CPP STUDY GUIDE # 1 1 - 566. CPP STUDY GUIDE QUESTIONS.

CPPCPP

STUDY GUIDE # 1 1 - 566

CPPCPP

STUDY GUIDE

QUESTIONS

Emergency PlanningEmergency Planning

Sample Questions

1. Searches made during work hours as a result of a bomb threat call should be made by:

• a. Local Police Department• b. Military Police• c. Federal investigative personnel• d. Employees familiar with work area where

bomb is reportedly located

1. Searches made during work hours as a result of a bomb threat call should be made by:

• a. Local Police Department• b. Military Police• c. Federal investigative personnel• d. Employees familiar with work area

where bomb is reportedly located

2. A cooperative organization of industrial firms, business firms, and similar organizations within an industrial community that are united by a voluntary agreement to assist each other by providing materials, equipment and personnel needed to ensure effective industrial disaster control during emergencies is called:

• a. Emergency Squads• b. Mutual Aid Association• c. Community Emergency Cooperatives• d. Disaster Control Squads

3. Which of the following procedures should not be advocated as part of emergency planning?

• a. Emergency plan should be in writing• b. Emergency plan should be revisited as

needed• c. Distribution should be limited to senior

management• d. Plan should be tested through practice

4. The greatest single destroyer of property is:

• a. Bombs

• b. Sabotage

• c. Fire

• d. Earthquakes

5. Responsibility for shutdown of machines in the plant as a result of disaster should be assigned to:

• a. The security officers on duty• b. The maintenance persons on duty• c. The persons familiar with the shutdown

process• d. The plant manager

6. In the event the media makes contact as a result of a crisis situation, they should:

• a. Be given “no comment”• b. Be put in touch with person designated in

the emergency plan for orderly release of information

• c. Be put in contact with the president of the company

• d. Be put in contact with the plant manager

7. Which of the following does not fit into good emergency planning?

• a. An individual should be appointed as coordinator

• b. Plan should be reduced to writing• c. Plan should be simple• d. A new organization should be developed to

handle emergency situations

7. Which of the following does not fit into good emergency planning?

• a. An individual should be appointed as coordinator

• b. Plan should be reduced to writing• c. Plan should be simple• d. A new organization should be developed

to handle emergency situations

8. The ionization fire detector warns of fire by responding to:

• a. Invisible products of combustion emitted by a fire at its earliest stages

• b. Infrared emissions from flames• c. Light changes• d. Smoke

8. The ionization fire detector warns of fire by responding to:

• a. Invisible products of combustion emitted by a fire at its earliest stages - incipient stage

• b. Infrared emissions from flames• c. Light changes• d. Smoke

9. The fire detector which responds to a predetermined temperature or to an increase in temperature is known as:

• a. Ionization detector• b. Photoelectric smoke detector• c. Infrared flame detector• d. Thermal detector

10. The fire detector which responds to changes or interruption in the light source is known as:

• a. The ionization detector• b. The photoelectric smoke detector• c. The infrared flame detector• d. The thermal detector

11. After a bomb threat is made, if suspicious object is found during search, it should be:

• a. Handled with great care• b. Disarmed immediately• c. Reported immediately to the designated

authorities• d. Placed in a bucket of water

12. The removal of any suspected bomb should be by:

• a. Proprietary guard force• b. Office employees• c. Professional bomb-disposal personnel• d. The patrol office of the city police

department

13. Which of the following is not suggested behavior for the victim of a kidnapping?

• a. Stay calm• b. Do not cooperate with captors• c. Do not try to escape unless good chance of

success• d. Try to remember events

14. In connection with corporate kidnappings by terrorist, the decision as to whether ransom is to be paid should be made by:

• a. Local police• b. Spouse or blood relative of victim• c. City government• d. Highest corporate level

15. Which of the following should not be applicable to the development of an effective emergency disaster plan:

• a. Plan should be written• b. It should involve the minimum number of

people possible in the preparation of the plan

• c. It should contain an inventory of available resources

• d. It should list preventative measures

15. Which of the following should not be applicable to the development of an effective emergency disaster plan:

• a. Plan should be written• b. It should involve the minimum number

of people possible in the preparation of the plan

• c. It should contain an inventory of available resources

• d. It should list preventative measures

16. Earthquake emergency plans should stress safest place during a quake is:

• a. Within work area under pre-selected cover

• b. At work in open spaces away from building

• c. At home

• d. In a building made of concrete

17. In a strike, the refusal by management to allow members of the bargaining unit on the premises is called:

• a. A lockout

• b. Shutout

• c. Lock in

• d. Permissive picketing

18. At the time of a strike, if no guard force is available, the following action should be taken:

• a. Immediately hire one• b. Mobilize supervisory personnel into a patrol

group• c. Have police come on property to act as

security force• d. Have maintenance employees trained to act

as guards

18. At the time of a strike, if no guard force is available, the following action should be taken:

• a. Immediately hire one• b. Mobilize supervisory personnel into a

patrol group• c. Have police come on property to act as

security force• d. Have maintenance employees trained to act

as guards

19. In a labor dispute which of the following measures is not advisable:

• a. Change all perimeter gate padlocks• b. Issue special passes to non-striking

employees• c. Notify employees who go to work to keep

windows rolled up• d. Armed guards

20. Usually the most difficult part of an Executive Protection Plan is:

• a. To secure trained personnel

• b. To initiate liaison with Federal Agencies

• c. To initiate liaison with local authorities

• d. To convince the executive being protected on the need for such protection

21. Which of the following is not recommended action with regard to survival of earthquakes:

• a. If outside, immediately go inside

• b. Keep calm

• c. Douse all fires

• d. Keep away from utility wires

22. Of all reported bomb threats, it is estimated that the percentage of real threats is:

• a. 2-5%

• b. 7-10%

• c. 15%

• d. Less than 1%

23. A full evacuation of a building should be ordered upon receipt of a bomb threat when:

• a. The caller is credible and refuses to name a specific bomb location

• b. Any threat is received• c. Threat is received during working hours• d. The caller has a foreign accent

24. You are charged with the responsibility for formulating a disaster plan to handle emergencies which arise as a result of earthquakes. Which of the following warnings to be issued to employees as to their actions during the shaking should not be included in the plan?

• a. If employees are outside, proceed to the nearest building and head for the basement

• b. If employees are indoors at the time of the shaking, they should stay there

• c. If inside, take cover under sturdy furniture

• d. If inside, stay near center of building

25. Earthquakes constitute a definite concern to the emergency management responsibilities of security managers in certain areas of the country. Accordingly, it is incumbent upon our security professionals to have a clear understanding of the basic facts concerning earthquakes. Which of the following is an incorrect statement?

• a. Earthquakes are unpredictable and strike without warning

• b. Earthquakes may last from a few seconds to as much as 5 minutes

• c. The actual movement of the ground in an earthquake is usually the direct cause of

injury or death

25. Earthquakes constitute a definite concern to the emergency management responsibilities of security managers in certain areas of the country. Accordingly, it is incumbent upon our security professionals to have a clear understanding of the basic facts concerning earthquakes. Which of the following is an incorrect statement?• a. Earthquakes are unpredictable and strike

without warning• b. Earthquakes may last from a few seconds to

as much as 5 minutes• c. The actual movement of the ground in an

earthquake is usually the direct cause of injury or death ( Falling materials is cause)

26. Potential disasters caused by man should be included when developing a firm’s emergency plan. One of the most common man-made disasters is the plant fire. Which of the following is considered to be the most important aspect of plans coping with major plant fires?

• a. To make certain that the plant’s fire-fighting equipment is adequate and in good

operating condition

• b. To make certain plant personnel are well-trained in fire-fighting techniques

• c. To make certain that mutual assistance agreements have been developed with local

governments, other plants and nearby installations

26. Potential disasters caused by man should be included when developing a firm’s emergency plan. One of the most common man-made disasters is the plant fire. Which of the following is considered to be the most important aspect of plans coping with major plant fires?

• a. To make certain that the plant’s fire-fighting equipment is adequate and in good

operating condition

• b. To make certain plant personnel are well-trained in fire-fighting techniques

• c. To make certain that mutual assistance agreements have been developed

with local governments, other plants and nearby installations

27. Compared with other plant emergencies, bomb threats present a highly complex problem for plant management and emergency service personnel. Which of the following actions should not be in the bomb threat emergency plan as it is incorrect?

• a. Planning to meet the threat should include contact with nearby military explosive ordnance disposal detachment (EODD)

• b. Prior planning should include contact with the local police department

• c. Training programs for plant specialists in handling improvised explosive devices should be utilized

when available from the military EODD• d. The Chief of Police must make the decision whether

or not to evacuate building after a bomb threat has been received

27. Compared with other plant emergencies, bomb threats present a highly complex problem for plant management and emergency service personnel. Which of the following actions should not be in the bomb threat emergency plan as it is incorrect?

