LL.B. c) B.B.A. LL.B. d) B.Sc. LL.B. e) BSW LL.B.

NO. OF STAGES Online CBT Mode – Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) MODE Online NO. OF SEATS 2705 ENTRANCE DATE 28th September, 2020

ELIGIBILITY

Any candidate who has completed 10+2 is eligible to apply for CLAT Exam. Minimum marks required for different categories are listed below: 45% marks for General/ Other Backward Class (OBC)/ Specially abled persons categories. 40% marks for Scheduled Class (SC)/ Scheduled Tribe (ST) categories

PATTERN

Number of questions in 2020: 150 (MCQ)

a) Legal Reasoning: 39 marks b) Current Affairs including General Knowledge: 36 marks c) Logical Reasoning: 30 marks d) Reading Comprehension: 30 marks e) Quantitative Techniques: 15 marks Marking scheme: Maximum marks 150

Right answer: +1 Wrong answer: -0.25

One more thing was witnessed this time if any question was left for mark for review it was considered as not answered. Though no deduction of marks were made.

Total Duration: 120 Minutes Number of questions 2019: 200 (MCQ)

a) Legal Aptitude: 50 marks b) General Knowledge and Current Affairs: 50 marks c) Logical Reasoning: 40 marks d) English including comprehension: 40 marks e) Elementary Mathematics: 20 marks

CUT OFFS

(Closing cut offs: Ranks as per 3rd

allotment list)

Different for different NLU’s a) NLSIU, Bangalore - 98 b) NALSAR, Hyderabad – 177


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c) NLIU , Bhopal - 429 d) WBNUJS, Kolkata -227 e) NLU, Jodhpur - 323 f) HNLU, Raipur - 772 g) GNLU, Gandhinagar - 470 h) CNLU, Patna - 1256 i) RMLNLU, Lucknow - 742 j) RGNUL, Patiala - 1012 k) HPNLU, Shimla - 2005 l) NLU, Odisha - 1052 m) TNNLS, Tiruchirappalli - 1799 n) DSNLU, Vishakhapatnam - 1518 o) MNLU, Mumbai - 557 p) MNLU, Nagpur - 1575 q) NLUJAA, Guwahati - 1584 r) MNLU, Aurangabad - 2403 s) NUALS, Kochi – 1076 t) NLUO, Cuttack – 1052 u) NUSRL, Ranchi – 1290 v) DNLU, Jabalpur – 2001 w) NLU Sonipat – 2074 (Closing Cut offs: Ranks as per 3

rd

allotment list) 2019

Different for different NLU’s x) a) NLSIU - 57

y) NALSAR – 129 z) NLIU , Bhopal - 376 aa) WBNUJS, Kolkata -227 bb) NLU, Jodhpur - 354 cc) HNLU, Raipur - 638 dd) GNLU, Gandhinagar - 468 ee) CNLU, Patna - 1098 ff) RMLNLU, Lucknow - 694 gg) RGNUL, Patiala - 926 hh) HPNLU, Shimla - 1471 ii) NLU, Odisha - 953 jj) TNNLS,Tiruchirappalli - 1412 kk) DSNLU, Vishakhapatnam - 1292 ll) MNLU, Mumbai - 512 mm) MNLU, Nagpur - 1190 nn) NLUJAA, Guwahati - 1299 MNLU, Aurangabad – 1344

PREVIOUS/

POTENTIAL

CHANGES/

SPECIAL REMARKS

In 2020 the offline mode was again changed to online mode due to pandemic. In 2019, the exam was conducted in offline mode whereas in 2018, the exam was conducted in online mode. The following is the section wise analysis:


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1. Legal aptitude: There were total 39 questions from 8 passages. This section was the easiest among all the sections. Most of the questions in this section were highly probable and all of the topics were covered in PRATHAM’S legal classes. The passages were asked on Force majeure clause under Contract Law, LG polymer gas link, palghar mob lynching , Arnab Goswami v. Union of India, Clauses of Article 20, Obscenity, Common intention and similar intention , Principle of natural justices. This section was lengthy though easy.

2. Current Affairs including general knowledge: There were around 7 passages with a total of 36 questions. The passages were on rafale delivery, national education policy, SCO summit, UAE-Israel mediation by trump, national infrastructure policy etc. It was important to read passage before answering the questions. This section was easy for those who have read newspaper from June 2020 – September 2020. Articles were given from Hindustan times, Economic times, NDTV etc. The level of this section was easy to moderate.

3. Logical Reasoning: The passages asked in this section were from COVID-19 & Institutionalized Education, crisis in news media, Anti-alcohol campaign in Soviet Union, CBSE result etc. The most important thing in this section was the time management. All of the passages were taken from newspaper. This section was easy to moderate.

4. Verbal Ability: This section had 6 passages on topics of current relevance with 5 questions in each passage. The passages were on Climatic change, “bois locker room”, Excerpts from a Short story “The CAT‟ by Mary E. Wilkins Freeman, Short Story by Kate Chopin, Excerpts from “The Case for the Defence‟ by Graham Greene, use of telemedicine during the current COVID pandemic. This section was moderately difficult and questions were from mix of fact based, inferential and vocabulary based. The vocab asked was mostly covered in PRATHAM’S vocab classes.

5. Quantitative techniques: There were total 15 questions divided into 3 sets. The level of this section was easy to moderate.

The following is the section wise analysis 2019:

1. Legal aptitude: This section was almost a direct one. Interestingly there were no questions from assertion- reason and legal current affairs. The questions from Law of Torts were from Defamation, Vicarious liability, nuisance, etc. Law of contract topic was from communication of acceptance, proposal, and consideration, etc. The topics like culpable homicide, murder were covered under criminal law. There were some questions that were directly asked from previous year’s paper with a slight change in their principal. The difficulty level of this section was easy to moderate.

2. General knowledge and Current Affairs: This section covered almost questions from current affairs. Current affairs broadly covered questions from awards and honours, politics, foreign affairs, books and authors, military developments, appointments, etc. Some questions were also asked


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from static GK which includes headquarters of Asian development bank, planets, etc. The level of this section was easy to moderate.

3. Logical Reasoning: There were around 8 questions on logical reasoning based. There were 2 sets of 5 questions from arrangements, 2 questions were on analogies, 4 questions on odd one out. There were no new sections covered in this section. The difficulty level of this section was relatively easy.

4. English: This section was based on the historic pattern of CLAT. There was one reading comprehension with 10 questions on the difference between invention and innovation. Other questions were from foreign words, vocab, sentence correction, phrased to be used in sequence, etc. This section was easy, doable and scoring.

5. Mathematics: It was the easiest section over the past few years. The topics covered were percentages, profit, and loss, algebra, calendars, clocks, time and work. This section was easy.

ORDER OF

PREFERENCE OF

COLLEGES

(As per Students preference, 2020)

1. National Law School of India University, Bangalore 2. NALSAR University of Law, Hyderabad 3. The West Bengal National University of Juridical Sciences, Kolkata 4. National Law University, Jodhpur, Jodhpur 5. National Law Institute University, Bhopal 6. Gujarat National Law University, Gandhinagar 7. Rajiv Gandhi National University of Law, Patiala 8. Hidayatullah National Law University, Raipur 9. Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia National Law University, Lucknow 10. National Law University, Odisha 11. Maharashtra National Law University, Mumbai 12. National University of Study and Research in Law, Ranchi 13. National University of Advanced Legal Studies, Kochi 14. Chanakya National Law University, Patna 15. Maharashtra National Law University, Nagpur 16. Damodaram Sanjivayya National Law University, Visakhapatnam 17. National Law School and Judicial Academy, Assam 18. Tamil Nadu National Law School, Trichy 19. Himachal Pradesh National Law University, Shimla, Himachal Pradesh 20. Dharmashastra National Law University, Jabalpur, Madhya Pradesh 21. Maharashtra National Law University, Aurangabad 22. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar National Law University, Sonepat

FEES Rs.1, 50,000 to Rs.3, 00,000 (Approx.) – Per Year


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2. All India Law Entrance Test (AILET)

COURSES: B.A. LL.B NO. OF STAGES Online Test – All India Law Entrance Test- AILET MODE Online mode NO. OF SEATS 80 ENTRANCE DATE September 26, 2020

ELIGIBLITY Candidates should have passed the 10+2 examination and scored a minimum of 50%.

PATTERN

a. Legal Aptitude: 35 marks b. General Knowledge and Current Affairs: 35 marks c. Logical Reasoning: 35 marks d. English including comprehension: 35 marks e. Elementary Mathematics: 10 marks f. TOTAL: 150 marks Marking scheme: Maximum marks 150

Right answer: +1 Wrong answer: -0.25

Total Duration: 90 Minutes CUT OFFS 2020 – 75.25 marks (Second Cut off)

PREVIOUS/

POTENTIAL

CHANGES/

SPECIAL REMARKS

The following is the section wise analysis in 2020:

1. Verbal Ability: A lot of questions were based on sentence correction, Fill in the blanks, Idioms & phrases and verb. The only key to score in this section was time management. There was only one passage in this section on gangetic plains and mostly direct/indirect were based out of it. Overall the level of this section was moderately difficult though lengthy.

2. General Awareness: This section is classified as easy as it would not have intimidated students too much. Maximum questions were asked from current affairs that covers question on best picture award, youngest MP, nobel peace prize, Magsaysay award, fake news criminalization.

3. Legal reasoning: The Legal Reasoning Questions were lengthy and of difficult level. The tradition of keeping 4 principles per question was kept. Total questions were 35 out of which 17 questions were from legal reasoning and remaining 18 questions were asked from legal current affairs. Surprisingly no question was asked from assertion- reason.

4. Quantitative Aptitude: This section was of moderately difficult level and maximum questions were from equations, permutations and combinations, ratio, profit & loss, time, speed and distance.

5. Logical Reasoning: This section was the easiest of the lot. Out of the total 35 Questions arrangements and puzzles had the maximum Questions. Questions were also asked from direction, clock & calendar, critical reasoning, calendars, odd one out, short passages and blood relations. This section was the most scoring one.


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The following is the section wise analysis of 2019:

1. Verbal Ability: A lot of questions were based on sentence correction and Figure of speech. Overall the level of this section was difficult than previous years AILET paper. The remaining questions were from part of speech and word filing questions.

2. General Awareness: This section is classified as easy as it would not have intimidated students too much. Maximum questions were asked from current affairs and economics that cover questions on U.N, appointment, awards, largest & longest, Bank mergers and Gafa Tax. Other remaining questions were asked from science, geography, and sports.

3. Legal Section: The Legal Reasoning Questions were lengthy and of moderate level. Total questions were 35 out of which 13 questions were based on principle-facts (IPC, Contracts & torts), 2 questions were asked from the Constitution in the form of assertion-reason and remaining 20 questions were asked from legal current affairs which include amendments, Bills, Acts, high court judgments and panels.

4. Quantitative Aptitude: This section was of moderate level and maximum questions were from ratio, profit & loss, time, speed and distance.

Logical Reasoning: This section was of a difficult level. There was one set that troubled the students the most. The rest was moderate. Out of the total 35 Questions, group & conditions and critical reasoning had the maximum Questions. Questions were also asked from Syllogism, analogy, direction, clock & calendar, and blood relations. Critical Reasoning Sections had questions based on statement conclusion, cause & effect relationships and data inference

FEES Rs.1, 86, 000 first year with Hostel


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3. Symbiosis Law Admission Test (SLAT)

COURSES: 1. B.A. LL.B. 2. B.B.A. LL.B.

NO. OF STAGES

1. Entrance Test MCQ based and Written ability Test 2. Writing Ability Test 3. Personal Interview

MODE Online (No Negative Marking) : home proctored mode

NO. OF SEATS

1080 seats in 4 campuses at Pune, Noida, Hyderabad, and Nagpur B.A.LL.B.: 480 B.B.A LL.B.: 600

ENTRANCE DATE July 26, 2020 ELIGIBLITY 45% marks in class 12th and 5% relaxation is given to SC/ST candidates

PATTERN

Exam Pattern in 2020:

1. Legal Aptitude: 15 marks 2. General Knowledge and Current Affairs: 15 marks 3. Logical Reasoning: 15 marks 4. Analytical Reasoning: 15 marks 5. English including comprehension: 15 marks TOTAL Marks : 75 marks Time: 75 minutes Once the MCQ part was over students were given 30 minutes for written ability test. Exam Pattern in 2019:

1. Legal Aptitude: 30 marks 2. General Knowledge and Current Affairs: 30 marks 3. Logical Reasoning: 30 marks 4. Analytical Reasoning: 30 5. English including comprehension: 30 marks TOTAL Marks : 150 marks Time: 2 hours and 30 minutes

CRITERIA FOR

SELECTION

Merit List according to: a. SLAT score – 50% b. PI – 25% c. WAT – 20% d. Academic Performance – 5%

PREVIOUS/

POTENTIAL

CHANGES/

SPECIAL REMARKS

Section wise analysis of written exam in 2020

1. Legal aptitude: This section was mostly dominated with legal reasoning questions. This section had legal reasoning questions from Constitution, criminal law, torts and contracts. There were 2 questions that were asked without principle. If the student has done previous years paper of CLAT and AILET then this section was easily doable.


