Directions - Bergen · AP Physics 2 Summer Work 1 Name _____ Directions Please complete all...

AP Physics 2 Summer Work

1

Name ____________________________________

Directions

Please complete all multiple choice. Questions are arranged by topic. You may look back at your Physics Honors notes for help or consult https://njctl.org/courses/science/algebra-based-physics/ for help on specific topics.

SHOW ALL WORK. You will be graded on the work you show. Simply circling all the correct answers will earn NO credit.

Fluids


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Name ____________________________________

1 Two substances A with a density 2000 kg/m3 and B with a density 3000 kg/m3 are selected for an experiment. If the experiment requires equal masses of each liquid, what is the ratio of substance A volume to substance B volume (VA/VB )?

A 1/2

B 1/3

C 2/3

D 3/2

E 3/1

2 The density of a substance is , the volume is V, and the mass is m. If the volume is tripled without changing the density, what is the mass?

A m/3

B m

C 3m

D 6m

E 9m


3

Name ____________________________________

3 A perpendicular force is applied to a certain area and produces a pressure P. If the same force is applied to a twice bigger area, the new pressure on the surface is:

A 2P

B 4P

C P

D P/2

E P/4

4 There are two round tables in the physics classroom: one with the radius of 1 m the other with a radius of 2m. What is the relationship between the two forces applied on the tabletops by the atmospheric pressure (F1/F2)?

A 1/2

B 1/4

C 2/1

D 4/1

E 1/6


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5 Three containers are used in a chemistry lab. All containers have the same bottom area and the same height. A chemistry student fills each of the containers with the same liquid to the maximum volume. Which of the following is true about the pressure on the bottom in each container?

A P1 > P2 > P3

B P1 < P2 < P3

C P1 < P2 > P3

D P1 > P2 < P3

E P1 = P2 = P3

6 What is the gauge pressure at the bottom of a pool 3m deep?

A 30 Pa

B 300 Pa

C 3000 Pa

D 30,000 Pa

E 300,000 Pa


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Name ____________________________________

7 Which of the following scientists invented a mercury barometer?

A Blaise Pascal

B Evangelist Torricelli

C Amedeo Avogadro

D Robert Brown

E James Joule

8 A car driver measures a tire pressure of 220 kPa. What is the absolute pressure in the tire?

A 321 kPa

B 119 kPa

C 0 kPa

D 101 kPa

E 220 kPa


6

Name ____________________________________

9 In a hydraulic lift the small piston has an area of 2 cm2 and large piston has an area of 80 cm2. What is the mechanical advantage of the hydraulic lift?

A 40

B 4

C 2

D 1

E 20

10 A hydraulic lift is used to lift a car. The small piston has a radius of 5 cm and the large piston has a radius of 50 cm. If a driver applies a force of 88 N to the small piston, what is the weight of the car the large piston can support?

A 880 N

B 88 N

C 8800 N

D 8.8 N

E 88000 N


7

Name ____________________________________

11 Three blocks of equal volume are completely submerged into water. The blocks made of different materials: aluminum, iron and lead. Which of the following is the correct statement about the buoyant force on each block? (aluminum = 2700 kg/m3, iron = 7800 kg/m3, lead = 11300 kg/m3)

A Faluminum > Firon > Flead

B Faluminum < Firon < Flead

C Faluminum < Firon > Flead

D Faluminum = Firon = Flead

E Faluminum > Firon < Flead

12 A piece of iron has a weight of 3.5 N when it is in air and 2.0 N when it is submerged into water. What is the buoyant force on the piece of iron?

A 3.5 N

B 2.0 N

C 1.5 N

D 1.0 N

E 0.5 N


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Name ____________________________________

13 Physics students use a spring scale to measure the weight of a piece of lead. The experiment was performed two times one in air the other in water. If the volume of lead is 0.0005 m3, what is the difference between two readings on the scale?

A 0.5 N

B 5.0 N

C 50 N

D 500 N

E 0 N

14 A wooden block with a weight of 7.5 N is placed on water. When the block floats on the surface of water it is partially submerged in water. What is the weight of the displaced water?

A 5.0 N

B 5.5 N

C 6.0 N

D 7.0 N

E 7.5 N


9

Name ____________________________________

15 An object with a density of 800 kg/m3 floats on water. What portion of the object is submerged?

A 1/16

B 1/8

C 1/4

D 2/5

E 4/5

16 A wooden block with a weight of 9 N is placed on water. When the block floats on the surface of water it is partially submerged in water. What is the volume of the displaced water?

A 5x10-4 m3

B 4x10-4 m3

C 3x10-4 m3

D 6x10-4 m3

E 9x10-4 m3


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Name ____________________________________

17 Water flows at a constant speed of 16 m/s through narrow section of the pipe. What is the speed of water in the section of the pipe where its radius is twice of the initial radius?

A 16 m/s

B 12 m/s

C 8 m/s

D 4 m/s

E 2 m/s

18 Venturi tubes have three sections with different radii. Which of the following is true about manometer readings?

A P1 > P2 > P3

B P1 < P2 < P3

C P2 < P1 < P3

D P1 < P2 > P3

E P3 = P2 = P1


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Name ____________________________________

19 Water flows through a horizontal pipe at a speed of 5 m/s and pressure 5x105 Pa. The pipe narrows and the water speed goes up to a 25 m/s. What is the pressure in the narrow section of the pipe?

A 2x105 Pa

B 4x105 Pa

C 8x105 Pa

D 8.25x105 Pa

E 11.5x105 Pa

20 An open bottle is filled with a liquid which is flowing out trough a spigot located at the distance 0.5m below the surface of the liquid. What is the velocity of the liquid leaving the bottle?

A 0.7 m/s

B 2.2 m/s

C 3.13 m/s

D 9.8 m/s

E 19.6 m/s


12

Name ____________________________________

Optics

21 When an object is placed in front of a plane mirror the image is:

A Upright, magnified and real

B Upright, the same size and virtual

C Inverted, demagnified and real

D Inverted, magnified and virtual

E Upright, magnified and virtual


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Name ____________________________________

22 A point object is placed in front of a plane mirror. Which is the correct location of the image produced by the mirror?

A

B

C

D

E

23 A candle is placed in front of a concave mirror. The image produced by the mirror is:

A Real, inverted and magnified

B Real, inverted and demagnified

C Virtual, upright and magnified

D Virtual, upright and demagnified

E Real, upright and magnified


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E Real, upright and magnified






E Real, upright and virtual


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26 A candle is placed in front of a convex mirror. The image produced by the mirror is:





E Real, upright and virtual

27 A very narrow light ray AB strikes the surface of a concave mirror as shown on the diagram. Which of the following diagrams represents the reflected ray?

A B C

D E


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Name ____________________________________

28 A very narrow light ray AB strikes the surface of a concave mirror as shown on the diagram. Which of the following diagrams represents the reflected ray?

A B C

D E

29 A very narrow light ray AB strikes the surface of a convex mirror as shown on the diagram. Which of the following diagrams represents the reflected ray?

A B C

D E


17

Name ____________________________________

30 A light ray AB is incident obliquely on the surface of a glass block. Which of the following diagrams represents the refracted ray?

A B

C D E

31 A light ray AB passes from glass into air at an angle less than the critical angle. Which of the following diagrams represents the refracted ray?

A B

C D E


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Name ____________________________________

32 A light ray AB passes from glass into air at the critical angle. Which of the following diagrams represents the refracted ray?

A B

C D E

33 A boy is trying to catch a fish from a lake. Which of the following diagrams represents the image of the fish observed the boy?