• a. Planning to meet the threat should include contact with nearby military explosive ordnance disposal detachment (EODD)

• b. Prior planning should include contact with the local police department

• c. Training programs for plant specialists in handling improvised explosive devices should be utilized

when available from the military EODD• d. The Chief of Police must make the decision

whether or not to evacuate building after a bomb threat has been received

28. The continuity of business and industrial leadership and direction are essential parts of all industrial emergency plans. The following specific measures should be included in the development of a plan for continuity of leadership except:

• a. Assure a functioning board of directors• b. Establish lines of succession for key officers

and operating personnel• c. Establish an alternate company headquarters• d. Provide for special stockholder’s meeting

immediately after attack to provide for methods of operation

29. In reviewing the emergency plans of the XYZ Corporation, the legal counsel of the firm notes that there is a definite possibility that a quorum of the board of directors cannot be readily assembled which will not allow action in accordance with law. Which of the following methods generally would not be acceptable to remedy this legal problem?

• a. Reduce the quorum number if allowed by the state

• b. Summary filling of board vacancies if allowed by the state

• c. Establishment of an emergency management committee, if allowed by the state

• d. Utilizing chain of command, execute proper power of attorney papers for the top 3 officials so the most

senior could execute legal affairs if board not functioning

29. In reviewing the emergency plans of the XYZ Corporation, the legal counsel of the firm notes that there is a definite possibility that a quorum of the board of directors cannot be readily assembled which will not allow action in accordance with law. Which of the following methods generally would not be acceptable to remedy this legal problem?

• a. Reduce the quorum number if allowed by the state• b. Summary filling of board vacancies if allowed by the state

• c. Establishment of an emergency management committee, if allowed by the state

• d. Utilizing chain of command, execute proper power of attorney papers for the top 3

officials so the most senior could execute legal affairs if board not functioning

30. In devising plans to protect vital records during an emergency, a prime decision to make would be the identification of vital records. Whether such records are vital depends, to a large extent, upon the type of business conducted. However, as a general rule, all of the following would be considered vital to any corporate organization except:

• a. The incorporation papers• b. Personal identification fingerprints of employees• c. The by-laws of the corporation• d. The stock record books• e. B of Dir minutes and certain corporate fin records

30. In devising plans to protect vital records during an emergency, a prime decision to make would be the identification of vital records. Whether such records are vital depends, to a large extent, upon the type of business conducted. However, as a general rule, all of the following would be considered vital to any corporate organization except:

• a. The incorporation papers• b. Personal identification fingerprints of

employees• c. The by-laws of the corporation• d. The stock record books• e. B of Dir minutes and certain corporate fin records

31. Which of the following statements is incorrect in selecting records to be included in a vital records program:

• a. Management should protect vital records by systematically determining what information is vital

• b. The vital records protection program is an administrative device for preserving existing records

• c. If a particular record does not contain vital information, it has no place in the company’s vital records protection program - even though having

other value to the company• d. Decision making in determining individual vital

records should be rapid. A record either contains vital information or it does not

32. Effective protection of this vital information in a data environment is complicated for a number of reasons. Which of the following is incorrect in this regard:

• a. A nuclear detonation produces an electro-magnetic pulse (EMP) which could cause considerable damage. However well tested EMP protective devices are available

• b. Formerly dispersed information is consolidated, which intensifies its exposure to possible destruction or

compromise

• c. The data processing medium is extremely vulnerable to a wide variety of perils such as fire, water, dirt and hazardous

chemical gases

• d. Both the computer and the area in which it is located must be protected along with the vital information

32. Effective protection of this vital information in a data environment is complicated for a number of reasons. Which of the following is incorrect in this regard:

• a. A nuclear detonation produces an electro-magnetic pulse (EMP) which could cause considerable damage. However well tested EMP protective devices are available (wrong)

• b. Formerly dispersed information is consolidated, which intensifies its exposure to possible destruction or

compromise

• c. The data processing medium is extremely vulnerable to a wide variety of perils such as fire, water, dirt and hazardous

chemical gases

• d. Both the computer and the area in which it is located must be protected along with the vital information

33. The president of the ZYX Company expresses concern relative to the company’s ability to act in time of emergency to protect life and property. He instructs that you undertake the necessary action to establish the desired emergency capability within the facility. Which of the following should be the first step in initiating this action?

• a. Contact established guard companies to make bids to oversee the operations

• b. An emergency coordinator should be appointed at the corporate level

• c. Make a physical survey of the plant• d. Form a committee of key executives to

operate out of the command center

34. In establishing a disaster plan, provision should be incorporated which would permit you to be prepared for a variety of emergency situations.Which of the following probably would not have a key role in such plans? • a. Employee welfare service

• b. Rescue teams

• c. The recreational coordinator

• d. Radiological Defense Service

35. Perhaps one of the most difficult tasks in planning for disasters and emergencies is the actual formulation of a basic disaster plan. Which of the following is an incorrect procedure in developing such a plan?

• a. The basic plan should provide for coordination of government and company actions before and during a disaster

• b. A glossary of terms used should be included

• c. There should be a listing of types of emergencies limited to those experienced by the company in the past

• d. The plan should utilize appendices as needed such as maps, call-up lists and mutual aid agreements

35. Perhaps one of the most difficult tasks in planning for disasters and emergencies is the actual formulation of a basic disaster plan. Which of the following is an incorrect procedure in developing such a plan?

• a. The basic plan should provide for coordination of government and company actions before and

during a disaster

• b. A glossary of terms used should be included

• c. There should be a listing of types of emergencies limited to those experienced by the company

in the past

• d. The plan should utilize appendices as needed such as maps, call-up lists and mutual aid agreements

36. While protection of people is the first priority in emergency planning, shutdown procedures must be thorough and done by those who are trained to do so. Your disaster plans should have such shutdown procedures assigned to:

• a. The security force• b. The plant manager• c. Employees on each shift who handle these

procedures on a regular basis• d. The fire brigade

36. While protection of people is the first priority in emergency planning, shutdown procedures must be thorough and done by those who are trained to do so. Your disaster plans should have such shutdown procedures assigned to:

• a. The security force• b. The plant manager• c. Employees on each shift who handle

these procedures on a regular basis• d. The fire brigade

37. In order to adequately plan for emergencies, the security manager must make certain that this corporation has access to all necessary resources that will save lives, minimize damages, and insure the continued operation of rapid restoration of damaged member plants. Most plants assure access to such resources by:

• a. Providing for a budget which will supply all the resources needed to cope with a major emergency

• b. Establishing appropriate liaison with the police, fire, rescue and medical forces of the community to provide services as needed

• c. Relying upon their own self-help organization and equipment and joining hands with other plants in

the community for mutual aid

38. In forming an industrial mutual aid association, a number of definitive plans must be made. Which of the following is not true and should not be relied upon in formulating these plans?

• a. Each member firm must be willing to defray Industrial Mutual Aid Association expenses

• b. Capital outlay and operating costs are usually modest

• c. The basic operating element of a mutual aid association is an operating board

• d. Any industrial mutual aid association should be established in advance of emergencies

39. A key role in any emergency will be played by the plant manager or in his place, such authorized official as emergency coordinator or security chief. Which of the following should not be done personally by this official

• a. Take personal charge off all operations at the disaster scene

• b. Activate the plant center• c. Alert and inform head of local government

emergency coordinator• d. Brief plant control center staff on the

emergency

40. The keys to the success of any emergency organization and plan are training and testing. In designing effective testing procedures, the following are all valid observations except:

• a. Records should be maintained so deficiencies can be corrected following the test

• b. The testing exercise should be as realistic as possible

• c. Plenty of advance notice should be given so all possible preparations can be made

• d. One of the best times to test the plant emergency plan is in coordination with your local government periodic test exercises

Significant NotesSignificant Notes

Emergency Planning

The most significant hazard threatening industrial facilities is fire

A new organization should not be developed to handle emergency situations, but existing organizations should be prepared to take care of the situations

A search is made after every bomb threat call

The search includes common areas, occupied areas, and

unoccupied areas

Control over the entry of personnel and materials is the

most important countermeasure to bombs

The emergency plan is tested at least annually

Data media must be protected in specially insulated records containers which protect the contents against temperatures up to 150 F and 80% humidity

The automatic sprinkler system is ordinarily activated by the melting of a metal seal and water then flows through the system when the head valves are released

Government and industry share the responsibility for emergency and disaster planning

The emergency plan must be distributed to all personnel with responsibility for action

A “bomb blanket” is used only by specifically trained personnel

“Vital Records” are those necessary to insure the survival of the business. Vital records usually constitute no more than 2 percent of a corporation’s records

Responsibility for a shutdown should be assigned to persons familiar with the process

The emergency plan is activated by the facility manager, the President,

or the CEO

The emergency plan should be directive in nature

In a fire, the facility must have “the capability to respond quickly with well trained personnel to contain and extinguish the fire”.

In a high rise building, partial evacuation includes the floor

above and the floor below

The most common of all terrorist tactics is

bombing

The purposes of emergency planning are to:

a. Anticipate the emergency

b. Provide action during the emergency; and

c. Return to normal operations

In dealing with plant fires, mutual assistance and prior coordination with the fire department is essential. The critical element is the ability to respond quickly with well trained personnel to contain and extinguish the fire

A tidal wave (TSUNAMI) is caused by underwater

disturbances

A “hurricane warning” is issued when it is determined that winds

of 74 mph or higher will be encountered

“Tornadoes” are violent local storms with whirling winds that can reach 200 - 400 m.p.h. The width of a tornado ranges from 200 yards to one mile and travels 5-30 miles along the ground at speeds of 30-70 m.p.h.

Tornado watch - tornadoes are expected to develop

Tornado warning - tornado has actually been sighted in the area

Severe thunderstorm - possibility of frequent lightning and/or damaging winds of greater than 50 m.p.h., hail and heavy rain.