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2. General Awareness: There were 12 questions from current affairs in this section and 3 were from static GK. 6 questions were asked from world news, 3 questions were from awards and honours, 1 question each was asked from government schemes, defence and persons in news. Questions from static GK were asked from Indian & world geography & books and authors. This section was easiest among the lot. Students have covered all of the questions in Pratham CA classes.

3. Reading comprehension: This section had 3 passages of varying word range. 2 passages were difficult to comprehend & 1 was easy. Overall this section was moderately difficult.

4. Analytical reasoning: Questions were pretty easy & manageable. There were a total of 6 Q from ratio-proportion & fractions, 3 Q each from profit & loss & averages, 2 Q from percentages & 1 Q each from time & work & partnership.

5. Logical reasoning: This section was easy and could be completed in 15 minutes only. Mostly questions were asked from analytical reasoning section. Visual reasoning based questions were also asked in the section.

Section wise analysis of written exam in 2019

1. Legal aptitude: Around 21 questions were asked from legal GK. The questions included were from Constitution, criminal law and contracts. There were 8 questions that were asked without principle. Overall this section was easy.

2. General knowledge: There were 25 questions of current affairs in this section. The questions from amendments, personalities, government schemes, and world news were asked.

3. Reading comprehension: This section had 6 passages of varying word range. 2 passages were difficult to comprehend & 4 were easy. Topics varied from environment protection, mining & surveillance, GST, racism, reclamation & history.

4. Analytical reasoning: Questions were pretty easy & manageable. There were a total of 6 Q from ratio-proportion & fractions, 3 Q each from profit & loss & averages, 2 Q from percentages & 1 Q each from time & work & partnership.

Logical reasoning: The questions covered in this section were vocab based (3 Q each on Antonym-Synonym & verbal analogies). 7 Q on verbal reasoning was split into statement-conclusion (5 Q) & course of action (2 Q). Other type was conventional logical reasoning spread across circular arrangement case let & number series (4 Q each), Venn diagram & word coding (2 Q each) & 1 Q each based on directions, clock, family tree & puzzle.

ORDER OF

PREFERENCE OF

COLLEGES

a. Symbiosis Pune b. Symbiosis Noida c. Symbiosis Hyderabad d. Symbiosis Nagpur

FEES Rs. 3, 55,000 First Year Rs. 3, 10,000 First Year


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Rs. 3, 10,000 First Year Rs. 3, 35,000 First Year Above mentioned fee includes tuition fee only


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4. Christ University (CULEE)

NAME OF THE EXAM

Christ university law entrance examination

COURSES: B.A. LL.B. (H) BBA LL.B.(H)

NO. OF STAGES

1. Written exam: Christ university entrance test 2. Skill assessment: This round consists of written skills, communication skills

and logical reasoning test. 3. Micro presentation : Micro Presentation for 90 sec has to be given during

this round 4. Personal interview

MODE Online (Negative marking)

ENTRANCE DATE


ELIGIBLITY Mandatory to pass 12th from any recognized board in India with atleast 45% marks.

PATTERN

Exam pattern in 2020 was similar to 2019

English language : 30 Critical, analytical and logical reasoning: 20 General knowledge and current affairs : 25 Data analysis &interpretation : 20 Quantitative aptitude & Numerical ability: 25 Marking Scheme : Maximum Marks- 120 +1 for right answer -.25 for wrong answer Duration: 120 min.

FEES BA LL.B.: 10,90, 000 (Five Years) BBA LL.B.: 9,22,500 (Five Years)


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5. Maharashtra Common Entrance Test (MHCET)

COURSES: 1. B.A. LL.B. 2. B.B.A. LL.B. 3. B.Com. LL.B.

NO. OF STAGES Online entrance test MODE Online (No negative marking) NO. OF SEATS Approx.10260 seats are offered in 153 colleges ENTRANCE DATE 11th October, 2020

ELIGIBLITY The candidate should have passed 12th from any recognized educational board with minimum 45% and 40% for SC/ST belonging to Maharashtra

PATTERN

Exam Pattern in 2020 was similar to 2019

Total questions: 150 1. General Awareness - 30 2. Legal Awareness and Reasoning -40 3. Logical and Analytical Reasoning - 40 4. Quantitative Aptitude - 10 5. English Comprehensive – 30 Duration: 120 min. Right answer: +1 No negative marking Medium : English and Marathi

PREVIOUS/

POTENTIAL

CHANGES/

SPECIAL REMARKS

Section wise analysis of written exam, 2020

1. English: This section was easy overall. There were 2 RC with one having 8 questions and other one having 5 questions. There were other questions on phrase replacements, fill in the blanks, sentence correction, bold letter replacement.

2. General knowledge: This section was a mix blend of questions from general knowledge and current affairs. Approximately 16 questions were asked from general awareness and 14 were from current affairs. The questions in GK were asked from history, geography, and polity. And current affairs questions were covered from cricket, government schemes, important days, etc.

3. Legal aptitude: This section was an easy one. All questions were based on legal reasoning. It covered most of the questions from contracts, torts, and constitution. No prior knowledge was required to solve this section only the applicability of principle was required.

4. Logical reasoning: This section was difficult amongst the lot and a bit lengthy. There were total 20 questions on puzzle and seating arrangements. There were questions from coding-decoding, blood relations, syllogism, distance and direction, statement-conclusion, etc.

5. Mathematics: This section was easier than last year. The questions were


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asked from profit/loss, discount, time and work, successive percentages.

ORDER OF

PREFERENCE OF

COLLEGES

As per the preference of students 1. GLC Mumbai 2. ILS Pune 3. KC. Law college, Mumbai 4. Rizvi law college, Mumbai

FEES College/ University Specific


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6. Jamia Millia Islamia University (Law)

NAME OF THE EXAM

JMI Law entrance exam

COURSES: B.A. LL.B. (H)

NO. OF STAGES Written Exam MODE Offline (Negative Marking) NO. OF SEATS 120 ENTRANCE DATE November 22, 2020

ELIGIBLITY Must have passed class 12th with not less than 50% marks in all the core subjects and English language

PATTERN

1. General Knowledge and Current affairs - 30 2. Legal Awareness and Reasoning- 40 3. Quantitative Aptitude- 10 4. English Comprehensive (Legal language)-30 5. General Studies- 40 TOTAL MARKS – 150 Time Duration : 120 minutes Marking Scheme:

Correct answer: +1 Wrong answer: -.25

CUT OFFS

Closing Cut offs (2020) BA.LL.B(H) / BA.LL.B.(H)(Self-financed): 89.00 Closing Cut offs (2019) BA.LL.B(H) / BA.LL.B.(H)(Self-financed): 92.5

ORDER OF

PREFERENCE OF

COLLEGES

Faculty of law, Jamia Millia University

FEES Rs.10, 400 for BA.LL.B.(H) – Per Annum Rs 40,500 for BA LL.B.(H) (self-financed) – Per Annum


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7. Panjab University (Law)

NAME OF THE EXAM

PU-CET Entrance Exam

COURSES: B.A. LL.B. (H) B.COM.LL.B. (H)

NO. OF STAGES

In the year 2020, due to pandemic entrance test was cancelled and admissions were given on the merit of class 12th marks. Only Written Exam (Following analysis is given on the basis of entrance exam conducted in the year 2019).

MODE Offline (Negative Marking)

NO. OF SEATS B.A.LL.B. (H) : 300 Seats B.com. LL.B.(H):180 Seats

ENTRANCE DATE Second week of June ELIGIBLITY

CRITERIA

Candidate should have passed 10+2 examination with atleast 50% marks (45% marks in case of SC/ST/BC/PWD)

PATTERN

1. General knowledge and current affairs: 60 Questions 2. Aptitude of Law: 20 3. Mental Ability: 10 4. Proficiency in English language: 10 TOTAL MARKS: 100 Marking Scheme- Correct answer: +1 Wrong answer: -.25 Duration of paper: 90 minutes

SELECTION

CRITERIA

1. Preliminary merit list: The University publishes the preliminary merit list of the candidates on the basis of entrance test only. However the name in the list will be included only when the candidate has attained minimum of 15% marks and 10% marks in the case of candidate belonging to SC/ST/BC/PWD.

2. Final merit list : BA.LL.B. : Entrance test 50% Marks + 50% marks of class 12th + other

admissible weightage B.com LL.B.: Entrance test 50% marks + 50% marks of class 12th +

weightage of commerce subjects and other admissible weightage (such as NSS,NCC etc)

PREVIOUS/

POTENTIAL

CHANGES/

SPECIAL REMARKS

The question paper is available in English, Hindi and Punjabi (Except for the portion “English language”). However the medium of teaching and examination is English only. 1. General knowledge and current affairs: The questions were asked

from current affairs, history, geography, computer, banking, important dates, science, full forms, authors of books etc. The questions covered in current affairs were from recent appointments, awards, recent judgments of high courts, amendments etc.

2. English: This section covered questions on meaning of phrases, synonyms,


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antonyms, foreign words etc. 3. Legal aptitude: There were no questions on principle- facts. The

questions were direct in nature. The questions covered were from Contract, basics of Muslim law, jurisprudence, torts, basics of international law, Constitution.

4. Mental ability: This section covered questions from series, coding, arrangements, blood relations, odd one out, analogy, puzzles, directions, calendars, simple interest, number system, time, speed and distance, ratios etc.

ORDER OF

PREFERENCE OF

COLLEGES

University institute of legal studies, Panjab University, Chandigarh University Institute of laws, Panjab University Regional Centre, Ludhiana University institute of legal studies, Panjab University Regional Centre, Hoshiarpur


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8. Law School Admission Test (LSAT)

UNIVERSITIES Around 80 Private Universities including OP Jindal Global University

COURSES 1. B.A. LL.B. 2. B.B.A. LL.B. 3. B.Com. LL.B. NO. OF STAGES 1. Exam 2. Counseling MODE Home proctored online test NO. OF SEATS 85 law schools in India (approx.) ENTRANCE DATE First week of June ELIGIBLITY

CRITERIA

50% marks in class 12th

SELECTION

CRITERIA

LSAT Score

PATTERN

The Exam Pattern in 2020 was similar to 2019 1. Analytical Reasoning: 23 marks 2. Logical Reasoning: 45 marks (Divided into two parts of 22 and 23 questions

each) 3. English including comprehension: 24 marks 4. TOTAL: 92 Exam duration: 140 minutes (35 minutes per section) No negative marking

PREVIOUS/

POTENTIAL

CHANGES/

SPECIAL REMARKS

1. Analytical reasoning: The questions in this section were from assignment, grouping, conditions and orders/assignments. Most of the questions have conditions attached to them and students were supposed to read them carefully.

2. Logical reasoning 1 and logical reasoning 2: The questions in this section were mostly on critical reasoning. The questions were on finding inference, finding conclusion and assumptions.

3. Reading comprehension: This section was moderately difficult. The passages were not lengthy and the questions were inferential and required understanding of the text. Most of the questions were based on deep understanding of the passages.

ORDER OF

PREFERENCE OF

COLLEGES

(As per students preference list, 2020)

OP Jindal Global University, Sonipat School of law, university of petroleum and energy studies, Dehradun ICFAI law school, Hyderabad Alliance school of law, Bangalore

FEES

OP Jindal Global University – 5.75 lakhs per year School of law, University of petroleum and energy studies, Dehradun – 16.48 Lakh for 5 Years ICFAI Law School, Hyderabad – 12.20 Lakh for 5 Years Alliance school of law, Bangalore – 10 Lakh for 5 Years However, scholarships are also awarded depending on the performance in LSAT-India.

MASS COMMUNICATION

Delhi University (BMMC) Delhi University 5 Year Integrated Programme St. Xavier's College (BMM) Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (CET

BJMC) Christ University (Mass Communication) Manipal University (MUOET)


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1. Delhi University (BMMMC)

COURSES: B.A. (H) Multi Media and Mass Communication (BMMMC)

ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA Gen Category: An aggregate of 75% or more marks in the best four (including 85% or more in English) in the qualifying examination.

No. of STAGES – 1 Written Test MODE Online NO. OF SEATS TOTAL – 65 Seats

PATTERN


General Awareness/ Current Affairs / Business Awareness Verbal Ability

Media Awareness Marking Scheme: Maximum Marks: 400

Right Answer: +4 Wrong Answer: -1 Total Duration:120 Minutes

ENTRANCE DATE 7th September 2020 CUT OFFS

(CLOSING CUT OFFS)

Closing Score: 235 (5th cut off) Closing Rank: 35 (5th cut off) The first ranker scored 298.

PREVIOUS/POTENTIAL

CHANGES/SPECIAL

REMARKS

2017: Mode of the examination changed from offline to online. Marking Scheme Changed from +1/ No Negative marking to +4 & -1.

2018: The paper which was earlier section-wise changed to a mix of all sections.

2019: The paper was a Mix of all sections. 2020: The paper was majorly GA and CA dominated with only 10

questions from Media.

