1. Cardiac M2 receptor DO NOT: a. Decrease SAN automaticity b. Decrease atrial excitability c. Decrease AVN conductivity d. Decrease ventricular contractility e. Decrease atrial contractility

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2. Vagal stimulation DOES NOT:

a. Decrease SAN automaticity b. Decrease atrial ERP c. Decrease AVN conductivity d. Decrease ventricular contractility e. Decrease atrial contractility

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3. Ganglionic blockade leads to all of the following effects EXCEPT:

a. Venodilatation b. Hypotension c. Bradycardia d. Mydriasis e. Constipation

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4. The following drugs are selective for M1 receptors EXCEPT

a. Pirenzepine b. Succinylcholine c. Dicyclomine d. Trihexaphenidyl e. Oxytremorine

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5. The BEST anticholinesterase to treat myasthenia gravis is:

a. Neostigmine b. Pyridostigmine c. Physostigmine d. Echothiophate e. Donpezil

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6. The BEST anticholinesterase for neuromuscular-blockade reversal:

a. Neostigmine b. Pyridostigmine c. Physostigmine d. Echothiophate e. Donpezil

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7. Quaternary ammonium anticholinesterases:

a. Can penetrate the cornea readily b. Are easily absorbed after oral administration c. Enter the CNS freely d. All of the above e. None of the above

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8. Major contraindications to the use of cholinomimetics include all of

the following conditions EXCEPT: a. Postoperative abdominal distention b. Asthma c. Myocardial infarction d. Peptic ulcer e. Hyperthyroidism

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9. Reactivation of acetylcholinesterase can be achieved by:

a. Atropine b. Pilocarpine c. Pralidoxime d. Two of the above e. All of the above

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10. Which of the following drugs are used in treatment of

organophosphorus poisoning: a. Atropine b. Pilocarpine c. Pralidoxime d. Two of the above e. All of the above

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11. Myasthenia gravis is due to:

a. defect in acetylcholine synthesis b. defect in acetylcholine storage c. defect in acetylcholine release d. defect in acetylcholine receptors e. defect in acetylcholine metabolism

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12. Atropine is combined with anticholinesterases in myasthenia

gravis in order to: a. Increase the response b. Reduce muscarinic-receptor-mediated side effects c. Reduce nicotinic-receptor-mediated side effects d. Two of the above e. All of the above

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13. Donepezil:

a. Quaternary ammonium compound b. Three daily doses c. More selective to true choline esterase enzyme d. Hepatotoxic e. None of the above

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14. Match the BEST drug (column B) for its indication (column A):

Column A Column B a. Myasthenia gravis a. Neostigmine b. Post operative urine retension b. Physostigmine c. Post operative ileus c. Pyridostigmine d. As prokinetic d. Donepezil e. Fundus examination e. Pilocarpine f. Prostatic urine retension f. Bethanichol g. Excessive salivation g. Cevimeline h. Alzheimer dementia h. None of the above i. Atropine poisoning j. Glaucoma

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15. Vivid dreams are famous side effect of:

a. Atropine b. Glycopyrrolate c. Scopolamine d. Ipratropium e. Neostigmine

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16. Atropine is NOT effective in blocking which of the following

responses: a. Cardiac stimulation induced by epinephrine b. reflex bradycardia during surgery c. vomiting induced by gag reflex d. A-V blockade associated with acute myocardial infarction e. Salivation during tonsillectomy

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17. ………. is an atropine substitute that is very effective in ………..

a. Pirenzepine, peptic ulcer b. Tropicamide, fundus examination in children c. Hyoscine, Motion sickness d. Ipratropium, acute bronchial asthma e. Trihexaphenidyl, parkinsonian rigidity