Severe thunderstorm watch - possibility of tornadoes, thunderstorms, frequent lightning, hail and winds greater than 75 m.p.h.

Heavy snow warning - an expected snowfall of 4 inches or more in a 12-hour period or 6 inches or more in a 24-hour period

Blizzard - the most dangerous of all winter storms.

Blizzard warning - considerable snow and winds of 35 m.p.h. or more are expected.

A severe blizzard warning - very heavy snowfall is expected with winds of at least 45 m.p.h. and temperatures of 10 degrees or lower.

A large proportion of energy in a nuclear explosion is emitted in the form of light and heat and is generally referred to as Thermal radiation

In assessing the vulnerability of individual facilities, major factors considered are:

• a. Environment

• b. Indigenous

• c. Economic

The one thing that distinguishes disasters or major emergencies from the emergencies plant personnel deal with each day is the need for coordinated emergency operations

The basic emergency plan should be made up of three elements:

1. Authority2. Types of emergencies3. Plan execution

A community based emergency control center must be established to coordinate all efforts in a major emergency

The value of an emergency plan is that it:a. Provides a written record and means of

communicating information throughout the organization

b. Assures that all procedures fit into an integrated plan

c. Promotes uniformityd. Assures a permanent record of decisions and

acquired knowledgee. Provides a means of orientation of new

employees into emergency responsibilitiesf. Permits management to delegate specific

authoritiesg. Presents a public relations medium for communicat

to employees, customers and stockholders

“Emergency readiness” means preparation has reached the point where you are prepared to react promptly to save life and protect property if the plant is threatened or hit by a major emergency

Every industrial firm, regardless of size, should establish an internal organization that will be able to protect life and property in time of any emergency

The Vital Records Protection Plan should be tested at least once a year.

The tests of Vital Records Program should verify that vital records needed after a disaster are:a. Currentb. Protected sufficiently against natural

disasters, nuclear detonation and other perils

c. Retrievable as needed in usable form

The decision to evacuate a building upon the receipt of a bomb threat should be made by a senior member of management

Bomb Threat - a search is made after every bomb threat call.

The facility manager should make the decision as to who should search

When a bomb threat is received, the following are notified, in order :a. Persons responsible for search

and evacuationb. Local authoritiesc. Explosive demolition teams; andd. Medical facilities

A clear zone with a radius of at least 300 feet should be established around a suspicious object including the floors above and below

StrikeThe most frequent strike is the “economic strike”, which must be preceded by at least 60 days notice

StrikeThe “unfair labor practice strike” can occur suddenly with little or no effective planning

StrikeThe most important outside contact will be with local police

StrikeA sound policy with respect to police arrests would be to not attempt to influence the police against initiating prosecutions where police are complaining witnesses

StrikeDocumentary surveillance of workers engaged in legal and legitimate labor practices such as legal picketing during a strike could amount to an unfair labor practice

TerrorismKidnapping is a classic act of terrorism

TerrorismFor the most effective personal protection of a possible kidnapping target, a minimum of two (2) bodyguards is recommended

TerrorismThe payment of ransom or complying with any criminal demand, without company approval, could render the payer civilly liable.

TerrorismThe best way to determine if a hostage is alive is with direct communication

Fire loading is the amount of combustible materials that occupy its interior spaces

The four legs of fire:

a. Heatb. Fuelc. Oxygen, and ad. Chemical reaction

Several by products accompany every fire:

a. Smokeb. Gasc. Heatd. Expanded air

Fire Classifications:Class “A” - Ordinary combustibles (waste

paper, rags, and furniture) Extinguish with Water or water fog

(Green triangle) Soda and AcidClass “B” - Gas, grease oil, volatile fluids Extinguish with CO2 or water fog

(Red Square) dry chemicalClass “C” - Electrical fires Extinguish with non-conductive agent

(Blue circle) CO2Class “D” - combustible metals Extinguish with Dry powder

(Yellow star) Dry powder

Water fog is very effective for Class “A” and “B” fires

A normal fire proceeds through4 basic stages:

1. Incipient Stage - no smoke at this point2. Smoldering Stage - smoke begins to appear3. Flame Stage - actual visible fire4. Heat Stage - heat is intense and building up

The principal fire sensors are:

• Ionization detector - useful in giving early warning.

• Photoelectric smoke detector - when source of light is interrupted, unit alarms

• Infrared flame detector - reacts to emissions from flame

• Thermal detectors - operates on a significant change in temperature

Manual fire alarm stations are of two types:

• 1. Local alarms - alerting personnel in building

• 2. Station alarms - signal is transmitted directly to a monitoring station

The causes of most fires are:

• Carelessness

• Ignorance

Most fires are electrical in origin

More fire fatalities are caused by toxic gases than by the flames

The major causes of death in a building fire are:

• a. Toxic gases

• b. Smoke

• c. High temperatures

• d. CO2

• e. Fear and resultant actions

• f. The fire itself

Most sprinklers will operate at temperatures between 130 and

165 F.

Halogenated agents (1211, 1302)

are non-corrosive chemical agents used for extinguishing fires in areas containing computers and electrical equipment

A fire door is for the purpose of impeding the spread of fire

Automatic fire doors are held open until there is sufficient

combustion to trigger the door closing devices

The focus of disaster control planning is on solutions to major problems and to prevent a disaster from becoming a tragedy

The three principles of disaster control planning are:

a. Coordinated planning;b. Mutual assistance; andc. Community resources

InvestigationsInvestigations

Sample questions

1. Which of the following is not a legitimate purpose of an investigation for employee misconduct?

• a. To determine whether company rules have been violated

• b. To ascertain whether company policies have been violated

• c. To catalog information of employees which might be derogatory for future use

• d. To determine if state or federal laws have been violated

2. The investigator’s best approach to questioning relies on the following:

• a. Most suspects will lie or circumvent the truth

• b. A suspect is innocent until proven guilty

• c. A key suspect is guilty and evidence must be found to substantiate that feeling

• d. A signed statement in the form of a confession must be obtained

3. In conducting gambling investigations, the staff investigator should:

• a. Cooperate with local, county, state or federal law enforcement

• b. Not use undercover operatives

• c. Wiretap the employees home telephone

• d. Search the lockers of all suspects

4. Which of the following investigative resources should not normally be used in a gambling investigation conducted by a proprietary investigative force.

• a. Closed circuit TV cameras

• b. Undercover operatives

• c. Telephone surveillance

• d. Fluorescent powder

5. In investigating homicide and suicide the best source would probably be:

• a. County coroner’s office

• b. Health office

• c. State attorney general’s office

• d. Federal law enforcement

6. To obtain information concerning marriage licenses an investigator would contact the:

• a. Appropriate health department

• b. Tax bureau

• c. Bureau of Vital Statistics

• d. Appropriate court

7. In conducting a “claim” investigation where the claim is a serious one and where there is cause for doubt in connection with the loss or claim, the type of investigation to be used is:

• a. Telephone• b. Mail• c. Personal contact• d. Undercover

8. A yellow colored crystalline solid pertains to the following explosive:

• a. TNT

• b. Dynamite

• c. Nitroglycerin

• d. Picric acid

9. Which of the following is not a high explosive?

• a. Nitrocellulose

• b. Nitroglycerin

• c. Dynamite

• d. Nitro starch

10. One of the following is not considered an element of the common law crime of arson:

• a. Commercial building

• b. Malicious

• c. Burning

• d. Willful

10. One of the following is not considered an element of the common law crime or arson:

• a. Commercial building

• b. Malicious

• c. Burning

• d. Willful

11. Which of the following is not a requirement for a successful undercover investigation:

• a. A qualified investigator

• b. A plausible cover story

• c. An effective control scheme

• d. Developing necessary evidence for prosecution

12. If necessary to terminate an undercover investigation which one of the following actions should not be done:

• a. Withdraw agent safely

• b. Withdraw agent immediately

• c. Salvage as much of the result of date

• d. Reveal identity of the agent

13. The principal item of expense in an investigations budget will be:

• a. Communications

• b. Equipment

• c. Maintenance

• d. Personal costs

14. The single most important administrative control in handling investigations is:

• a. Indexing

• b. Case assignment

• c. Case review

• d. Documentation of status

15. As a general rule the number of consecutive years of employment or non-employment to be verified preceding the date of investigation are:• a. 5 years• b. 7 years• c. 3 years• d. 2 years

16. Any investigation containing unfavorable information should be retained in file for a period of not less than:

• a. 1 year

• b. 5 years

• c. 3 years

• d. 2 years

17. The rule which states that approximately one in ten applications will have major omissions which will require going back to the applicant is called:

• a. The Rule of Ten• b. The Rule of Nine• c. The 1-10 Rule• d. The Verification Rule

18. Which of the following should be interviewed last or near the end of an investigation under usual circumstances:

• a. Those with extensive information

• b. Those preparing to take a trip out of area

• c. Those likely to be hostile

• d. Those with less than extensive information

19. If interviewee during investigations is hostile, it is preferable to conduct the interview at:

• a. The security office

• b. Home of the interviewee

• c. A neutral spot

• d. In an automobile

20. Which of the following characterization regarding investigative surveillance is not true?

• a. They are expensive

• b. They are time-consuming

• c. They are often non-productive

• d. They are illegal in most jurisdictions

21. The process whereby communications are intercepted or recorded is known as:

• a. Physical surveillance

• b. Technical surveillance

• c. Surreptitious surveillance

• d. Black bag operations

22. It is becoming increasingly more difficult to do a good pre-employment background investigation because :

• a. Expense

• b. Lack of skilled investigators

• c. Various laws and court decisions which inhibit the use of techniques and/or instruments available