Verbal Ability: questions were easy which didn't require too much of thought. There were one word substitutions which were very easy too. Fill in the blanks were both Grammar and Vocabulary based but were manageable too. The passage was a short and easy one with questions which were majorly information based. The idioms were given a good weightage with as many as four questions which were fairly easy and doable.

General Awareness: There were some questions from 2018. The entire paper was dominated by GA and CA. They asked questions like the capital of Jharkhand, founders of Netflix and twitter, the headquarter of ICC etc.

Media Awareness: There were questions fewer questions (10-12 questions). There were questions from films, some from internet and no question from literature. They asked questions on Oscars, Jnanpith, Filmfare and National awards.


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2. Delhi University 5 Year Integrated Programme

COURSES: Five Year Integrated Program in Journalism

ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA The admission to DSJ is on the basis of entrance test with eligibility of minimum 50% in class XII (irrespective of the stream).

STAGES –1 Selection will be done only on the basis of the Entrance Test. MODE ONLINE NO. OF SEATS 120 seats for English; 60 seats for Hindi

PATTERN

Duration: 120 minutes Sections: General Knowledge Current Affairs Analytical and Comprehensive Skills Number of Questions: 100 Marking Scheme: +4 for correct answers and -1 for incorrect

answers ENTRANCE DATE 11th September 2020

CUT OFFS (CLOSING

CUT OFFS)

In 2020:

Closing Rank was 46 (3rd cut off). Closing Score 195 (3rd cut off). First ranker scored 295

In 2019:

Closing Rank for General Category was 41.

PREVIOUS/POTENTIAL

CHANGES/SPECIAL

REMARKS

Section wise Remarks The Verbal Section was easy with Idioms and Vocabulary which were doable. The Comprehension was also an easy read. The General Awareness section was a mix of static and current. The paper was majorly GA and CA dominated. There was no question on Media Awareness.


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3. St. Xavier’s College (BMM)

COURSES: BA Mass Communication & Journalism (BA MCJ) (earlier

BMM) Eligibility Criteria Candidate should’ve cleared 12th standard examinations

STAGES - 1 A merit list will be generated with a cumulative of marks obtained in the Entrance Test and 12th Standard Exams.

MODE ONLINE NO. OF SEATS 60

PATTERN

Duration: 120 Minutes Sections: General Knowledge (15%) Current Affairs (10%) Data Interpretations (20%) Economics (10%) English Language and Comprehension Skills (20%) Logical Reasoning and Critical Analysis (15%) Creative Thinking (10%) Number of Questions: 100 Marking Scheme: +1 for correct answer and No negative marking for an incorrect answer.

ENTRANCE DATE 28th and 29th July 2020 - in 4 different slots

WEIGHTAGE

60% weightage given to the online test. 40% weightage to the score obtained in the qualifying class 12th Examinations

CUT OFF

2020: 85.75 (Composite Score) 2019: 84 Marks 2018: 84 Marks 2017: 76 Marks

SPECIAL REMARKS

Verbal Ability: Verbal Section was easy with vocabulary being generally familiar and the fill in the blanks were grammar based as well as Vocab based. There were RCs which were time consuming.

Logical Reasoning: There were a few critical reasoning questions which could very easily have elimination method applied to them.

Economics: There were questions on basic terminologies from 11th and 12th syllabus.

General Awareness: There was a major focus on Business Awareness (like punchlines, logos etc). There was equal importance given to Static and Current affairs.

Media Aptitude: There was no media questions Remark: There was a change this year in the conducting of the exam. Unlike last year, the exam was held in various locations, This year, the exam was a home proctored one.


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4. Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (CET BJMC)

COURSES: Bachelors in Journalism and Mass Communication (BJMC)

STAGES - 1 A merit list will be generated with a cumulative of marks obtained in the Entrance Test.

NO. OF SEATS 2130 MODE Online ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA

Candidate should’ve cleared 12th standard examinations. 50% in English (Core or Functional being a compulsory subject)

ENTRANCE DATE 9th-14th September 2020.

PATTERN

The exam pattern in 2020 was similar to 2019 Duration: 150 Minutes Sections: General Knowledge (25%) Media Aptitude (25%) English Language and Comprehension Skills (25%) Logical and Analytical Reasoning (25%) Number of Questions: 150 Marking Scheme: +4 for correct answer and -1 for an incorrect

answer.

PREVIOUS/POTENTIAL

CHANGES/SPECIAL

REMARKS

Verbal Ability: The section was Medium in difficulty level. The RC Passage was an easy read article which was followed by 7 questions which were majorly informative type. If there were any inference type questions, they were still easy. The Vocabulary section of the paper was on a more difficult side with words being asked not just as synonyms and antonyms but also in fill in the blanks which had options which needed a good knowledge of words too. Grammar section had questions which directed the students to correctly substitute the underlined part of the sentence with the options given. This majorly checked the knowledge of modifiers and pronouns.

Media Awareness: The questions were based on the static and current affairs. There were questions on first talkie movie, first hindi newspaper, father of Indian cinema etc.

General Knowledge and Current Affairs: This section was vast and covered History to Polity to Books and Magazines. It was a mix of current affairs and static GK. Difficulty level for this section is Easy to Medium.

Logical Reasoning: The questions were fairly easy. There were questions of directions, seating arrangements, blood relations, number series and odd one out.

It had some Quantitative Aptitude questions that pertained to topics


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like average speed, ratio and proportion, percentage, profit and loss etc.


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5. Christ University (Mass Communication)

COURSES:

1. BA Journalism Hons. 2. Bachelors in Journalism, English, Psychology 3. Bachelors in Communication and Media, English,

Psychology

STAGES - 3

Stage 1: Entrance Exam

Stage 2: The skill assessment will consist of a test on written skills, communication skills and logical reasoning. Stage 3: Personal Interview

MODE


PATTERN

Pattern of Entrance Exam in 2020 similar to 2019

Duration: 120 Minutes Marking Scheme: +1 and -0.25 BA Journalism, Psychology, Eng.

Verbal Ability

Language Skills Comprehension Skills Subject Questions BA Communication and Media, English and Psychology

Comprehension Skills Verbal Reasoning

Language Skills General Knowledge

ENTRANCE DATE


ELIGIBILITY

Basic eligibility for the programme is a pass with minimum 55% at the +2 level (Karnataka PUC / ISC / CBSE / NIOS / State Boards) in any stream (Humanities, Social Sciences, Commerce & Management, Sciences) from any recognized Board in India.

CRITERIA FOR

SELECTION

CHRIST University Entrance Test, Skill Assessment - The skill assessment will consist of a test on written skills, communication skills and logical reasoning. Micro Presentation (MP) for 90 sec / student during this selection process, Personal interview & Assessment of past performance in Class 10, Class 11/12, during the Personal Interview.

PREVIOUS/POTENTIAL

CHANGES/SPECIAL

REMARKS

Stage 1

Verbal Ability: They asked Vocabulary questions which were easy to moderate in difficulty. The Comprehension was long but easy.

Media Aptitude: There were only taglines and punch lines questions


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in the media aptitude section. Stage 2

Candidates are made to write essay on subject based topic or topics of current relevance. One topic is same for all whereas the second topic is given to you separately. For eg. #MeToo Movement, Sec 377, Sec 497, Is Moral Science important etc.

Stage 3

Personal interview. The Interview panel is known to be unpredictable and can build pressure and/or stress. They focus on Subject Knowledge as well as Current Affairs. Assessment of past performance in Class 10, Class 11/12, during the Personal Interview.


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6. Manipal University (MUOET)

COURSES: Bachelors in Media and Communication

STAGES

Revised Process 2020

Submission of 11th Class marks / grade sheet Submission of Statement of Purpose (SOP) Personal Interview (PI) Merit List based on 11th , SOP & PI Exam Pattern in 2019

Duration: 120 Minutes Sections: Numeracy (20 Qs)

o General Knowledge (20 Qs) o Case Study (15 Qs) o Conceptual Questions (25 Qs) o General English (20 Qs)

Number of Question: 100 Marking Scheme: +1 and no negative marking

ELIGIBILITY Pass in 10+2 or equivalent from a recognized Board, with minimum 45 % aggregate marks or equivalent

MODE Online (2019) No Exam in 2020 Special Note: There was NO entrance conducted in 2020.

HOTEL MANAGEMENT

Ministry of Tourism (NCHMCT) Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (CET HM) Christ University (HM) Jamia Milia Islamia University (JMIEEE-BHM) Bharti Vidyapeeth University (BHMCT) (BVPHM) IHM Aurangabad Oberoi's Systematic Training and Education

Programme (STEP) Manipal University


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1. Ministry of Tourism (NCHMCT)

COURSES: B.Sc. in Hospitality and Hotel Administration - Generic B.Sc. in Hospitality and Hotel Administration – Specialization

NUMBER OF

SEATS More than 12,697 seats in 74 institutes

ELIGIBILITY

10+2 system of Senior Secondary examination or its equivalent with English as one of the subjects. Candidate must have passed English as a subject of study (core/elective/functional) in the qualifying examination. Age Limit:

For candidates from General and OBC categories, upper age limit is 25 years as on 01.07.2020. Candidates born on or after July 01, 1995 are eligible. In the case of Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe candidates, upper age limit is 28 years as on 01.07.2020. That is SC/ST candidates born on or after July 01, 1992 are eligible. Upper age limit for Physically Challenged candidates shall be reckoned as per the category he/she belongs to i.e. General/EWS/SC/ST/OBC.

ENTRANCE

DATE 29th August, 2020

MODE OF

SELECTION:

All India merit list of candidates shall be prepared on the basis of marks secured in the NCHM-JEE Computer Based Test (CBT). Some of the private universities accept NCHMCT scores for the admissions.

PATTERN

Subject Number of questions

Aptitude for Service Sector 50 Reasoning & Logical Deduction 30 English Language 60 Numerical Ability & Scientific Aptitude 30 General Knowledge & Current Affairs 30 Total 200

Marking Scheme for MCQs: Correct Answer (+4) & Incorrect Answer (-1)

DURATION 3 hours

CUTOFF

Institute Opening Rank Closing Rank

IHM Delhi, Pusa (Central Government IHM) 1 291

IHM Mumbai (Central Government IHM) 3 798

IHM Chennai (Central Government IHM) 13 4163

IHM Kolkata (Central Government IHM) 34 2138

IHM Hyderabad (Central Government IHM) 37 2712

IHM Bhubaneswar (Central Government IHM) 59 9058

IHM Goa (Central Government IHM) 68 4236

IHM Bengaluru (Central Government IHM) 74 1220

AIHM Chandigarh (Central Government IHM) 196 2185

IHM Bhopal (Central Government IHM) 251 5339


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*Note: Above Ranks are for general category (2nd cutoff list) for first 10 Colleges

NCHMCT JEE

2020 SECTION-

WISE EXAM

ANALYSIS

NCHMCT JEE 2020 Analysis of Numerical Ability and Analytical Aptitude

Section

Basic school-level Mathematics questions were asked in the Numerical Ability section of NCHMCT JEE 2020. Some of the topics from which questions were asked include Time and Work, Time-Distance-Speed, Work and Wages, Simple Interest, Compound Interest, Area of Triangles & Rectangles, Percentage & Laws, HCF, LCM, and Ratios. NCHMCT JEE 2020 Analysis of Reasoning and Logical Deduction Section

This section of NCHMCT JEE exam consisted of questions that were simple and could be solved by applying basic logic. Questions in this section of the exam were asked equally from almost all the topics. Some topics from which maximum questions were asked were Blood Relations, Number Series, Verbal Reasoning as well as Statement and Assumptions. NCHMCT JEE 2020 Analysis of General Knowledge & Current Affairs

Section

This section comprised questions from static GK from subjects such as History and Science There were also many questions on recent happenings in India and the world. NCHMCT JEE 2020 Analysis of English Language Section

As is the case every year, the English section of NCHMCT JEE exam consisted of Reading Comprehension and Vocabulary questions. Each Reading Comprehension passage was followed by 4-5 questions. Vocabulary questions were from topics such as Antonyms, Synonyms, Mark the Correct Word/ Sentence, Fill in the Blanks, etc. The questions asked in this section of NCHMCT JEE 2020 were of Class 12 level. NCHMCT JEE 2020 Questions asked in Aptitude for Service Sector

Section The Aptitude for Service Sector section had questions related to the hotel industry and their services. This is usually the easiest section of the exam but the only thing worth paying attention to here is that there is graded marking in this section and students need to justify why they have selected a particular option. Some of the questions asked in this section were: How would you react if you see a person who has met with an accident? How would you take a decision if you were working at different posts (like:

Manager, Housekeeping, Receptionist) in the hospitality industry? How would you react if a customer misbehaved with you? How would make a disabled person comfortable?


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2. Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (CET HM)

COURSES: Bachelor of Hotel Management and Catering Technology (BHMCT)

NUMBER OF SEATS 240

ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA

Eligibility criteria for IPUCET (BHMCT) i.e. the entrance test for hotel management course offered by IPU is as follows: Candidate should have passed class XII of CBSE or its equivalent with

a minimum of 50% marks in aggregate* Candidate must also have passed in English (core or elective or

functional) as a subject. Candidates awaiting results/appearing for the qualifying exam can also

appear for CET subject to the fulfillment of the above conditions on declaration of the result.