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18. Arrange the following cholinomimetic drugs according to the

duration of action (the longest first): a) physostigmine, b) ecothiophate, c) edrophonium:

a. a-b-c b. a-c-b c. b-a-c d. b-c-a e. c-a-b f. c-b-a

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19. Arrange the following organophosphorus compounds according

to the rate of aging of true choline esterase enzyme (the most rapid first): a) Smon b) Sarin c) DFP:

a. a-b-c b. a-c-b c. b-a-c d. b-c-a e. c-a-b f. c-b-a

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20. Flushing 2ry to atropine is due to :

a. Blockade of M1- receptors b. Blockade of M2- receptors c. Blockade of M3- receptors d. All of the above e. None of the above

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21. The bronchodilator effect of atropine or its substitutes is NOT

useful in: a. Pre-anesthetic medication b. Acute pulmonary edema c. Bronchial asthma d. GOPD e. Propranolol-induced bronchospasm

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22. It has the LEAST effect on pupil size of anticholinergic drugs used

in pre-anesthetic medication: a. Glycopyrrolate b. Atropine c. Hyoscine d. Tropicamide e. Homatropine

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23. A clinically useful drug which acts through inhibiting

acetylcholine release is: a. Botulinum toxin b. Atropine c. Curare d. Clonidine e. None of the above

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24. True choline esterase is:

a. Synthesized by the liver b. Essential for life c. Present in the plasma d. Inhibited by physostigmine e. All of the above

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25. ………….. is a diagnostic test for ………..

a. Acetylcholine provocation test, variant angina b. Methacholine challenge test, bronchial asthma c. Edrophonium test, Myasthenia gravis d. Two of the above e. All of the above

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26. Ocular adverse effects of cholinomimetic eye drops include all of

the following effects EXCEPT: a. Frontal headache b. Glaucoma c. Eyebrow ache d. Eyelid twitches e. Lacrimation

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27. Organophosphorus intoxication is characterized by all of the

following EXCEPT a. Tachycardia b. Bradycardia c. Convulsions d. Mydriasis e. Pulmonary edema

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28. Indications of botulinum toxin include all of the following EXCEPT

a. Achalasia b. Piles c. Painful muscle spasm d. Blepharospasm e. Strabismus

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29. Arrange the following Skeletal muscle relaxants according to

the duration of action (the longest first): a) Succinylcholine, b) Atracurium, c) Curare:

a. a-b-c b. a-c-b c. b-a-c d. b-c-a e. c-a-b f. c-b-a

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30. Disadvantages of anticholinergic drugs used for urinary

incontinence include all of the following EXCEPT: a. Dry mouth b. Urine retension c. Short duration of action d. Delayed onset action e. Lack of selectivity

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31. The skeletal muscle relaxant OF CHOICE for endotracheal

intubation is: a. Succinylcholine b. Curare c. Pancuronium d. Atracurium e. Gallamine

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32. Succinylcholine apnoea can be controlled by: a. Fresh blood transfusion b. Neostigmine c. Artificial respiration d. Two of the above e. All of the above

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33. The spasmolytic Of Choice in malignant hyperthermia is

a. Dantrolene b. Diazepam c. Baclofen d. Tizanidine e. Orphenadrine

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1) The correct answer is B

2) The correct answer is D

3) The correct answer is C

4) The correct answer is B

5) The correct answer is B

6) The correct answer is A

7) The correct answer is E

8) The correct answer is A

9) The correct answer is C

10) The correct answer is D

11) The correct answer is D

12) The correct answer is B

13) The correct answer is C

14) The correct answer is A:C, B:A, C:A, D:F, E:H, F:H, G:G, H:D, I:B, J:E

15) The correct answer is C

16) The correct answer is A

17) The correct answer is C

18) The correct answer is C

19) The correct answer is A

20) The correct answer is E

21) The correct answer is B

22) The correct answer is C

23) The correct answer is A

24) The correct answer is B

25) The correct answer is E

26) The correct answer is B

27) The correct answer is D

28) The correct answer is B

29) The correct answer is F

30) The correct answer is E

31) The correct answer is A

32) The correct answer is E

33) The correct answer is A