• d. Uncooperative attitude of persons interviewed

23. Interviews should be conducted:

• a. In the company of the suspect’s attorney• b. In an area where distractions are minimal• c. In a comfortable room which is well

furnished like home• d. In an area where light is focused in

suspect’s face

23. Interviews should be conducted:

• a. In the company of the suspect’s attorney• b. In an area where distractions are

minimal• c. In a comfortable room which is well

furnished like home• d. In an area where light is focused in

suspect’s face

24. The most consistently available and most valuable sources of information are:

• a. Documents at the scene

• b. Fingerprints on the objects involved

• c. Persons involved in the incident

• d. Telephone records of calls into and out of the area

25. An undercover operator should be:

• a. A member of the investigative staff of the organization

• b. A trusted employee in the department under investigation

• c. Unknown by anyone likely to be in the target population

• d. An off-duty law enforcement officer

26. One of the objectives of an undercover investigation is not to:

• a. Establish a method of diversion of goods

• b. Ascertain the level of organized labor activity in the work force

• c. Provide information for personnel action

• d. Obtain evidence of past or future crime

27. Which of the following is not true concerning a witness:

• a. A witness must have directly observed the incident

• b. A person who heard the accused make certain remarks may be a witness

• c. Provide information for personnel action• d. A person with knowledge of the

whereabouts of the accused at the time of the incident may be a witness

28. In an incident investigation, the general rule is to first interview persons who:

• a. Are not likely to be available for later interview

• b. Are likely to be hostile• c. Have the most extensive information about

the incident• d. Are familiar with some part of the subject

matter

29. A subject who has a sixth grade education has a statement typed for him by the investigator. Which of the following should not be included in the typed statement:

• a. Profanity used by the subject• b. The actual sentences spoken by the subject• c. Highly complex sentences and large words• d. References to witnesses to the incident

29. A subject who has a sixth grade education has a statement typed for him by the investigator. Which of the following should not be included in the typed statement:

• a. Profanity used by the subject• b. The actual sentences spoken by the subject• c. Highly complex sentences and large

words• d. References to witnesses to the incident

30. Which of the following is not true regarding communications with an undercover agent:

• a. Normal contact is initiated by the agent• b. The contact telephone should be answered

with the name of the company• c. An alternate contact telephone number

should be established• d. The telephones should be reserved

exclusively for investigations

30. Which of the following is not true regarding communications with an undercover agent:

• a. Normal contact is initiated by the agent• b. The contact telephone should be

answered with the name of the company• c. An alternate contact telephone number

should be established• d. The telephones should be reserved

exclusively for investigations


Investigations

A confidential informant is one who furnishes information on the expectation that his/her identity

will not be disclosed

Questions are the principal tools of interviewing

In interviewing, leading or suggestive questions which tend to influence the answers given by a subject should be avoided while asking for the original information.

When interviewing, the most efficient means of resolving an issue is to have the questions converge on it by progressing from the “general” to the “specific.”

The place of an interview should be well-lighted, adequately ventilated, comfortably furnished with a minimum of distraction

All admissions or confessions must be voluntary

An “interview” is the questioning of a person who has or is believed to have information of official interest to the investigation

Whereas

An “interrogation” is the questioning of persons suspected of having committed offenses or of persons who are reluctant to make full disclosure of information in theirpossession and pertinent to an investigation

As a general rule, the investigator does not take notes during the interrogation in order to keep from disrupting the interrogator’s rhythm.

The most positive means of identifying people is the science

of fingerprints

To a large measure, the success of a polygraph examination depends upon the professional capabilities of the investigator

“Control Questions” are used in polygraph examinations to determine whether the person is a suitable subject for the polygraph test and whether capable of producing a specific physical response

In crime scene searches, the first thing for the investigator to do is provide for any needed medical attention and protect the scene

Types of crime scene searches are:

a. Circle searchb. Strip searchc. Grid searchd. Zone or sector search

The most important rule in crime scene photography is to

photograph all evidence or possible evidence before

anything is moved or touched

With regard to the collection of evidence, “Chain of custody” is a chronological written record of those individuals who have had custody of the evidence

from its initial acquisition until its final disposition

A “Questioned Document” is a document whose genuineness is questioned, normally because of

origin, authenticity, age or circumstances under which the

document was written

An “exemplar” is a document requested by the investigator

which duplicates the text of a questioned document and is known to be the product of a particular person or machine

There is no specific format for the taking of notes required

during an investigation

Written statements used in recording investigative facts are primarily of the following types:a. Affidavitb. Question/answer statementc. Unsworn statementsd. Memorandum of interview

There are many qualifications to be a good undercover investigator such as:a. Willingness to do the jobb. Self-confidencec. Resourcefulness and adaptabilityd. Initiative and judgmente. Patience

Probably the most important aspect of an undercover operation is a credible cover or background story used by the undercover agent

Knowing when and how to close an undercover operation is as important as knowing how to

start and proceed

The three most frequently used investigative techniques are:

a. Informants

b. Surveillance

c. Undercover

There are two major types of surveillance:

a. Physical

b. Technical

Surveillance is defined generally as the secretive and continuos observation of persons, places and things to obtain information concerning the activities and identities of individuals

One of the most important qualifications of the person selected to conduct a physical surveillance is to be able to blend into the environment with “normal” appearance

One of the most important rules of physical surveillance is:

“DON’T LOOK THE SUBJECT IN THE EYE”

As a general rule, sensitive investigative reports, such as undercover reports, should be disseminated on a:

“need-to-know” basis

The primary type of evidence to be collected at a crime scene is

that which is relevant

A knowledge of basic accounting terms is necessary in white-collar investigations. Two important terms are:a. “Accounts payable”

money owed to suppliers

b. “Accounts receivable” money owed by customers

One of the most common errors made in the interrogation of a subject in a larceny case is failure to ask if he/she stole the object

An “open-ended” question affords the interviewee opportunity to reply in a narrative fashion

A “closed-ended” question restricts an interviewee in the amount of information given during a reply

A friendly approach is considered to be the most productive in interviews

Many experts feel that the reason a person steals the first time is because the “opportunity” was present

Searching motor vehicles for contraband poses special problems. One area often overlooked is the “hub caps” of a vehicle.

Counterfeiting of checks and other documents has increased primarily because of sophistication of color-copying machines

An oral confession, as well as one which is not signed, still has legal value

Proprietary Resources

• 1. It is better to staff a proprietary investigative unit with personnel

who have acquired prior investigative experience

• 2. The investigator’s job should be regarded as an “exempt” job

because it is considered to be “professional” to the extent it requires special preparation

Proprietary Resources

• 3. The two most important expensive items in the budget of an investigations unit are:– Personnel costs– Communications cost

Evidence

• In obtaining known specimens of hair from victim and/or suspect, submit at least 50 hairs from various areas of the head

• A questioned specimen of writing should be placed in a cellophane envelope and sealed

Evidence

• Charred documents should be placed on top of loose cotton in a box and delivered to the laboratory in person

Interviews and Interrogations

• The techniques most commonly used during an interrogation are:– Sympathetic– Logic and reasoning

Interviews and Interrogations

• Two main approaches used in interrogations:

• Indirect approach – exploratory in nature

• Direct approach

– suspect’s guilt is reasonably certain

Devices to detect deception• Polygraph

– records changes in respiration, blood pressure, pulse and skin’s sensitivity to electricity

• Psychological stress evaluation– does not require body attachment– It records and analyzes stress-related

components of the human voice– with or without knowledge of individual being

tested

Devices to detect deception• Voice analyzer

– does not require body attachment– Records sub-audible tremors in speech on a

digital tape– Processes speech electronically and provides

immediate results for single or multiple-word questions

Surveillance

• A surveillance can be either covert or overt

• Two basic forms of surveillance– Physical - done by humans– Technical - done by technical and electronic

equipment

• The most difficult type of surveillance is the “moving surveillance.” This entails following the subject wherever he goes

Claims Investigations

• Interviews in claims investigations should result in obtaining statements

• A claims report serves several purposes:– Provides a permanent record– Provides a summary of all claims– Brings together the various parts of the file

Embezzlement

• One of the most effective counter-measures against embezzlement is a disciplined environment with appropriate audits and other appropriate safeguards

Fraud

• The most difficult type of fraud to deal with is the fraudulent accident/injury claim, because no preventive measure can be effectively instituted

Espionage

• The unethical practice of one company to learn the secrets of their competitors

Explosions

• An explosion is defined as a sudden, violent and noisy eruption, outburst or discharge by materials acted upon with force such as fire, shock or electrical charge which causes the material, either solid or liquid, to convert into gas and violently expand or burst

Explosions

• Three basic rates of explosions are:– Flash fire– Explosions– Detonations

• multiple or compounded explosions

Explosions

• Two general types of substances with detonation capabilities:– Low explosives - Black powder, nitrocellulose,

smokeless powder– High explosives - nitroglycerin, dynamite, nitro

starch, TNT, picric acid, mercury fulminate, tetryl, lead azide nitromannite

Sabotage Investigation

• Any willful act designed to hinder or obstruct the purposes for which a company operates.