As on 01.08.2019, candidate should not be beyond 21 years of age. Candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes/Widows

or Wards of Defence Personnel/Persons With Disability will be allowed 5% relaxation of marks in the minimum eligibility requirement, irrespective of the fact whether there exists any reservation for any category of such candidates or not.

ENTRANCE DATE 12th September 2020 MODE OF SELECTION: Online

PATTERN

Subject

English Language & Comprehension - 25%

Logical Reasoning - 20 %

General Knowledge - 30%

Knowledge of Accounts / Commerce & Science – 20%

Total number of questions: 100 MARKING SCHEME Right Answer: +4, Wrong Answer: -1 DURATION Written Test = 2.5 hrs

NOTE

Note *Aggregate of 50% marks in the 12th class for the purpose of eligibility will be taken as the aggregate of best four subjects (unless otherwise specified) including English and compulsory subject(s), if any. These compulsory subjects will vary for various programs. Compulsory subject(s) if changed, whatever applicable will be notified on university website before start of the counselling.


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REMARKS:

1. Significantly higher weightage of static General Awareness with the overall difficulty level of this section being easy-moderate.

2. For the VA section, significantly high weightage given to Grammar and Vocabulary with questions in varying forms testing the same.

3. There is NO SECTION FOR QA in this exam. However, the LR section may include some questions of basic mathematics that are quite straight forward and easy to attempt.

4. The exam was held in three shifts.

Fee: 4,00,400 (For 3 years – Tuition fee only) – Banarsidas Chanidwala College of IP University


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3. Christ University (HM)

COURSES: Bachelor in Hotel Management (BHM)

NUMBER OF SEATS 90

ELIGIBILITY

Basic eligibility for the programme is a pass at the +2 level in any stream (Humanities, Social Sciences, Commerce & Management, Sciences) from any recognised Board in India.

Candidates writing the +2 examinations in March-May 2018 may apply with their class X and XI marks.

Students pursuing International curriculum must note that eligibility is according to AIU stipulations:

Applicants pursuing IB curriculum must have 3 HL and 3 SL with 24 credits.

Applicants pursuing GCE / excel must have a minimum of 3 A levels.

ENTRANCE DATE Session 1 – 2nd May, 2020 Session 2 – 3rd & 4th May, 2020 Session 3 – 17th May 2020

MODE OF SELECTION: Online

PATTERN

1. Christ Entrance Test

Number of Questions: 1. Current Affair / General Awareness – 20 Qs 2. Data Interpretation – 20 Qs 3. Logical Reasoning – 20 Qs 4. Quantitative Aptitude – 20 Qs 5. Verbal Ability – 20 Qs 6. Fundamental Accounting – 20 Qs Total – 120 Qs (MCQ) Marking Scheme:

Right Answer: +1 Wrong Answer: - 0.25 Maximum Marks: 120 Total Duration: 120 Minutes

2. Skill Assessment





Total Duration: PIs are 15-20 Minutes each

SECTION-WISE EXAM

ANALYSIS

Written Exam

1. The GA section is medium difficulty level focused on the Static GK and Current Affairs; however, the weightage of the Static part was visibly


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much higher than the Current Affairs part. Infact, the questions on Current Affairs were not from 2018-19 but on the events happened in 2016-17.

2. There is only basic mathematics tested in the QA section with more weightage of Average and Linear Equations, Numbers, Ratio & Proportion, Percentage and Profit & Loss. Few questions were asked from Probability, Set Theory, and Clocks & Calendars as well.

3. The LR section is relatively easy and one of the most scoring sections in this exam. Majority of the questions were from Analytical and Logical Reasoning. There were 4-5 questions in a set of Puzzles. 5-6 questions each on Coding-Decoding and Blood Relations. Few questions were from Statement & Conclusion and Series, Sequence.

4. Data Interpretation questions are usually based on tabular and Bar Graphs. This section consisted of two to three sets of Data Interpretation. All the sets were from Tables. The questions were calculative in nature i.e. percentage change, highest/lowest percentage increase/decrease.

5. The VA section was dominated by Grammar and Reading Comprehension. Grammar consisted Fill in the blanks of Prepositions, Verbs, and Adverbs. There were two passages of Reading comprehension with six questions in each, which can be categorized as easy. There were four to five questions of Synonyms and Antonyms. There were two easy questions of Critical Reasoning. Overall this section can be termed an easy. Skill Assessment Candidates are made to write an essay on subjective or topics of current relevance and they are tested on their Written Skills, Communication Skills and Reasoning Skills. The topics presented are not very complex and usually an option of 4-5 topics is provided that the candidates randomly choose from. Micro Presentation (Extempore)

Candidates are asked to speak (Extempore) on any of the topics that they randomly pick as part of the selection process. The topics are provided on the university's website beforehand. Personal Interview

Strong focus on HR type and Personal Questions and sometimes have the tendency to get quirky trying to make candidates uncomfortable and/or under stress. Along with PI, assessment of past performance in classes 10, 11 and 12 is also done.


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5. Jamia Milia Islamia University (JMIEEE-BHM)

COURSES: Bachelor of Hotel Management (BHM)

NUMBER OF SEATS 40

ELIGIBILITY

Senior Secondary School Certificate or an equivalent examination from a recognized board with not less than 45% marks in aggregate of best 5 papers.

ENTRANCE DATE 26th October, 2020. MODE Offline

SELECTION PROCESS

90% weightage is for written test and 10% weightage is for personal interview.

PATTERN

Total Questions : 100

Quantitative Aptitude – 20 Reasoning – 25 English – 30 General Awareness – 35

Marking Scheme

Right Answer: +1 Wrong Answer: -.25

Max Marks – 100 DURATION Duration- 120 minutes

PREVIOUS/POTENTIAL

CHANGES/SPECIAL

REMARKS

Quantitative Aptitude (20 questions) 1. Simplification: (0-5 Questions) Problems based on BODMAS Rule,

Fractions, Percentages, Approximation, Decimals, Surds & Indices. 2. Number System: (0-3 Questions) Problems based on Divisibility &

Remainder, Multiples & Factors, Integers, LCM & HCF. 3. Average: (0-2 Questions) Questions on Average

Weight/Height/Age/Marks, Average Money expenditure, Average Temperature etc.

4. Percentage: (0-2 Questions) Calculation oriented basic percentage problems.

5. Ratio and Proportion: (0-2 Questions) Problems based on Simple Ratios, Compound Ratios.

6. Number Series: (0-5 Questions) Problems based on completing the series, finding the missing term, finding the wrong term. The concepts behind this can be based on simple arithmetic progression, geometric progression, or more complex patterns.

7. Profit and Loss: (0-2 Questions) Successive Selling, partnerships, discount.


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8. Speed, time and distance: (0-2 Questions) Relative speed, average speed, problems based on trains, boat & stream.

9. Algebra: (0-4 Questions) Problems based on linear equation, quadratic equations.

10. Mensuration: (0-2 Questions) Problems based on areas of square, rectangle, circle, semicircle, parallelogram, cone, and cylinder.

11. Time and Work: (0-2 Questions) Problems based on work efficiency, pipe & cistern, work and wages.

12. Interest: (0-2 Questions) Problems based on simple interest, compound interest as well as mixture of both SI & CI.

Reasoning: (25 questions) 1. Inequalities: (0-5 Questions) Mostly Direct Mathematical Inequalities.

2-3 complex expressions like A > B ≥ C = D; E < B ≤ F. 2-4 conclusions which are to be deduced from these statements. Coded inequalities problems asked where relation between alphabets are coded such as A # B where # is actually code for > sign.

2. Ordering and Ranking: (0-5 Questions) Mostly Puzzle on ordering by age, floor, rank, boxes of different colours one above another, order in row etc.

3. Directions & Distances: (0-5 Questions) 4. Coding & Decoding: (0-5 Questions) Mostly questions on coding and

decoding in fictitious language are asked where a few statements are given which are coded in some meaningless language and questions are based on this code.

5. Blood Relations: (0-3 Questions) Family Tree and Coded Blood Relation Problems.

6. Syllogisms: (0-5 Questions) Problems with 2-3 statements and 2-3 conclusions. Questions are asked whether the conclusions follow or not.

7. Seating Arrangement: (0-5 Questions) Includes Uni-Directional and Bi-Directional problems (i.e. facing inside, outside or in both directions).

8. Analogy: (0-4 Questions) 9. Assertion and reason : (0-3 Questions) English (30 questions) 1. Fill in the Blanks: (0-5 Questions) Single/Double blank type questions.

Vocabulary /grammar based questions. 2. Reading comprehension: (0-10 Questions) Likely the RC consists of

one/two passage of 0-10 questions. The topics you should look out for are economy, business, geopolitics, governance, education, technology, tourism, hospitality, transport and social issues.

3. Para Jumbles: (0-5 Questions) A set of 6 sentences are to be rearranged to form a meaningful paragraph.

4. Cloze Test: (5-10 Questions) A single passage with 5 or 10 blanks.


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Passage could be on any topic ranging from science, banking & economy to Social Issues. Words are usually easy to moderate and vocabulary based.

5. Error Spotting: (5-10 Questions) Grammar based. Long Sentences with error in one part was asked.

6. Word Association Pair: (0-5 Questions) Four words given and you need to determine which two words have either synonymous or antonyms relation between them. Your knowledge of vocabulary is tested.

7. Phrase Idiom Meaning: (0-3 Questions) the phrases given and you need to select the correct meaning of the given phrase.

8. Spellings: (0-3 Questions) You need to choose the word that is correctly spelt or wrongly spelt from the given options.

9. Phrase Replacement/ Sentence Correction: (0-5 Questions) Grammar/Vocabulary based, construction of sentences, order of words, phrasal verbs, homonyms, etc.

10. Synonyms, antonyms, one word substitution (0-6 questions) 11. Grammar : (0 - 5 Questions) You may be asked to choose options

related to active/passive voice, tenses, articles, direct/indirect speech, noun, pronoun, adjective, verb, adverb, preposition, conjunction, interjection.

General Awareness: (25 questions) 1. Current awareness: (5-10 questions): covering recent events. 2. Computer awareness: (0-5) questions: covering questions about basics of computer awareness specially MS Office, operating system, hard ware, components, Internet, Keyboard Shortcuts, Computer Abbreviation, and Networking. 3. History: (0-2 questions) 4. Geography: (0-2 questions) 5. Polity: (0 – 3 questions) 6. Science: Physics, Chemistry Biology) (0- 5 questions) 7. Environmental Science: (0 – 4 questions) 8. Tourism and Hospitality: (0-5 questions) Important tourism resources

of India like fairs and festivals, cuisines, dances, music, monuments, hill stations, beaches, national parks, wildlife sanctuaries.

9. Economics: (0-4 questions) FEES Rs. 35, 310/- (For full course – only tuition fee)


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6. Bharti Vidyapeeth University (BHMCT) (BVPHM)

COURSES: Bachelor of Hotel Management (BHM) Bachelor’s Degree in Science (Hospitality & Hotel Administration)

NUMBER OF SEATS For BHMCT – 60 For B.Sc. (H &HA) – 180

ELIGIBILITY

Eligibility Criteria for BHMCT

Candidates must have passed the HSC examination or equivalent examination with English as a compulsory subject. Should have obtained a minimum 45% aggregate marks and for SC/ST 40% aggregate marks. Those students who have completed the three years Diploma Course in Hotel Management & Catering Technology (National Council or State Board of Technical Education) are eligible to be admitted directly to the seventh semester of BHMCT. Eligibility Criteria for BSc (H &HA)

To be eligible for Admission to First year Degree in Science (Hospitality & Hotel Administration) the candidate should have passed the Class 12th or HSC examination of State Board of Secondary and Higher Education or its equivalent examination with English as a compulsory subject.

ENTRANCE DATE 17th August, 2020 PATTERN Number of Questions: 100 DURATION 2 hours

REMARKS:

Sections: General Awareness – 20 Qs Logical Reasoning – 20 Qs Quantitative Aptitude – 20 Qs Verbal Ability – 20 Qs Scientific Aptitude – 20 Qs

MARKING SCHEME Right: +1 Wrong: No negative


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7. IHM Aurangabad

COURSES: BA (Honours) Hotel Management – 4 Years BA (Honours) Culinary Arts – 4 Years

NUMBER OF SEATS Around 160


You should have completed the Std. XII (10+2) or equivalent examination in any stream with English as the medium of instruction to participate in this admission process. If you have appeared for the board exams in the current year and are awaiting results you can still apply. You will be admitted to IHM-A only if you successfully qualify in the Board Examination.