A B C

D E


19

Name ____________________________________

34 Which of the lens or lenses is the converging lens?

A I and V

B II, III, IV

C II and III

D III and IV

E IV and V

35 Which of the lens or lenses is the diverging lens?

A I and V

B II, III, IV

C II and III

D III and IV

E IV and V


20

Name ____________________________________

36 An object is placed in front of a converging lens at a distance greater than 2F. The image produced by the lens is:

A Real, inverted and demagnified

B Real, inverted and magnified



E Virtual, inverted and magnified

37 An object is placed in front of a converging lens at a distance between F and 2F. The image produced by the lens is:







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Name ____________________________________

38 An object is placed in front of a converging lens at a distance less than F. The image produced by the lens is:






39 An object is placed in front of a diverging lens at a distance between F and 2F. The image produced by the lens is:







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40 A light ray is incident on a glass prism with one angle of 90 and the other angle . If is greater than the critical angle for glass-air boundary, which of the following is correct for the emerging ray from the opposite face of the prism?

A B C

D E

Electric Force and Field


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Name ____________________________________

41 Which of the following is the correct force between two negative charges?

A B

C D

E

42 Which of the following is the correct force between two positive charges?

A B

C D

E


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Name ____________________________________

43 Which of the following is the correct force between one positive charge and one negative charge?

A B

C D

E

44 A plastic rod is rubbed with a piece of animal fur. The plastic rod acquires a negative charge during this process. Which of the following is true about the charge on the piece of fur?

A It acquires a positive charge but greater in magnitude than the rod

B It acquires a positive charge but less in magnitude than the rod

C It acquires a negative charge but greater in magnitude than the rod

D It acquires a negative charge but less in magnitude than the rod

E It acquires a positive charge with the same magnitude as the rod


25

Name ____________________________________

45 A positively charged rod is brought close to one end of a neutral metallic plate. What type of charge is induced on the closest side of the plate?

A Positive

B Negative

C Neutral

D It depends of the separation between the rod and plate

E More information about the type of metal is required

46 A positively charged rod is brought close to one end of a neutral metallic plate. What type of charge is induced on the farthest side of the plate?

A Positive

B Negative

C Neutral

D It depends of the separation between the rod and plate

E More information about the type of metal is required


26

Name ____________________________________

47 A positively charged sphere A is brought close without touching to a neutral sphere B. Sphere B is touched with a grounded wire. What is the charge on sphere B after the wire is removed?

A Positive

B Negative

C It stays neutral

D It depends on the contact time

E It depends on the material that sphere B is made of

48 A neutral electroscope is touched with a negatively charged rod. What is the charge on the electroscope after the rod is removed?

A Positive

B Negative

C It stays neutral

D It depends on the contact time

E It depends on the material that the electroscope is made of


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Name ____________________________________

49 A neutral electroscope is touched with a positively carged rod. After the rod is removed the electroscope is charged positively because of:

A Induction

B Conduction

C Thermoemission

D Photoemission

E None from the above

50 A negatively charged rod is brought near an uncharged, grounded electroscope. Which of the following statements is true?

A The positive charge flows from the electroscope to the ground

B The positive charge flows from the ground to the electroscope

C The negative charge flows from the electroscope to the ground

D The negative charge flows from the ground to the electroscope

E The electroscope stays neutral because the rod doesnt touch it


28

Name ____________________________________

51 A positively charged rod is brought near a charged electroscope. As a result of doing this, the electroscope leaves move further apart. What is the charge on the electroscope?

A Positive

B Negative

C It is neutral

D It depends on the distance between the electroscope and the rod


52 A negatively charged rod is brought near a charged electroscope. As a result of doing this, the electroscope leaves move further apart. What is the charge on the electroscope?

A Positive

B Negative

C It is neutral




29

Name ____________________________________

53 A positively charged rod is brought near a charged electroscope. As a result of doing this, the electroscope leaves move closer to each other. What is the charge on the electroscope?

A Positive

B Negative

C It is neutral



54 Two positive charges with magnitudes 4Q and Q are separated by a distance r. Which of the following statements is true?

A The charge with a greater magnitude exerts a larger force on the small charge

B The charge with a greater magnitude exerts a smaller force on the small charge

C The forces on each charge are the same in magnitude and opposite in direction

D The forces on each charge are the same in magnitude and pointing in the same direction


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Name ____________________________________

55 Sphere A is charged positively and sphere B is neutral. The spheres are brought near each other. Which of the following statements is true?

AThere is no electrostatic force between the spheres since one is neutral

BThere is a repulsive electrostatic force between the spheres

CThere is an attractive electrostatic force between the spheres

DThere is a repulsive electrostatic force applied only on sphere B

E More information is required

56 Two positive charges Q1 and Q2 are separated by a distance r. The charges repel each other with a force F. If the magnitude of each charge is doubled and the distance stays unchanged, what is the new force between the charges?

A F B 2 F C 4 F

D F E F


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Name ____________________________________

57 Two positive charges Q1 and Q2 are separated by a distance r. The charges repel each other with a force F. If the distance between the charges is cut to one-fourth, what is the new force acting on each charge?

A 16 F B 2 F C 4 F

D F E F

58 Two charges Q1 and -Q2 are separated by a distance r. The charges attract each other with a force F. What is the new force between the charges if the distance is tripled?

A 16 F B 2 F C 4 F

D F E F


32

Name ____________________________________

59 Two charges Q1 and -Q2 are separated by a distance r. The charges attract each other with a force F. What is the new force between the charges if the distance is cut to one-fourth and the magnitude of each charge is doubled?

A 16 F B 64 F C 48 F

D F E F

60 Sphere A carries a positive charge 4Q and sphere B is neutral. Initially the spheres are separated by a distance r. The spheres briefly touch each other and move to the initial separation. What is the new charge on each sphere?

A Q B 4Q

C Q D Q

E 2Q


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Name ____________________________________

61 Sphere A carries a positive charge 4Q and sphere B is neutral. Initially the spheres are separated by a distance r. The spheres briefly touch each other and move to the initial separation. Which of the following is the correct expression for the force on each sphere after they moved to the original distance, r?

A B

C D

E

62 A positively charged sphere with a charge of +8Q is separated from a negatively charged sphere -2Q by a distance r. The spheres briefly touch each other and move to the original distance r. What is the new charge on each sphere after they move to distance r?

A Q B 2Q

C 3Q D Q

E Q


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Name ____________________________________

63 A positively charged sphere with a charge of +8Q is separated from a negatively charged sphere -2Q by a distance r. There is an attractive force F exerted on each sphere. The spheres briefly touch each other and move to the original distance r. What is the new force on each sphere in terms of F?

A F B F

C F D F

E F

Electric Potential and Potential Energy


35

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64 Which of the following represents the electric field map due to a single positive charge?

A B C

D E

65 Which of the following represents the electric field map due to a single negative charge?

A B C

D E


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Name ____________________________________

66 Which of the following represents the electric field map due to a combination of two positive charges?

A B C

D E

67 Which of the following represents the electric field map due to a combination of two negative charges?

A B C

D E


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Name ____________________________________

68 Which of the following represents the electric field map due to a combination of one positive and one negative charge?

A B C

D E

69 Compare the Gravitational Field and the Electric Field produced by a proton.

A The Gravitational Field is the same strength as the Electric Field.

B The Electric Field is stronger and is in the same direction as the Gravitational Field.

C The Electric Field is stronger and in the opposite direction of the Gravitational Field.

D The Gravitational Field is stronger and is in the same direction as the Electric Field.


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Name ____________________________________

70 Which of the following is a uniform electric field?

A B C

D E

71 An electric field is created by two parallel plates. At which of the following points is the electric field the strongest?

A A

B B

C C

D D

E The electric field is the same at all points


39

Name ____________________________________

72 An electric field is created by two parallel plates Which of the following points corresponds to the higher potential?

