CVE Practice Test

1 Which of the following describes analog clipping?

A. A distorted signal voltage from a microphone after passing through an amplifier with excessive gain applied

B. An accurate signal voltage from a microphone after passing through an amplifier without any gain applied

C. Audio amplifiers with to high impedanceD. A clean signal passed through an Audio amplifier with

excessive AC line voltage

1 Which of the following describes analog clipping?

A. A distorted signal voltage from a microphone after passing through an amplifier with excessive gain applied

B. An accurate signal voltage from a microphone after passing through an amplifier without any gain applied

C. Audio amplifiers with to high impedanceD. A clean signal passed through an Audio amplifier with

excessive AC line voltage

2 High definition video is best described as

A. Video Signal that consist of luminance scan interlaced lines

B. Video Signal made up of 8X8 blocks of pixels

C. Video Signal that represents 720 lines of pixels, progressively scanned

D. Video Signal made up of 40X40 Macroblocks pixels

2 High definition video is best described as

A. Video Signal that consist of luminance scan interlaced lines

B. Video Signal made up of 8X8 blocks of pixels

C. Video Signal that represents 720 lines of pixels, progressively scanned

D. Video Signal made up of 40X40 Macroblocks pixels

3 The term “Full Motion Video” typically refers to a transmission of video at which rate

A. Video Frames at a rate of less than 10 per second

B. Video Frames at a rate of greater than 100 per second

C. Video Frames at a rate of less than 24 per second

D. Video Frames at a rate of 24 or more per second

3 The term “Full Motion Video” typically refers to a transmission of video at which rate

A. Video Frames at a rate of less than 10 per second

B. Video Frames at a rate of greater than 100 per second

C. Video Frames at a rate of less than 24 per second

D. Video Frames at a rate of 24 or more per second

4 What are 2 other names for Frame Relay Network?

A. RS-232

B. V.35

C. Broadband

D. Virtual Private Network

E. 802.3 Medium Access Control Network

4 What are 2 other names for Frame Relay Network?

A. RS-232

B. V.35

C. Broadband

D. Virtual Private Network

E. 802.3 Medium Access Control Network

5 Multiplexers using HSD interfaces are DCE interfaces

that provide which three signals

A. Transmit Data

B. Receive Data

C. Request to Send

D. Data Carrier Detect (RLSD)

E. TX Clock and TX Data

F. TX Clock and RX Clock

5 Multiplexers using HSD interfaces are DCE interfaces

that provide which three signals

A. Transmit Data

B. Receive Data

C. Request to Send

D. Data Carrier Detect (RLSD)

E. TX Clock and TX Data

F. TX Clock and RX Clock

6 Which of the following is Line Coding used for Primary Rate T1?

A. BRTZ-AMI

B. B7S

C. HDB3

D. B8ZS

E. PULSE STUFFING

6 Which of the following is Line Coding used for Primary Rate T1?

A. BRTZ-AMI

B. B7S

C. HDB3

D. B8ZS

E. PULSE STUFFING

7 Local Area Network Metallic Interfaces are

A. Connection orientated, point to point connectivity onlyB. Unshared network that serves unlimited endpointsC. Connectionless orientated connectivity, shared

network that serves limited distancesD. Connectionless orientated connectivity, shared

network that serves unlimited distancesE. C and DF. All of the above

7 Local Area Network Metallic Interfaces are

A. Connection orientated, point to point connectivity onlyB. Unshared network that serves unlimited endpointsC. Connectionless orientated connectivity, shared

network that serves limited distancesD. Connectionless orientated connectivity, shared

network that serves unlimited distancesE. C and DF. All of the above

8 E1 framing has a bit structure of how many bits per frame?Clue Full metallic E1 speed divided by 8KHz Stratum timing.

A. 200

B. 240

C. 256

D. 300

8 E1 framing has a bit structure of how many bits per frame?Clue Full metallic E1 speed divided by 8KHz Stratum timing.

A. 200

B. 240

C. 256

D. 300

9 Which of the following describes the activity for which RTCP is used?

A. Transport Task for Communication of Audio and Video over IP

B. Transport Task of Simple Network Management Protocol

C. Network Statistics of media channels between video conferencing hardware

D. Network Statistics of media channels between routersE. Network Statistics of media channels between

Gatekeepers

9 Which of the following describes the activity for which RTCP is used?

A. Transport Task for Communication of Audio and Video over IP

B. Transport Task of Simple Network Management Protocol

C. Network Statistics of media channels between video conferencing hardware

D. Network Statistics of media channels between routersE. Network Statistics of media channels between

Gatekeepers

10 Which of the following are call establishment packets? Select 3

A. Receiver ReadyB. Disconnect RequestC. Release RequestD. SetupE. Connect AcknowledgedF. Receiver Not ReadyG. AlertingH. Release Complete

10 Which of the following are call establishment packets? Select 3

A. Receiver ReadyB. Disconnect RequestC. Release RequestD. SetupE. Connect AcknowledgedF. Receiver Not ReadyG. AlertingH. Release Complete

11 Which of the following is the Protocol RAS used by the

H.323 Gatekeeper?

A. Registration, Alerting, and Status of H.323 Terminals

B. Registration, Access, and Status of H.323 Terminals

C. Registration, Activation, and Status of H.323 Terminals

D. Registration, Admission, and Status of H.323 Terminals

11 Which of the following is the Protocol RAS used by the

H.323 Gatekeeper?

A. Registration, Alerting, and Status of H.323 Terminals

B. Registration, Access, and Status of H.323 Terminals

C. Registration, Activation, and Status of H.323 Terminals

D. Registration, Admission, and Status of H.323 Terminals

12 Which of the following is the channel used to carry the Audio for H.320 Terminals?

A. Channel 6

B. Channel 4

C. Channel 3

D. Channel 2

E. Channel 1

12 Which of the following is the channel used to carry the Audio for H.320 Terminals?

A. Channel 6

B. Channel 4

C. Channel 3

D. Channel 2

E. Channel 1

13 Which audio coding standards are described by H.323?

A. G.711, G.721, G.722 AND G.723

B. G.711, G.722, G.728 AND G.726

C. G.711, G.722, G.728, G.723.1 AND G.729

D. G.711, G.722, G.728 AND G.723.1

13 Which audio coding standards are described by H.323?

A. G.711, G.721, G.722 AND G.723

B. G.711, G.722, G.728 AND G.726

C. G.711, G.722, G.728, G.723.1 AND G.729

D. G.711, G.722, G.728 AND G.723.1

14 Which audio coding uses 8 Kbps?

A. G.711

B. G.722

C. G.729

D. G.728

E. G.722.1

14 Which audio coding uses 8 Kbps?

A. G.711

B. G.722

C. G.729

D. G.728

E. G.722.1

15 A telephone call over a Public Switched Telephone Network is what type of quality?

A. Narrow band audio

B. Center band audio

C. Wide band audio

D. CD quality audio

15 A telephone call over a Public Switched Telephone Network is what type of quality?

A. Narrow band audio

B. Center band audio

C. Wide band audio

D. CD quality audio

16 How is noise measured?

A. Volume

B. Distance

C. Amplitude

D. Impedance

16 How is noise measured?

A. Volume

B. Distance

C. Amplitude

D. Impedance

17 Pick the best match; Audio “Critical Distance” is a definition that relates to:

A. Distance between the audio amplifier inputs and room microphone

B. Distance between the person speaking and the microphone used

C. Distance between the video display monitor and camera

D. Distance between the walls, floor to ceiling, and doorways

17 Pick the best match; Audio “Critical Distance” is a definition that relates to:

A. Distance between the audio amplifier inputs and room microphone

B. Distance between the person speaking and the microphone used

C. Distance between the video display monitor and camera

D. Distance between the walls, floor to ceiling, and doorways

18 When required, improperly matched impedance will cause problems with__________.

A. Audio signal levels

B. feedback frequency filtering

C. room acoustics

D. all of the above

18 When required, improperly matched impedance will cause problems with__________.

A. Audio signal levels

B. feedback frequency filtering

C. room acoustics

D. all of the above

19. Which of the following correctly describes typical audio phantom power?

A. 48 volts DC applied to a telephone circuit center pair used to provide power to the telephone set

B. 12 volts DC applied to the tip and ring of a TRS connector used to power amplified headphones

C. A DC voltage applied to the center pin of an RCA type connector used to power remote pre-amplifiers

D. A DC voltage applied to pins 2 and 3 of an XLR connector returning through pin 1, used to power microphones

19. Which of the following correctly describes typical audio phantom power?

A. 48 volts DC applied to a telephone circuit center pair used to provide power to the telephone set

B. 12 volts DC applied to the tip and ring of a TRS connector used to power amplified headphones

C. A DC voltage applied to the center pin of an RCA type connector used to power remote pre-amplifiers

D. A DC voltage applied to pins 2 and 3 of an XLR connector returning through pin 1, used to power microphones

20. Which of the following functions can NOT be performed by a microphone mixer?

A. Provide phantom power to microphones.

B. Provide gain to convert mic-level signals to line-level signals.

C. Provide a means to adjust the relative gain of different microphones.

D. Provide a means to adjust the video display brightness.

E. Provide a means to adjust the room acoustics

20. Which of the following functions can NOT be performed by a microphone mixer?

A. Provide phantom power to microphones.

B. Provide gain to convert mic-level signals to line-level signals.

C. Provide a means to adjust the relative gain of different microphones.

D. Provide a means to adjust the video display brightness.

E. Provide a means to adjust the room acoustics

21. What does Automatic Gain Control (AGC) do?

A. It turns up the volume to the far-end microphone.

B. It selects among multiple microphones.

C. It turns down the volume to the far-end microphone.

D. It builds the volume to the near-end microphone.

21. What does Automatic Gain Control (AGC) do?

A. It turns up the volume to the far-end microphone.

B. It selects among multiple microphones.

C. It turns down the volume to the far-end microphone.

D. It builds the volume to the near-end microphone.

22. Which of the following correctly describes reverberation and echo?

A. Echo is a coherent, distinct carry-on of sound.

B. Reverberation is irrelevant to conferencing audio.

C. Reverberation is long, distinct, acoustic reflections.

D. Reverberation is an incoherent, diffuse, carry-on of sound

E. Echo is short, diffuse, acoustic reflections that linger after the original sound has stopped.

22. Which of the following correctly describes reverberation and echo?

A. Echo is a coherent, distinct carry-on of sound.

B. Reverberation is irrelevant to conferencing audio.

C. Reverberation is long, distinct, acoustic reflections.

D. Reverberation is an incoherent, diffuse, carry-on of sound

E. Echo is short, diffuse, acoustic reflections that linger after the original sound has stopped.

23. Which of the following devices is used to change Sound Energy into Electrical Energy for the purpose

of the Far-End audience to hear the Near -End audience?