TENTATIVE DATE End of May

MODE OF SELECTION:

Complete Online Profiling Test Candidates will only be able to access the IHM Aurangabad profiling test after they have successfully paid the application fee of Rs 1,500. The profiling test will be sent on the registered email ID provided by the candidates in their IHM Aurangabad application form. Once the candidates receive this test they need to click on the test link and complete all the fields as listed in the test. On completion of the profiling test, aspirants will immediately be given their assessment report. The official website informs that the profiling test is conducted by IHM Aurangabad for admissions 2019 as it is felt that this test helps aspirants develop a better understanding of their strengths/weaknesses before they are called to appear for the Group Discussion and Personal Interview round. The official website informs that aspirants need to “carry a hard copy of this assessment report for verification before they proceed with the next steps to a Group Discussion, writing a Statement of Purpose and finally participating in a Personal Interview in July/August 2019”. Step 3: Write Statement of Purpose Aspirants need to share a Statement of Purpose of 1500 words. The statement of purpose needs to be on the topic - “perspective on the role this education at IHM-A would play in shaping my future by creating a vibrant personality who would succeed in the hospitality world”. Step 4: Appear for Group Discussion and Interview Round The Group Discussion (GD) and Personal Interview round for IHM Aurangabad admissions will be held at Taj Group Hotels located at Kolkata, Chennai, New Delhi, Mumbai as well as IHM-A campus. In the personal interview round, aspirants will be judged on the parameters listed below: Communication Skills Analytical Skills General Awareness


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Service Orientation Personality Factors Apart from this, candidates are advised to strictly stick to the dress code as prescribed by IHM Aurangabad authorities for the interview round. Ladies – (formal attire) Sarees or business suits, formal ensembles, full

sleeved shirt, scarves and formal shoes. Gentlemen – (formal attire) Suit, jacket or blazer, formal trousers, full

sleeved shirt, neck tie and formal shoes. Candidates are shortlisted for admission in hotel management programmes offered at IHM Aurangabad as per the below mentioned parameters:

WEIGHATGE

Profiling (weightage – 20%), Statement of Purpose (weightage – 10%), Group Discussion (weightage – 20%) and a Personal Interview (weightage – 50%).


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8. Oberoi’s Systematic Training and Education Programme (STEP)

COURSES:

SYSTEMATIC TRAINING AND EDUCATION PROGRAMME

(STEP)

The Systematic Training and Education Programme -STEP includes comprehensive on-the-job training at select Oberoi and Trident Hotels along with a correspondence Bachelor's Degree in Tourism Studies from Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU). Trainees are provided with assistance in the form of study materials and dedicated time to prepare for the exams for their undergraduate degree. Unlike other hospitality education programmes, the STEP programme focuses on practical training in hotels. No fee is payable by the

students selected for the STEP programme. Instead, The Oberoi Group offers a monthly allowance, accommodation, meals on duty,

uniform and medical insurance.

The programmes offered: Hotel Operations Programme - Front Office and Food & Beverage

Service Hotel Operations Programme – Housekeeping Hotel Operations Programme - Kitchen


Clear pass in Class XII as on 1st July, of the year of joining, from a Board recognized by the Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU), India. The programme requires a Class X English score of 71% or

above. Age Limit: Candidates should be above 18 and below 20 years of age, as on 15th August, of the year of joining the Programme.

MODE OF SELECTION:

Come to the venue of the selection process on the date you have chosen.

On the day of the interview, the candidate must bring the following documents with him/her:

Self-attested copies of the following:

1. One print-out of their application form along with one passport-size photograph.

2. One copy of their class X certificate. If the candidate's certificate does not mention their date of birth, one copy of their birth certificate will be required.

3. One copy of their class XII certificate. The candidate should be deemed medically fit by our company

doctor.


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All the testimonials should be verified as authentic. A typical selection day will commence with candidates registering for

one of the Programmes. Thereafter, the candidates would go through three rounds of

selection activities: Round 1: Candidates are divided into groups of 15-20 participants and are taken through a round of activities, introduction and possibly questioners. Here, the evaluator checks the candidates grooming, poise and spoken English. Round 2: Short-listed candidates from Round 1 are taken to another round of activities on the same day including a one-on-one meeting with a panel comprising of faculty. Here, the evaluator gets to know them better and checks their aptitude for hospitality. Round 3: Short-listed candidates from Round 2 will be invited for another round of activities including a final interview with a panel. This may be on a different day and city than the above two rounds. Oberoi

doesn't give Delhi as the location for Delhi candidates

NOTE

For Hotel Operations Programme (Front Office / Food and

Beverage Service focus) and Housekeeping. The candidate should have obtained 61% marks or above, in English

in class X. The equivalent in CBSE is a B2 Grade or a 7 Grade Point. For Hotel Operations Programme (Housekeeping focus) The candidate should have obtained 51% marks or above, in English

in class X. The equivalent in CBSE is a C1 Grade or a 6 Grade Point. Qualities they look for A positive attitude with a desire for excellence Good communication skills in English Strong interpersonal skills Initiative, drive and an eye for detail Team orientation


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9. Manipal University

COURSES: Bachelor of Hotel Management (BHM) BA Culinary Arts

ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA 1. Passing 10+2 from a recognised board. 2. 45% Aggregate in 12th Class with English (Core or Functional being a compulsory subject).

STAGES:

Admissions are offered on the merit list prepared on the basis of: Marks obtained in the qualifying examination Department Test (DT) Group Discussion (GD) & Personal Interview (PI). Merit List based on DT, GD, PI & qualifying exam marks

PATTERN: Duration: 60 minutes, 60 MCQ type questions

B.Com

Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (CET B. Com)

Christ University (B.Com.) Jamia Millia Islamia University (B.Com.) Banaras Hindu University (BHU - UET)


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1. Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (CET B. Com)

COURSE: B.Com. (Hons) No. of STAGES – 1: Written Test – CET B.com MODE: Online NO. OF SEATS: 1880

ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA:

50% in aggregate in 10+2 examination / senior school certificate Examination of C.B.S.E. as minimum marks for admission to B.Com with pass in five subjects (One language and four elective subjects) or an examination recognized as equivalent to that.

ENTRANCE DATE 11th September, 2020

PATTERN

Exam Pattern in 2020


English Language & Comprehension – 25% Logical Reasoning – 25 % Data Interpretation – 35%

Basic general Awareness – 15%

Marking Scheme: Maximum Marks: 400

Right Answer: +4 & Wrong Answer: -1 Total Duration: 150 Minutes Exam Pattern in 2019


English Language & Comprehension – 25% Logical Reasoning – 25 % Data Interpretation – 35%

Basic general Awareness – 15%



WEIGHTAGE CET Score – 100%

CUT OFF For the Delhi School Students Rank Should within first 1000, for top three colleges

ORDER OF

PREFERENCE OF

COLLEGES (EXAM

SPECIFIC)

1. Maharaja Surajmal Institute. Cut off 2020: Maximum Rank For Delhi: 1197 & For Outside Delhi: 471


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2. Maharaja Agrasen Institute of Management Studies. Cut off 2020: Maximum Rank For Delhi: 1197 & For Outside Delhi: 471

3. Vivekananda Institute of Professional Studies. Cut off 2020: Maximum Rank For Delhi: 1429 & For Outside Delhi: 823

4. Jagannath International Management School, Kalkaji. Cut off 2020: Maximum Rank For Delhi: 2160 & For Outside Delhi: 909

5. Institute of Information Technology & Management, Janak Puri. Cut off 2020: Maximum Rank For Delhi: 3011 & For Outside Delhi: 1613

6. Institute of Innovation in Technology & Management, Janak Puri. Cut off 2020: Maximum Rank For Delhi: 3379 & For Outside Delhi: 1540

7. Trinity Institute of Professional Studies, Dwarka. Cut off 2020: Maximum Rank For Delhi: 3717 & For Outside Delhi: 1723

8. Delhi School of Professional Studies & Research, Rohini. Cut off 2020: Maximum Rank For Delhi: 5013 & For Outside Delhi: 2259

9. Delhi Institute of Rural Development, Nangli. Cut off 2020: Maximum Rank For Delhi: 7021 & For Outside Delhi: 3205

10. Chandarprabhu Jain College of Higher Studies, Narela. Cut off 2020: Maximum Rank for Delhi: 7211 & For Outside Delhi: 3189.


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2. Christ University (B.Com.) COURSE: B.Com (Hons.)

STAGES – 4:

1. Entrance Exam 2. Skill Assessment 3. Micro Presentation 4. Personal Interview

MODE Online


Eligibility for the programme is a pass at the +2 level (Karnataka PUC / ISC / CBSE / NIOS / State Boards) in any stream (Humanities, Social Sciences, Commerce & Management, Sciences) from any recognized Board in India.

ENTRANCE DATE


PATTERN


Fundamental Accounting - 20 Quantitative Aptitude - 20

Data Analysis and Interpretation - 20 Reasoning: Critical, Analytical and Logical - 20

General Knowledge, Current Affairs – 20

English Language - 20


Right Answer: +1 Wrong Answer: -0.25 Total Duration: 120 Minutes




Total Duration: PIs are 15-20 minutes each.


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3. Jamia Millia Islamia University (B.Com.)

COURSE: B. Com (Hons.) STAGES - 1 Entrance Test MODE Offline NO. OF SEATS 55

ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA Senior Sec. School Certificate or an equivalent examination with not less than 50% marks in aggregate of best 5-papers or in the subject concerned.

ENTRANCE DATE 1st November 2020

PATTERN

Exam Pattern in 2020 similar to 2019


1. Language Skills: 20 2. General Awareness: 40 3. Numerical Ability: 20 4. Reasoning: 20 Marking Scheme: Maximum Marks: 100



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4. Banaras Hindu University (BHU - UET) COURSE : B. Com (Hons.) STAGES - 1 Entrance Test MODE Offline NO. OF SEATS 600


1. The candidate should have secured a minimum aggregate of 50% in 10+2 or equivalent examinations with commerce/ economics/ mathematics/ finance/financial markets management/computer science/vocational courses as one of the subjects. The candidate should have passed in the listed subjects to be eligible.

2. The candidate should not be more than 22 years ENTRANCE DATE 9th September 2020

PATTERN


1. Accountancy – 15 Qs 2. Financial Statement Analysis – 15 Qs 3. Financial Markets Management – 15 Qs 4. Money and Banking – 15 Qs 5. Basic Maths – 15 Qs 6. Basic Computers – 15 Qs 7. Business Organizations – 15 Qs 8. Business Management – 15 Qs 9. Current Economic Affairs – 15 Qs 10. Economics – 15 Qs Marking Scheme: Maximum Marks: 450

Right Answer: +3

Wrong Answer: - 1 Total Duration: 150 Minutes

ECONOMICS

Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (Eco Hons.)

Christ University BA (Honours) Economics Jamia Millia Islamia UniversitY BA (Hons.) Economics


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1. Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (Eco Hons.)

COURSES: BA (Honours) Economics No. of STAGE: Written Test – CET MODE: Online NO. OF SEATS 270 Seats


Candidates with an aggregate* of 50% marks in 10+2 level examination compulsory study at 10+2 Level from a recognized state and central government board with Mathematics and English compulsory subjects at 10+2 Level.

PATTERN

Exam Pattern in 2020


General English 20% Economics and Statistics 40% Mathematics 40% Marking Scheme: Maximum Marks: 400

Right Answer: +4 Wrong Answer: -1 Total Duration: 150 Minutes Exam Pattern in 2019


General English 20% Economics and Statistics 40% Mathematics 40% Marking Scheme: Maximum Marks: 600


WEIGHTAGE 1. CET Score – 100%


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1. Vivekanand Institute of Professional Studies, Pitampura Cut off 2020: Maximum Rank For Delhi: 860 & For Outside Delhi: 489

2. Maharaja Agrasen Institute of Management Studies, Rohini Cut off 2020: Maximum Rank For Delhi: 1082 & For Outside Delhi: 532

3. Jagan Institute Of Management Studies, Rohini Cut off 2020: Maximum Rank For Delhi: 1366 & For Outside Delhi: 629

4. Fairfield Institute of Management & Technology, Kapashera Cut off 2020: Maximum Rank For Delhi: 1687 & For Outside Delhi: 809

5. Delhi Technical Campus, Greater Noida Cut off 2020: Maximum Rank For Delhi: 1724 & For Outside Delhi: 767


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2. Christ University BA (Honours) Economics

COURSES: BA (Honours) Economics

STAGES – 4:

1. Entrance Exam 2. Skill Assessment 3. Micro Presentation 4. Personal Interview

ELIGIBILITY

CRITERIA:

Basic eligibility for the programme is a pass with minimum 55% at the 10+2 level (Karnataka PUC / ISC / CBSE / NIOS / State Boards) in any stream from any recognized Board in India. Candidates should have studied either Economics or

Mathematics at the +2 level

ENTRANCE DATE


MODE Online

PATTERN


Quantitative Aptitude - 15

Logical Reasoning - 35

General Knowledge, Current Affairs – 25

English Language – 20

Economics - 25


Right Answer: +1 Wrong Answer: -0.25

Total Duration: 120 Minutes Skill Assessment


Micro Presentation (Extempore)


Personal Interview

Total Duration: The duration of the Interview is 15-20 minutes each.