• It is very difficult to identify and prove acts of sabotage.

• A common method of sabotage is arson

– Quite effective and tends to destroy evidence

Theft investigation

• An effective “loss control program” will do much to prevent internal theft.

Undercover Investigation

• Placement technique: The method to place the agent in the undercover role. The job must cover the area involved, have few controls and allow the investigator to appear ordinary. The “tailor-made job” should be avoided

Undercover Investigation

• Costs: Include the nominal wage paid to the agent(s), the payroll taxes, and the fee paid to the agency. The expense is the reason for daily reports and informed control.

• Use undercover investigation when there is no alternate method available

Personnel SecurityPersonnel Security

Sample Questions

1. Of all security processes, the most critical is:

• a. Information

• b. Personnel

• c. Physical

• d. Perimeter

2. The concept that an individual should be aware of the security program and persuaded that the program is relevant to his or her own behavior is known as:

• a. Security consciousness

• b. Security awareness

• c. Security motivation

• d. Motivation analysis

3. The theory that the human organism is motivated by an ascending series of needs and that once the lower needs have been satisfied, they will be supplanted by the higher needs as motives for behavior is known as:

• a. Maslow’s “Hierarchy of Prepotency”

• b. McGregor”s Theory X

• c. McGregor”s Theory Y

• d. Herzberg’s Two Factor Theory

4. Which of the following is not an example of the intelligence test:

• a. Stanford-Binet IQ Test

• b. Henman-Nelson IQ Test

• c. Armed Forces General Classification

• d. Manual Placement Test

5. Which of the following is not a basic requirement for handling pre-employment interviews:

• a. Interview must be voluntary

• b. Interviews to be effective should be conducted with a friend of applicant

present

• c. Interview must be unbiased

• d. Interviewer should not give out information

6. The basic principle of personnel security is:

• a. To weed out bad apples among employees after they are located

• b. Education is the key to loss prevention

• c. Attitudes and honesty of rank and file employees are key to minimizing theft losses

• d. Terminate undesirables

6. The basic principle of personnel security is:

• a. To weed out bad apples among employees after they are located

• b. Education is the key to loss prevention

• c. Attitudes and honesty of rank and file employees are key to minimizing

theft losses

• d. Terminate undesirables

7. Probably the single most important safeguard for preventing internal theft is:

• a. An extensive statement of personal history

• b. The personal interview

• c. Interviewing reference

• d. Upgrading the screening of new employees

8. An employer may not question an applicant on which of the following:

• a. Unexplained gaps in the employment history

• b. Unsatisfactory interview• c. An arrest for a crime against property• d. A conviction for a crime against property

9. Questioning an employee should be:

• a. Behind a closed door

• b. With the door open

• c. Closed and locked door

• d. At a police station

10. Impelling type of leadership tends to reduce employee dishonesty because:

• a. It sets a good example

• b. It creates discipline

• c. It reduces employee frustration

• d. It improves morale

11. Non-directional counseling of upset employees:

• a. Should not be used because it is not effective

• b. Does not carry the danger inherent in giving advice

• c. Does not directly advise, criticize or try to help

• d. Involves primarily being a good listener

12. The first skill the manager must learn is:

• a. How to give orders

• b. How to check up on procedures

• c. How to maintain authority

• d. The ability to listen

13. On the whole, employees are:

• a. Easily tempted

• b. Honest

• c. Indifferent

• d. Conscientious, honest individuals who have the firm’s best interest at heart

14. In conducting interviews during a background investigation, the investigator should more appropriately tell the person being interviewed that the employee is:

• a. Being considered for a promotion

• b. Suspected of wrongdoing

• c. Being investigated in connection with a position of trust

• d. Tell the interviewee nothing

15. The frequency of reinvestigation of the “financial life style” inquiry should generally be:

• a. Never

• b. Every 6 months

• c. Every year

• d. Every 18 months

16. Any investigation which includes unfavorable information, or which results in an adverse employment decision, should be:

• a. Retained in file for a minimum of three years

• b. Retained in file for a minimum of five years

• c. Retained in file for one year

• d. Destroyed when the employment decision is made

17. Which of the following is not true with regard to a resume?

• a. It does not provide the information which the company requires

• b. It is never accepted in lieu of a completed application form

• c. It is always accepted and is reviewed as part of the investigation

• d. It is an acceptable form of information for a professional position

18. The persons who find integrity tests offensive are:

• a. Twice as likely to admit to criminal or drug abuse behavior

• b. No more likely than anyone else to admit to criminal or drug abuse behavior

• c. Sensitive persons who should not be required to take the test

• d. Usually found to have a violent criminal past

19. Completed background investigations:

• a. If apparently completed favorable, may be reviewed by an investigative clerk

• b. If apparently completed favorable or containing unfavorable information, are reviewed by a responsible supervisory security employee

• c. If containing unfavorable information, should be immediately referred to legal counsel

• d. Should be reviewed jointly by the Human Relations Director and the Security Director

20. The qualifications and background of an applicant are considered in light of the needs of the company to perform duties of a specific position. Which of the following is not accurate regarding the job description for the position:• a. It must include accurate specifications and

genuine skill requirements• b. The details of the description may tend to

exclude certain groups of people• c. The specifications and skills should be

described concisely and without prejudice• d. The job description should be intentionally

vague in order to allow the max number of applicants to qualify for the position


Personnel

Security

In implementing an asset protection program, one primary objective should be to motivate all employees to become part of the protection program

All asset protection programs should provide for adequate

feedback on the part of participants

Although the chief executive in charge of asset protection should have knowledge of security procedures and techniques, it is more important that such executives be able to manage and implement the required systems approach

The three basic security processes are:

a. Informationb. Physicalc. Personnel

Of the three basic security processes, personnel security is

considered to be the most critical

The basic elements of the personnel security process are:a. Protects the organization against undesirable

persons through appropriate recruitment and hiring safeguards

b. Protects the organization against dishonest employees through appropriate control safeguards

c. Protects employees from discriminatory hiring or termination procedures

In screening an applicant for a potential position, the most expensive technique should be conducted last. For example, an applicant should be interviewed before conducting a background investigation

Some deception practices to be on the lookout for on applications during the screening process prior to hiring are:a. Use of the term “self-employed” to

hide a “negative” period of timeb. Failure to sign the applicationc. Failure to list supervisord. Gaps in employment or residence

The concept of “security awareness” is primarily a state of mind. It is not the same as either training or education but is definitely related to both

One well known honesty test is the “Reid Report”. This is a written honesty test designed to reveal a person’s trustworthiness and attitude toward honesty

A popular psychological test used by employees in personnel screening procedures is the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Investor (MMPI). This test is designed to show habits, fears, sexual attitudes, depression, and evidence of social introversion.

The two major tools used in employee selection procedures are:

a. The application

b. The interview

A background investigation is expensive but necessary in the personnel security process. The major purposes of this type of investigation are:

a. To verify information on the application form

b. To ascertain past employment experience

c. To obtain other information pertinent to hiring decision either derogatory or positive

The theft triangle sides consist of:

a. Motive

b. Desire

c. Opportunity

As a general rule, the questions relating to the following should not be asked of applicants during the screening process in order to conform to equal employment opportunity rules and regulations:

a. Race or ethnic backgroundb. Age, sex or marital statusc. Religiond. Childrene. Disability

Approximately 10% of the completed applications will have falsifications serious enough for management review before making an offer of employment

“Rule of Ten”

The most important information gathering tool in a background investigation is the completed

application form

As a general rule, no application more than 90 days old should be

considered without a re-interview of the applicant

The principal behind integrity tests is that an individual who has developed strong attitudes towards honesty is less likely to engage in dishonesty than an individual who possesses weaker attitudes towards dishonesty.

Employment gaps of more than one month must be explained

The job description for a position must include accurate specifications and genuine skill requirements which are described concisely and without prejudice.

Purpose and Function

• Personnel Security’s primary purpose is to insure that a firm hires employees best suited to assist the firm in achieving its goals, and after hired, assist in providing the necessary security to the employees while they are carrying out their functions

Purpose and Function

• Vulnerability to losses caused by employees is measured in part by the character of the employees, their awareness of assets protection requirements, and their motivation to cooperate

• Personnel Security is the most critical because theft is committed by people

The Job Description

• Accurate job specifications increase objectivity in making selection decisions and reduce the likelihood that irrelevant criteria and personal bias will influence the decision

The Application

• There are virtually no restrictions on what can be asked of an individual once an offer of employment has been made.

Education

• Approximately 5 % of all professional applicants falsify some aspect of their educational background.

Interview

• A personal interview of each applicant should be conducted by an trained interviewer

Background Investigation

• Should be completed prior to allowing the applicant to commence employment

• The most important information gathering tool in a background investigation is the completed application form

Background Investigation

• At least five consecutive immediately preceding years of employment are verified

• Personal contact is by far the most desirable method of investigation

Psychological Testing

• A process whereby a subject’s reaction to a future situation is predicted by an analysis of his/her responses to a questionnaire.


• Types of psychological tests– Skills and Aptitude tests

• for office, clerical, production and service positions

– Personality Inventories• those with access to dangerous facilities

– Integrity Surveys• for retail, leisure, hotel, financial, and fast food positions


• Integrity tests can be “clear purpose” tests which ask direct questions or “veiled purpose” tests in which it is not obvious that integrity is the primary concern.