A. Mixer

B. Desk top microphone

C. Loud speaker

D. Sound pressure meter

23. Which of the following devices is used to change Sound Energy into Electrical Energy for the purpose

of the Far-End audience to hear the Near -End audience?

A. Mixer

B. Desk top microphone

C. Loud speaker

D. Sound pressure meter

24. A mic-level audio signal will measure as

A. 10 kiloVolt.

B. 10 miliVolt.

C. 10 gigaVolt.

D. 10 Watt.

E. 10 Amp.

24. A mic-level audio signal will measure as

A. 10 kiloVolt.

B. 10 miliVolt.

C. 10 gigaVolt.

D. 10 Watt.

E. 10 Amp.

25. Muting an audio during a connected videoconference is typically performed when you

A. need to move the microphone.

B. do not want to hear the other parties.

C. need to move conference table.

D. are listening and your room is very noisy.

E. need to hang up the video call.

25. Muting an audio during a connected videoconference is typically performed when you

A. need to move the microphone.

B. do not want to hear the other parties.

C. need to move conference table.

D. are listening and your room is very noisy.

E. need to hang up the video call.

26. During a H.323 Videoconference, what is the correct bandwidth used by the G.711 and G.722 audio

algorithms in a 256K conference call?

• A.30,000 bits per second

• B.40,000 bits per second

• C.128,000 bits per second

• D.64,000 bits per second

26. During a H.323 Videoconference, what is the correct bandwidth used by the G.711 and G.722 audio

algorithms in a 256K conference call?

• A.30,000 bits per second

• B.40,000 bits per second

• C.128,000 bits per second

• D.64,000 bits per second

27. What is the audio data rate in bits per second that a G.723.1 and G.729 audio algorithms that use over

a network connection?

A. greater than 64,000

B. greater than 16,000

C. less than 5,000

D. less than 10,000

27. What is the audio data rate in bits per second that a G.723.1 and G.729 audio algorithms that use over

a network connection?

A. greater than 64,000

B. greater than 16,000

C. less than 5,000

D. less than 10,000

28. What is the correct frequency response for the G.711 audio algorithm?

• A.50Hz to 3.4kHz

• B.50Hz to 7kHz

• C.300Hz to 3.4kHz

• D.300Hz to 7kHz

28. What is the correct frequency response for the G.711 audio algorithm?

• A.50Hz to 3.4kHz

• B.50Hz to 7kHz

• C.300Hz to 3.4kHz

• D.300Hz to 7kHz

29. Line level audio cables are being connected. Which of the following represents the electrical

requirements that should be followed during the cable connection?

• A. Power should be turned off, and connector cables should be installed from the output of one device to the output of the next device

• B. Power should be turned off, and the connector cables should be installed from the output of one device to the input of the next device

• C. Power is not important and Cables can be connected without regard to the Connector labels

• D. Power is not important and Cables should only be connected to connectors labeled "Audio OUT"

29. Line level audio cables are being connected. Which of the following represents the electrical

requirements that should be followed during the cable connection?

• A. Power should be turned off, and connector cables should be installed from the output of one device to the output of the next device

• B. Power should be turned off, and the connector cables should be installed from the output of one device to the input of the next device

• C. Power is not important and Cables can be connected without regard to the Connector labels

• D. Power is not important and Cables should only be connected to connectors labeled "Audio OUT"

30. Which of the following statements about line-level and mic-level are true?

• A. Audio mixers can be connected into a line-level input.

• B. Line-level or mic-level can be used for any audio input device.

• C. Line-level and mic-level always have different impedance values.

• D. Voltage ranges are not the same between line-level and mic-level.

30. Which of the following statements about line-level and mic-level are true?

• A. Audio mixers can be connected into a line-level input.

• B. Line-level or mic-level can be used for any audio input device.

• C. Line-level and mic-level always have different impedance values.

• D. Voltage ranges are not the same between line-level and mic-level.

31. Under normal operating conditions, Microphone and Audio amplification system should have sufficient

_______ to operate without clipping.

• A. amplitude bias space

• B.100db padding

• C. no padding

• D. headroom

• E. videoroom

• F. voltage feedback

31. Under normal operating conditions, Microphone and Audio amplification system should have sufficient

_______ to operate without clipping.

• A. amplitude bias space

• B.100db padding

• C. no padding

• D. headroom

• E. videoroom

• F. voltage feedback

32. What allows the detection of audio distortion?

• A. Audible sound quality

• B. Measured audio signal level

• C. Measured background noise level

• D. Digital signal processor clock level

32. What allows the detection of audio distortion?

• A. Audible sound quality

• B. Measured audio signal level

• C. Measured background noise level

• D. Digital signal processor clock level

33. Which of the following describes frequency response?

• A. Ability to determine frequency content of a signal

• B. Ability of a device to respond to amplitude changes

• C. Ability of a circuit to define operating frequency limits

• D. Ability of a device to operate within defined frequency limits

33. Which of the following describes frequency response?

• A. Ability to determine frequency content of a signal

• B. Ability of a device to respond to amplitude changes

• C. Ability of a circuit to define operating frequency limits

• D. Ability of a device to operate within defined frequency limits

34. Which, of the following items, best describes gain?

• A. Increase only to a signal voltage as it passes through a given component

• B. Increase or decrease to a signal voltage as a passes through a given component

• C. Decrease only to a signal voltage as it passes through a given system component

• D. None of the above

34. Which, of the following items, best describes gain?

• A. Increase only to a signal voltage as it passes through a given component

• B. Increase or decrease to a signal voltage as a passes through a given component

• C. Decrease only to a signal voltage as it passes through a given system component

35. Which of the following correctly describe the role room acoustics play regarding acoustic echo

cancellation?

• A. People moving around in a room change the acoustic paths presented to a microphone.

• B. Fans, heaters, and air conditioners add background noise to the room, changing the room acoustic paths.

• C. Hard room surfaces act as reflectors for sound, causing multiple acoustic paths from loudspeaker to microphone.

• D. Heavy drapes and acoustic absorbers remove acoustic paths and therefore cause problems for acoustic echo cancellers.

35. Which of the following correctly describe the role room acoustics play regarding acoustic echo

cancellation?

• A. People moving around in a room change the acoustic paths presented to a microphone.

• B. Fans, heaters, and air conditioners add background noise to the room, changing the room acoustic paths.

• C. Hard room surfaces act as reflectors for sound, causing multiple acoustic paths from loudspeaker to microphone.

• D. Heavy drapes and acoustic absorbers remove acoustic paths and therefore cause problems for acoustic echo cancellers.

36. Which of the following accurately describes room gain as it applies to acoustic echo

cancellation?• A. Measure of amplifier power driving the loudspeakers

in a given conference room• B. Ratio of loudness of the participants voices versus the

loudspeaker volume arriving at the microphone• C. Relative sensitivity of the microphones expressed in

dB versus the same microphone in a "free field“ environment

• D. Relative perceived loudness of a person speaking in a given room versus the same person speaking in an anechoic chamber

36. Which of the following accurately describes room gain as it applies to acoustic echo

cancellation?• A. Measure of amplifier power driving the loudspeakers

in a given conference room• B. Ratio of loudness of the participants voices versus the

loudspeaker volume arriving at the microphone• C. Relative sensitivity of the microphones expressed in

dB versus the same microphone in a "free field“ environment

• D. Relative perceived loudness of a person speaking in a given room versus the same person speaking in an anechoic chamber

37. Which of the following correctly describes echo as it relates to acoustic echo cancellations?

• A. The sound one hears when the far-end is talking and one tries to talk at the same time.

• B. The sound of the room reverberation as picked up by the local microphones, amplified and returned to the far-end.

• C. The result of sound bouncing off the walls in the room caused by the person speaking in that room being picked up by the microphones.

• D. The sound of the far-end being returned to themselves, caused by the room microphones picking up the audio from the room loudspeakers.

37. Which of the following correctly describes echo as it relates to acoustic echo cancellations?

• A. The sound one hears when the far-end is talking and one tries to talk at the same time.

• B. The sound of the room reverberation as picked up by the local microphones, amplified and returned to the far-end.