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3. Jamia Millia Islamia University BA (Hons.) Economics

COURSES: BA (Hons.) Economics

STAGES – 1 Entrance Test

ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA Senior Secondary School Certificate or an equivalent examination with not less than 50% marks in aggregate

ENTRANCE DATE 1st November, 2020 MODE Offline NO. OF SEATS 53

PATTERN


1. Language Skills: 20 2. General Awareness: 40 3. Numerical Ability: 20 4. Reasoning: 20



PSYCHOLOGY

Christ University (Psychology) Jamia Millia Islamia University (Psychology) Banaras Hindu University (BHU-UET) Mount Carmel College (Psychology) Aligarh Muslim University (Psychology) Ashoka University, Sonepat MIT-World Peace University, Pune


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1. Christ University (Psychology)

COURSES:

B.Sc. in Psychology (Hons.) B.A. in Psychology

o BA CEP-Bachelor of Arts (BA) in Communication and Media, English and Psychology

o BA JPEng-Bachelor of Arts (BA) in Journalism, Psychology, English

o BA PSEng-Bachelor of Arts (BA) in Psychology, Sociology, English

o BA PSEco-Bachelor of Arts (BA) in Psychology, Sociology, Economics

o BA PEP-Bachelor of Arts (BA) in Performing Arts, English, Psychology

o BA TEP-Bachelor of Arts (BA) in Theatre Studies, English and Psychology

o BA MPE-Bachelor of Arts (BA) in Music-Western Classical, Psychology, English

ELIGIBILITY

Basic eligibility for the programme is a pass at the +2 level (Karnataka PUC / ISC / CBSE / NIOS / State Boards) in any stream (Humanities, Social Sciences, Commerce & Management, Science) from any recognised Board in India.

NO. OF SEATS Not Available

STAGES - 4

1. Christ University Entrance Test 2. Skill Assessment 3. Micro Presentation (Extempore) 4. Personal Interview

MODE ONLINE

PATTERN

1. Christ Entrance – Test

Number of Questions: 1. Current Affair – 10 Qs 2. General Knowledge – 30 Qs 3. Logical Reasoning – 20 Qs 4. Verbal Ability – 30 Qs 5. Psychology – 30 Qs Total – 120 Qs (MCQ) Marking Scheme:

Right Answer: +1 Wrong Answer: -0.25 Maximum Marks: 120

Total Duration: 120 Minutes 2. Skill Assessment

The skill assessment will consist of a test on written skills, communication


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skills and logical reasoning



Micro Presentation for 90 seconds / student during this selection process Total Duration: 90 Seconds


Total Duration: PIs are 15-20 minutes each.

CRITERIA FOR

SELECTION

Final Merit List is compiled from the overall score of all 4 assessment rounds. 1. Written Exam 2. Skill Assessment 3. Micro Presentation 4. Personal Interview 5. Academic Performance

ORDER OF

PREFERENCE OF

COLLEGES (EXAM

SPECIFIC)

Bengaluru and Ghaziabad

FEES Rs. 1, 50, 000- Rs. 2, 00, 000 (Full Course) approx.


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2. Jamia Millia Islamia University (Psychology)

COURSE: B.A. (Hons.) Psychology

NO. OF SEATS 42

ELIGIBILITY Senior Secondary School Certificate or an equivalent examination with not less than 50% marks in aggregate of best 5-papers.

STAGES - 1 Written Exam MODE OFFLINE

PATTERN


1. General Awareness – 40 Qs 2. Logical Reasoning – 20 Qs 3. Quantitative Aptitude – 20 Qs 4. Verbal Ability – 20 Qs Total – 100 Qs (MCQ) Marking Scheme: Right Answer: +1 Wrong Answer: -0.25 Maximum Marks: 100 Total Duration:

105 Minutes CRITERIA FOR

SELECTION

Final Ranks are compiled from the overall Jamia BBA Score.

CUT OFFS

(CLOSING CUT

OFFS)

65+ Marks in the written exam is a good benchmark for Final Selection.


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3. Banaras Hindu University (BHU-UET)

COURSE: B. A. (Hons.) Psychology


ELIGIBILITY

Passed 10+2 or equivalent Examination securing a minimum of 50% marks in the aggregate. AGE: Not to be more than 22 years on 1st July 2019 (applicant should be born on or after 1st July of 1997).

STAGES – 1 Undergraduate Entrance Test (UET)

PATTERN

Number of Questions: Total – 120 Qs (MCQ) These questions shall be based on General knowledge and Current Affairs, General Mental Ability/Reasoning, Numerical Ability and Language Comprehension. Marking Scheme: Right Answer: +3 Wrong Answer: -0.25 Maximum Marks: 360 Total Duration: 120 minutes (Two hours)


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4. Mount Carmel College (Psychology)

COURSES: B.A. (Psychology, English Literature and Communication Studies)

NO. OF SEAT 40 Seats

ELIGIBILITY Passed Std. XII/ PUC or equivalent school leaving examinations with Minimum 60%.

STAGE – 2 Entrance Test: Candidates are selected based on marks obtained in 10+2 and entrance test and performance in personal interview.

PATTERN

The entrance test is designed to check the aptitude of a student. The test checks one’s knowledge of current affairs, basic grammar, and general

knowledge and Media interest.


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5. Aligarh Muslim University (Psychology)

COURSE: B.A. (Hons.) - Economics/ Political Science/ Psychology/ Social Work

NO. OF SEATS 85

ELIGIBILITY

Senior Secondary School Certificate or an equivalent examination with at least 50% marks in aggregate of English and three other Subjects. Age Limit: Not more than 24 years as on 01st July in the year of admission.

STAGES - 1 Entrance Test - Combined Admission Test

PATTERN

There shall be one objective type paper of 100 marks with the following components: a) English : 25 Marks b) Indo-Islamic Culture and Aligarh Movement : 25 Marks c) General Awareness and Current Affairs : 40 Marks d) Reasoning and Intelligence : 10 Marks Duration: 2 Hours


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6. Ashoka University, Sonepat

COURSE: B.A. (Hon.) in Psychology


ELIGIBILITY Candidate must have passed (10+2) examination or equivalent from recognized Board of Education with minimum 60%.

MODE ONLINE

STAGES - 3

1. Application Round

- Personal Details - Academic Score (9th to 12th) - SAT/ACT (optional) - Personal Essay - Letter of recommendation - Extra/Co-curricular Activities

2. Interview Round

- Ashoka Aptitude Test (Mandatory except for SAT/ACT takers) - On-the-spot essay (mandatory) - In person/skype interview with panel (mandatory)

3. Decisions & Financial Aid

ADMISSION

PROCESS

Shortlisted candidates will be sent an invitation for the Interview Round.

PATTERN

1. ON-THE-SPOT ESSAY; Mandatory (30 Minutes)

The on-the-spot essay evaluates the following parameters: engagement with the prompt, critical thinking, clarity of thought, and creativity. The candidate will be given two topics to choose from at the time of writing the essay. The candidate cannot use any external resources to help them write the essay. The essay has no word limit and can be attempted with minimal preparation

2. ASHOKA APTITUDE TEST; Mandatory except for SAT/ACT

takers (90 minutes)

The Ashoka Aptitude Test (AAT) evaluates the thinking skills of the candidate. The AAT consists of questions on problem-solving skills (includes numerical and spatial reasoning) and critical thinking skills (includes understanding arguments and reasoning using everyday language). The AAT has 40 Multiple Choice Questions (20 problem-solving

questions and 20 critical thinking questions) and is designed to be taken with minimal preparation

3. INTERVIEW WITH A PANEL; Mandatory

The Ashoka Interview seeks to understand and get to know the candidate, their background and story. It also evaluates various parameters of the application form submitted by the candidate to gauge the candidate’s


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suitability to Ashoka University’s academic and residential life programme. The candidate will be interviewed by a panel of two members. The time taken for the interview might vary depending on the interaction. The Ashoka Aptitude Test will be administered on the day of the interview and will be conducted at the interview venue.

FEES Rs. 9, 87, 000 (Per Year including all expenses)


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7. MIT-World Peace University, Pune

COURSE: B.A. Hons. (Psychology)

NO. OF SEATS 60

ELIGIBILITY

XII or HSC passed preferably from Arts or Science streams with minimum 60% marks (50% for SC/ ST). Any other educational background (apart from Arts & Science streams) may be acceptable with minimum of 60% marks (50% for SC/ ST).

STAGES 1. UG-PET Entrance Exam 2. Personal Interview

SELECTION

CRITERIA

Total Marks - 200

1. UG-PET Entrance Exam - 100 Marks 2. Personal Interview – 50 Marks 3. Academic Credentials – 50 Marks

PATTERN

1. UG-PET Entrance Exam- 100 Marks

Number of Questions: 1. General Awareness – 25 Qs 2. Logical Reasoning – 25 Qs 3. Quantitative Aptitude (Basic) – 25 Qs 4. Verbal Ability – 25 Qs Total – 100 Qs (MCQ) Marking Scheme: Right Answer: +1 Maximum Marks: 100

2. Personal Interview – Total 50 Marks

Communication (10 marks) Knowledge (10 marks) Attitude (10 marks) Extra-curricular activities (10 marks) Personality/overall presentation (10 marks)

3. Academic Credentials – 50 Marks

10th marks 11th/12th marks

FEES Rs. 1, 00, 000 (Per Year)

ENGLISH HONS.

Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (CET Eng. Hons.)

Jamia Milia Islamia University of English & Foreign language, Hyderabad Christ University Integrated MA in English Studies IIT Chennai Banaras Hindu University Presidency University, Kolkata


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1. Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (CET Eng. Hons.)

COURSES: BA Hons English


Candidates with an aggregate* of 50% marks in 10 + 2 level examination from recognized state and central government board (for example, C.B.S.E) with compulsory English at 10+2 level

STAGES Admission shall be on the basis of the merit of the written test / Common Entrance Test (CET)

MODE ONLINE NO. OF SEATS 150

PATTERN

General English (50%) Literary Aptitude (30%) & General Awareness (20%).

EXAM DATE 10th September 2020 (This year) Normally May/June

ORDER OF

PREFERENCE OF

COLLEGES (EXAM

SPECIFIC)

1. Vivekanand Institute of Professional Studies, Pitampura Cut off 2020: Maximum Year Rank For Delhi: 508 & For Outside Delhi: 218

2. Fairfield Institute of Management & Technology, Kapashera Cut off 2020: Maximum Year Rank For Delhi: 554 & For Outside Delhi: 248


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2. Jamia Milia Islamia


STAGES Entrance NO. OF SEATS 60


Pass in 12th Class of 10+2 of CBSE or equivalent with a minimum of 50% marks in aggregate* and must also have passed English (core or elective or functional) as a subject.

DATE OF EXAM October-November 2020 (This Year), Normally in June/July

PATTERN

Part A: Objective – 40 Marks, 40 Questions on 1 mark each Part B: Subjective – 60 Marks, Unseen Passages for Comprehension – 20 marks, Grammar & Vocabulary- 10 marks and Essay – 30 Marks.

ELIGIBILITY Senior Sec. School Certificate or an equivalent examination with not less than 50% marks in aggregate or in the subject concerned.


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3. University of English & Foreign language, Hyderabad

COURSES:

B.A. (Hons.) English B.A. (Hons.) Foreign Languages

No. of STAGES – 1 Written Test in 2nd Week of MARCH MODE Online NO. OF SEATS TOTAL – 100

ELIGIBILITY Pass in the Intermediate/10+2 examination or its equivalent, with 50% marks for general/OBC candidates, and 45% marks for SC/ST category candidates, with English as one of the subjects.

PATTERN

Section A - Grammar (15 marks) Section B - Vocabulary (10 marks) Section C- Reading (15 marks) Section D- Writing (10 marks) Section E- General Knowledge (10 marks) Section F- Reasoning (20 marks) Section G- Literature (20 marks) Total Duration: 120 Minutes


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4. Christ University

COURSES BA Hons (English)

STAGES

1. Aptitude Test 2. Skill Assessment Test and Personal Interview

MODE ONLINE NO. OF SEATS NA PATTERN Test Pattern will be updated by March 2021 for next year ELIGIBILITY Basic eligibility for the programme is a pass at the +2 level in any stream

(Humanities, Social Sciences, Commerce & Management, Sciences) from any recognised Board in India.


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5. Integrated MA in English Studies IIT Chennai

COURSES: Integrated M.A. in Development Studies Integrated M.A. in English Studies

STAGES - 1 Selection will be based on The Humanities and Social Sciences Entrance Examination (HSEE)

MODE Online + OFFLINE ESSAY WRITING NO. OF SEATS 52 Seats – Each stream will have 26 seats.


The final examination of the 10+2 system, conducted by a Central or State Board recognized by the Association of Indian Universities. Candidates belonging to the General, GEN-EWS and OBC-NCL category must secure a minimum of 60% aggregate marks in the qualifying examination. Candidates belonging to SC, ST and PwD categories must secure a minimum of 55% aggregate marks in the qualifying examination.

ENTRANCE DATE 9th September, 2020. (Usually April 3rd or 4th Week)

PATTERN

3 Hours Written Exam in 2 parts: Part I – ONLINE Objective (2.5 Hours)

(i) English and Comprehension Skill (ii) Analytical and Quantitative Ability (iii) General Studies covering the areas of Indian Economy, Indian Society and Culture, World Affairs (iv) Environment and Ecology. Part II - Essay Writing (30 Minutes): Part II requires the candidates to write an essay on general topic involving description, or/and reflection or/and discussion. Negative marks may be awarded for incorrect answers in Part I.