A A

B B

C C

D D

E The electric potential is the same at all points

73 A uniform electric field is created by two parallel plates separated by a distance of 0.04 m. What is the magnitude of the electric field established between the plates? A 20 V/m

B 200 V/m

C 2,000 V/m

D 20,000 V/m

E 0 V/m


40

Name ____________________________________

74 An electric field due to a positive charge is represented by the diagram. Which of the following points has higher potential? A A

B B

C C

D D

E E

75 An electric field due to a positive charge is represented by the diagram. At which of the following points is the electric field strongest in magnitude? A A

B B

C C

D D

E E


41

Name ____________________________________

76 An electric field due to a positive charge is represented by the diagram. Between which of the following two points does the electric field do zero work on a moving charge? A A and B

B B and C

C C and D

D D and E

E E and A

77 The electric potential at point A is V. What is the electric potential at point B in terms of V? A 2 V

B 4 V

C V

D V

E V


42

Name ____________________________________

78 The magnitude of the electric field at point A is E. What is the electric field at point B in terms of E? A 3 E

B 9 E

C E

D E

E E

79 A non-uniform electric field is represented by the diagram. At which of the following points is the electric field greatest in magnitude? A A

B B

C C

D D

E E


43

Name ____________________________________

80 A small conducting sphere is placed in a region of a non-uniform electric field. What is the direction of the electric force on the sphere applied by the field? A B C D E

81 A non-uniform electric field is represented by equipotential lines. What is the direction of the electric field at point A?

A B C D E


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Name ____________________________________

82 A non-uniform electric field is represented by equipotential lines. How much work is done by the electric field when a positive charge of magnitude 1 C moves from point A to point E? A 0 J

B 20 J

C 40 J

D 60 J

E 80 J

83 A non-uniform electric field is represented by equipotential lines. A positive charge with a magnitude of 1 C moves in the following path: ABCDEA. How much work is done by the electric field? A 0 J

B 20 J

C 40 J

D 60 J

E 80 J


45

Name ____________________________________

Electric Current

84 The amount of charge flowing through a cross-sectional area of a wire per unit of time is called:

A VoltageB PowerC ResistanceD WorkE Current


46

Name ____________________________________

85 What is the direction of the conventional current through the light bulb in the circuit presented by the diagram above?

A B C

D E Out of the page

86 A wire of length L and cross-sectional area A has a resistivity . Which of the following formulas can be used to calculate the resistance of the wire?

A B C

D E


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Name ____________________________________

87 All of the following wires are made of the same material but are different sizes. Identify the wire with the lowest resistance.

A B C

D E

88 Two copper wires have the same cross-sectional area but have different lengths. Wire X has a length L and wire Y has a length 2L. The ratio between the resistance of wire Y and wire X is:

A B C

D E


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Name ____________________________________

89 Two aluminum wires A and B are presented by the diagram. Wire B has twice the radius of that of wire A. How does the resistance of wire B compare to the resistance of wire A.

A B C

D E

90 Which of the following graphs represents Ohms law for a solid conductor at the constant temperature?

A B

C D E


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Name ____________________________________

91 The electric current as a function of voltage of a wire is presented by the graph. What is the resistance of the wire?

A 1B 0.8 C 1.6 D 0.4 E 0.2

92 The electric current as a function of voltage of a wire is presented by the graph. What is the power dissipated in the resistor when the applied voltage is 5 V?

A 5 WB 10 WC 15 WD 20 WE 25 W


50

Name ____________________________________

93 A group of physics students performs an experiment with electric circuits. Which of the following circuits can be used to measure the electric current and voltage?

A B

C D E

94 When the switch in the circuit presented by the diagram above is open, the voltmeter reading is referred to as:

A Terminal voltageB EMFC CurrentD ResistanceE Power


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Name ____________________________________

95 When the switch in the circuit presented by the diagram above is closed, the voltmeter reading is referred to:

A Terminal voltageB EMFC CurrentD ResistanceE Power

96 An ammeter connected in series with three resistors reads an electric current of 2 A. What is the electric current flowing trough resistor R3?

A 1 AB 2 AC 3 AD 4 AE 5 A


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Name ____________________________________

97 Three resistors: R1 = 3 ,R2 = 6 , and R3 = 9 are connected in series to each other and to a 36 V battery. What is the ammeter reading after the switch is closed?


98 Three resistors: R1 = 5 ,R2 = 3 , and R3 = 4 are connected in series to each other. A voltmeter connected in parallel to resistor R2 measures voltage of 6 V. What is the current through the battery?



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Name ____________________________________

99 Three resistors: R1 = 5 ,R2 = 3 , and R3 = 4 are connected in series to each other. A voltmeter connected in parallel to resistor R2 measures voltage of 6 V. What is the net voltage in the circuit?

A 24 VB 20 VC 16 VD 12 VE 4 V

100 Two resistors R1 = 3 and R2 = 6 are connected in parallel. What is the net resistance in the circuit?

A 1 B 3 C 6 D 2 E 9


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Name ____________________________________

101 Two resistors R1 = 6 and R2 = 12 are connected in parallel to each other and in series to R3 = 2 . What is the net resistance in the circuit?

A 1 B 3 C 6 D 2 E 9

102 Two resistors R1 = 6 and R2 = 12 are connected in parallel to each other and in series to R3 = 2 . An ammeter measures an electric current of 3 A flowing though resistor R3. What is the net voltage applied to the circuit?

A 6 VB 12 VC 18 VD 24 VE 36 V


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Name ____________________________________

103 Two resistors R1 = 6 and R2 = 12 are connected in parallel to each other and in series to R3 = 2 . An ammeter measures an electric current of 3 A flowing though resistor R3. What is the current in 12 resistor?


Magnetism


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Name ____________________________________

104 A magnet bar is divided in two pieces. Which of the following statements is true?

A The magnet bar is demagnetized

B The magnetic field of each separated piece becomes strongerC The magnetic poles are separatedD The two magnets are createdE The electric field is created

105 A magnet bar is divided in two pieces. Which of the following statements is true about the force between the broken pieces if they face each other with a small separation?

A There is an electric repulsive force between the broken pieces

B There is an electric attractive force between the broken pieces

C There is a magnetic repulsive force between the broken pieces

D There is a magnetic attractive force between the broken pieces

E There is no force between the broken pieces since they are demagnetized


57

Name ____________________________________

106 Which of the following magnetic fields is related to a magnetic field of a single magnet bar?

B A

C D

E

107 A DC current produces:

A Magnetic fieldB Electric fieldC Gravitational fieldD Electromagnetic fieldE None from the above


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Name ____________________________________

108 An electric current flows into the page. What is the direction of the magnetic field?

A To the bottom of the pageB To the top of the pageC ClockwiseD Counter-clockwiseE To the right

109 A current-carrying wire is placed perpendicularly to the page. Determine the direction of the electric current from the direction of the magnetic field.

A Into the pageB Out of the pageC ClockwiseD Counter-clockwiseE To the left


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Name ____________________________________

110 A vertical wire carries an electric current into the page. What is the direction of the magnetic field at point P located to the south from the wire?

A WestB NorthC EastD SouthE Down

111 A vertical wire carries an electric current out of the page. What is the direction of the magnetic field at point P located to the west from the wire?

A WestB NorthC EastD SouthE Down


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Name ____________________________________

112 Which of the following diagrams represents the magnetic field due to a circular current?

A B

C D E

113 A straight long wire carries an electric current to the right. The current is placed in a uniform magnetic field directed into the page. What is the direction of the magnetic force on the current?

A LeftB RightC To the bottom of the pageD To the top of the pageE Out of the page


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Name ____________________________________

114 A straight long wire carries an electric current to the top of the page. The current is placed in a uniform magnetic field directed out the page. What is the direction of the magnetic force on the current?

A LeftB RightC To the bottom of the pageD To the top of the pageE Out of the page

115 A straight long wire carries an electric current out the page. The current is placed in a uniform magnetic field directed into the page. What is the direction of the magnetic force on the current?