• C. The result of sound bouncing off the walls in the room caused by the person speaking in that room being picked up by the microphones.

• D. The sound of the far-end being returned to themselves, caused by the room microphones picking up the audio from the room loudspeakers.

38. Which of the following correctly describes the purpose of an Acoustic Echo Canceller (AEC)?

• A. An AEC provides a means to reduce room noise sent to the far-end.

• B. An AEC provides a means to reduce room reverberation as heard by the far-end.

• C. An AEC provides compensation for room acoustics to improve microphone sensitivity and gain.

• D. An AEC reduces the room loudspeaker contribution to the local microphone sent to the far-end.

• E. An AEC provides compensation for room acoustics to better allow the reduction of echo returned to the far-end.

38. Which of the following correctly describes the purpose of an Acoustic Echo Canceller (AEC)?

• A. An AEC provides a means to reduce room noise sent to the far-end.

• B. An AEC provides a means to reduce room reverberation as heard by the far-end.

• C. An AEC provides compensation for room acoustics to improve microphone sensitivity and gain.

• D. An AEC reduces the room loudspeaker contribution to the local microphone sent to the far-end.

• E. An AEC provides compensation for room acoustics to better allow the reduction of echo returned to the far-end.

39. Which of the following are associated with the operation of an Acoustic Echo Canceller (AEC)?

• A. Noise suppression

• B. Room microphones

• C. Room loudspeakers

• D. Automatic gain control

39. Which of the following are associated with the operation of an Acoustic Echo Canceller (AEC)?

• A. Noise suppression

• B. Room microphones

• C. Room loudspeakers

• D. Automatic gain control

40. Which of the following correctly describes the term "half duplex" as it refers to audio in a videoconference?

• A. Only one site of a conference is heard at any given time.

• B. Only one person at a time is heard speaking from any given room.

• C. Only one site of a conference is allowed to speak at any given time.

• D. Only one person at a time is allowed to speak in a given room attending a conference.

40. Which of the following correctly describes the term "half duplex" as it refers to audio in a videoconference?

• A. Only one site of a conference is heard at any given time.

• B. Only one person at a time is heard speaking from any given room.

• C. Only one site of a conference is allowed to speak at any given time.

• D. Only one person at a time is allowed to speak in a given room attending a conference.

41. Which of the following correctly describe training as it applies to Acoustic Echo Cancellers

(AEC)?• A. Training is a process by which AEC adapts to the

room acoustics• B. Training is dependent on room AEC related audio

components and gain settings.• C. Training occurs regardless of the events occurring in

a given room and AEC functions will only work if the mute button is pressed.

• D. Training requires no input from any microphone signals in a videoconferencing room.

41. Which of the following correctly describe training as it applies to Acoustic Echo Cancellers

(AEC)?• A. Training is a process by which AEC adapts to the

room acoustics• B. Training is dependent on room AEC related audio

components and gain settings.• C. Training occurs regardless of the events occurring in

a given room and AEC functions will only work if the mute button is pressed.

• D. Training requires no input from any microphone signals in a videoconferencing room.

42. S-Video Connections are typically designed with what type of connectors?

• A. 4-Pin Mini-DIN

• B. RCA

• C. Banana plug

• D. Jones strip

• E. Phoenix

42. S-Video Connections are typically designed with what type of connectors?

• A. 4-Pin Mini-DIN

• B. RCA

• C. Banana plug

• D. Jones strip

• E. Phoenix

43. If a Y/C cable is plugged in and the result is a black and white video, which signal is not being

• A. Red, Green, and Blue signal

• B. Super VHS sync signal

• C. Luminance signal

• D. Chrominance signal

43. If a Y/C cable is plugged in and the result is a black and white video, which signal is not being

• A. Red, Green, and Blue signal

• B. Super VHS sync signal

• C. Luminance signal

• D. Chrominance signal

44. Of the following names, which two apply to S-Video?

• A. Synchronous Video

• B. Y/C Video

• C. Separate Video

• D. Select Video

• E. Standard Video

44. Of the following names, which two apply to S-Video?

• A. Synchronous Video

• B. Y/C Video

• C. Separate Video

• D. Select Video

• E. Standard Video

45. Which signals are being used with Y/C video?

• A. Red, green and blue

• B. Chrominance and luminance

• C. Kodachrome and polychrome

• D. Yustra spectrum and composite

45. Which signals are being used with Y/C video?

• A. Red, green and blue

• B. Chrominance and luminance

• C. Kodachrome and polychrome

• D. Yustra spectrum and composite

46. A person is wearing a vertically striped shirt and is sitting in front of a large window with closed blinds. What

effect does this have on camera focus?

• A. It has no adverse effect.• B. The picture will be out of contrast.• C. The camera will be unable to focus correctly.• D. The iris will open and the picture will be bright

46. A person is wearing a vertically striped shirt and is sitting in front of a large window with closed blinds. What

effect does this have on camera focus?

• A. It has no adverse effect.• B. The picture will be out of contrast.• C. The camera will be unable to focus correctly.• D. The iris will open and the picture will be bright

47. High Definition Video connections include which of the following? (select two)

• A.Three XLR connectors attached to one COAX cable per connector

• B.One DB 25 Connector attached to several COAX cables

• C.Three BNC connectors attached to one COAX cable per connector

• D.Four 3.5mm Mini plugs attached to one COAX cable per connector plug

• E.One DB 15 HD connector attached to three COAX cables

47. High Definition Video connections include which of the following? (select two)

• A.Three XLR connectors attached to one COAX cable per connector

• B.One DB 25 Connector attached to several COAX cables

• C.Three BNC connectors attached to one COAX cable per connector

• D.Four 3.5mm Mini plugs attached to one COAX cable per connector plug

• E.One DB 15 HD connector attached to three COAX cables

48. What effect does the zoom function have relative to the camera's field of view?

• A. It widens the field at full zoom.

• B. It narrows the field at full zoom.

• C. It can either widen or narrow the field at full zoom.

• D. It has no effect on the field of view.

48. What effect does the zoom function have relative to the camera's field of view?

• A. It widens the field at full zoom.

• B. It narrows the field at full zoom.

• C. It can either widen or narrow the field at full zoom.

• D. It has no effect on the field of view.

49. Which of the following best describes a field of view?

• A. What the camera "sees" in a given scene and is measured in volts

• B. What the camera "sees" in a given scene and is measured in degrees

• C. What the camera "sees" in a given scene and is measured in lumens

• D. What the camera "sees" in a given scene and is measured in farads

49. Which of the following best describes a field of view?

• A. What the camera "sees" in a given scene and is measured in volts

• B. What the camera "sees" in a given scene and is measured in degrees

• C. What the camera "sees" in a given scene and is measured in lumens

• D. What the camera "sees" in a given scene and is measured in farads

50. Which camera control function causes video image to change from bright to dark and back to bright as

you pass different light sources?

• A. Iris control

• B. PTZ control

• C. Focus control

• D. Contrast control

50. Which camera control function causes video image to change from bright to dark and back to bright as

you pass different light sources?

• A. Iris control

• B. PTZ control

• C. Focus control

• D. Contrast control

51. PTZ Control may be performed by a camera automatically by using(select 2)

• A. Music tracking.

• B. Voice tracking.

• C. Image tracking.

• D. VTC microphone tracking.

• E. Shadow tracking.

51. PTZ Control may be performed by a camera automatically by using(select 2)

• A. Music tracking.

• B. Voice tracking.

• C. Image tracking.

• D. VTC microphone tracking.

• E. Shadow tracking.

52. How many frames per second make up a NTSC and PAL video signal?

• A. NTSC 20

• B. NTSC 25

• C. NTSC 30

• D. PAL 25

• E. PAL 30

52. How many frames per second make up a NTSC and PAL video signal?

• A. NTSC 20

• B. NTSC 25

• C. NTSC 30

• D. PAL 25

• E. PAL 30

53. What are the termination impedance and the signal level for NTSC video?

• A. 75 Ohms and 1 Vpp

• B. 75 Ohms and 2 Vrms

• C. 100 Ohms and 1 Vpp

• D. 100 Ohms and 1 Vrms

53. What are the termination impedance and the signal level for NTSC video?

54. What are the termination impedance and the signal level for PAL video?

55. What is the number of scan lines and the frequency for NTSC video?

• A. 525 lines and 50 Hz

• B. 525 lines and 60 Hz

• C. 625 lines and 50 Hz

• D. 625 lines and 60 Hz

55. What is the number of scan lines and the frequency for NTSC video?

56. What is the number of scan lines and the frequency for PAL video?

57. Which of the following most accurately defines white balance?

• A.The amount of white pixels that appear in a video frame

• B.A feature that eliminates noises distributed uniformly over the frequency spectrum

• C.A feature that splits the signal between the red, green, and blue components to make white

• D.A feature that adjusts the signal between the red, green, and blue components that yield white video signals.

57. Which of the following most accurately defines white balance?

• A.The amount of white pixels that appear in a video frame

• B.A feature that eliminates noises distributed uniformly over the frequency spectrum

• C.A feature that splits the signal between the red, green, and blue components to make white

• D.A feature that adjusts the signal between the red, green, and blue components that yield white video signals.

