ContMech SoSe2013 Exercise04 Solution
Transcript of ContMech SoSe2013 Exercise04 Solution
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Institute for Theoretical Physics Heidelberg University
Prof. Dr. Ulrich Schwarz Dr. Irina SurovtsovaContinuum mechanics Summer term 2013
Exercise sheet 4
Handout 13/05/2013—Return 27/05/2013—Discussion 03/06/2013
Exercise 4.1 [6 Punkte]: Muscle fibers
Consider a system plotted on the figure. An active motor force is F m = F 0 (1− v/v0). We identify
v = −u ( u is the displacement). The resting length is denoted by L0 and the external tension by F .
1. Derive the constitutive equation.
2. Consider the following length-controled experiment: the fiber is extended to L = 3L0
. At time
t = 0, this is reduced to L = 2L0. Calculate the time course for F . Under which condition on
F 0 and C 3 this solution corresponds to the behaviour of real muscle?
Solution
F = F 0
1 +
ε2v0
+ ηε2
ε2 = ε− F
C 3
where ε is the full strain, ε2 - strain in the dashpot.
Hence
F = F 0
1 +
ε− F /C 3v0
+ η
ε− F
C 3
The constitutive equation:
F
F 0
C 3v0+
η
C 3
+ F − F 0 = ε
η +
F 0C 3v0
Denoting
λ =F 0
C 3v0+
η
C 3, β = η +
F 0C 3v0
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we get the following ODE:
λF + F − F 0 = εβ
with the solution:
F (t) = F 0 + (F (0+)− F 0) exp(−t/λ)
F (∞) = F 0 have to be < F (0−) and (F (0+) − F 0) < 0 to get increasing time course.
Hence, in order to get the solution for behavior of real muscle we need the following condition:
F (0+) < F 0 < F (0−)
Initial value of F (0+)
Using the differential equation:
(F (0+)− F (0−))λ = β (ε(0+)− ε(0−)) = −β
F (0
−
) =
3L0
−L0
L0 C 3 = 2C 3
F (0+) = −β
λ+ 2C 3 = C 3
The condition on F 0 and C 3C 3 < F 0 < 2C 3
Exercise 4.2 [6 Punkte]: Coarse-graining a viscoelastic chain
Consider a chain of N Kelvin-Voigt (Maxwell) units of the length a as shown in the figure. Using the
continuum limit ( aL
= 1N → 0) derive the stress-strain relations:
Kelvin-Voigt: F = Eε + ηdε
dt
Maxwell:dε
dt=
F
η+
1
E
dF
dt
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Solution:
Kelvin-Voigt model
In the each Kelvin-Voigt unit i the strain ε experienced by the spring is the same as that experienced
by the dash-pot. Hence:
F i = Eε + ηdε
dt
where the strain εi in the i−th element is
εi =a
a
The forces are equal:
F = F 1 = ... = F N
The strain of the complete chain is
ε =L
L=
L
a · N =a1 + ... +aN
a ·N =
ε1 + ... + εN N
Hence we have for the strain rate:
ε =1
N ( ε1+...+ ˙εN ) =
1
N
F − Eε1
η+ ... +
F −EεN η
=
1
N
N
F
η− ... − E
η(ε1 + ... + εN )
Leading to the constitutive equation:
ε =F
η− E
ηε
Maxwell model
Here again the forces in series are equal:
F = F 1 = ... = F N
For each element we have
εi =F
η+
1
E ηF
and
εi =a
a
The strain in the chain is
ε =ε1 + ... + εN
N
Similar toKelvin-Voigt model:
ε =1
N
N
E F +
N
ηF
And finally:
dε
dt=
F
η+
1
E
dF
dt
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Exercise 4.3 [6 Punkte]: Two contractile bars on an elastic foundation
Consider two contractile 1d elastic bars connected to an elastic
foundation with spring constant kf . σ0
denotes the internal con-
tractile stress (force dipoles). The bars are elastically coupled by
a linear spring of stiffness kc, leading to
σ(1)|x=L − σ(2)|x=L = kc
u(1)|x=L − u(2)|x=L
,
where u(i) is the displacement in ith bar. The layer’s ends (x = 0, 2L) are stress-free.