A LeftB RightC To the bottom of the pageD To the top of the pageE There is no magnetic force on the current


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Name ____________________________________

116 A positive charge moving with a constant velocity v enters a region of a uniform magnetic field pointing out the page. What is the direction of the magnetic force on the charge?


117 A negative charge moving with a constant velocity v enters a region of a uniform magnetic field pointing out the page. What is the direction of the magnetic force on the charge?



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Name ____________________________________

118 A negative charge moving with a constant velocity v enters a region of a uniform magnetic field pointing into the page. What is the direction of the magnetic force on the charge?


119 A positive charge moving with a constant velocity v enters a region of a uniform magnetic field pointing into the page. What is the direction of the magnetic force on the charge?



64

Name ____________________________________

120 A positive charge moving with a constant velocity v enters a region of a uniform magnetic field pointing to the top of the page. What is the direction of the magnetic force on the charge?


121 A positive charge moves in parallel to a current carrying wire. What is the direction of the magnetic force on the charge?



65

Name ____________________________________

122 A negative charge moves away from a current carrying wire. What is the direction of the magnetic force on the charge?


123 A vertical wire carries an electric current into the page. An electron approaches the current from east. What is the direction of the magnetic force on the electron?

A EastB WestC NorthD SouthE Into the page


66

Name ____________________________________

Electromagnetic Induction

124 A loop of wire is placed in a perpendicular magnetic field. Suddenly, the magnitude of the magnetic field begins to increase, what is the direction of the induced current in the loop?

A Clockwise.

B Counter-clockwise.

C Out of the page.

D Into the page.

E There is no induced current in the loop.


67

Name ____________________________________

125 A loop of wire is placed in a perpendicular magnetic field. Suddenly, the magnitude of the magnetic field begins to increase, what is the direction of the induced current in the loop?

A Clockwise.


C Out of the page.

D Into the page.


126 A loop of wire is placed in a perpendicular magnetic field. Suddenly, the magnitude of the magnetic field begins to decrease, what is the direction of the induced current in the loop?

A Clockwise.


C Out of the page.

D Into the page.



68

Name ____________________________________

127 A loop of wire is placed in a perpendicular magnetic field. Suddenly, the magnitude of the magnetic field begins to decrease, what is the direction of the induced current in the loop?

A Clockwise.


C Out of the page.

D Into the page.


128 A rectangular loop of wire with dimensions 0.2 m x 0.5 m is placed in a uniform magnetic field of magnitude 2 T. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of the loop. What is the magnetic flux in the loop?

A 0.1 Wb

B 0.2 Wb

C 0.3 Wb

D 0.4 Wb

E 0.5 Wb


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Name ____________________________________

129 A rectangular loop of wire with dimensions 0.2 m x 0.5 m is placed in a uniform magnetic field of magnitude 2 T. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of the loop. The loop is moved from region I to region II in 0.05 s? What is the induced emf in the loop?

A 1 V

B 2 V

C 3 V

D 4 V

E 5 V

130 A magnet bar is moved toward a vertical conducting ring that is suspended at the end of a string. What happens to the ring during the time when the magnet approaches it?

A The ring will move toward the magnet.

B The ring will move away from the magnet.

C The ring will remain stationary.

D The ring will tend to turn in clockwise direction.

EThe ring will tend to turn in counter-clockwise direction.


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Name ____________________________________

131 A magnet bar with the north pole faced downward is held above a horizontal circular coil. Which of the following statements about the induced current is true(viewed from above)?

A The induced current flows in a clockwise direction.

BThe induced current flows in a counter-clockwise direction.

CThe induced current flows first in a clockwise and then in a counter-clockwise direction.

DThe induced current flows first in a counter-clockwise and then in a clockwise direction.

E There is no induced current in the coil.

132 A bar magnet with the north pole faced downward is dropped above a horizontal circular coil. Which of the following statements about the induced current is true (viewed from above)?

A The induced current flows in a clockwise direction.

BThe induced current flows in a counter-clockwise direction.

CThe induced current flows first in a clockwise and then in a counter-clockwise direction.

DThe induced current flows first in a counter-clockwise and then in a clockwise direction.

E There is no induced current in the coil.


71

Name ____________________________________

133 A metal rod with a length of L moves at a constant velocity through a uniform magnetic field of magnitude B. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the rod. Which of the following is true about the electric potential in the rod?

A Point A has higher potential.

B Point B has higher potential.

C Point C has higher potential.

D Point A and B have the same potential.

E Point A and C have the same potential.

134 A metal rod with a length of L moves at a constant velocity through a uniform magnetic field of magnitude B. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the rod. What is the potential difference between point A and C?

A Bv

B vL

C BL

D BLv

E Potential difference is zero.


72

Name ____________________________________

135 A metal rod with a length of L moves at a constant velocity through a uniform magnetic field of magnitude B. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the rod. What is the induced electric field in the rod?

A Bv

B vL

C BL

D BLv

E There is no electric field in the rod.

136 A circular loop of wire is placed in a perpendicular uniform magnetic field. Which of the following will not produce an induced current in the loop?

A Move the loop to region II.

B Rotate the loop with respect to its diameter.

C Rotate the loop with respect to its center.

D Stretch the loop and change its area.

E None from the above.


73

Name ____________________________________

137 A steady current, I, flows though a straight wire. A circular loop of wire is placed next to the wire. Which of the following will not produce an induced current in the loop?

A Move the loop away from the wire.

B Move the loop toward the wire.

C Increase the electric current in the wire.

D Decrease the electric current in the wire.

E Move the loop in parallel to the wire.

138 A current-carrying wire lies on a horizontal table. A circular coil is placed next to the loop. The current suddenly grows stronger. What is the direction of the induced current in the coil?

A Clockwise.


C There is no induced current in the coil.

DThe induced current changes its direction from clockwise to counter-clockwise.

EThe induced current changes its direction from counter-clockwise to clockwise.


74

Name ____________________________________

139 A current-carrying wire lies on a horizontal table. A circular coil is placed next to the loop. The current vanishes suddenly. What is the direction of the induced current in the coil?

A Clockwise.


C There is no induced current in the coil.

DThe induced current changes its direction from clockwise to counter-clockwise.

EThe induced current changes its direction from counter-clockwise to clockwise.

140 A rectangular loop of wire is moved at a constant speed from region I to region II and then to region III. Which of the following is true about the magnetic force direction acting on the loop when it crosses the boundary between the regions? A

B C D E

Region I to Region II

Region II to Region III

Left Right

Left Left

Right Right

Right Left

Zero Zero


75

Name ____________________________________

141 Coil A is connected to a circuit including: a battery, a switch, and a resistor. Coil B lies in the same plane as coil A. What is the direction of the induced current in coil B at the moment when the switch is closed?

A Clockwise.

B Counter-clockwise. C There is no induced current in the coil.

D The induced current changes its direction from clockwise to counter-clockwise.

E The induced current changes its direction from counter-clockwise to clockwise.

Simple Harmonic Motion,

Waves and

Sound Waves


76

Name ____________________________________

142 A mass on a spring undergoes SHM. The maximum displacement from the equilibrium is called?

A PeriodB FrequencyC AmplitudeD WavelengthE Speed

143 In a periodic process, the number of cycles per unit of time is called?



77

Name ____________________________________

144 In a periodic process, the time required to complete one cycle is called?


145 A mass undergoes SHM. When the mass reaches point x = +A its instantaneous velocity is?

A Maximum and positiveB Maximum and negativeC ZeroD Less than maximum and positiveE Less than maximum and negative


78

Name ____________________________________

146 A mass undergoes SHM. When the mass reaches point x = 0 its instantaneous velocity is?

A Maximum and can be positive or negativeB Constant and doesnt depend on the locationC ZeroD Slightly less than maximum and positiveE Slightly less than maximum and negative

147 A mass undergoes SHM. When the mass reaches point x = +A its instantaneous acceleration is?

A Maximum and positiveB Maximum and negativeC ZeroD Slightly less than maximum and positiveE Slightly less than maximum and negative


79

Name ____________________________________

148 A mass undergoes SHM. When the mass reaches point x = 0 its instantaneous acceleration is?

A Maximum and positiveB Maximum and negativeC ZeroD Slightly less than maximum and positiveE Slightly less than maximum and negative

149 At which location of the mass the system has the maximum kinetic energy?

A Only point AB Only point BC Only point 0D Point A and BE The kinetic energy remains constant


80

Name ____________________________________

150 At which location of the mass the system has the maximum elastic potential energy?

A Only point AB Only point BC Only point 0D Point A and BE The potential energy remains constant

151 A mass-spring oscillating system undergoes SHM with maximum amplitude A. If the amplitude is doubled what effect will it produce on the mechanical energy of the system?