58. What effect does natural daylight from a window have on video?

• A. It causes the video to be out of focus.• B. It causes the picture to have a bluish tint.• C. It causes the iris to close, which makes images

appear dark.• D. It causes the iris to open, which makes images

appear bright

58. What effect does natural daylight from a window have on video?

• A. It causes the video to be out of focus.• B. It causes the picture to have a bluish tint.• C. It causes the iris to close, which makes images

appear dark.• D. It causes the iris to open, which makes images

appear bright

59. Using different color-temperature light sources will compromise which part of the camera performance?

• A.Brightness

• B.White Balance

• C.Field of View

• D.PTZ

59. Using different color-temperature light sources will compromise which part of the camera performance?

• A.Brightness

• B.White Balance

• C.Field of View

• D.PTZ

60. Which of the following video display resolutions are true 16:9 Aspect Ratio?

• A.1920X1080

• B.1024X768

• C.1280X720

• D.720X480

60. Which of the following video display resolutions are true 16:9 Aspect Ratio?

• A.1920X1080

• B.1024X768

• C.1280X720

• D.720X480

61. High-Definition Videoconferencing will require and use

• A. the same camera from NTSC and PAL VTC systems

• B. typical off the shelf web camera

• C. high-definition camera

• D. all of the above

61. High-Definition Videoconferencing will require and use

• A. the same camera from NTSC and PAL VTC systems

• B. typical off the shelf web camera

• C. high-definition camera

• D. all of the above

62. What effect will an oscillating fan that is visible in the background have on the overall video quality?

• A. No effect

• B. Shadows

• C. Video switching

• D. Lower frame rate

62. What effect will an oscillating fan that is visible in the background have on the overall video quality?

• A. No effect

• B. Shadows

• C. Video switching

• D. Lower frame rate

63. H.320 Video Conference is running and the picture of the people from the Far-End is displaying intermittently

freezing video. Which of the following is a valid reason for this problem to occur?

• A. Network is down• B. Bandwidth of the call is 384 kilobits• C. Attendees at the Near End are moving too

much• D. Near End is receiving Content Video• E. Far-End is receiving Content Video

63. H.320 Video Conference is running and the picture of the people from the Far-End is displaying intermittently

freezing video. Which of the following is a valid reason for this problem to occur?

• A. Network is down• B. Bandwidth of the call is 384 kilobits• C. Attendees at the Near End are moving too

much• D. Near End is receiving Content Video• E. Far-End is receiving Content Video

64. Video display for Content (Role Management) Visual Collaboration is best displayed on a

___________ video monitor.

• A. S-Video• B. Component• C. Composite• D. Analog RF coaxial cable connected

64. Video display for Content (Role Management) Visual Collaboration is best displayed on a

___________ video monitor.

• A. S-Video• B. Component• C. Composite• D. Analog RF coaxial cable connected

65. What term is used for video display resolution of H.264 Video Coding used for Visual Telephony?

• A. Standard Intermediate Format

• B. Standard Systems Committee

• C. Standard Optics

• D. Standardized Network Management Parameters

65. What term is used for video display resolution of H.264 Video Coding used for Visual Telephony?

• A. Standard Intermediate Format

• B. Standard Systems Committee

• C. Standard Optics

• D. Standardized Network Management Parameters

66. What does CIF stand for?

• A.Common International Form

• B.Common Intermediate Form

• C.Common Intermediate Format

• D.Common International Format

66. What does CIF stand for?

• A.Common International Form

• B.Common Intermediate Form

• C.Common Intermediate Format

• D.Common International Format

67. SIF resolution is

• A.288 lines.

• B.144 lines.

• C.96 lines.

• D.480 lines.

• E.240 lines.

67. SIF resolution is

• A.288 lines.

• B.144 lines.

• C.96 lines.

• D.480 lines.

• E.240 lines.

68. Which of the following describe video dynamics as processed through a videoconference system?

• A. Cameras react to light the same as ones eye and video monitors accurately render the video information so what one sees by eye is what the far-end sees.

• B. Cameras have limits to the range of light levels which can be accommodated and tend to process the darker regions further toward black than what ones eye sees.

• C. Codecs have the same limits as cameras and therefore will not change the perceived qualities of the video as rendered by the cameras.

• D. Codecs have more restrictive limits than cameras, and the best way to accurately assess the video quality sent to the far-end is to view a video scene fully coded and then decoded.

68. Which of the following describe video dynamics as processed through a videoconference system?

• A. Cameras react to light the same as ones eye and video monitors accurately render the video information so what one sees by eye is what the far-end sees.

• B. Cameras have limits to the range of light levels which can be accommodated and tend to process the darker regions further toward black than what ones eye sees.

• C. Codecs have the same limits as cameras and therefore will not change the perceived qualities of the video as rendered by the cameras.

• D. Codecs have more restrictive limits than cameras, and the best way to accurately assess the video quality sent to the far-end is to view a video scene fully coded and then decoded.

69. For MPEG2 to sustain full motion video at 720X480 resolution, network bandwidth required must be less than

how many kilobits per second?

• A.1

• B.100

• C.1000

• D.10,000

69. For MPEG2 to sustain full motion video at 720X480 resolution, network bandwidth required must be less than

how many kilobits per second?

• A.1

• B.100

• C.1000

• D.10,000

70. MPEG4 Part 10 (H.264) coder requires what network data rate to sustain full motion video at SIF resolution?

• A. Less than 1 kilobit per second

• B. Less than 384 kilobits per second

• C. More than 3,000 kilobits per second

• D. More than 10,000 kilobits per second

70. MPEG4 Part 10 (H.264) coder requires what network data rate to sustain full motion video at SIF resolution?

• A. Less than 1 kilobit per second

• B. Less than 384 kilobits per second

• C. More than 3,000 kilobits per second

• D. More than 10,000 kilobits per second

71. In a multipoint videoconference your system is 15 fps, and the far-end is 30 fps. How many frames persecond will the far-end viewer see under normal

conference conditions?

• A.7.5 fps

• B.10 fps

• C.15 fps

• D.30 fps

71. In a multipoint videoconference your system is 15 fps, and the far-end is 30 fps. How many frames persecond will the far-end viewer see under normal

conference conditions?

• A.7.5 fps

• B.10 fps

• C.15 fps

• D.30 fps

72. In a point-to-point videoconference your system is 15 fps, and the far-end is 30 fps. How many frames per second will the far-end viewer

see under normal conference conditions?

• A.7.5 fps

• B.10 fps

• C.15 fps

• D.30 fps

72. In a point-to-point videoconference your system is 15 fps, and the far-end is 30 fps. How many frames per second will the far-end viewer

see under normal conference conditions?

• A.7.5 fps

• B.10 fps

• C.15 fps

• D.30 fps

73. Which of the following might cause a video frame rate problem?

• A. Insufficient light source used in the room

• B. Insufficient bandwidth between VTC systems

• C. Carpeting is red color

• D. Walls that are painted red

73. Which of the following might cause a video frame rate problem?

• A. Insufficient light source used in the room

• B. Insufficient bandwidth between VTC systems

• C. Carpeting is red color

• D. Walls that are painted red

74. Network Operating Systems will typically introduce dynamic network functions and security by creating and

controlling a _______hierarchy.

• A. People to People Relationship• B. People to Software Police Relationship• C. Client to Client Relationship• D. Client to Network Switch Relationship• E. Client to Server Relationship• F. Client to Software Police Relationship

74. Network Operating Systems will typically introduce dynamic network functions and security by creating and

controlling a _______hierarchy.

• A. People to People Relationship• B. People to Software Police Relationship• C. Client to Client Relationship• D. Client to Network Switch Relationship• E. Client to Server Relationship• F. Client to Software Police Relationship

75. LDAP is used for which of the following?

• A. Video Directorship

• B. Video Chair Control

• C. Video Far-End Camera Control

• D. Video End Point Directory

75. LDAP is used for which of the following?

• A. Video Directorship

• B. Video Chair Control

• C. Video Far-End Camera Control

• D. Video End Point Directory

76. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol is used to dynamically assign the

• A.MAC address.

• B.ISDN address

• C.IP address

• D.E.164 address

76. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol is used to dynamically assign the

• A.MAC address.

• B.ISDN address

• C.IP address

• D.E.164 address

77. Frame Relay Virtual Private Networks are capable of providing more bandwidth by controlling and increasing the

• A. Circuit Clock.

• B. Network Clock.

• C. Variable Bit Rate.

• D. Committed Information Rate and Burst Rate.

• E. Constant Bit Rate.

77. Frame Relay Virtual Private Networks are capable of providing more bandwidth by controlling and increasing the

• A. Circuit Clock.

• B. Network Clock.

• C. Variable Bit Rate.

• D. Committed Information Rate and Burst Rate.

• E. Constant Bit Rate.