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6. Banaras Hindu University

COURSES BA Hons English

STAGES - 2 Admission is through counseling based on the rank obtained in (BHU-UET).

MODE ONLINE (Offline Till 2017) NO. OF SEATS 130

PATTERN

There shall be one Paper of 120 minutes (Two hours) duration carrying 360 marks containing 120 multiple-choice questions. These questions shall be based on General knowledge and Current Affairs (60 MCQs), General Mental Ability/Reasoning (15 MCQs), Numerical Ability (15 MCQs) and Language Comprehension (30 MCQs).

ENTRANCE DATE Second Week MAY ELIGIBILITY

Passed 10+2 or equivalent Examination securing a minimum of 50% marks in the aggregat

CRITERIA FOR

SELECTION Final Merit List is compiled after the counselling


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7. Presidency University, Kolkata


STAGES – 1 Written Test MODE OFFLINE NO. OF SEATS 30

PATTERN

1. One hour on-line test consisting of 40 multiple-choice questions: 30 MCQs on English language and 10 MCQs on English literature. There will be negative marking.

2. One-and-half hour pen-and-paper written test comprising an essay (50 marks) and a critical appreciation of an unseen poem (50 marks).

ENTRANCE DATE 2nd Week June

ELIGIBILITY Candidate must have secured minimum 80% (Arts) or 85% (Science or Commerce) marks and 75% marks in English

LIBERAL ARTS

Symbiosis School for Liberal Arts Jyoti Dalal School of Liberal Arts Jindal School of Liberal Arts and Humanities FLAME University, Pune


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1. Symbiosis School for Liberal Arts

COURSE: Bachelor of Arts (Liberal Arts Degree) & Bachelor of Science (Liberal Arts Degree)

ELIGIBILITY

CBSE, ICSE, and HSC: Students should have passed with at least 50% (Open Category) and 45% (SC, ST) in the 12th Standard.

STAGES - 2

1. Symbiosis Entrance Test (SET) 2. Written Ability Test (WAT) and Personal Interview (PI)

MODE ONLINE (Offline Till 2017) NO. OF SEATS 100

PATTERN

Symbiosis Entrance Test (SET)


1. General Awareness – 20 Qs (instead of 40 questions) 2. Logical Reasoning – 15 Qs (instead of 30 questions) 3. Quantitative Aptitude – 20 Qs (instead of 40 questions) 4. Verbal Ability – 20 Qs (instead of 40 questions) Total – 75 Qs (MCQ) instead of 150 Questions

Marking Scheme: No Negative Marking Right Answer: +1 Maximum Marks: 75 (instead of 150)

Total Duration: 75 Minutes (instead of 150 Minutes) Written Ability Test (WAT)

Total Duration: 30 Minutes Word Limit: None Weightage – 50% REMARKS

Candidates are made to write an essay on subjective or topics of current relevance. The topics presented are not very complex and usually an option of 4-5 topics is provided. Personal Interview (PI)

Duration - PIs are 10 minutes each. Weightage – 50% Extra-curricular and Personal Focused.

ENTRANCE DATE 26 July-29 July 2020

CRITERIA FOR

SELECTION

Final Merit List is compiled from the overall score of: 1. SET Score 2. WAT + Personal Interview Note: All candidates will have to register for the General Paper of the SET (Symbiosis Entrance Test).

PREVIOUS/POTENTIAL

CHANGES/SPECIAL

Symbiosis SET BBA exam tested the aptitude of the candidates through an online computer based entrance test conducted in the remote-


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REMARKS

proctored manner. As such, a number of changes were introduced in the SET BBA 2020 exam pattern. Candidates were required to have a desktop/laptop and an internet question to attempt the exam from a location of their convenience. It was of 105 minutes test, which was divided into two parts; first 75 minutes for MCQ section followed by 30 minutes for WAT. SET General 2020: Changes in Exam Pattern Total number of questions reduced to 75 from 150 Test duration reduced to 75 minutes from earlier 150 minutes Maximum Marks reduced to 75 from 150 earlier

Special Remarks

The Verbal Ability section consisted of 20 questions divided across Reading Comprehension, Grammar and Vocabulary. Reading Comprehension: There was one passage followed by 5 questions. The topic of discussion was “foreign policy” and the length of the passage was approximately 200 to 250 words. One question was vocabulary based, one was a specific detail question and the other three were inference based questions. Overall the passage was of easy to moderate difficulty level. Vocabulary: There was a variety of vocabulary question types including synonyms and antonyms, fill in the blanks, one word substitution, identify the correct spelling, idioms and phrasal verbs. The words were not highly uncommon and could have been attempted by a well prepared student. Grammar: Grammar was tested in two formats: Sentence Correction and Fill in the Blanks. Concepts like prepositions, conjunctions and verbs were tested and the sentences were very short and simple, making it easy to attempt these questions in around a minute per question. Overall, the difficulty level was easy to moderate. The Quantitative Aptitude section was the easiest among others. Candidates expected it to be the most difficult and with majority questions from Arithmetic. These questions were from Percentages, Simple interest and Compound interest, Profit and Loss, Averages, Allegations, Time and Work and Time Speed Distance. Except a question from SICI, all questions were simple and straight forward. In addition to this, there were questions on Probability, Set Theory, Surds and Indices and Number series, which were again easy. There were 2 questions on Data Interpretation and 1 question on data sufficiency. Overall, the difficulty level was Easy. Like every year, General Awareness section followed its trend of asking unconventional questions. There were a total of 20 questions, almost equally distributed between Current Affairs and Static GK. Static GK questions were based on World History (World War-I,


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Perestroika); Geography (related to Port Blair, waterfall in Meghalaya); Important Organizations (Prasar Bharati, UNICEF, DRDO), and Art & Culture (main language of Kerala, Pawl Kut festival of Mizoram). Current Affairs questions were based on Awards & Recognitions (Times Next 100 list, Dada Saheb Phalke award); Persons in News (Chief of Defense Staff, Indian-American nominated to IBRD); International Affairs (Russian war medal to Kim Jong-Un) and Sports. The Current Affairs section was easy to moderate, while Static GK section was Moderate to Difficult. That’s takes the overall difficulty level of GK section to Moderate-Difficult. The Logical Reasoning section had similar types of questions to those of last year’s SET General exam. There were 5 questions on Puzzles, 2 questions on Coding-Decoding, 2 questions on Direction Sense, 1 question on Blood Relations and 1 question on Calendar. All the questions very straight forward. There were 2 questions each on Statement – Course of Action and Syllogisms. Overall, this section was the easiest one. Overall difficulty level of the paper was easy to moderate.

FEES Rs. 3,85,000 P.A.


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2. Jyoti Dalal School of Liberal Arts

COURSE: B.A. (Hons) – Liberal Arts

NUMBER OF SEATS 80

ELIGIBILITY

The Candidate must have passed 10+2 or equivalent examination including CBSE/HSC/ International Baccalaureate Diploma (IB certificate / & D.P. awarded candidates are not eligible) /ISC in any stream from a recognized Board in the first attempt and should have obtained a minimum of 60% aggregate marks.

STAGES - 2

1. Written Test - NMIMS Programs After Twelfth (NPAT) 2. Short Written Test and Personal Interview (June)

MODE Online ENTRANCE DATE 26th, 27th and 28th June 2020

PATTERN

Number of Questions: 120 1. Logical Reasoning – 40 Qs 2. Quantitative Aptitude – 40 Qs 3. Verbal Ability – 40 Qs Total – 120 Qs (MCQ) Marking Scheme: No Negative Marking Right Answer: +1 Maximum Marks: 120 Total Duration: 100 Minutes NPAT 2020 was remote proctored exam which was conducted over three days i.e. 26th, 27th and 28th June 2020. Candidates had the choice of appearing for the test two times and the best score out of two was considered for the further examination process.

CRITERIA FOR

SELECTION

Final Merit List is compiled from the overall score of:

1. NPAT Score 2. Short Written+ Personal Interview

PREVIOUS/POTENTIAL

CHANGES/SPECIAL

REMARKS

1. There was no Sectional Time in 2020 same like 2019 and Duration of the paper was 100 minutes same like 2019.

2. Sectional time limit was introduced in 2017 (LR – 45 minutes, QA – 45 minutes and VA – 30 minutes) and Duration of the paper was reduced from 120 Minutes to 100 Minutes. 2016 : Time Duration – 120 Minutes (No Sectional Time Limit)

2017 : Time Duration – 120 Minutes (Sectional Time Limit)

LR – 45 minutes QA – 45 minutes VA – 30 minutes 2018 : Time Duration – 100 Minutes (No Sectional Time Limit)




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3. Topic-wise split of questions was provided beforehand on the university's website along with the application form and was largely followed in the exam. 2016 : Total Questions - 150 (QA - 50, VA - 50, LR – 50)





4. There was NO NEGATIVE MARKING in this exam like last year.

Special Remarks

Quant and Numerical Ability section were of moderate to difficult, difficulty level. Candidates without Mathematics in class 12 could find it difficult to attempt and score high in this section. There were a few lengthy questions of good difficulty in this section. There were 6-7 questions from Statistics, 4-5 questions on Functions, 3-4 questions on Trigonometry, 4 questions on Set-Theory, 3-4 questions on Percentage, 3-4 questions on Profit & Loss, 2-3 questions on fraction, 2 questions on quadratic equation. There were 1-2 questions from topics like Ratio and Proportion, Surds & Indices, Time – Speed & Distance, SI CI, Algebra, Mensuration and BODMAS.

Logical Reasoning was a fairly standard section with mixed topics. There were 3 DI case lets (Pie chart-4 questions, Graph – 2 questions, Tables – 4 questions) with total 10 questions, 5 questions each on selection criteria (set based), 4 questions were from data sufficiency, 4 Questions on Syllogism, 3-4 questions on Logical Inequalities, 3-4 questions from Visual Reasoning, 2-3 questions on Venn Diagram, 1-2 questions from Mathematical Operations, Family Tree, Ranking. 1 question from each topics like Linear Arrangement and Cubes. There were 2 questions on Statement Argument Statement Assumption. The questions were time consuming, as few of them were tricky. Overall, this section was easy-moderate.

Verbal Ability Section was dominated by Reading Comprehension and Grammar. There were 3 RC with total 15 questions. 3 RC passages on Day 1 were based on topics like Astrology, Environment – Recycle and reusage of Paper and Upcycle of Apparels/Fashion. So, they were based on variety of topics like astrology, environment, fashion, economy, online platform etc. RC passages were easy, but one of the passages was tricky. 15-17 questions were from Vocabulary, Prepositions, Conjunctions and Tenses, Sentence Correction based on tenses, Tenses, Subject-Verb Agreement, Missing Pronoun, Indefinite Pronoun, Error Identification and Parallelism. 5 questions from Para-Jumbles, 4-5 questions on Idioms and Phrases: Sentence Based, Identification of meaning based on usage. Overall they were moderate to difficult.


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Overall, the paper was of moderate difficulty level but the challenge was to manage the time effectively.

FEES Rs. 4,25,000 P.A.


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3. Jindal School of Liberal Arts and Humanities

COURSE: B.A. (Hons.) Liberal Arts and Humanities

NUMBER OF SEATS 160

ELIGIBILITY

Applicants to the B.A. (Hons.) Liberal Arts & Humanities at JSLH should have completed the 10+2 level of schooling or its equivalent with minimum 60% aggregate marks. Students must also submit a 1,000-word personal statement about why you want to study Liberal Arts at JSLH. This essay should give the reader a sense of your passions, goals, and personality.

STAGES - 3

1. Jindal Scholastic Aptitude Test (JSAT) – 55% of equivalent (SAT, ACT)

2. All students must submit a 1,000-word Personal Statement about why you want to study Liberal Arts and why you want to study at JSLH. This essay should give the reader a sense of your passions, goals, and personality.

3. Interview - Short listed candidates will be interviewed in person or over the phone.

MODE Online

PATTERN

Number of Questions: 120 English Verbal – 40% Logical Reasoning – 40% Quantitative Skills – 20% Total – 120 Qs (MCQ) Marking Scheme: No Negative Marking Right Answer: +1 Maximum Marks: 120 Total Duration: 120 Minutes

ADMISSION

PROCEDURE

Jindal Scholastic Aptitude Test (JSAT) is conducted by JGU as a screening test for its undergraduate programmes. It is an Online Test comprising of 120 Multiple Choice Questions covering logical reasoning, quantitative aptitude (Math) and verbal ability (English). Weightage for each category will be based on the chosen JGU programme of study.

FEES Rs. 6,50,000 per year


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4. FLAME University, Pune

COURSE: B.A. (Hons.) Liberal Arts and Humanities

NUMBER OF SEATS NA

ELIGIBILITY

In the case of Higher Secondary School Certificate or State Boards, CBSE and ICSE, 40% marks in 12th standard with English as one of the subjects is the minimum requirement. If you wish to pursue BBA subsequently, 45% is the minimum requirement in 12th standard.

