ChE Objective Type Questions Compilation.pdf

8/18/2019 ChE Objective Type Questions Compilation.pdf

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CHEMICAL ENGINEERING

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS: A

COMPILATIONDR. LEONARDO C. MEDINA, JR.

DEAN, COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING

LYCEUM OF THE PHILIPPINES

UNIVERSITY

CHEMICAL REACTION ENGINEERING AND

REACTOR DESIGN1. Rate of chemical reaction is independent of the concentration of reactants

for

(a) zero order reaction(b) third order reaction(c) consecutive reaction(d) none of these

2. Which of the following is not a unit of reaction rate?

(a) moles formed/(surface of catalyst) (time)(b) moles formed/(volume of reactor) (time)(c) mole formed/(volume of catalyst) (time)(d)

none of these

3. If “n” is the order of reaction then unit of rate constant is (a) 1

(time) (concentration)n-1

(b) (time)

-1(concentration)

n-1

(c) (time)n-1

(concentration)

(d) none of these

4. Which of the following is a controlling factor in very fast

heterogeneous reaction?

(a) heat and mass transfer effects

(b) pressure

(c) temperature(d) composition of reactant

5. Variables affecting the rate of homogeneous reactions are

(a) pressure and temperature only

(b) temperature and composition only

(c) pressure and composition only

(d) pressure, temperature and composition

6. Rate determining step in a reaction consisting of a number of step in

series is the

(a) fastest step

(b) slowed step(c) intermediate step

(d) data insufficient; can't be predict

7. Chemical kinetics can predict the

(a) rate of reaction

(b) feasibility of reaction

(c) both (a) and (b)

(d) none of these

8. Velocity of a chemical reaction

(a) decreases with increase in temperature

(b) increases with increase of pressure of reactant for all reactions(c) decreases with increase of reactant concentration

(d) none of these

9. Sum of the powers of the concentration terms in the rate equation is

called the

(a) order of the reaction

(b) overall order of the reaction

(c) molecularity of the reaction


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20. Fill up the blanks

Arrhenius equation shows the variation of __________with

temperature

(a) Reaction rate

(b) Rate constant(c) Energy of activation

(d) Frequency factor

21. The energy of activation of a chemical reaction

(a) is same as heat of reaction at constant pressure

(b) is the minimum energy which the molecules must have

before the reaction can take place(c) varies as fifth power of the temperature

(d) both (b) and (c)

22. Rate constant 'k' and the absolute temperature T are related by collision

theory (for bimolecular) as(a) k T 1.5 (b) k e – E/RT (c) k

T

(d) k T

23. Transition state theory relates the above quantities as

(a) k e – E/RT (b) k

Te – E/RT

(c) k T(d) k T 1.5

24.Reactions with high activation energy are

(a) very temperature sensitive(b) temperature insensitive

(c) always irreversible

(d) always reversible

25. In autocalytic reactions

(a) one of the reactants acts as a catalyst

(b) one of the products acts as a catalyst

(c) catalyst has very high selectivity

(d) no catalyst is used

26. With increase in temperature, the equilibrium conversion of a reversible

exothermic reaction(a) decreases

(d) increases

(c) remain unaffected

(d) decreases linearly with temperature

27. With decrease in temperature, the equilibrium conversion of a reversible

endothermic reaction

(a) decreases

(b) increases

(c) remains unaffected

(d) increases linearly with temperature

28. The equilibrium constant of a chemical reaction

(a) increases in the presence of catalyst

(b) decreases in the presence of catalyst

(c) remains unaffected in the presence of a catalyst(d) can either increase or decrease; depends on the type of catalyst

29. Conversion increases with increase in temperature of

(a) Autocatalytic reaction(b) Irreversible reaction(c) Reversible endothermic reaction(d) Reversible exothermic reaction

30. The heat of reaction

(a) depends on the pressure only

(b) depends on the mechanism of reaction only

(c) depends on both pressure and mechanism of reaction

(d) is independent of the mechanism of reaction

31.Integral method for analyzing the kinetic data is used

(a) when the data are scattered


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(b) for testing specific mechanisms with simple rate expression

(c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of these

32. Differential method for analyzing the kinetic data is used(a) for testing complicated mechanisms

(b) when the data are scattered

(c) when rate expressions are very simple

(d) none of these

33.Exposure of a photographic plate to produce a latent image is an

example of

(a) Very slow reaction

(b) Very fast reaction

(c) Photochemical reaction

(d) Both (b) and (c)