78. Asynchronous Transfer Mode Network is capable of providing which bandwidth?

• A. Unspecified Bit Rate

• B. Real-Time Variable Bit Rate

• C. Non-Real-Time Variable Bit Rate

• D. Constant Bit Rate

• E. Available Bit Rate

• F. All of the above

78. Asynchronous Transfer Mode Network is capable of providing which bandwidth?

• A. Unspecified Bit Rate

• B. Real-Time Variable Bit Rate

• C. Non-Real-Time Variable Bit Rate

• D. Constant Bit Rate

• E. Available Bit Rate

• F. All of the above

79. What is the name of the address field used for Asynchronous Transfer Mode cells?

• A. Virtual Initializer and Address

• B. Virtual Path and Virtual Channel Identifier

• C. Virtual Connection and Virtual Destination Identifier

79. What is the name of the address field used for Asynchronous Transfer Mode cells?

• A. Virtual Initializer and Address

• B. Virtual Path and Virtual Channel Identifier

• C. Virtual Connection and Virtual Destination Identifier

80. Which of the following describes Switched Virtual Circuits?

• A. Permanent connections through a Packet Network

• B. Temporary connections through a DACS• C. Temporary connections through a Packet

Network• D. Dedicated connections through a channel

circuit network

80. Which of the following describes Switched Virtual Circuits?

• A. Permanent connections through a Packet Network

• B. Temporary connections through a DACS• C. Temporary connections through a Packet

Network• D. Dedicated connections through a channel

circuit network

81. How is Multiplexing performed? (Select 3 of the following options.)

• A. By session

• B. By network administrator time of day

• C. By statistical

• D. By performance

• E. By time division

• F. By frequency division

81. How is Multiplexing performed? (Select 3 of the following options.)

• A. By session

• B. By network administrator time of day

• C. By statistical

• D. By performance

• E. By time division

• F. By frequency division

82. Which of the following best describes and defines Packet Jitter?

• A.Serious Packet Loss

• B.Random Packet Discard

• C.Packet Network Errors

• D.Packet Delay Time End to End

• E.Packet Delay Time Variation from Packet to Packet

82. Which of the following best describes and defines Packet Jitter?

• A. Serious Packet Loss

• B. Random Packet Discard

• C. Packet Network Errors

• D. Packet Delay Time End to End

• E. Packet Delay Time Variation from Packet to Packet

83. In an Ethernet shared Hub configuration used for videoconferencing, collisions may occur and be tolerated up to_____ %

Packet Ratio of Packets Collision over Total Packets Transported.

• A. .5

• B. 5

• C. 25

• D. 50

83. In an Ethernet shared Hub configuration used for videoconferencing, collisions may occur and be tolerated up to_____ %

Packet Ratio of Packets Collision over Total Packets Transported.

• A. .5

• B. 5

• C. 25

• D. 50

84. Which of the following best describes Inverse Multiplexing?

• A. Permanently Dividing the Audio and the Video into separate streams

• B. Permanently Splitting a High speed data source into two or more lower speed circuits

• C. Dynamically Splitting a High Speed Data source into two or more lower speed circuits

• D. Dynamically Dividing the Audio and the Video into separate streams

84. Which of the following best describes Inverse Multiplexing?

• A. Permanently Dividing the Audio and the Video into separate streams

• B. Permanently Splitting a High speed data source into two or more lower speed circuits

• C. Dynamically Splitting a High Speed Data source into two or more lower speed circuits

• D. Dynamically Dividing the Audio and the Video into separate streams

85. The Bandwidth on Demand Interoperability Group created four modes for standardized Inverse Multiplexing. Which mode is best

compatible with H.320/221 Video Conferencing?

• A.Mode 1

• B.Mode 2

• C.Mode 3

• D.Mode 4

85. The Bandwidth on Demand Interoperability Group created four modes for standardized Inverse Multiplexing. Which mode is best

compatible with H.320/221 Video Conferencing?

• A.Mode 1

• B.Mode 2

• C.Mode 3

• D.Mode 4

86. Video conferencing systems defined for using a Gatekeeper will interact using the

• A.LAP Protocol

• B.RAS Protocol.

• C.LDAP Protocol.

• D.DNS Protocol.

• E.D-Channel Protocol.

• F.All of the above

86. Video conferencing systems defined for using a Gatekeeper will interact using the

• A.LAP Protocol

• B.RAS Protocol.

• C.LDAP Protocol.

• D.DNS Protocol.

• E.D-Channel Protocol.

87. Videoconferencing sites, when defined as using a Gatekeeper, must successfully first communicate

which of the following commands?

• A.ADM, CCF

• B.ARJ, ACF

• C.RRQ, RRJ

• D.RRQ, RGH

• E.RRQ, RCF

87. Videoconferencing sites, when defined as using a Gatekeeper, must successfully first communicate

which of the following commands?

• A.ADM, CCF

• B.ARJ, ACF

• C.RRQ, RRJ

• D.RRQ, RGH

• E.RRQ, RCF

88. Gatekeeper messages for registration and admission that are successful will always have the Generic structure as: (Note - "XX" - is a

variable value that represents specific Gatekeeper names)

• A.RequestXX, ReplyXX

• B.RequestXX, DenyXXC

• C.XXRequest, XXReply

• D.XXRequest, XXConfirm

• E.XXRequest, XXAcnowledged

88. Gatekeeper messages for registration and admission that are successful will always have the Generic structure as: (Note - "XX" - is a

variable value that represents specific Gatekeeper names)

• A.RequestXX, ReplyXX

• B.RequestXX, DenyXXC

• C.XXRequest, XXReply

• D.XXRequest, XXConfirm

• E.XXRequest, XXAcnowledged

89. Videoconferencing over IP End Point Systems must use signaling to establish a media channel conference Call

Setup. Call Operations are part of what Standard?

• A.LAP / B

• B.LAP / D

• C.H.225/Q.921

• D.H.225/H.261

• E.H.225/Q.931

89. Videoconferencing over IP End Point Systems must use signaling to establish a media channel conference Call

Setup. Call Operations are part of what Standard?

• A.LAP / B

• B.LAP / D

• C.H.225/Q.921

• D.H.225/H.261

• E.H.225/Q.931

90. To setup a Videoconferencing system to be capable of ISDN speeds up to 512 kilobits per second, which of the following is

required? (Select three of the following options.)

• A.3 TE-2• B.4 NT-1• C.4 TE-2• D.1 IMUX with 3 BRI line support• E.1 IMUX with 4 BRI line support• F.3 BRI lines• G.3 NT-1• H.6 BRI lines• I.4 BRI lines

90. To setup a Videoconferencing system to be capable of ISDN speeds up to 512 kilobits per second, which of the following is

required? (Select three of the following options.)

• A.3 TE-2• B.4 NT-1• C.4 TE-2• D.1 IMUX with 3 BRI line support• E.1 IMUX with 4 BRI line support• F.3 BRI lines• G.3 NT-1• H.6 BRI lines• I.4 BRI lines

91. Which of the following apply to a Video Conferencing System? (Select three of the following options.)

• A.Coder / Decoder• B.Audio Translator• C.Audio, Video, Content, and Data Translator• D.Analog to Digital and Digital to Analog Converter• E.Video, Audio, Content, and Data Multiplexer

91. Which of the following apply to a Video Conferencing System? (Select three of the following options.)

• A.Coder / Decoder• B.Audio Translator• C.Audio, Video, Content, and Data Translator• D.Analog to Digital and Digital to Analog Converter• E.Video, Audio, Content, and Data Multiplexer

92. Channel Network Clocks are used to provide the timing source for what kind of data?

• A.Transmit

• B.Receive

• C.Old

• D.Discarded

• E.A and D

• F.A and B

92. Channel Network Clocks are used to provide the timing source for what kind of data?

• A.Transmit

• B.Receive

• C.Old

• D.Discarded

• E.A and D

• F.A and B

93. Clocking Hierarchy for Channel Networks from the Public Network to the customer premise station

equipment is as follows:

• A.Master Clock / Nodal Clock / Recovered Clock / Local Clock

• B.Master Clock / Local Clock / Recovered Clock / Nodal Clock

• C.Recovered Clock / Nodal Clock / Master Clock• D.Master Clock / Nodal Clock / Local Clock /

Recovered Clock

93. Clocking Hierarchy for Channel Networks from the Public Network to the customer premise station

equipment is as follows:

• A.Master Clock / Nodal Clock / Recovered Clock / Local Clock

• B.Master Clock / Local Clock / Recovered Clock / Nodal Clock

• C.Recovered Clock / Nodal Clock / Master Clock• D.Master Clock / Nodal Clock / Local Clock /

Recovered Clock

94. Which two types of Networks are capable of providing consistent, guaranteed QoS Constant Bit Rate Transport

with a steady reliable clock source?

• A.ISDN D-Channel• B.ISDN Circuit Switched Voice• C.ISDN Circuit Switched Data• D.X.25 / X.75 Packet Switching• E.ATM CBR-AAL0 Service• F.Public Virtual Private Network

94. Which two types of Networks are capable of providing consistent, guaranteed QoS Constant Bit Rate Transport

with a steady reliable clock source?

• A.ISDN D-Channel• B.ISDN Circuit Switched Voice• C.ISDN Circuit Switched Data• D.X.25 / X.75 Packet Switching• E.ATM CBR-AAL0 Service• F.Public Virtual Private Network

95. Which of the following best describes Enterprise Internetworking?

• A.T1 line or E1 lines connected to VTCs• B.RS-366 lines connected to MCU• C.Wide Area Networks between VTCs and Camera

Controls• D.Wide Area Networks used as connections between

Network Switch-Routers• E.Wide Area Networks used to connect two dial up

modems• F.Wide Area Networks connecting to Voice Calling

Directors

95. Which of the following best describes Enterprise Internetworking?

• A.T1 line or E1 lines connected to VTCs• B.RS-366 lines connected to MCU• C.Wide Area Networks between VTCs and Camera

Controls• D.Wide Area Networks used as connections between

Network Switch-Routers• E.Wide Area Networks used to connect two dial up

modems• F.Wide Area Networks connecting to Voice Calling

Directors

96. Which of the following are examples of Wide Area Networks with capabilities greater than one Million bits per second throughput?

(Select two of the following options.)