A The energy is increased by factor twoB The energy is increased by factor fourC The energy is decreased by factor twoD The energy is decreased by factor fourE It doesnt affect the energy


81

Name ____________________________________

152 A mass-spring oscillating system undergoes SHM with maximum amplitude A. If the spring constant is doubled what effect will it produce on the mechanical energy of the system?

A The energy is increased by factor twoB The energy is increased by factor fourC The energy is decreased by factor twoD The energy is decreased by factor fourE It doesnt affect the energy

153 An object with a mass M is suspended from an elastic spring with a spring constant k. The object oscillates with maximum amplitude A. If the amplitude of oscillations is doubled, how it will change the period of oscillations?

A The period is increased by factor twoB The period is increased by factor fourC The period is decreased by factor twoD The period is decreased by factor fourE The period remains the same


82

Name ____________________________________

154 An object with a mass M is suspended from an elastic spring with a spring constant k. The object oscillates with period T. If the mass of oscillations is quadrupled, how it will change the period of oscillations?

A The period is increased by factor twoB The period is increased by factor fourC The period is decreased by factor twoD The period is decreased by factor fourE The period remains the same

155 An object with a mass M is suspended from an elastic spring with a spring constant k. The object oscillates with period T on the surface of Earth. If the oscillating system is moved to the surface of Moon, how it will change the period of oscillations?

A The period is increased by factor B The period is increased by factor fourC The period is decreased by factor D The period is decreased by factor fourE The period remains the same


83

Name ____________________________________

156 A mass M suspended from a string L undergoes SHM. Which of the following is true about the period of oscillations?

A The period increases with increasing amplitudeB The period increases with increasing massC The period increases with decreasing lengthD The period increases with increasing length

E The period doesnt depend on acceleration due to gravity

157 A simple pendulum is moved from the Earth to the Moon. How does it change the period of oscillations?

(Acceleration due to gravity on moon= 1.6 m/s2)

A The period is increased by factor B The period is increased by factor fourC The period is decreased by factor D The period is decreased by factor fourE The period remains the same


84

Name ____________________________________

158 The length of a simple pendulum oscillating with a period T is quadrupled, what is the new period of oscillations in terms of T?

A 2 TB 4 TC T

D T

E T

159 A simple pendulum has a period of 1 s. What is the length of the string?

A 1 mB 2 mC 4 m

D m

E m


85

Name ____________________________________

160 A simple pendulum with a length of 1 m oscillates on the surface of a hypothetical planet X. What is the surface gravity on the planet if the period of oscillations is 4 s?

A 1.6 m/s2 B 3.7 m/s2 C 11.2 m/s2 D 2.5 m/s2 E 9.8 m/s2

161 A mass-spring oscillating system undergoes SHM. Which of the following graphs represents the elastic potential energy as a function of position?

A B

C D E


86

Name ____________________________________

162 The distance traveled by a wave in one period is called?

A FrequencyB PeriodC Speed of waveD WavelengthE Amplitude

163 Which of the following is the speed of a wave traveling with a wavelength , frequency f, and period T?

A

B

C

D

E


87

Name ____________________________________

164 The frequency of a wave is doubled when the wavelength remains the same. What happens to the speed of the wave?

A It doublesB It quadruplesC Remains unchangedD It is cut to one-halfE It is cut to one-fourth

165 The frequency of a wave increases when the speed remains the same. What happens to the distance between two consecutive crests?

A It increasesB It decreasesC Stays unchangedD It increases first and then decreasesE It decreases first and then increases


88

Name ____________________________________

166 Which of the following statement is true about the transverse waves?

A They always have the same frequenciesB They always have the same velocitiesC They always have the same wavelengthsD They always travel through a dense medium

E The particles vibrate in perpendicular direction with respect to the wave motion

167 Which of the following statement is true about the longitudinal waves?

A They always have the same frequenciesB They always have the same velocitiesC They always have the same wavelengthsD They always travel through a dense medium

E The particles vibrate along the same direction as the wave motion


89

Name ____________________________________

168 A wave travels on a string of length L, linear density , and tension T. Which of the following is true?

A The wave speed is inversely proportional to the tension T

B The wave speed is directly proportional the linear density

C The wave speed increases with increasing tension T

D The wave speed increases with increasing linear density

E The wave speed only depends on the length of the string

169 A wave pulse travels a long a thin part of a horizontal cord and reaches another part of the cord which is much thicker and heavier. Which of the following is true about the reflected and transmitted pulse by the boundary in the cord?

A

B

C

D

E

Reflected pulse Transmitted pulse

Upright Upright

Inverted Inverted

Upright Inverted

Inverted Upright

Zero amplitude Zero amplitude


90

Name ____________________________________

170 A wave pulse travels a long a thick part of a horizontal cord and reaches another part of the cord which is much thinner and lighter. Which of the following is true about the reflected and transmitted pulse by the boundary in the cord?

A

B

C

D

E

Reflected pulse Transmitted pulse

Upright Upright

Inverted Inverted

Upright Inverted

Inverted Upright

Zero amplitude Zero amplitude

171 Two wave pulses with equal positive amplitudes travel on a cord approaching each other. What is the result of the oscillations when the pulses reach the same point?

A It is constructive interference with twice the amplitudeB It is destructive interference with zero amplitude

C It is constructive interference with slightly greater amplitude

D It is constructive interference with the negative amplitudeE The standing wave is produced


91

Name ____________________________________

172 Two wave pulses one with a positive amplitude the other with equal negative amplitude travel on a cord approaching each other. What is the result of the oscillations when the pulses reach the same point?

A It is constructive interference with twice the amplitudeB It is destructive interference with zero amplitude

C It is constructive interference with slightly greater amplitude

D It is constructive interference with the negative amplitudeE The standing wave is produced

173 What is the amplitude of oscillations?

A 0.5 cmB 1 cmC 2 cmD 5 cmE 20 cm


92

Name ____________________________________

174 What is the wavelength of the wave?

A 0.5 cmB 1 cmC 2 cmD 5 cmE 20 cm

175 What is the amplitude of oscillations?

A 1 cmB 2 cmC 4 cmD 6 cmE 8 cm


93

Name ____________________________________

176 What is the wavelength of the wave?

A 1 cmB 2 cmC 4 cmD 6 cmE 8 cm

177 A stretched string of length L = 2 m resonates in two loops. What is the wavelength of the wave?

A 1 mB 2 mC 3 mD 4 mE 6 m


94

Name ____________________________________

178 A stretched string of length L = 6 m resonates in two loops. What is the wavelength of the wave?

A 1 mB 2 mC 3 mD 4 mE 6 m

179 A stretched string of length 8 m vibrates at a frequency of 50 Hz producing a standing wave pattern with 4 loops. What is the speed of wave?

A 50 m/sB 100 m/s C 150 m/s D 200 m/s E 250 m/s


95

Name ____________________________________

180 A guitar string resonates at a frequency of 500 Hz forming a standing wave pattern with 5 loops. What is the fundamental frequency?