SELECTION PROCESS

The goal of our assessment process is to select best performing and well-rounded applicants who can contribute and enhance the learning experience at FLAME University. We have an internal assessment process which considers the following aspects of your application: Aptitude Test (FEAT/SAT)

Essay

One-way Video Interview

Past Academic Record Extracurricular activities/ achievements Statement of Purpose (SOP) Note: FEAT and Essay/Interview are conducted Online on the same day.

PATTERN

FEAT is a written examination divided into 4 sections given below: Section 1: Verbal Ability – 40 Questions (50 marks)

o Vocabulary - 10 questions (10 marks) o Grammar and Usage - 10 questions (10 marks) o Reading Comprehension - 12 questions (18 marks) o Writing Composition - 8 questions (12 marks)

Section 2: Reasoning (Analytical and Logical) - 20 questions (40

marks)

Section 3: Quantitative Ability - 20 questions (30 marks)

Section 4: General Knowledge - 20 questions (20 marks)

Marking Scheme: No Negative Marking Total duration: 120 minutes.

For candidates who have submitted their SAT/ACT scores, only Essay / One-way Video Interview will be conducted (FEAT is optional for them). Essay: During the online assessment, you will be required to complete an essay, the topic of which will be provided on the spot. You are required to complete your essay in ~200-250 words. You will be given 20 minutes for the on-the-spot essay. One-way Video Interview: This part of the admission process will also be conducted online right after you complete the FLAME Entrance Aptitude Test (FEAT) and the Essay. During the One-way Video Interview, you will

https://www.flame.edu.in/admissions/ug/selection-process


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be required to record your responses to three questions. For each question you will be given 30 seconds to gather your thoughts. You will have to express your thoughts for each question in not more than 90 seconds. Thus, the total time for the One-way Video Interview will be 6 minutes. The video interview questions will appear one at a time on your screen and you will be asked to record an answer for each. Possible questions may include your reasons for applying to FLAME, your passions, your role model, your learnings from mistakes you have made, etc. Your responses will help the admissions team know more about you, your personality, your communication skills and your clarity of thought. It is meant to give you an opportunity to express what may not be stated in your application. To appear for the online selection process, you are required to carry your AADHAR card or PAN card or Passport. This will serve as an identity proof for you to attend FLAME University’s online admission process. Only originals shall be treated as valid proof of identity. You are required to keep the same handy during the entire online admission process. Please ensure that you start the online admission process at your scheduled time.

BCA

Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (CET BCA) Bharatiya Vidyapeeth University All India Management Association


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1. Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University (CET BCA)

COURSES: Bachelor of Computer Application (BCA)

NO. OF STAGES – 1 Written Test – IPU CET MODE Online NO. OF SEATS TOTAL – 1110


Candidates should have passed 12th CBSE or an equivalent examination with a minimum of 50% marks in aggregate with a pass in English (core or elective or functional) and Mathematics or Computer Science / Informatics Practice / Computer Applications.

SC/ST/PWD Category: Minimum 45% aggregate marks in Class 12th or equivalent exam.

Candidate applying for IPU CET BCA must be citizens of India. The age of the candidate should not be beyond 21 years. Candidates belonging to reserved categories (SC, ST & OBC) are

given a relaxation of 2 years on the maximum age.

PATTERN


Numerical aptitude – 30% Qs English and Comprehension – 15% Qs Computer Awareness – 30% Qs General Knowledge- IT and Science related – 25% Qs Marking Scheme: Maximum Marks: 600


WEIGHTAGE Based on Qualifying exam ENTRANCE DATE 11

th

September 2020

ORDER OF

PREFERENCE OF

COLLEGES (EXAM

SPECIFIC)

The Best Top 10 Colleges of IPU for Bachelor of Computer Application (BCA) are: 1. Maharaja Surajmal Institute, Janakpuri 2. Vivekananda Institute of Professional Studies, Pitampura 3. Jagannath International Management School, Vasant Kunj 4. Institute of Information Technology & Management, Janakpuri 5. Jagan Institute of Management Studies, Rohini 6. Institute of Innovation in Technology & Management, Janakpuri 7. Trinity Institute of Professional Studies, Dwarka 8. Integrated Institute of Technology, Dwarka 9. Ambedkar Institute of Technology, Shakarpur 10. Chanderprabhu Jain college of Higher Studies, Narela


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2. Bharati Vidyapeeth University


NO. OF STAGES – 1 Written Test - BUMAT MODE Online NO. OF SEATS TOTAL – 570


Candidates who wish to fill BUMAT 2020 Application form need to fulfill the following eligibility criteria: The candidate must be an Indian National The candidate must have cleared Class 12 or equivalent

examination with 45 per cent aggregate (40 per cent marks for SC/ST) from a recognized board

PATTERN


Numerical aptitude – 60 Qs Logical Reasoning – 60 Qs Reading Comprehension – 20 Qs Verbal Ability - 60 Qs Marking Scheme: Maximum Marks: 200

Right Answer: +1 Wrong Answer: 0 No sectional time limits Total Duration: 150 Minutes

WEIGHTAGE Based on Qualifying exam BUMAT 2020 exam 19

th

August 2020


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3. All India Management Association


NO. OF STAGES – 1 Written Test – AIMA UGAT

MODE

1. Offline (Paper based test) 2. Online (Remote proctored internet-based test) Students can choose any ONE of the modes to apply.

PATTERN


English Language – 40 Qs Numerical and Data Analysis – 30 Qs Reasoning and Intelligence – 30 Qs General Knowledge – 30 Qs Marking Scheme: Maximum Marks: 130

Right Answer: +1 Wrong Answer: - 0.25 Total Duration: 120 Minutes

ELIGIBILITY

CRITERIA

The candidate must have cleared 10+2 from a recognized board The aspirants should have secured at least 50% marks at 10+2 level Candidates waiting for their results can also apply The aspirant should be at least 17 years of age while appearing for the

exam

OTHERS

Indian Statistical Institute, Bangalore Indian Statistical Institute, Kolkata


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1. Indian Statistical Institute, Bangalore

COURSES: B. Maths (Hons)

STAGES - 2

1. Entrance Exam – ISI Test 2. Interview

MODE Offline NO. OF SEATS 50 ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA

The candidate must be Qualified in 12th or other equivalent examination with Mathematics and English as subjects.

PATTERN

Part 1– MCQ type question – 30 Qs Part 2 – Descriptive Test – 08 Qs Marking Scheme: Maximum Marks: 100

Part 1 – 30 marks Part 2 – 70 marks Total Duration: 120 Minutes (MCQ) + 120 Minutes (Descriptive)

QUALIFYING CUT OFFS General – 50 marks OBC – 45 marks SC/ST/PWD – 40 marks

CUT-OFF

General – UGA 69/120 & UGB 30/80 OBC – UGA 62.1/120 & UGB 27/80 SC/ST/PWD – UGA 55.2/120 & UGB 24/80


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2. Indian Statistical Institute, Kolkata

COURSES: B. Stats (Hons)

STAGES - 2 1. Entrance Exam 2. Interview

MODE Offline NO. OF SEATS 50 ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA The candidate must be Qualified in 12th or other equivalent examination

with Mathematics and English as subjects. PATTERN Part 1– MCQ type question – 30 Qs

Part 2 – Descriptive Test – 08 Qs Marking Scheme: Maximum Marks: 100

Part 1 – 30 marks Part 2 – 70 marks Total Duration: 120 Minutes (MCQ) + 120 Minutes (Descriptive)

QUALIFYING CUT OFFS General – 50 marks OBC – 45 marks SC/ST/PWD – 40 marks


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The SAT is a standardized exam that evaluates the mathematical, writing and reading prowess of a candidate. It is designed for high-school students looking for a college education, and the exam is meant to test the candidate’s ability to solve/analyze problems. Each section is marked in the range of 200-800 points, and the final score ranges from 400-1600. Moreover, the written essay is scored on a scale of 0-24 and varies incrementally.

Eligibility: 1. College Board, a private, not-for-profit Corporation in the US owns and publishes the SAT, and does

not prescribe any prerequisites for the exam. 2. College Board does not specify any age requirement; however, a valid Indian passport is a must to

appear for the exam 3. One needs a debit/credit card with international currency support enabled to be able to register for

the exam. SAT Exam Pattern

Components Details

SAT Format SAT (Reasoning Test) SAT Subject Test Duration Three Hours (SAT without Essay) 3 Hours and 50

minutes (SAT with Essay) Number of Sections in SAT (Reasoning ) Test

Evidence-Based Reading and Writing, Reading Test, Writing and Language Test, Mathematics and Essay (optional)

Overall score range of SAT (Reasoning) Test

400-1600

Total number of questions in SAT (Reasoning) Test

154 questions + 1 (optional essay)

Type of examination Mostly objective Number of Subjects in SAT Subject Test 20 Overall score range of SAT Subject Test 200-800

Comparison OLD VS NEW SAT

Old

SAT

Section

Time

allotted

(Minutes)

Number

of

Questions

New

SAT

Section

Time

allotted

(Minutes)

Number

of

Questions

Critical Reading

70 67 Reading 65 52

Writing 60 49 Writing and Language

35 44

Essay 25 1 Essay

(optional) 50 1

Mathematics 70 54 Mathematics 80 58

Total 225 171 Total

180 (230

with

Essay)

154 (155

with

Essay)


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Detailed description of SAT (Reasoning) test pattern

Writing and

Language

This section includes a short essay and multiple-choice questions on identifying errors and improving English grammar and usage. This section needs to be completed within 35 minutes and consists of 44 questions.

Reading

As per the SAT exam pattern 2020, this section includes several reading passages and sentence completions. It is again divided into three sub-sections. The questions asked in this section are based on either short passage reading or long passage reading. The questions are based on multiple choice questions (MCQ). These questions measure aspirants’ understanding capability. According to the SAT 2020 exam pattern, 65 minutes is allotted to this section for attempting 52 questions.

Mathematics

This section includes questions on basic Arithmetic Operations, Algebra, Geometry, Statistics, and Probability. SAT exam pattern 2020 allows test takers 80 minutes to solve 58 questions.

Section Wise Pattern

Section Duration Questions Scoring

Evidence-Based

Reading Writing

65-minute Reading section 52 Questions (Reading)

200-800

35-minute Writing and Language section 44 Questions (Writing and

Language)

Mathematics

25-minute No Calculator section 20 Questions (No

Calculator)

200-800

55-minute Calculator section 38 Questions (Calculator)

Special Remarks 1. International registration deadlines apply to anyone testing outside of the United States and U.S.

territories. 2. Deadlines expire at 11:59 p.m. Eastern Time, U.S. 3. There is no late registration for international testing. Online and telephone registrations must be

completed by the international deadlines listed above. 4. Mailed registration forms must be received by the international deadlines listed above. 5. If you register through an international representative, you need to submit your paper registration

with payment by the early registration deadline. 6. There are specific deadlines for making changes if students are testing outside the U.S. The deadline

for making changes is also noted on the Admission Ticket.


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7. International students should call Customer Service by the international change deadline to make changes to their registration including adding a Language with Listening Test or selecting a different Language with Listening Test.

8. Sunday administrations for students who cannot test on Saturday due to religious observance usually occur the day after each Saturday test date.

9. You can't take the SAT Subject Tests and the SAT on the same test date. 10. When you register, you must tell us which SAT Subject Test(s) you plan to take. You can change

your mind on test day, with limits. 11. You can take only one Biology Subject Test per test date. After the first 60 questions, you have to

choose either Biology Ecological or Biology Molecular; you can't take both. 12. You can use calculators only on the Mathematics Level 1 and Level 2 Subject Tests. 13. The Language with Listening tests are offered only in November. 14. The Language with Listening tests are always given in the first hour of testing. You can take only one

Language with Listening test per test date. 15. As per the SAT exam pattern, there is no negative marking for the incorrect answer, so

candidates can safely guess an answer. 16. SAT Subject tests are taken for a specific subject. SAT 2019 Subject Tests are hour-long, content-

based exams that assess a candidate's strength in specific subjects. Questions cover topics emphasized in most high school courses. The total number of subject options are 20 and all

the questions are based on MCQ. SAT Fees 1. The basic fee for the exam is $52, but it varies based on the country of the applicant. 2. For Indian applicants, the fee for SAT comes out to be approx $106 (with written essay), or approx

$94 (without essay). 3. In Indian Rupees, the SAT exam fee is around 6200-7000 INR. 4. Apart from the general SAT, one can sit for subject SATs which can be useful under certain

circumstances. 5. The fee for subject SATs comes out to be approx $111, though the importance of subject tests is

gradually diminishing in general

PRATHAM Test Prep Head Office & Study Centre:

HS-13, Kailash Colony Main Market, South Delhi New Delhi 110048

Tel: 9999975392, 011-42666000 Email: [email protected] Login: www.prathamonline.com

YouTube: https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCKvtiFIEAzBEaueoJ4MzUjg

mailto:[email protected]

http://www.prathamonline.com/

https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCKvtiFIEAzBEaueoJ4MzUjg

Entrance Exams 2020-21 (Patterns and Analysis)

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