• A.Analog Telephone Line Service• B.Digital Microphone Interfaces• C.Digital Camera Interface• D.T1/E1 line• E.Broadband

96. Which of the following are examples of Wide Area Networks with capabilities greater than one Million bits per second throughput?

(Select two of the following options.)

• A.Analog Telephone Line Service• B.Digital Microphone Interfaces• C.Digital Camera Interface• D.T1/E1 line• E.Broadband

97. Which of the following describes Request for Comment documents?

• A.Internet Protocol Standards specifications• B.WAN hardware specifications of operations• C.Signal Regeneration specifications• D.Signal Loss specifications• E.Signal to noise ratio specifications• F.LAN hardware specifications

97. Which of the following describes Request for Comment documents?

• A. Internet Protocol Standards specifications• B. WAN hardware specifications of operations• C. Signal Regeneration specifications• D. Signal Loss specifications• E. Signal to noise ratio specifications• F. LAN hardware specifications

98. Institute for Electrical and Electronics Engineers group 802 manages

• A.Network repeaters and Network line drivers hardware designs.

• B.Network line padding specifications.• C.Local Area Network specifications• D.Medium Access Control Addressing• E.B and D• F.A and C• G.C and D

98. Institute for Electrical and Electronics Engineers group 802 manages

• A.Network repeaters and Network line drivers hardware designs.

• B.Network line padding specifications.• C.Local Area Network specifications• D.Medium Access Control Addressing• E.B and D• F.A and C• G.C and D

99. Which organizations provide most of the channel networks or DS0 / DS1 / CEPT1 connections to customer

locations worldwide?

• A.Public Switched Telephone Networks• B.Internet Access Providers• C.Cell Phone Carriers• D.Fiber Carriers and Department of Defense• E.Microwave Carriers

99. Which organizations provide most of the channel networks or DS0 / DS1 / CEPT1 connections to customer

locations worldwide?

• A.Public Switched Telephone Networks• B.Internet Access Providers• C.Cell Phone Carriers• D.Fiber Carriers and Department of Defense• E.Microwave Carriers

100. Which of the following best describes 64,000 bits per second?

• A.DS1

• B.DS3

• C.DS0

• D.CEPT1

100. Which of the following best describes 64,000 bits per second?

• A.DS1

• B.DS3

• C.DS0

• D.CEPT1

101. Switched Channel Circuit Networks provide which two-bandwidth speed increments?

• A.48K bits per second• B.64K bytes per second• C.56K bytes per second• D.64K bits per second• E.56K bits per second

101. Switched Channel Circuit Networks provide which two-bandwidth speed increments?

• A.48K bits per second• B.64K bytes per second• C.56K bytes per second• D.64K bits per second• E.56K bits per second

102. Switched Channel Circuit Network by definition is network that provides

• A.Packet switching.• B.Cell Switching.• C.temporary half-duplex connection from point A to point

B.• D.temporary full-duplex connection from point A to point

B.• E.permanent half-duplex network connections from point

A to point B.• F.permanent full-network connections from point A to

point B.

102. Switched Channel Circuit Network by definition is network that provides

• A.Packet switching.• B.Cell Switching.• C.temporary half-duplex connection from point A to point

B.• D.temporary full-duplex connection from point A to point

B.• E.permanent half-duplex network connections from point

A to point B.• F.permanent full-network connections from point A to

point B.

103. Public Internet may be properly and securely connected to the Private Domain Intranet for qualityvideoconferencing by using which of the following

components lists?• A.Broadband Interface and Router• B.Broadband Interface, Network Address Translation

System, and Analog Modem• C.Broadband Interface, Router with Fire Wall & Network

Address Translation System• D.Repeater, Fire Wall, and Network Address Translation

System• E.Analog Modem, Repeaters, Fire Wall, and Network

Address Translation System

103. Public Internet may be properly and securely connected to the Private Domain Intranet for qualityvideoconferencing by using which of the following

components lists?• A.Broadband Interface and Router• B.Broadband Interface, Network Address Translation

System, and Analog Modem• C.Broadband Interface, Router with Fire Wall & Network

Address Translation System• D.Repeater, Fire Wall, and Network Address Translation

System• E.Analog Modem, Repeaters, Fire Wall, and Network

Address Translation System

104. IEEE oversees which of the following?

• A.ANSI standards

• B.ISO standards

• C.802 LAN groups

• D.OSI Model

• E.Bell Standards

104. IEEE oversees which of the following?

• A.ANSI standards

• B.ISO standards

• C.802 LAN groups

• D.OSI Model

• E.Bell Standards

105. Open System Interconnect describes a Model for

• A.3 Layers Communication Protocol Hierarchy with Layer 1 as the most important.

• B.3 Layers Communication Protocol Hierarchy with Layer 3 as the most important.

• C.7 Layers Communication Protocol Hierarchy with layer 7 as the most important.

• D.7 Layers Communication Protocol Hierarchy with layer 1 as the most important.

• E.none of the above.

105. Open System Interconnect describes a Model for

• A.3 Layers Communication Protocol Hierarchy with Layer 1 as the most important.

• B.3 Layers Communication Protocol Hierarchy with Layer 3 as the most important.

• C.7 Layers Communication Protocol Hierarchy with layer 7 as the most important.

• D.7 Layers Communication Protocol Hierarchy with layer 1 as the most important.

• E.none of the above.

106. Which of the following describes one ISDN B Channel?

• A. Network that is unable to function• B. Network that provides 128 kilobits per second• C. Network that provides 4800 kilobits per second• D. Network that provides 1,536,000 bits per second• E. Network that provides 64 kilobits per second• F. Network that provides various rates up to 1,920,000 bits per

second

106. Which of the following describes one ISDN B Channel?

• A. Network that is unable to function• B. Network that provides 128 kilobits per second• C. Network that provides 4800 kilobits per second• D. Network that provides 1,536,000 bits per second• E. Network that provides 64 kilobits per second• F. Network that provides various rates up to 1,920,000 bits per

second

107. Videoconferencing channel synchronous networks may be defined as (Select two of the following options.)

• A.networks capable of speeds up to 2,000,000 bits per second.

• B.networks that can transmit but not receive at the same time.

• C.networks that provide no clocks.• D.networks that can transmit and receive simultaneously

with no clock.• E.networks that require clocks for transmit and receive.

107. Videoconferencing channel synchronous networks may be defined as (Select two of the following options.)

• A.networks capable of speeds up to 2,000,000 bits per second.

• B.networks that can transmit but not receive at the same time.

• C.networks that provide no clocks.• D.networks that can transmit and receive simultaneously

with no clock.• E.networks that require clocks for transmit and receive.

108. Select three of the following networks types that are "Full Duplex".

• A. ISDN B-Channels• B. Ethernet HUB interfaces• C. Ethernet Switch interfaces• D. Ethernet BUS cable interfaces• E. S/T Reference point• F. One Coaxial Cable

108. Select three of the following networks types that are "Full Duplex".

• A. ISDN B-Channels• B. Ethernet HUB interfaces• C. Ethernet Switch interfaces• D. Ethernet BUS cable interfaces• E. S/T Reference point• F. One Coaxial Cable

109. Digital Access Cross-Connect Systems are used for Networks that are

• A.Dedicated Digital Channel Time Division Multiplexing Networks.

• B.Switched Digital Channel Multiplexing Networks.

• C.Packet Network Routers.• D.Ethernet Switches.

109. Digital Access Cross-Connect Systems are used for Networks that are

• A.Dedicated Digital Channel Time Division Multiplexing Networks.

• B.Switched Digital Channel Multiplexing Networks.

• C.Packet Network Routers.• D.Ethernet Switches.

110. Which of the following is Line Coding used for Primary Rate E1?

• A.BRTZ-AMI

• B.B7S

• C.HDB3

• D.B8ZS

• E.Pulse Stuffing

110. Which of the following is Line Coding used for Primary Rate E1?

• A.BRTZ-AMI

• B.B7S

• C.HDB3

• D.B8ZS

• E.Pulse Stuffing

111. Which of the following communication signal procedures are required for a H.323 Videoconferencing

over IP call to establish? (Select three)

• A.Capability Exchange Signals

• B.Selected Communication Mode Signals

• C.Frame Alignment and Bit Rate Allocation Signal

• D.Master/Slave Determination

• E.Logical Channel Signaling

111. Which of the following communication signal procedures are required for a H.323 Videoconferencing

over IP call to establish? (Select three)

• A.Capability Exchange Signals

• B.Selected Communication Mode Signals

• C.Frame Alignment and Bit Rate Allocation Signal

• D.Master/Slave Determination

• E.Logical Channel Signaling

112. MCU operation of H.323 Videoconferencing over IP is defined as which two components?

• A.Network Controller and Multipoint Controller• B.Multipoint Controller and Multipoint Processor• C.Multipoint Processor and Video Controller• D.Audio and Video Controller• E.All of the above

112. MCU operation of H.323 Videoconferencing over IP is defined as which two components?

• A. Network Controller and Multipoint Controller• B. Multipoint Controller and Multipoint Processor• C. Multipoint Processor and Video Controller• D. Audio and Video Controller• E. All of the above

113. Media Gateways will

• A.process information for Video File Transfers.• B.process audio for Multipoint Conferencing.• C.provide Bearer to Bearer Channel Switching.• D.provide Bearer Channel termination and Media Stream

termination and conversion.• E.terminate Packet Networks.