A 100 HzB 200 HzC 300 HzD 400 HzE 500 Hz

181 A guitar string resonates at a fundamental frequency of 300 Hz. Which of the following frequencies can set the string into resonance?

A 30 HzB 100 HzC 400 HzD 500 HzE 600 Hz


96

Name ____________________________________

182 Two sound sources S1 and S2 produce waves with frequencies 1000 Hz and 500 Hz. When we compare the speed of wave 1 to the speed of wave 2 the result is:

A Twice as greater

B One-half as greater

C The same

D Four times greater

E One-fourth as greater

183 Which of the following is a true statement about the speed of sound in three different materials: air, water, and steel?

A Vair > Vwater > VsteelB Vair > Vwater = VsteelC Vair = Vwater < VsteelD Vair < Vwater > VsteelE Vair < Vwater < Vsteel


97

Name ____________________________________

184 A sound source S radiates a sound wave in all directions. The relationship between the distances is SA = AB = BC = CD. Which of the following points oscillates at the highest frequency?

A Point A

B Point B

C Point C

D Point DE All points have the same frequency

185 The loudness of a sound wave increases with increasing which of the following:

A Frequency

B Amplitude

C Period

D Wavelength

E Speed of sound


98

Name ____________________________________

186 A sound wave travels from air into water. Which of the following doesnt change?

A Frequency

B Amplitude

C Speed of Particles

D Wavelength

E Speed of sound

187 A sound wave resonates in a tube with two open ends. What are the wavelengths of the three lowest resonating frequencies generated in the tube?

A L, 2L, 3LB 2L, L, 2L/3C L/2, L/3, L/5

D L/3, L/5, L/7

E 4L, 4L/3, 4L/5


99

Name ____________________________________

188 The lowest frequency in an open tube is 250 Hz. What are the three following frequencies will resonate in the tube?

A 500Hz, 750Hz, 1000Hz

B 100Hz, 200Hz, 400Hz

C 250Hz, 500Hz, 750Hz

D 150Hz, 450Hz, 850Hz

E 50Hz, 100Hz, 150Hz

189 The lowest frequency in an open tube is 100 Hz. Which of the following frequencies will resonate in the tube?

A 25Hz

B 50Hz

C 150Hz

D 200 Hz

E 250Hz


100

Name ____________________________________

190 A sound wave resonates in an open pipe with a length of 1 m. What is the wavelength of the wave?

A 0.5 m

B 1.0 m

C 1.5 m

D 2.0 m

E 2.5 m

191 A sound wave resonates in an open pipe with a length of 2 m. What is the resonating frequency? (Vsound = 340 m/s)

A 85 Hz

B 170 Hz

C 340 Hz

D 510 Hz

E 680 Hz


101

Name ____________________________________

192 A sound wave resonates in an open pipe with a length of 6 m. What is the wavelength of the wave?

A 1.5 m

B 2.0 m

C 3.0 m

D 4.0 m

E 6.0 m

193 A sound wave resonates in an open pipe with a length of 1.5 m. What is the resonating frequency? (Vsound = 340 m/s)

A 85 Hz

B 170 Hz

C 340 Hz

D 510 Hz

E 680 Hz


102

Name ____________________________________

194 A sound wave resonates in a tube with one open end. What are the wavelengths of the three lowest resonating frequencies generated in the tube?

A L, 2L, 3L

B L, 2L, 2L/3

C L/2, L/3, L/5

D L/3, L/5, L/7E 4L, 4L/3, 4L/5

195 The lowest frequency in a closed tube is 200 Hz. What are the three following frequencies will resonate in the tube?

A 600Hz, 1000Hz, 1400Hz

B 100Hz, 200Hz, 400Hz

C 400Hz, 600Hz, 800Hz

D 900Hz, 1500Hz, 2100Hz

E 50Hz, 100Hz, 150Hz


103

Name ____________________________________

196 The lowest frequency in a closed tube is 300 Hz. Which of the following frequencies will resonate in the tube?

A 900Hz

B 1000Hz

C 1200Hz

D 2500 Hz

E 3000Hz

197 Two sound sources generate pure tones of 500 Hz and 525 Hz. What is the beat frequency?

A 5Hz

B 10Hz

C 15Hz

D 20Hz

E 25Hz


104

Name ____________________________________

198 A sound wave resonates in a closed pipe with a length of 3.0m. What is the wavelength of the wave?

A 1.5 m

B 2.0 m

C 3.0 m

D 4.0 m

E 6.0 m

199 A sound wave resonates in a closed pipe with a length of 3.5 m. What is the wavelength of the wave?

A 1.5 m

B 2.0 m

C 2.5 m

D 3.0 m

E 6.0 m


105

Name ____________________________________

200 A sound wave resonates in a closed pipe with a length of 2.5 m. What is the resonating frequency? (Vsound = 340 m/s)

A 85 Hz

B 170 Hz

C 340 Hz

D 510 Hz

E 680 Hz

201 Two sound sources produce waves with slightly different frequencies. What happens with the beat frequency if the frequency of the lowest tone increases and passed the higher tone?

A Increases

B Decreases

C Stays the same

D Increases and then decreases

E Decreases and then increases


106

Name ____________________________________

Electromagnetic Waves

202 Sir Isaac Newton described light as:

A Tiny particles

B Waves

C Wave-particles

D Thermal waves

E Gravitational waves


107

Name ____________________________________

203 The particle theory of light can explain the following

phenomena:

A Dispersion

B Reflection

C Refraction

D All of the above

E None of the above

204 A light beam changes its direction when it strikes a boundary between air and water. Which of the following is responsible for this phenomenon?

A Diffraction

B Interference

C Reflection

D Refraction

E Polarization


108

Name ____________________________________

205 When light crosses a boundary between air and water, the following quantity of light remains the same:

A Wavelength

B Speed

C Frequency

D None of the above

E All of the above

206 A beam of light has a wavelength of 600 nm in air. What is the frequency of the light (c=3x108 m/s)?

A 5x1014 Hz

B 2x1014 Hz

C 3x1014 Hz

D 6x1014 Hz

E 8x1014 Hz


109

Name ____________________________________

207 A light beam traveling in air with a wavelength of 500.0 nm falls on a glass block. What is the wavelength of the light beam in glass (nglass = 1.500)?

A 500.0 nm

B 400.0 nm

C 666.7 nm

D 333.3 nm

E 900.0 nm

208 A light beam traveling in air with a wavelength of 650 nm falls on a glass block. What is the speed of the light beam in glass (c = 3.0x108 m/s, nglass = 1.5)?

A 3.0x108 m/s

B 2.0x108 m/s

C 1.5x108 m/s

D 1.0x108 m/s

E 0.50x108 m/s


110

Name ____________________________________

209 A light beam traveling in air with a wavelength of 600.0 nm falls on a glass block. What is the frequency of the light beam in glass (c = 3x108 m/s, nglass = 1.5)?

A 5.0x1014 Hz

B 2.5x1014 Hz

C 3.0x1014 Hz

D 6.0x1014 Hz

E 2.0x1014 Hz

210 Light travels fastest in:

A Glass

B Diamond

C Air

D Vacuum

E Water


111

Name ____________________________________

211 Sun rays fall on a glass prism. Which of the following

rays will be refracted the least?

A Blue

B Violet

C Green

D Yellow

E Red

212 Which of the following theories can explain the bending of light behind obstacles forming a bright spot inside the shadow?

A Particle theory of light

B Wave theory of light

C Kinetic theory

D Special theory of relativity

E Classical mechanics


112

Name ____________________________________

213 The wave theory of light is associated with:

A Isaac Newton

B Albert Einstein

C Max Planck

D Christiaan Huygens

E Robert Millikan

214 In Youngs double-slit experiment, a series of bright and dark lines was observed. Which of the following principles is responsible for this phenomenon?