1. Find the solution for stresses σ(i)(i = 1, 2) in each layer.
2. Discuss the stress distribution in the bars for two cases:
a) weak coupling between bars: kc kf .
b) strong coupling between bars: kf kc.
Solution
Consider the displacement ui, i = 1, 2 in each bars. The governing equation are (see lecture 6.05.2013):
l2 pd2ui
dx2− ui = 0, i = 1, 2
The localization length l p = C kf
is the same for each bar.
We looking for the solution of this equations in the form (symmetrical with respect to x = L):
u1
(x) = A1
cosh xlp
+ B1
sinh xlp
u2(x) = A2 coshx−2Llp
+ B2 sinh
x−2Llp
The corresponding stresses are:
σi(x) = C dui
dx+ σ0
The four constants Ai, Bi have to be defined from the 4 boundary conditions:
σ1(x = 0) = σ2(x = 2L) = 0
σ(1)
|x=L = σ(2)
|x=L = kc u(1)
|x=L
−u(2)
|x=L ,
From the boundary condition at x = 0, 2L follows:
B1 = B2 = −σ0kf
For constants A1 and A2, we get after some calculations:
A2 = −A2 =(a1 + b1)q
det
where a1 = kf sinh Llp− kc cosh L
lp; b1 = kc cosh L
lp; q = 2kcB1 sinh L
lp− σ0(1− cosh L
lp)
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For weak coupling kc kf , the absolute values of internal stresses are maximal at the center of each
bar and negligible at the beam-beam junction.
For a strongly coupled bars, kf
kc, internal stresses build up at the junction between the beams:
Here is chosen L = 10, l p = 1, σ0 = −50;
kf = 1, kc = 0.1 on the left graph and kf = 0.2, kc = 1 on the right one
Exercise 4.4 [4 Punkte]: Geometrical interpretation of the Green-Lagrange strain tensor
1. Consider a material line segment dξ 1. Derive the elongation of the segment after deformation
E ξ1 in terms of the Green-Lagrange strain tensor if the segment is deformed parallel to the
initial state. Discuss the linear approximation.
2.Consider now the shear deformation: the 900 angle between unit
vectors e1 and e2 deformed to angle ϕ.
Define the new unit vectors e∗1
and e∗
2and calculate sin ϕ = cos(e∗
1, e∗
2) in terms of the Green-
Lagrange strain tensor. Discuss the linear approximation.
Solution
The Green-Lagrange strain tensor:
E =1
2(F T F − 1)
1. A geometrical meaning of the normal components of Green-Lagrange strains E 11, E 22 and
E 33 is provided by considering the length and angle changes that result from deformation. We
consider a material line element dξ 1 that deforms to the element dx1. The orientation does not
change after deformation The stretch ratio is (see lecture):
λ =dξ 1dx1
The Green-Lagrange strain is defined by:
εGL =λ2 − 1
2=
1
2 e0 · (F T F − 1) · e0 = e0 · E · e0
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For our case:
e0 = 10
0
This leads to:λ2 − 1
2= E 11, λ =
2E 11 + 1
Hence extension of the element (relative change of length) is:
E ξ1 :=dx1 − dξ 1
dξ 1=
2E 11 + 1 − 1
For linear case:
E ξ1≈
E 11
2. The geometrical meaning of the shear strain E 12 is found by considering the angles between
two directions e1 and e2 The unit vectors after deformation are defined:
e1∗ =
F · e1 e1 · F T F · e1
, e2∗ =
F · e2 e2 · F T F · e2
The cosinus between the deformed vectors is defined by scalar product:
cos φ = e1∗ · e2
∗ =F · e1
e1
·F T F
· e1
· F · e2
e2
·F T F
· e2
= e2 · F T F · e1
e1
·F T F
· e1 e2
·F T F
· e2
Using
e1 =
1
00
e2 =
0
10
we get e1 · F T F · e1 =
2E 11 + 1,
e2 · F T F · e2 =
2E 22 + 1
And finally (remember e1 and e2 are orthogonal for deformation ( e1 · e2 = 0)
cos φ = 2 e2 · (2E + 1) · e1
√ 2E 11 + 1√ 2E 22 + 1
= 2E 21
√ 2E 11 + 1√ 2E 22 + 1For small deformation:
E 21 ≈ 1
2cos φ
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