113. Media Gateways will

• A.process information for Video File Transfers.• B.process audio for Multipoint Conferencing.• C.provide Bearer to Bearer Channel Switching.• D.provide Bearer Channel termination and Media Stream

termination and conversion.• E.terminate Packet Networks.

114. Public Switched Telephone Company channel network components starting at the customer site and

continuing to the Far-End site are set up as follows:

• A.Station / Interoffice Facilities / Local Exchange Carrier Digital Switch

• B.Station / Local Loop / Interoffice Facilities / Local Exchange Carrier Digital Switch

• C.Station / Interoffice Facilities / Local Loop / Local Exchange Carrier Digital Switch

• D.Station / Local Loop / Local Exchange Carrier Digital Switch / Interoffice Facilities

114. Public Switched Telephone Company channel network components starting at the customer site and

continuing to the Far-End site are set up as follows:

• A.Station / Interoffice Facilities / Local Exchange Carrier Digital Switch

• B.Station / Local Loop / Interoffice Facilities / Local Exchange Carrier Digital Switch

• C.Station / Interoffice Facilities / Local Loop / Local Exchange Carrier Digital Switch

• D.Station / Local Loop / Local Exchange Carrier Digital Switch / Interoffice Facilities

115. Defective Local Loop may introduce what two problems? (Pick two of the following options.)

• A.Cyclic Redundancy Errors• B.Network Channel Clocking Delay• C.Over-voltage to codec power supply• D.Over-voltage to the codec camera• E.Intermittent codec network connections

115. Defective Local Loop may introduce what two problems? (Pick two of the following options.)

• A.Cyclic Redundancy Errors• B.Network Channel Clocking Delay• C.Over-voltage to codec power supply• D.Over-voltage to the codec camera• E.Intermittent codec network connections

116. Customer owned Private Branch Exchange is best described as

• A.a switch located at the Network Facilities office.• B.a multiplexer located at the customer premise.• C.a switch located at the customer premise.• D.an obsolete network device.• E.All of the above

116. Customer owned Private Branch Exchange is best described as

• A.a switch located at the Network Facilities office.• B.a multiplexer located at the customer premise.• C.a switch located at the customer premise.• D.an obsolete network device.• E.All of the above

117. Broadband Connectivity is synonymous with

• A. Asynchronous Transfer Mode Networks.• B. Internet Protocol Networks.• C. Frame Relay Networks.• D. Digital Subscriber Line Services.• E. Cable Modem Internet Services.• F. All of the above

117. Broadband Connectivity is synonymous with

• A. Asynchronous Transfer Mode Networks.• B. Internet Protocol Networks.• C. Frame Relay Networks.• D. Digital Subscriber Line Services.• E. Cable Modem Internet Services.• F. All of the above

118. Which Network Services speeds are governed by cable length and cable wire gauge?

• A. Packet Switching

• B. Integrated Services Digital Network Primary Rate

• C.D-Channels

• D.B-Channels

• E. Digital Subscriber Line Services

118. Which Network Services speeds are governed by cable length and cable wire gauge?

• A. Packet Switching

• B. Integrated Services Digital Network Primary Rate

• C.D-Channels

• D.B-Channels

• E. Digital Subscriber Line Services

119. SONET Optical Carrier - 3 or OC-3 is what speed?

• A.155M data packets per second

• B.155M bits per second

• C.155M bytes per second

• D.155M blocks per second

119. SONET Optical Carrier - 3 or OC-3 is what speed?

• A.155M data packets per second

• B.155M bits per second

• C.155M bytes per second

• D.155M blocks per second

120. T1 trunks are capable of supporting up to

• A. 5 - 384,000 bit per second connections.

• B. 4 - 384,000 bit per second connections.

• C. 3 - 384,000 bit per second connections.

• D. 2 - 384,000 bit per second connections.

120. T1 trunks are capable of supporting up to

• A. 5 - 384,000 bit per second connections.

• B. 4 - 384,000 bit per second connections.

• C. 3 - 384,000 bit per second connections.

• D. 2 - 384,000 bit per second connections.

121. E1 trunks are capable of supporting up to

• A.6 - 384,000 bit per second connections.• B.7 - 384,000 bit per second connections.• C.5 - 384,000 bit per second connections.• D.4 - 384,000 bit per second connections.

121. E1 trunks are capable of supporting up to

• A.6 - 384,000 bit per second connections.• B.7 - 384,000 bit per second connections.• C.5 - 384,000 bit per second connections.• D.4 - 384,000 bit per second connections.

122. ISDN Primary Rate provided by Public Networks in Europe, Asia, Latin America, and Australia use

• A.three Basic Rate Circuits.• B.one T1 Interface.• C.one E1 Interface.• D.one T3 Interface.

122. ISDN Primary Rate provided by Public Networks in Europe, Asia, Latin America, and Australia use

• A.three Basic Rate Circuits.• B.one T1 Interface.• C.one E1 Interface.• D.one T3 Interface.

123. Which of the following are two examples of Fiber Optic interface problems? (Choose two of the

following options.)

• A.Splice loss and connection loss

• B.Noise

• C.Gravity

• D.Cable bends

• E.EMI - Electro Magnetic Interference

• F.RFI Radio Frequency Interference

124. Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line Services is best described as a network that provides

• A.a Constant Clocked Rate of bits per second in both directions.

• B.a Half Duplex Network operation.

• C.equal bandwidth in both directions.

• D.unequal band width in both directions

124. Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line Services is best described as a network that provides

• A.a Constant Clocked Rate of bits per second in both directions.

• B.a Half Duplex Network operation.

• C.equal bandwidth in both directions.

• D.unequal band width in both directions

125. When using Rob-Bit-Signaling or Channel Associated Signaling and Pulse Stuffing Line coding, how many kilobits

are transmitted and received per second?

• A.32

• B.48

• C.56

• D.64

• E.128

• F.256

• G.512

125. When using Rob-Bit-Signaling or Channel Associated Signaling and Pulse Stuffing Line coding, how many kilobits

are transmitted and received per second?

• A.32

• B.48

• C.56

• D.64

• E.128

• F.256

• G.512

126. ISDN provides out-of-band signaling by introducing

• A.Digital Data splicing for signals.

• B.Data Channel for signals.

• C.Bearer Channel for signals.

• D.Supplementary Channel for signals.

126. ISDN provides out-of-band signaling by introducing

• A.Digital Data splicing for signals.

• B.Data Channel for signals.

• C.Bearer Channel for signals.

• D.Supplementary Channel for signals.

127. Ethernet can run at which of the following speeds?

• A.10/100/1000 Million Blocks per second

• B.10/100/1000 Million Bytes per second

• C.10/100/1000 Million Bits per second

• D.10/100/1000 Million Packets per second

127. Ethernet can run at which of the following speeds?

• A.10/100/1000 Million Blocks per second

• B.10/100/1000 Million Bytes per second

• C.10/100/1000 Million Bits per second

• D.10/100/1000 Million Packets per second

128. Ethernet is capable of automatically sensing the speed and duplicity of the LAN connection by using which

process?

• A.Flash Link Pulse

• B.Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol

• C.Domain Name Services

• D.Light-weight Directory Access Protocol

• E.Resource Reservation Protocol

• F.RAS Protocol

128. Ethernet is capable of automatically sensing the speed and duplicity of the LAN connection by using which

process?

• A.Flash Link Pulse

• B.Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol

• C.Domain Name Services

• D.Light-weight Directory Access Protocol

• E.Resource Reservation Protocol

• F.RAS Protocol

129. Ethernet has standardized cable configurations documented in the TIA/EIA. Which of the following

specifications are Ethernet? (select two)

• A.RS-170

• B.RS-568a

• C.RS-530a

• D.RS-568b

• E.RS-530b

129. Ethernet has standardized cable configurations documented in the TIA/EIA. Which of the following

specifications are Ethernet? (select two)

• A.RS-170

• B.RS-568a

• C.RS-530a

• D.RS-568b

• E.RS-530b

130. Session Initiated Protocol is used to replace what?

• A.Gateways

• B.Ethernet Routers

• C.Multipoint Conferencing (Control) Unit

• D.Analog Telephone Option

• E.Gatekeeper

130. Session Initiated Protocol is used to replace what?

• A.Gateways

• B.Ethernet Routers

• C.Multipoint Conferencing (Control) Unit

• D.Analog Telephone Option

• E.Gatekeeper

131. Session Initiated Protocol uses which command for Call Setup?

• A.Registration Request packet• B.Admission Request packet• C.Invite packet• D.IP Call Setup packets described in Q.931• E.IP Call Setup packets described in Q.921• F.None of the above

131. Session Initiated Protocol uses which command for Call Setup?

• A.Registration Request packet• B.Admission Request packet• C.Invite packet• D.IP Call Setup packets described in Q.931• E.IP Call Setup packets described in Q.921• F.None of the above

132. Which four digital interfaces are capable of operating at rates up to 2 Million Bits per second?

• A.RS-232• B.V.35• C.V.25• D.RS530• E.X.21• F.RS449• G.X.25• H.Q.931

132. Which four digital interfaces are capable of operating at rates up to 2 Million Bits per second?

• A.RS-232• B.V.35• C.V.25• D.RS530• E.X.21• F.RS449• G.X.25• H.Q.931

133. Data conferencing and control system interfaces are Asynchronous and require which five settings?

• A. Steady ones Setting• B. Start bits Setting• C. Stop Bits Setting• D. Parity Setting• E. Bit Rate Setting• F. Byte length Setting• G. Flag Sync Setting• H. Flow Control Setting

133. Data conferencing and control system interfaces are Asynchronous and require which five settings?

• A. Steady ones Setting• B. Start bits Setting• C. Stop Bits Setting• D. Parity Setting• E. Bit Rate Setting• F. Byte length Setting• G. Flag Sync Setting• H. Flow Control Setting

134. EIA/TIA RS-449/422 Digital Interface cable specification describes cable length of up to _____ at

network speed of 384 kilobits per second.