34. A trickle bed reactor is one which

(a) has altogether three streams either entering or leaving(b) processes three reactants at different flow rates(c) processes three reactant with same flow rate(d) employs all the three phases (i.e. solid liquid and gas)

35.According to Arrhenius equation of temperature dependency of rate

constant for an elementary reaction

(a) k T(b) k

e-E/RT

(c) k Te-E/RT (d) none of these

36. With increases in temperature, the rate constant obeying Arrhenius

equation

(a) increases(b) decreases

(c) decreases exponentially with temperature

(d) can either increase or decrease, depends on the frequency factor

37. A batch reactor is characterized by

(a) constant residence time(b) the variation in extent of reaction and properties of the

reaction mixture with time

(c) variation in reactor volume(d) very low conversion

38. A plug-flow reactor is characterized by

(a) high capacity(b) presence of axial mixing(c) presence of lateral mixing(d) constant composition and temperature of reaction mixture

39. In a semi-batch reactor

(a) velocity of reaction can be controlled(b) maximum conversion can be controlled

(c) both the as reactants flow counter-currently(e) residence time is constant

40. A back mix reactor

(a) is same as plug-flow reactor(b) is same as ideal stirred tank reactor(c) employs mixing in axial direction only(d) is most suitable for gas phase reaction

41. In a continuous flow stirred tank reactor the composition of the exitstream

(a) is same as that in the reactor

(b) is different than that in the reactor(c) depends upon the flow rate of inlet stream(d) none of these

42. In an ideal tubular-flow reactor

(a) there is no mixing in longitudinal direction(b) mixing takes place in radial direction(c) there is a uniform velocity across the radius(d) all (a), (b) and (c)


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43. Space velocity

(a) describes the extensive operating characteristics of a tubularflow reactor

(b) is the maximum feed rate per unit volume of reactor for is

given conversion(c) is a measure of the case of the reaction job(d) all (a), (b) and (c)

44. A high space velocity means that a given

(a) reaction can be accomplished with small reactor(b) conversion can be obtained with a high feed rate(c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of these

45. Space time in flow reactor is

(a) usually equal to the residence time

(b) the reciprocal of the space velocity(c) a measure of its capacity(d) both (a) and (c)

46. A space-time of 3 hours for a flow reactor means that

(a) the time required to process one reactor volume of feed

(measured at specified conditions) is 3 hour(b) three reactor volumes of feed can be processed every hour(c) it takes three hours to dump the entire volume of the reaction

with feed(d) conversion is cent per cent after three hour

47. Space time equals the mean residence time(a) when the density of the reaction mixture is constant(b) for large diameter tubular reactor(c) for narrow diameter tubular reactor(d) for CSTR

48. Fluidized bed reactor is characterized by

(a) uniformity of temperature(b) comparatively smaller equipment

(c) very small pressure drop(d) absence of continuous catalyst regeneration facility

49. A batch reactor is

(a) suitable for gas-phase reaction on commercial scale(b) suitable for liquid – phase reaction involving small

production rate(c) least expensive to operate for a given rate(d) most suitable for very large production rate

50. Which of the following is the most suitable for very high-pressure gas-

phase reaction?

(a) batch reactor(b) tubular flow reactor(c) stirred tank reactor(d) fluidized bed reactor

51. For nearly isothermal operation involving large reaction time in a liquid

– phase reaction, the most suitable reactor is(a) stirred tank reactor(b) tubular flow reactor(c) batch reactor(d) fixed bed reactor

52. A stirred tank reactor compared to tubular-flow reactor provides

(a) more uniform operation condition(b) permits operation at the optimum temperature for a long

reaction time

(c) higher overall selectivity for a first order consecutive reaction(d) all (a), (b) and (c)

53. For the same residence time, which will give the maximum conversion?

(a) single stirred tank (v=5liters)(b) two stirred tank (each of 2.5liters) in series(c) stirred tank followed by tubular flow reactor (each 2.5liters)(d) single tubular flow reactor (v=5liters)


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54. Oil hydrogenated using nickel catalyst in a

(a) batch reactor(b) slurry reactor(c) fluidized bed reactor

(d) fixed bed reactor

55. A second order reaction of the form A+B C is called a pseudo-first

order reaction when

(a) CAO = CBO (b) CAO > CBO

(c) CAO CBO

(d) CBO > CAO

56. A first order irreversible reaction A B is carried separately in a

constant volume as well as a in a variable volume reactor for a particular

period. It signifies that

(a) both conversion as well as concentration are same in the tworeactors

(b) conversion in both will be the same but concentrations will

be different in the two reactors(c) both the conversion as well as concentrations will be different

in the two reactors

(d) none of these

57.A space velocity of 5 hour means that

(a) five reactor volumes of feed (at specified conditions) are

being fed into the reactor per hour(b) after five hours, reactor is being filled with the feed

(c) cent percent conversion can be achieved in at least 5 hours(d) a fixed conversion of a given batch of feed takes 5 hours

58. Which of the following fixes the volume of a batch reactor for a

particular conversion and production rate?