• Integrity tests can be:– pre-employment tests which measure the

applicant’s attitude toward counterproductive work behavior

– Incident specific questionnaires which are used to determine who committed a specific act

• Persons who find these tests offensive are twice as likely to admit to a criminal or drug abuse behavior or to display counterproductive work attitudes

Miscellaneous Matters• Military service should be confirmed by

having the applicant submit a copy of the service record forms.

• Bonding is used by some firms as a type of insurance in the event that the company internal controls prove ineffective and a loss occurs.

• Bonding should never be considered as an alternative to an effective security program

Physical SecurityPhysical Security

Sample Questions

1. The degree of protection desired in any installation is predicated upon an analysis of the following two factors:

• a. Cost and environmental conditions

• b. Criticality and vulnerability

• c. Cost and vulnerability

• d. Cost and criticality

2. The process used by the security manager in establishing priorities of protection of assets is known as:

• a. Security survey

• b. Vulnerability study

• c. Risk analysis

• d. Inspection review

3. The type of fencing generally used for protection of permanent limited and exclusion areas is:

• a. Chain link

• b. Concertina

• c. Barbed wire

• d. Barbed tape

4. For general security usage, excluding the top guard, chain link fence should be:

• a. 7 gauge wire and a min. of 10 feet high

• b. 9 gauge wire and eight feet high

• c. 9 gauge wire and seven feet high

• d. 10 gauge wire and seven feet high

5. Excluding the top guard, standard barbed wire fencing intended to prevent human trespassing should be not less than:

• a. 7 feet high

• b. 6 feet high

• c. 10 feet high

• d. 8 feet high

6. In a barbed wire fence, the distance between strands should not exceed:

• a. 4 inches

• b. 3 inches

• c. 5 inches

• d. 6 inches

7. Standard barbed wire is twisted double-strand:

• a. 9 gauge wire

• b. 14 gauge wire

• c. 13 gauge wire

• d. 12 gauge wire (with 4 point barbs)

8. Top guard supporting arms should be permanently affixed to the top of the fence posts to increase the overall height of the fence at least:

• a. 2 feet

• b. 1 foot

• c. 3 feet

• d. 3-1/2 feet

9. A top guard must consist of:

• a. 3 strands of barbed wire or tape

• b. 2 strands of barbed wire or tape

• c. 4 strands of barbed wire or tape

• d. 6 strands of barbed wire or tape

10. Strands of barbed wire or tape used as a top guard on a fence should be spaced:

• a. 2 inches apart

• b. 3 inches apart

• c. 4 inches apart

• d. 6 inches apart

11. Which of the following characteristic of protective lighting is incorrect?

• a. Lighting is expensive to maintain

• b. It usually requires less intensity than working light

• c. It may also provide personal protection by reducing advantages of concealment

• d. It should not be used as a psychological deterrent only

12. Lighting units of 4 general types are used for protective lighting systems. Which of the following is not used:

• a. Continuous

• b. Intermittent

• c. Standby

• d. Moveable

• e. Emergency

13. A series of fixed luminaries arranged to flood a given area continuously during the hours of darkness with overlapping cones of light. It is called:

• a. Continuous lighting

• b. Intermittent lighting

• c. Standby lighting

• d. Moveable lighting

14. Piers and docks located on an installation should be safeguarded by illuminating both water approaches and the pier area. Decks on open piers should be illuminated to at least:

• a. 1.5 foot candles

• b. 2.0 foot candles

• c. 0.5 foot candles

• d. 1.0 foot candles

15. The intrusion detection system in which a pattern of radio waves is transmitted and partially reflected back to the antenna is known as:

• a. Ultrasonic system

• b. Microwave system

• c. Electrostatic system

• d. Capacitance system

16. The intrusion detection system which is used on a safe, wall and openings therein in an effort to establish an electrostatic field around the object to be protected is known as a:

• a. Ultrasonic system

• b. Microwave system

• c. Capacitance system

• d. Electro-mechanical system

17. Which of the following is not true with regard to lock and key systems?

• a. The lock is the most accepted and widely used security device of the basic safeguards in

protecting installations• b. The locking system should be backed up

with other security• c. A high-quality, pick-proof lock is

considered a positive bar to entry

• d. Most key locks can be picked by an expert in a few minutes

17. Which of the following is not true with regard to lock and key systems?

• a. The lock is the most accepted and widely used security device of the basic safeguards in protecting installations

• b. The locking system should be backed up with other security

• c. A high-quality, pick-proof lock is considered a positive bar to entry

• d. Most key locks can be picked by an expert in a few minutes

18. The type of lock generally used on automobiles, desks and cabinets is:

• a. Pin tumbler

• b. Warded

• c. Combination

• d. Wafer

19. Which of the following is not true with regard to door latches:

• a. A deadbolt latch may be used on almost any door

• b. A deadbolt latch is easy to install

• c. A deadbolt latch is inexpensive

• d. Chain latches are highly recommended as effective security measures

20. Inventories of key systems should be conducted at least:

• a. Annually

• b. Quarterly

• c. Semi-annually

• d. Monthly

21. A sentry dog can normally not operate at full effectiveness at:

• a. Ammunition storage areas

• b. Gasoline storage areas

• c. Radar sites

• d. Warehouses

21. A sentry dog can normally not operate a full effectiveness at:

• a. Ammunition storage areas

• b. Gasoline storage areas

• c. Radar sites

• d. Warehouses

22. Non-insulated security containers must satisfactorily pass a drop test of:

• a. 15 feet

• b. 20 feet

• c. 22 feet

• d. 30 feet

23. Which of the following is not an approved UL record safe classification:

• a. 350-4

• b. 350-3

• c. 350-2

• d. 350-1

24. The acceptable vault construction of insulated doors is a minimum reinforced thickness of:

• a. 12”

• b. 10”

• c. 8”

• d. 6”

25. Which of the following would be an acceptable computer media storage classification:

• a. 350-4

• b. 450-4

• c. 250-4

• d. 150-4

26. UL classified safes must be anchored to the floor or weigh at least:

• a. 750 lbs.

• b. 1,000 lbs.

• c. 1,250 lbs.

• d. 1,500 lbs.

27. A “re-lock” on a vault automatically stops the bolt mechanism from operating when:

• a. A switch is flipped

• b. A timer is used

• c. When there is an attack on the door or combination lock

• d. Locked by remote control

28. Security vaults differ from safes in that:

• a. They are tested by Underwriters Laboratories for burglary resistance

• b. They do not have both fire and burglary resisting properties

• c. Steel is used

• d. They are permanently affixed to building

29. The weakness of the burning bar as a burglar tool is:

• a. It will not burn through concrete

• b. Produces large volumes of smoke

• c. Actual heat is not intense enough

• d. It requires tanks of hydrogen

30. Which of the following is not correct with regard to safes?• a. UL classification labels are removed

from all safes exposed to fires

• b. Record safes are designed to resist fires only

• c. Money safes have accredited fire resistance

• d. Quality equipment should be purchased only from reputable dealers

30. Which of the following is not correct with regard to safes?

• a. UL classification labels are removed from all safes exposed to fires

• b. Record safes are designed to resist fires only

• c. Money safes have accredited fire resistance

• d. Quality equipment should be purchased only from reputable dealers

31. The symbol “TRTL” indicates:

• a. Safe is resistant to torches

• b. Safe is resistant to tools

• c. Safe is resistant to both torches and tools

• d. Nothing pertaining to torches or tools

32. Illumination intensity minimums for lighting of the perimeter of restricted area is:





33. The temperature at which paper may be destroyed is:

• a. 200 degrees F

• b. 250 degrees F

• c. 300 degrees F

• d. 350 degrees F

34. Electronic process media can begin to deteriorate at:

• a. 100 degrees F

• b. 125 degrees F

• c. 150 degrees F

• d. 200 degrees F

35. The interior height of a vault should not exceed:

• a. 8 feet

• b. 9 feet

• c. 10 feet

• d. 12 feet

36. A system using inaudible sound waves to detect the presence of an intruder or other disturbance of the inaudible sound system is known as:

• a. Motion detection system

• b. Sonic motion detection

• c. Ultrasonic motion detection

• d. Radio frequency motion detection

37. The weakest area in a window is usually:

• a. The sash

• b. Frames

• c. Glass

• d. The putty

38. Which of the following is considered to be the most resistant to blast from explosion?

• a. Thick brick or concrete walls

• b. Thick earthen barricades

• c. Steel-frame building walls

• d. Thick, reinforced concrete walls

39. A type of glass used in street-level windows or displays where security is necessary and which is composed of two sheets of ordinary glass bonded to an intervening layer of plastic material is known as:

• a. Tempered glass

• b. Plastic coated glass

• c. Vinyl coated glass

• d. Laminated glass

40. The type of glass which is often utilized for both safety and security purposes because it is 3 to 5 times stronger than regular glass and 5 times as resistant to heat is:

• a. Tempered glass

• b. Coated glass

• c. Plastic coated glass

• d. Reflected glass

41. The mechanical lock longest in use and which has practically no security value is:

• a. The lever lock

• b. The warded lock

• c. The wafer tumbler lock

• d. The pin tumbler lock

42. Probably the most widely-used lock for both exterior building doors and interior room doors is the:

• a. Warded lock

• b. Pin tumbler lock

• c. Disc tumbler lock

• d. Lever lock

43. Which of the following is not an authentic characterization of the guard operation:

• a. Guards are costly• b. Guards are generally recognized as an essential

element in the protection of assets and personnel• c. Guards are the only element of protection

which can be depended upon to give complete security

• d. Guards can also perform as a public relations representative when properly trained

44. Each guard post that is manned 24 hours a day, 7 days a week requires:

• a. 3 guards

• b. 6 guards

• c. 2 guards

• d. 4.5 guards

45. Usually in facilities where visitors are to be escorted, this is done by:

• a. Guards

• b. Individuals being visited

• c. Special escort service

• d. Supervisor of unit visited

46. One of the main reasons for not arming private security guards is:

• a. The cost of extra equipment

• b. The extra salary costs

• c. Very few are qualified to handle them

• d. The typical business or government facility is not customarily a

place where violent crime occurs

47. The argument usually used by contract guard representatives as a selling point in their service is:

• a. Better trained

• b. Non-union

• c. No administrative problems

• d. Reduction in cost

48. The most important written instructions for the guard force are known as:

• a. Memoranda

• b. Post orders

• c. High policy

• d. Operational orders

49. Which of the following should be a required criteria of post orders?

• a. Each order should deal with multiple subjects

• b. The orders should be detailed

• c. The orders should be written at the lowest level possible

• d. Orders should be indexed sparingly

50. The guard’s primary record of significant events affecting facility protection is called:

• a. The guard log

• b. Ingress log

• c. Egress log

• d. Daily record manual

51. The sensor which is used when air turbulence is present in the protected room and when there are no potential false alarms sources outside the room and in the field of the detector is:

• a. Acoustic detector

• b. Vibration detector

• c. Microwave motion detector

• d. Ultrasonic motion detector

52. The sensor which is used when light air turbulence, vibration and motion outside the room are present is:

• a. Acoustic detector

• b. Vibration detector

• c. Microwave motion detector

• d. Ultrasonic motion detector

53. Foil used as a detector on a glass window to signal a surreptitious or forcible penetration is an example of :

• a. Microwave sensor

• b. Capacitance sensor

• c. Vibrator sensor

• d. Electro-mechanical sensor

54. The type of sensor designed to place a current-carrying conductor between an intruder and an area to be protected is known as:

• a. Electro-mechanical sensor

• b. Microwave sensor

• c. Capacitance sensor

• d. Audio sensor

55. The kind of sensor which is based on the Doppler Principle - named after the Austrian scientist who originated the concept is:

• a. Electro-mechanical sensor

• b. Microwave sensor

• c. Capacitance sensor

• d. Audio sensor

56. The sound wave sensor is commonly referred to as :

• a. Proximity detector

• b. Radar

• c. Vibration detector

• d. Ultrasonic detector

57. The type of sensor which is not influenced by exterior noise; which reacts only to movement within a protected area; and which can be adjusted so the movement of air caused by fire will activate an alarm is known as:

• a. Proximity detector

• b. Ultrasonic sensor

• c. Electro-mechanical sensor

• d. Audio sensor

58. A personal identification method based on the length of each finger of one hand from base to tip and the width of the hand inside the thumb is called the:

• a. Henry fingerprint system

• b. Hand geometry identification

• c. The Bertillion method

• d. Basch-Lomb method

59. A visual indicator that shows from which of several zones or buildings an alarm signal has originated is called:

• a. An annunciator

• b. Contact device

• c. Break alarm

• d. Cross alarm

60. A specially constructed microphone attached directly to an object or surface to be protected and which responds only when the protected object or surface is disturbed is known as:

• a. Parabolic microphone

• b. Special audio device

• c. Contact microphone

• d. Surreptitious microphone

61. Which of the following is not true with regard to establishing an identification of personnel system to control movement?

• a. The ID card or badge should be designed in a relatively complicated manner to avoid duplication

• b. The ID card should be designed as simple as possible

• c. Procedures should be designed to show employees what to do when ID card is lost

• d. Details should be prepared and disseminated as to where, when, and how the badge should be worn

62. The most vulnerable link in any identification system is?

• a. Poor quality of badges

• b. Perfunctory performance of duty

• c. Badges not large enough

• d. Educational background of security officers

63. The use of a simple word or phrase during a normal conversation to alert other security personnel that an authorized person has been forced to vouch for an unauthorized individual is called?

• a. Word alert

• b. Security alert

• c. Code one

• d. Duress code

64. The practice of having at least 2 authorized persons, each capable of detecting incorrect or unauthorized procedures with respect to the task being performed will be present during any operation that affords access to sensitive areas is called:

• a. The sensitive material rule

• b. Controlled presence rule

• c. Two-man rule

• d. Controlled access rule

65. Unavoidable drainage ditches, culverts, vents, ducts and other openings should be protected by securely fastened welded bar grills when the have a cross-sectional area greater than:

• a. 10 square inches

• b. 48 square inches

• c. 64 square inches

• d. 96 square inches

65. Between the perimeter barrier and exterior structures should be a clear zone of:

• a. 10 feet

• b. 15 feet

• c. 30 feet

• d. 20 feet

66. As a general rule, between the perimeter barrier and structures within the protected area, except when a building is a part of the perimeter barrier, there should be a clear zone of at least:

• a. 50 feet

• b. 40 feet

• c. 30 feet

• d. 20 feet

67. Measured horizontally 6 inches above the ground and at least 30 feet outside the exclusion area to barrier, the perimeter band of lighting must provide a minimum intensity of:





68. Which of the following principles of protective lighting is not correct?

• a. Lighting should not be used alone. It should be used with other measures such as fixed security posts, fences, etc.

• b. Glaring lights should be in the eyes of the intruder

• c. A large amount of light should be focused on security patrol routes

• d. Adequate, even light should be upon bordering areas

69a. Piers and docks located on an installationshould be safeguarded by illuminating both water approaches and the pier area. Decks on open piers should be illuminated to at least:

• a. 1.5 foot candles• b. 2.0 foot candles • c. 0.5 foot candles • d. 1.0 foot candles

69b. The water approaches (extending to a distance of 100 feet from the pier) should be illuminated to at least:


• b. 2.0 foot candles• c. 1.5 foot candles• d. 1.0 foot candles

70. Before installing protective lighting adjacent to navigable waters, the the following agency should be consulted for approval:

• a. Bureau of Customs• b. Transportation Department• c. Local Police Department• d. U.S. Coast Guard

71. An alarm system in which the installation-owned system is a direct extension of the civil police and/or fire alarm system is known as:

• a. Local alarm system• b. Central station system• c. Auxiliary system• d. Proprietary system

72. Which of the following types of locking devices is generally considered to have the poorest security value:

• a. Key locks• b. Cypher locks• c. Conventional combination locks• d. Manipulation-resistant combination locks

73. Money safes are classified by both Underwriters Laboratories (UL) and:

• a. The Bureau of Standards• b. The Insurance Services Office (ISO)• c. The FBI• d. The Federal Reserve Board

74. Vaults will usually be designed to meet fire protection standards specified by:

• a. American Society for Industrial Security• b. National Fire Protection Association• c. Local fire department• d. All of the above

75. A major study on private security was prepared by:

• a. International Association of Chiefs of Police

• b. American Society for Industrial Security• c. Private Security Task Force of the National

Advisory Committee on Criminal Justice Standards and Goals

• d. The Brookings Institute

75. A major study on private security was prepared by:

• a. International Association of Chiefs of Police

• b. American Society for Industrial Security• c. Private Security Task Force of the

National Advisory Committee on Criminal Justice Standards and Goals

• d. The Brookings Institute

76. According to a Rand Corporation study made in 1971 regarding guards, the typical private guard is:

• a. An aging black male• b. Poorly educated and poorly paid• c. Well educated and poorly paid• d. Middle-aged white


Physical Security

One 100 watt light bulbequals approximately

1700 lumens

Illuminance

a. measured in Lux, representing the number of lumens per square meter or Foot-candles (FC), the number of Lumens per square foot

b. One Foot-candle is equal to 10.76 Lux(approximately to a ratio of 1:10)

Candle power - one candle power is the amount of light emitted by one standard candle

Lumen - One lumen is the amount of light required to light an area of one square foot to one candle power

Foot candle - One foot candle equals one lumen of light per square foot of space. The intensity of illumination is measured in foot candles

Specifications:carries the most weight and is considered the controlling document of the construction

Three basic types of glass:

1. Sheet Glass : least expensive and most vulnerable to breakage

2. Plate Glass : mirrors

3. Float Glass : most recent advance in glass manufacture

Tempered Glass:a. treated to resist breakageb. 3 to 5 times stronger

Laminated Glass:a. used in Detention Facilitiesb. Highly shatter resistant

Bullet resisting glass:a. Laminated glassb. “spalding” will not occur

** small fragments that fall off the backside of the material

Acrylic glass:a. good for bullet resisting

applicationsb. not good for burglary

resistance

SAFES:Class M: 1/4 hrClass 1: 1/2 hrClass 2: 1 hrClass 3: 2 hrs

Note: A burglary safe is not normally fire rated

4 stages of fire

1. Incipient stage2. Smoldering stage3. Flame stage4. Heat stage

Color RenditionThe ability of a lamp to faithfully reproduce the colors seen in an object

measured as a Color Rendition Index (CRI) on a scale of 0 to 100

Color Rendition IndexIncandescent : 100Halogen : 100Fluorescent : 75-100Metal Halide : 70Mercury Vapor: 50High pressure sodium: 20Low pressure sodium : 5

Protective Lighting

• There are 8,760 hours in a year

• a lamp that is on for 8 hours a day will burn for 2,290 hours per year

A cost benefit analysis is a direct comparison of the costs of the operation of the security unit and all security measures with the amount of corporate property saved or recovered as well as reduction of losses caused by injuries and lost production time.