A Polarization

B Reflection

C Dispersion

D Interference

E Refraction


113

Name ____________________________________

215 A blue beam of light falls on two narrow slits producing an interference pattern on a screen. If instead of blue light, a red beam of light was used in the same experiment, which changes to the interference pattern can be observed?

A Interference fringes move closer to the central maximum.

B Interference fringes move further away from the central maximum.

C No change in interference.

D Bright fringes are replaced with dark fringes.

E The number of fringes increases.

216 In a Youngs double-slit experiment, an interference pattern is observed on a screen. The apparatus is then submerged into water. What is the change in the interference pattern?

A No change in interference.

B The number of fringes increases.

C The fringes move closer to the central maximum.

D The fringes move further away from the central maximum.

E Bright fringes are replaced with dark fringes.


114

Name ____________________________________

217 Two coherent light waves approaching a certain point on a screen produce a constructive interference pattern. The optical extra distance traveled by one of the waves is:

A /2

B /3

C 3/2

D

E 5/2

218 In a Youngs double-slit experiment the distance between the slits increases. What happens to the separation between the fringes?

A Increases.

B Decreases.

C Stays the same.

D Increases for the bright fringes and decreases for the dark fringes.

E Increases for the dark fringes and decreases for the bright fringes.


115

Name ____________________________________

219 In a double-slit experiment, the distance between the slits is doubled. What happens to the separation between the two adjacent maxima?

A Doubles.

B Quadruples.

C Is cut in half.

D Is cut to a quarter.

E Stays the same.

220 A diffraction grating can be used to:

A Analyze the intensity of a light beam.

B Identify an element by its optical spectra.

C Identify an element by its intensity.

D Determine the speed of light.

E All of the above.


116

Name ____________________________________

221 A light beam spreads out when it travels through a narrow slit. Which of the following can explain this phenomenon?

A Polarization

B Reflection

C Dispersion

D Diffraction

E Refraction

222 In a single-slit experiment, as a result of the interference of a laser beam, a student observes a set of red and dark concentric circles. When he increases the width of the slit, what happens to the interference pattern?

A The separation between the circles increases.

B The separation between the circles decreases.

C No change in interference pattern.

D The separation between the circles increases and then decreases.

E The separation between the circles decreases and then increases.


117

Name ____________________________________

223 Colors in a soap bubble or in an oil slick on the road are caused by:

A Diffraction

B Polarization

C Thin Film Interference

D Light intensity change

224 Maxwells Equations describe the integration of which two fundamental forces?

A Electricity and Magnetism

B Electricity and the Weak Nuclear force

C Magnetism and the Weak Nuclear force

D Magnetism and Gravity

E Electricity and the Strong Nuclear force


118

Name ____________________________________

225 Allowing only the Electric Field component vibrating in one, specific plane of an electromagnetic wave through a special filter is called:

A Diffraction

B Polarization

C Interference

D Refraction

E Reflection

226 Which of the following is the correct order of electromagnetic radiation with increasing frequency?

A Radio Waves, Visible Light, IR Radiation, UV Radiation, X-Rays, Rays

B Rays, Visible Light, IR Radiation, UV Radiation, X-Rays, Radio Waves

C Radio Waves, UV Radiation, Visible Light, IR Radiation, X-Rays, Rays

D Radio Waves, Visible Light, X-Rays, IR Radiation, UV Radiation, Rays

E Radio Waves, IR Radiation, Visible Light, UV Radiation, X-Rays, Rays


119

Name ____________________________________

Quantum Physics

227 A Crookes Tube (a tube containing rarefied gas through which a current is passed between a cathode and an anode) was used in the discovery of the electron by:

A R. A. Millikan

B J. J. Thomson

C J. S. Townsend

D M. Planck

E A. H. Compton


120

Name ____________________________________

228 The electron charge was measured for the first time in the:

A Cathode ray experiment.

B Photoelectric effect experiment.

C Oil drop experiment.

D Electron diffraction from aluminum foil.

E Compton Effect experiment.

229 The charge on an electron is represented by e. Which of the following charges can exist?

A 2.0 e

B 2.5 e

C 3.6 e

D 5.2 e

E 5.5 e


121

Name ____________________________________

230 X-rays are created when:

A protons strike a metal target.

B neutrons strike a metal target.

C photons are incident on a surface.

D electrons strike a metal target.

E photons strike electrons.

231 The spontaneous decay of nuclei is called:

A Absorption

B Ultraviolet Explosion

C Permittivity

D Photoelectric Effect

E Radiation


122

Name ____________________________________

232 Which of the following are emitted by the nucleus during radioactive decay?

A Alpha particles

B Beta particles

C Gamma rays

D All of the above

E None of the above

233 Which of the following colors is associated with the lowest temperature of a black body radiator?

A Violet

B Blue

C Green

D Yellow

E Red


123

Name ____________________________________

234 Classical physics could not explain the behavior of a black body radiator at very short wavelengths. What was this problem called?

A Absorption failure

B Ultraviolet Explosion

C Wavelength decrease

D Photoelectric Effect

E Radiation

235 What did Max Planck propose to solve the black body radiator problem?

A Radiation is made up of waves.

B Light changes its speed in different media.

C Light comes in packets of energy.

D Light has a continuous energy profile.

E Objects do not radiate energy.


124

Name ____________________________________

236 Which of the following photons has the greatest energy?

A Infrared

B Blue light

C X-ray

D Gamma ray

E Ultraviolet

237 The energy of a photon depends on its:

A Amplitude

B Speed

C Temperature

D Pressure

E Frequency


125

Name ____________________________________

238 How does the energy of a photon change if the wavelength is doubled?

A Doubles

B Quadruples

C Stays the same

D Is cut to one-half

E Is cut to one-fourth

239 How does the momentum of a photon change if the wavelength is doubled?

A Doubles

B Quadruples

C Stays the same

D Is cut to one-half

E Is cut to one-fourth


126

Name ____________________________________

240 The photoelectric effect was explained by Albert Einstein by assuming that:

A light is a wave.

B light is a particle.

C an electron behaves as a wave.

D an electron behaves as a particle.

E light does not interact with matter.

241 The kinetic energy of photoelectrons depends on the:

A speed of light.

B angle of illumination.

C intensity of the light.

D number of incident photons.

E photon frequency.


127

Name ____________________________________

242 The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons depends on which of the following?

I. The light intensity

II. The frequency of the light

III. The material of the photoelectric cell

A Only I

B Only II

C Only III

D Only I and II

E Only II and III

243 Rutherfords Gold Foil experiment caused a modification of which of the following?

A Plum-pudding model of the atom

B Planetary model of the atom

C de Broglie hypothesis

D Wave nature of light

E Quantum theory of light


128

Name ____________________________________

244 In Rutherfords Gold Foil experiment, most of the alpha particles passed through the foil undeflected. Which of the following properties of the atom can be explained from this observation?

A The atom's negative charge is concentrated in the nucleus.

B The nucleus has electrons and protons.

C The atomic mass is distributed evenly throughout the atom.

D The alpha particles can't be deflected by electrons.

E The size of the nucleus is much less than the size of the atom.

245 Which of the following statement(s) can be associated with Bohrs theory of the atom?I. An electron orbiting the nucleus can change its energy continuously.

II. An electron orbiting the nucleus emits energy and falls into the nucleus.

III. An electron orbits the nucleus without radiating energy and can change its energy only by a specific, quantized amount, when it moves between the orbits.

IV. Electrons can only orbit the nucleus in specific circular orbits with fixed angular momentum and energy.

A I and II

B II and IV

C II and III

D III and IV

E I, II, III and IV


129

Name ____________________________________

246 When an electron falls from an orbit where n = 2 to n = 1:

A A photon is emitted.

B A photon is absorbed.

C No change in atomic energy.