(a) operating conditions (e.g. pressure and temperature)

(b) rate constant

(c) density of mixture

(d) none of these

59. In a CSTR

(a) reaction rate varies with time(b) concentration varies with time(c) both (a) and (b) occur

(d)

neither (a) nor (b) occurs

60. The use of space-time is preferred over the mean residence time in the

design of

(a) batch reactor

(b) ideal tubular-flow reactor(c) slurry reactor

(d) CSTR

61. For all positive reaction orders for a particular duty

(a) mixed reactor is always larger than the plug-flow reactor(b) the ratio of the volume of the mixed reactor to that of the plug-

flow reactor decreases with order(c) reactor size is independent of the type of flow

(d) density variation during reaction affects design

62. With the same reaction time, initial concentration and feed rate, the

reaction 2A B is carried out separately in CSTR and P.F. reactor of

equal volumes. The conversion will be

(a) higher in P.F. reactor(b) higher in CSTR(c) same in both the reactors(d) data insufficient; can‟t be predicted

63. For an autocatalytic reactor, the suitable reactor set up is(a) P.F. reactors in series(b) CSTR in series(c) CSTR followed by P.F. reactor(d) P.F. reactor followed by CSTR

64. For multiple reactions, the reaction within the vessel affects the

(a) Size requirement(b) Distribution of reaction product


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(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

65. A first order reaction requires two unequal sized CSTR. Which of the

following gives a higher yield?(a) Large reactor followed by smaller one(b) Smaller reactor followed by larger one(c) Either of the arrangement (a) or (b) will give the same

yield(d) Data insufficient; can‟t be predicted

66. A first order reaction requires two equal sized CSTR. The conversion is

(a) Less when they are connected in series(b) More when they are connected in series(c) More when they are connected in parallel(d) Same whether they are connected in series or parallel

67. The concentration of A in a first order reaction A B decreases(a) Linearly with time(b) Exponentially with time(c) Very abruptly toward the end of the reaction(d) Logarithmically with time

68. Which of the following is most suitable for isothermal reaction ?

(a) Batch reactor(b) Back-mix reactor(c) Plug-flow reactor(d) Fixed bad reactor

69. Which of the following is the optimum operating condition for an

exothermic reversible reaction-taking place in a plug-flow reactor

(a)Temperature should be high in the beginning and

decreased towards the end of the reaction(b) Very low temperature should be used throughout the

reaction

(c) Very high temperature should be used throughout the

reaction

(d) None of these

70. With increase in the space-time of an irreversible isothermal reaction

being carried out in a P.F. reactor, the conversion will

(a) Increase(b) Decrease

(c) Remain same

(d) Data sufficient; can‟t be predicted

71. The optimum performance for reactors operating in parallel is obtained

when the feed stream is distributed in such a way that the

(a) Space time for each parallel line is same(b) Space time for parallel lines is different

(c) Larger reactors have more space time compared to smaller

ones

(d) None of these

72. Back mixing is most predominant in

(a) A well stirred reactor

(b) Plug-flow reactor

(c) A single CSTR(d) CSTR connected in series

73. The ratio of moles of a reactant converted into the desired product to

that converted into unwanted product is called

(a) Operational yield(b) Relative yield

(c) Selectivity

(d) None of these

74. The performance of a cascade of CSTR‟s can be improved by adding(a) a P.F. reactor in series(b) a P.F. reactor in parallel(c) More CSTR’s in series (d) More CSTR‟s in parallel


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75. An auto thermal reactor is

(a) Most suitable for a second order reaction(b) Most suitable for a reversible reaction(c) Completely self supporting in its thermal energy

requirements(d) Isothermal in nature

76. For series reaction,the

(a) Relative yield is always greater for plug-flow reactor tha)for the single CSTR of the same volume

(b) Statement in a is wrong(c) Relative yield decreases with increasing conversion(d) Both (a) and (c) hold good

77. When a high liquid hold up is required in a reactor for a gas -liquid

reaction, use

(a) Packed column(b) Spray column(c) Tray column(d) Bubble column

78. For reactions in par allel viz. A→P (desired product) and A→Q(unwanted product), if the order of the desired reaction is higher than

that of the undesired reaction, a

(a) Batch rector is preferred over a single CSTR for highyield

(b) Tubular rector is preferred over a single CSTR for highyield

(c)