No security measure should be recommended which is not

cost effective

The perimeter band of lighting must provide a minimum intensity of 0.2 foot candles, measured horizontally 6 inches above ground, at least 30 feet outside the exclusion area barrier

The basic principles of operation of intrusion detection systems are:

a. Breaking an electrical circuitb. Interrupting a light beamc. Detecting soundd. Detecting vibratione. Detecting a change in

capacitance due to penetration of an electrostatic field

The three main lines of defense for physical security are:

a. Perimeter barriers - located at outer edge of property - first line of defense

b. Exterior walls, ceilings, roofs and floors of buildings themselves, considered the second line of defense

c. Interim areas within the building

The most frequently used fencing for security purposes is

chain-link fencing

An advantage of chain-link fencing is that it affords visibility on both sides of the perimeter barrier to police and security officer

The cone of illumination from light source should be directed downward and away from the structure or area protected and away from security personnel assigned to such protection

Specifications regarding use of chain-link fences are as follows:

a. Must be constructed of 7 foot material excluding top guard

b. Must be of 9 gauge or heavierc. Mesh openings are not to be larger than 2” per sided Should be a twisted and barbed salvage at top and

bottome. Must be securely fastened to rigid metal or

reinforced concrete posts set in concrete f. Must reach within 2 inches of hard ground or paving g. On soft ground must reach below surface deep

enough to compensate for shifting soil or sand

Any safe that weighs less than 750 pounds should be anchored to building structure

Combination to safe locks and padlocks should be changed at least

once each 12 month period and on the loss or possible compromise of the combination, or on the discharge, suspension or reassignment of any

person having knowledge of combination

Inventories of key systems should be conducted at least

annually

There is a similarity between physical security surveys and crime prevention surveys, but one of the differences is that physical security measures are oriented more toward the security of property and facilities whereas crime prevention measures focus on the deterrence of criminal activity regardless of the physical safeguards available.

The number of personnel required to cover a single post around the clock providing coverage for three eight-hour shifts is 4-1/2 (5 actual persons). This allows for vacations, sick leave, etc.

Where possible, the parking area should be separated from all other areas of the facility

A vibration sensor detects forced entry through metal barriers placed over windows and ventilators or attempts to drill, saw or cut through walls, ceilings, floors or doors

As a general rule, windows less than 18 feet from the ground or less than 14 feet from trees, poles or adjoining buildings should be protected if they are larger than 96 square inches in area

Signs are advisable at no more than 100 foot intervals along the perimeter stating that the property is not open to the public and intruders will be prosecuted

A clear zone of 50 feet or more should exist between the perimeter barrier and structures within the protected area except when a building wall constitutes part of the perimeter barrier

Gaseous discharge lamps are mercury vapor lamps (soft blue light) and sodium vapor lamps (soft yellow light). They require 2-5 minutes to light when cold and longer periods to re-light when hot.

A light source for perimeter fence lighting should be located sufficiently within the protected area and above the fence so the light pattern will cover a ground area

Barriers

• Two major categories– Structural– Natural

• Three basic purposes– Deter/delay– Psychological deterrent– Supplement and/or complement security needs

Barriers

• When the greatest degree of security is essential, two lines of structural barriers should be installed on the perimeter. These barriers should be separated by not less than 15 feet and not more than 150 feet for best protection and control

Barriers

• Four types of fencing authorized for use in protecting restricted areas are:– Chain-link– Barbed wire– Concertina– Barbed tape

Barriers• Chain-link

– Must be 7 foot high excluding top guard– 9 gauge or heavier– Mesh openings not to be larger than 2 inches– twisted and barbed salvage at top and bottom– fastened to rigid metal or reinforced concrete

posts set in concrete– Must reach within 2” of hard ground or paving– Soft ground - reach deep enough to compensate

for shifting soil

Barriers• Chain-link

• Most frequently used fencing for security purposes

• Disadvantage of chain-link fencing is that it creates an “institution-like atmosphere”

Barriers• Barbed wire

• Standard barbed wire is twisted, double-strand, 12 gauge wire, with 4 point barbs spaced an equal distance apart– Not be less than 7 feet high, excluding top guard– Firmly attached to posts not more than 6’ apart– Distance between strands not more than 6” and at

least one wire will be interlaced vertically and midway between posts.

Barriers• Concertina wire

• Is a commercially manufactured wire coil of high-strength-steel barbed wire clipped together at intervals to form a cylinder

• Opened concertina wire is 50 feet long and 3 feet in diameter

Barriers• Barbed tape

• Composed of three things– Barbed wire– Barbed tape dispenser– Concertina tape

• Barbed tape is fabricated from a steel strip with a minimum breaking system of 500 lbs.

• 7/16” barbs spaced at 1/2” intervals along each side

Barriers• Top Guard

• An overhang of barbed wire or barbed tape along the top of the fence, facing outward and upward at approximately a 45-degree angle.

• Top guard supporting arms will be permanently affixed to the top of the fence posts to increase the overall height of the fence at least one foot.

Barriers• Top Guard

• Three strands of barbed wire, spaced 6 inches apart, must be installed on the supporting arms

Barriers• Manhole covers

• 10 inches or more in diameter, must be secured to prevent unauthorized opening

• Over 50% of all break-ins are through window glass

Alarms

• Fail-Safe– A term applied to a system designed so that if a

component fails to function properly the system will, by a signal or otherwise, indicate its incapacity

• False Alarm– Activation of sensors for which no cause can be

determined

Alarms

• Microwave Sensor– A radio/radar frequency (RF) transmitter

having a frequency range of GHz, which detects motion

• Passive Ultrasonic Sensor– Detects the sound of forced entry throughout

walls, ceilings and doors

Alarms

• Ultrasonic– The frequency range of sound that is above the

capabilities of normal human hearing. In intrusion detection systems, it usually varies between 21,500 and 26,000 Hz

Alarms

• Types of alarm systems

– Electro-mechanical - Metallic foil, Magnet Switches, Wire Service Detection, Pressure Mats, Ribbons or Wafers

– Volumetric - Capacitance, Vibration, Microwave, Ultrasonic, Passive Infrared, Photo Electric

Alarms

• Types of alarm detection systems– Local alarm system - activate a visual or

audible signal in the immediate vicinity of the object of protection

– Auxiliary system - the installation-owned system is a direct extension of the police and/or fire alarm system. This is the least effective system

Alarms

• Types of alarm detection systems– Central station system - Alarms are

transmitted to a central station outside the installation from which appropriate action is taken such as notifying local police or fire departments

Alarms

• Types of alarm detection systems– Proprietary system - Similar to the central

station system, except is owned by and is located on the installation. The response to the alarm is by the installation’s own security or fire-fighting personnel

• It has been estimated that 90-98% of all alarms are false

Protective Lighting

• Protective lighting should enable security force personnel to observe without being seen.

• Four general types of protective lighting: – Continuous - most common– Standby– Movable– Emergency

Protective Lighting

• Continuous Lighting (CL)– Two primary methods of employing CL

• Glare projection

• Controlled lighting

• Quartz Lamps– Emit a very bright white light and snap in rapidly– Excellent for use along perimeters and in critical

areas– Frequently used at very high wattage

Protective Lighting

• Floodlights– Directional, with some diffusion to light specific

areas

• Searchlights– concentrated beam, used for illumination of

boundaries

Protective Lighting

• Fresnels– Wide beam units for long horizontal strips. They

project a narrow beam approximately 180 degrees in the horizontal and from 15 -30 degrees in the vertical plane. An appropriate application is to light parameters since little light is lost vertically

• Street Lights– Diffused light widely used in parking areas

Safes and Vaults

• UL Money Safe Classifications– TL-15 - 750 pounds or anchored / Body is 1”

steel or equal – TL-30 - 750 pounds or anchored – TRTL-30 - At least 750 pounds– TRTL-30X6 - At least 750 pounds / 6 sides– TXTL-60 - At least 1,000 pounds / resist attack

with 8 oz of nitroglycerin or it’s equal

Safes and Vaults

• Burglary-resistive safe– As a general rule, require the door be made of

steel at least 1-1/2 inches thick

• Vaults are described as enlarged safes

• Alarms for vaults:– Capacitance – Vibration

Locks and Key Systems• Cypher locks - digital combination door

locking device

• Disc tumbler locks - often called wafer locks

• Lever locks - Used in safe deposit boxes and are difficult to pick

Locks and Key Systems

• In selecting combination numbers, multiples and simple ascending or descending arithmetical series should be avoided

The EndThe End

CPP STUDY GUIDE # 1 1 - 566. CPP STUDY GUIDE QUESTIONS.

Documents

Transcript of CPP STUDY GUIDE # 1 1 - 566. CPP STUDY GUIDE QUESTIONS.