D The atomic energy decreases to zero.

E The atomic energy increases.

247 When an electron jumps from an orbit where n = 1 to n = 4, its energy in terms of the energy of the ground level (E1) is:

A E1/9

B E1/16

C 2 E1

D 4 E1

E 16 E1


130

Name ____________________________________

248 Which of the following is a limitation of the Bohr Model of the atom?

A It does not explain atomic spectra.

B It successfully predicts the intensity of the photons emitted when electrons change energy levels.

C The model only applies to Hydrogen like atoms.

D The model only applies to light atoms.

249 The Compton Effect supports which of the following theories?

A Special Theory of Relativity.

B Light is a wave.

C Thomson model of the atom.

D Light is a particle.

E The Coulomb force.


131

Name ____________________________________

250 Neutrons have a:

A positive charge and a mass approximately equal to a proton.

B positive charge and a mass approximately equal to an electron.

C neutral charge and a mass approximately equal to a proton.

D neutral charge and a mass approximately equal to an electron.

E negative charge and a mass approximately equal to a proton.

251 Which of the following formulas can be used to determine the de Broglie wavelength?

A = hmv

B = h/mv

C = mv/h

D = hm/c

E = mc/h


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Name ____________________________________

252 Which one of the following objects, moving at the same speed, has the greatest de Broglie wavelength?

A Neutron

B Electron

C Tennis ball

D Bowling ball

E Alpha particle

253 Heisenbergs Uncertainty Principle states:

A The more precise a particles energy can be measured, the less precise its position can be measured.

B A particles position can be measured exactly.

C A particles energy can be measured exactly.

D The more precise a particles momentum can be measured, the less precise its position can be measured.

E The more precise a particles momentum can be measured, the less precise its energy can be measured.


133

Name ____________________________________

254 Knowledge of the wave function of a particle enables the probabilities of the particles position, momentum, energy and other characteristics to be calculated. In classical physics, what is the analogue of the wave function?

A The particle's momentum.

B The particle's energy.

C The particle's mass.

D The particle's size.

E The sum of the forces on the particle.

255 Which theory explains the interaction of photons with matter (electrons)?

A Quantum Chromodynamics.

B The Standard Model.

C String Theory.

D The Grand Unified Theory.

E Quantum Electrodynamics.


134

Name ____________________________________

256 Which theory explains the attraction between protons and neutrons?



C String Theory.



257 Which theory integrates the explanation of the strong nuclear force, the weak nuclear force and electromagnetism?



C String Theory.




135

Name ____________________________________

258 How much of the universe is comprised of matter and energy that is explained by current Physics theory?

A 95%

B 75%

C 50%

D 25%

E 5%

Nuclear Physics


136

Name ____________________________________

259 An unknown chemical element is presented by the following formula:

. What is the name of index Z?

A Atomic Mass Number

B Atomic Number

C Principle quantum number

D Orbital quantum number

E Magnetic quantum number

260 An unknown chemical element is presented by the following formula:

. What is the name of index A?

A Atomic Mass Number

B Atomic Number

C Principle quantum number

D Orbital quantum number

E Magnetic quantum number


137

Name ____________________________________

261 The atomic number is equivalent to which of the following?

A The number of neutrons in the atom.

B The number of protons in the atom.

C The number of nucleons in the atom.

D The number of particles in the atom.

E None of the above

262 The atomic mass number is equivalent to which of the following?

A The number of neutrons in the atom.

B The number of protons in the atom.

C The number of nucleons in the atom.

D The number of particles in the atom.

E None of the above


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Name ____________________________________

263 Which of the following particles has the smallest mass?

A Proton

B Electron

C Neutron

D Nucleus

E Nucleon

264 Which of the following statements about the mass of an atom is true?

A It is evenly divided between the protons and the orbiting electrons.

B It is evenly divided between the nucleons and the orbiting electrons.

C It is concentrated in the electron cloud.

D It is concentrated in the nucleus.

E It is evenly divided between protons, neutrons and orbiting electrons.


139

Name ____________________________________

265 Which of the following is correct for the number of neutrons in the nucleus?

A N = A Z

B N = Z A

C N = Z + A

D N = Z

E N = A

266 How many electrons are in the atom?

A 12

B 6

C 18

D 3

E 9


140

Name ____________________________________

267 How many nucleons are in the atom?

A 12

B 30

C 18

D 10

E 20

268 How many neutrons are in the atom?

A 12

B 11

C 18

D 25

E 9


141

Name ____________________________________

269 How many protons are in the atom?

A 14

B 6

C 7

D 10

E 9

270 What law did Ernest Rutherford use to estimate the size of the nucleus?

A Conservation of nucleon number

B Conservation of angular momentum

C Conservation of linear momentum

D Conservation of energy

E Conservation of charge


142

Name ____________________________________

271 Why are nuclear energy levels more complex than electron energy levels?

A Nuclear energy levels depend only on attractive forces.

B Nuclear energy levels depend on attractive and repulsive forces.

C Nuclear energy levels are an order of one hundred times as great as electron energy levels.

D Electron energy levels depend on the interaction between neutrons and electrons.

E Electron energy levels have greater energy than the nuclear energy levels.

272 Which of the following about the nuclear force is true?

A It is an attractive force between electrons and protons in an atom.

B It is an attractive force between electrons and neutrons in an atom.

C It is much weaker than the electromagnetic force.

D It is much weaker than the gravitational force.

E It is a strong, short-range, attractive force between the nucleons.


143

Name ____________________________________

273 What force is responsible for the radioactive decay of the nucleus?

A Gravitational force

B Weak Nuclear force

C Strong Nuclear force

D Electromagnetic force

E It's just called THE Force.

274 Isotopes of an element:

A have the same number of protons and electrons, but a different number of neutrons.

B have the same number of protons and neutrons, but a different number of electrons.

C have different number of protons.

D have different number of electrons.

E have the same number of neutrons and protons.


144

Name ____________________________________

275 Binding energy is:

A the amount of energy required to break a nucleus apart into protons and neutrons.

B the amount of energy required to break a nucleus apart into protons and electrons.

C the amount of energy required to break a nucleus apart into electrons and neutrons.

D the amount of energy released when neutrons change energy levels.

E the amount of energy released when protons change energy levels.

276 If mH is the atomic mass of Hydrogen, mn is the mass of a neutron, and M is the atomic mass of the atom, which of the following is the mass defect formula?

A m = ZmH + Nmn M

B m = ZmH + Nmn + M

C m = ZmH Nmn M

D m = ZmH Nmn + M

E m = M ZmH Nmn


145

Name ____________________________________

277 When nucleons form a stable nucleus, binding energy is:

A created from nothing.

B destroyed into nothing.

C transformed into visible light.

D absorbed as high energy photons or particles.

E released as high energy photons or particles.

278 When a nucleus is divided into its constituents, energy is:

A created from nothing.

B destroyed into nothing.

C transformed into visible light.

D absorbed by the nucleus which then breaks it apart.

E released by the nucleus as it breaks apart.


146

Name ____________________________________

279 An isotope with a high Binding Energy per nucleon:

A will decay in a short period of time.

B is very unstable.

C is very stable.

D has very few electrons.

E has more protons than neutrons.

280 Why do heavier nuclei have a greater ratio of neutrons to protons than lighter nuclei?

A to add more nucleons so that the binding energy is greater.

B to provide a greater weak nuclear force.

C to provide more attractive electromagnetic force.

D to provide more attractive strong nuclear force to balance the repulsive electromagnetic force.

E to provide more repulsive strong nuclear force to balance the attractive electromagnetic force.


147

Name ____________________________________

281 Which of the following is the alpha particle?

A

B

C

D

E

282 Which of the following is the particle?

A

B

C

D

E


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Name ____________________________________

283 Which of the following is the particle?

A

B

C

D

E

284 Which of the following abo

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