Both (a) and (b)(d) A single CSTR is the most suitable

79. In question 78, high yield would be favored ( for gas phase reactions)

(a) At high pressure(b) At low pressure(c) By the presence of the inner gases in the reactant stream(d) Both (b) and (c)

80. When all the limiting reactant is consumed in the reaction, the operation

yield

(a) Is greater than relative yield

(b) Is smaller than relative yield

(c)

Equals the relative yield(d) Can be greater or smaller than relative yield, depends on

the type of reaction

81. Design of heterogeneous catalytic reactor involves consideration of

(a) Only chemical steps(b) Only physical steps(c) Both (a) and (b)(d) Neither (a) and (b)

82. Pick out the wrong statement

(a) A catalyst does not alter the final position of equilibrium

in a reversible reaction.(b) A catalyst initiate a reaction(c) A catalyst is specific in action(d) A catalyst remain unchanged in chemical composition at

the end of the reaction

83. Catalyst is a substance which

(a) Increases the speed of chemical reaction(b) Decreases the speed of chemical reaction(c) Can either increase or decrease the speed of chemical

reaction(d) Alters the value of equilibrium constant in a reversible

reaction

84. Catalyst carriers

(a) Have very high selectivity(b) Increase the activity of a catalyst(c) Provide large surface area with small amount of

active material(d) Inhibit catalyst poisoning


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85. A catalyst promoter

(a) Improves the activity of a catalyst(b) Acts as a catalyst support(c) Itself has very high activity

(d) All (a) (b) and (c)

86. A catalyst inhibitor

(a) Lessens its selectivity(b) May be useful for suppressing undesirable side reaction(c) Is added in small quantity during the catalyst

manufacture itself


87. Carbon catalyst accumulated on the catalyst used in the gas oil cracking

lies in the category of :

(a) Deposited poison

(b) Chemisorbed poison(c) Selectivity poison(d) Stability poison

88. Slurry reactors are characterised by

(a) Lack of intra-particle diffusion resistance(b) Presence of two mobile phase(c) Both (a) and (b)(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

89. A reaction . A→ 3 B is conducted in a constant pressure vessel. Startingwith pure A, the volume of the reaction mixture increase 3 times in 6

minutes. The final conversion is(a) 0.33(b) 0.50(c) 1(d) Data insufficient, can‟t be predicted

90. The most suitable reactor for carrying out an auto-thermal reaction is

(a) Batch reactor(b) CSTR

(c) Semi-batch reactor

(d) Plug-flow reactor

91 Which of the following factors control the design of a fluid solid

reactor?(a) The reaction kinetics for single particle(b) The size distribution of solids being treated(c) Flow patterns of solids and fluids in the reactor


92. Kinetics of solid catalyst reaction can be studied in a

(a) Batch reactor(b) Plug-flow reactor(c) Mixed reactor(d) None of these

93. For high conversion in highly exothermic solid catalyzed reaction, use a(a) Fixed bed reactor(b) Fluidized bed reactor followed by a fixed bed reactor(c) Fixed bed reactor followed by a fluidized bed reactor(d) Fluidized bed reactor

94. In case of staged packed bed reactors carrying out exothermic reaction,

use

(a) High recycle for pure glass(b) Plug flow for dilute liquid require no large preheating of

feed

(c) Cold shot operations for a dilute solution requiring large

preheating to bring the steam up to the reactiontemperature


95. Which of the following will give the maximum gas conversion ?

(a) Fixed bed reactor(b) fluidized reactor(c) Semi-fluidized reactor(d) Plug flow catalytic reactor


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96. Which of the following factors control the deactivation of a porous

catalyst pellet?

(a) Decay reactions(b) Pore diffusion

(c) Form of surface attack of poison(d) All (a) (b) and (c)

97. BET apparatus is used to determine the

(a) Specific surface of porous catalyst(b) Pore size distribution(c) Pore diameter(d) Porosity of the catalyst bed

98. If pore diffusion is the controlling step in a solid catalyzed reaction the

catalyst

(a) Porosity is very important

(b)

Porosity is less importance(c) Internal surface is utilized efficiently(d) None of these

99. BET apparatus

(a) Measure the catalyst surface area directly(b) Operates at very high pressure(c) Is made entirely by stainless steel(d) None of these

100. Helium-mercury method can be used to determine the

(a) Pore volume

(b) Solid density(c) Porosity of catalyst particle(d) All (a) (b) and (c)