• A.4000 yards• B.250 feet• C.150 feet• D.1450 feet• E.9000 feet

134. EIA/TIA RS-449/422 Digital Interface cable specification describes cable length of up to _____ at

network speed of 384 kilobits per second.

• A.4000 yards• B.250 feet• C.150 feet• D.1450 feet• E.9000 feet

135. Which of the following refers to Line coding used with the 2-wire, U reference of a Basic Rate Interface?

• A.BRTZ-AMI

• B.HDB3

• C.2B1Q

135. Which of the following refers to Line coding used with the 2-wire, U reference of a Basic Rate Interface?

• A.BRTZ-AMI

• B.HDB3

• C.2B1Q

136. The Network Feature Protocol used to allow the sharing of a Layer 3 IP to be used to originate IP sessions on the Private Network

and allow for one Layer 3 address with various Layer 4 address connections on the Public Internet is called_______

• A.Network Gateway Translation.• B.Network Address Translation.• C.Port Address Translation.• D.Fire Wall Translation.• E.Bearer Services.• F.Wire Services.

136. The Network Feature Protocol used to allow the sharing of a Layer 3 IP to be used to originate IP sessions on the Private Network

and allow for one Layer 3 address with various Layer 4 address connections on the Public Internet is called_______

• A.Network Gateway Translation.• B.Network Address Translation.• C.Port Address Translation.• D.Fire Wall Translation.• E.Bearer Services.• F.Wire Services.

137. Network Address Translation works in which OSI Layer?

• A.Layer 3

• B.Layer 4

• C.Layer 5

• D.None of the above

137. Network Address Translation works in which OSI Layer?

• A.Layer 3

• B.Layer 4

• C.Layer 5

138. When Ordering ISDN for Video Conferencing H.320, the most important request of information from the Network

Provider is

• A.length of the Copper Wire used for BRI or PRI medium at customer premise.

• B.Switch Vendor Name.• C.Switch Protocol being used.• D.Switch Interoffice Facilities type

138. When Ordering ISDN for Video Conferencing H.320, the most important request of information from the Network

Provider is

• A.length of the Copper Wire used for BRI or PRI medium at customer premise.

• B.Switch Vendor Name.• C.Switch Protocol being used.• D.Switch Interoffice Facilities type

139. Network Specific Facilities Identifier in the "Call Setup Packet" allows for the selection of network_________

• A.speed.

• B.priority.

• C.carrier.

• D.dialed numbers.

139. Network Specific Facilities Identifier in the "Call Setup Packet" allows for the selection of network_________

• A.speed.

• B.priority.

• C.carrier.

• D.dialed numbers.

140. When configuring VTCs and MCUs to Statically configured IP networks what three settings would

need to be provided for the system parameters?

• A.IP Address• B.IP Network Speed in Packets per second• C.IP Network Speed in Bytes per second• D.IP Date and Time Clock• E.IP Mask• F.Default Gateway (Router)• G.IP Network Provider Name• H.Domain Name Settings

140. When configuring VTCs and MCUs to Statically configured IP networks what three settings would

need to be provided for the system parameters?

• A.IP Address• B.IP Network Speed in Packets per second• C.IP Network Speed in Bytes per second• D.IP Date and Time Clock• E.IP Mask• F.Default Gateway (Router)• G.IP Network Provider Name• H.Domain Name Settings

141. Gateway Calls for IP to ISDN will require the _________settings for call setup.

• A.Gateway V.35 port and ISDN destination number• B.Gateway Q.931 port and ISDN destination number• C.Gateway Prefix-Bandwidth and ISDN destination

number• D.Gateway RTP Address and ISDN destination number• E.A and B.• F.C and D

141. Gateway Calls for IP to ISDN will require the _________settings for call setup.

• A.Gateway V.35 port and ISDN destination number• B.Gateway Q.931 port and ISDN destination number• C.Gateway Prefix-Bandwidth and ISDN destination

number• D.Gateway RTP Address and ISDN destination number• E.A and B.• F.C and D

142. Which three ISDN Switch Protocols are used by Public network Providers in Europe, Latin America, and

Middle/Far East? (Select three of the following options.)

• A.NI-1• B.5ESS• C.DMS• D.ETS300• E.NET-3• F.TS014 and TS013

142. Which three ISDN Switch Protocols are used by Public network Providers in Europe, Latin America, and

Middle/Far East? (Select three of the following options.)

• A.NI-1• B.5ESS• C.DMS• D.ETS300• E.NET-3• F.TS014 and TS013

143. Full Duplex Ethernet Operation can be achieved by using_____

• A.Single Fiber Optic Cable Network.

• B.Ethernet HUB.

• C.Ethernet Switches.

• D.Ethernet COAX Cable

143. Full Duplex Ethernet Operation can be achieved by using_____

• A.Single Fiber Optic Cable Network.

• B.Ethernet HUB.

• C.Ethernet Switches.

• D.Ethernet COAX Cable

144. Two VTCs in a call running over the same Ethernet Switch and are experiencing a video striping

display problem, which is impairing the video call quality. What could cause the problem?

• A.Too much bandwidth is available

• B.Not enough bandwidth is available

• C.Both End Points are running Full Duplex

• D.Both End Points are running Half Duplex

• E.One End Point is Full Duplex and the Other is Half Duplex

144. Two VTCs in a call running over the same Ethernet Switch and are experiencing a video striping

display problem, which is impairing the video call quality. What could cause the problem?

• A.Too much bandwidth is available

• B.Not enough bandwidth is available

• C.Both End Points are running Full Duplex

• D.Both End Points are running Half Duplex

• E.One End Point is Full Duplex and the Other is Half Duplex

145. Which Network Alarm statuses are used to monitor network facilities trunk services?

• A.RED & GREEN Alarms

• B.GREEN & YELLOW Alarms

• C.RED & YELLOW Alarms

• D.RED & ORANGE Alarms

145. Which Network Alarm statuses are used to monitor network facilities trunk services?

• A.RED & GREEN Alarms

• B.GREEN & YELLOW Alarms

• C.RED & YELLOW Alarms

• D.RED & ORANGE Alarms

146. YELLOW Alarm at your location represents which condition?

• A.The Network is having errors.

• B.The Network is up without errors.

• C.The other end is in a YELLOW Alarm status.

• D.The other end is in a RED Alarm status.

• E.Your location is down and the other location is up and running in both directions without any problems.

146. YELLOW Alarm at your location represents which condition?

• A.The Network is having errors.

• B.The Network is up without errors.

• C.The other end is in a YELLOW Alarm status.

• D.The other end is in a RED Alarm status.

• E.Your location is down and the other location is up and running in both directions without any problems.

147. BERT testing is used for what purpose?

• A.Verifying the number of Video bit errors

• B.Verifying the number of the Network bit errors

• C.Verifying the number of Audio bit errors

147. BERT testing is used for what purpose?

• A.Verifying the number of Video bit errors

• B.Verifying the number of the Network bit errors

• C.Verifying the number of Audio bit errors

148. Which test equipment is used to verify ISDN Q.931 messages?

• A.Bit Error Rate Test set

• B.Break out Box

• C.Distortion Analyzer

• D.Protocol Analyzer

148. Which test equipment is used to verify ISDN Q.931 messages?

• A.Bit Error Rate Test set

• B.Break out Box

• C.Distortion Analyzer

• D.Protocol Analyzer

149. LAN frame traffic can be examined at the bit or byte level by using

• A.an Ethernet Packet Switching Multiplexer.• B.an Ethernet Packet Multiplexer and Data

Compression Interface.• C.a simple network management protocol.• D.an Ethernet Packet Analyzer Application.• E.an Ethernet Packet Transport Throughput

Measurement Testing Application• F.an Oscilloscope.

149. LAN frame traffic can be examined at the bit or byte level by using

• A.an Ethernet Packet Switching Multiplexer.• B.an Ethernet Packet Multiplexer and Data

Compression Interface.• C.a simple network management protocol.• D.an Ethernet Packet Analyzer Application.• E.an Ethernet Packet Transport Throughput

Measurement Testing Application• F.an Oscilloscope.

150. Videoconference rate of a H.323 IP Call requires the packet examination of which of the

following?

• A.Medium Access Control Layer

• B.IP Header

• C.UDP Header

• D.TCP Layer

• E.Packet Payload

• F.Gatekeeper Registration Request

• G.RTP Header

150. Videoconference rate of a H.323 IP Call requires the packet examination of which of the

following?

• A.Medium Access Control Layer

• B.IP Header

• C.UDP Header

• D.TCP Layer

• E.Packet Payload

• F.Gatekeeper Registration Request

• G.RTP Header

151. 802.3 MAC format is used for which type of network?

A.Point to Point Serial ModemsB.Asynchronous Transfer ModeC.Token RingD.RS-530 and V.35E.EthernetF.All of the above

151. 802.3 MAC format is used for which type of network?

A.Point to Point Serial ModemsB.Asynchronous Transfer ModeC.Token RingD.RS-530 and V.35E.EthernetF.All of the above

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