CHEMICAL ENGINEERING THERMODYNAMICS

1. Which of the following is an extensive property of a system?a. heat capacity b. molal heat capactiy

c. pressure d. concentration

2. Which of the following is a thermodynamic property of a system?a. concentration b. mass

c. temperature d. entropy

3. First law of thermodynamics is mathematically stated asa. dQ = dU + dW b. dQ = dU – dWc. dU = dQ + dW d. dW = dQ – dU

4. First law of thermodynamics deals witha. direction of energy transfer b. reversible process

only

c. irreversible processes only d. none of these

5. An irreversible processa. is the analog of linear frictionless motion in machines b. is an idealized visualization of behavior of a system

c. yields the maximum amount of workd. yields the amount of work less than that of a reversible process.

6. In a adiabatic processa. heat transfer is zero b. temperature change is zero

c. work done is a path function d. enthalpy remains constant

7. Enthalpy „H‟ is defined as a. H = U – PV b. H = U – TSc. H – U = PV d. none of these

8. Efficiency of heat engine working on Carnot cycle between two

temperature levels depends upona. the two temperatures only b. the pressure of working fluid

c. the mass of the working fluid d. both mass and pressure of the

working fluid

9. What is the degree of freedom for a system comprising liquid waterequilibrium with its vapor?

a. 0 b. 1

c. 2 d. 3


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10. Efficiency of a Carnot engine working between temperatures T1 and T2 (T1 < T2 ) is

a. (T2 – T1) / T2 b. (T2 – T1) / T1 c (T1 – T2) / T2 d. (T1 – T2) / T1

11. For a constant pressure reversible process, the enthalpy ( ∆H) change ofthe system is

a. C vdT b. Cp dT

c. ∫ Cp dT d. ∫Cv dT

12. Internal energy of an ideal gasa. increases with increase in pressure b. decreases with increase in temperaturec. is independent of temperatured. none of these

13. Equation which relates pressure, volume, and temperature of a gas iscalled

a. Equation of state b. Gibbs Duhem equation

c. ideal gas equation d. none of these

14. Isobaric process means a constanta. temperature process b. pressure process

c. volume process d. entropy process

15. Isentropic process means a constanta. enthalpy process b. pressure process

c. volume process d. none of these

16. Throttling process is a constanta. enthalpy process b. entropy process

c. pressure process d. none of these

17. The point at which all three phases co-exist is known asa. freezing point b. triple point

c. boiling point d. none of these

18. C, for an ideal gasa. does not depend upon temperature b. is independent of pressure onlyc. is independent of volume only

d.

is independent of both pressure and volume

19. For an isothermal process the internal energy of a gasa. increases b. decreases

c. remains unchanged d. data insufficient can‟t be predicted

20. PV = Constant (where, = C p / C v) is valid fora. Isothermal process b. Isentropic process

c. Isobaric process d. adiabatic process

21. For an isothermal reversible compression of an ideal gasa. only ∆U= 0 b. only ∆H = 0

c. ∆U = ∆H = 0 d. dQ – dU

22. As the time is passing, entropy of the universea. is increasing b. is decreasing

c. remains constant d. data insufficient, can‟t be predicted

23. Boyle‟s law for gases states that a. P 1/V when temperature is constantb. P

1/V when temperature and mass of the gas remains

constant

c. P V at a constant temperature and mass of the gasd. P/V = constant, for any gas

24. The equation, PV = nRT is best obeyed by gases ata. low pressure and high temperature

b. high pressure and low temperaturec. low pressure and low temperatured. none of these

25. Compressibility factor of a gas isa. not a function of pressure b. not a function of its nature


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c. not a function of its temperature d. unity, if it follows PV = nRT

26. Critical compressibility factor for all substancesa. are more less constant(vary from 0.2 to 0.3)

b. vary as square of the absolute temperaturec. vary as square of the absolute pressured. none of these

27. Reduced pressure of a gas is the ratio of itsa. pressure to critical pressure b. critical pressure to pressure

c. pressure to pseudocritical pressure

d. pseudocritical pressure to pressure

28. Compressibility factor-reduced pressure plot on reduced coordinatesfacilities

a.

use only one graph for all gases b. covering of wider rangec. easier plottingd. more accurate plotting

29. Number of components (C) phase (P) and degrees of f reedom (F) arerelated by Gibbs phase rule as

a. P + F – C = 2 b. C =P – F +2c. F = C – P – 2 d. P = F – C – 2

30. Degrees of freedom at triple point will bea. 0 b. 1

c. 2 d. 3

31. Cp – Cv = R is valid fora. ideal gases b. all gases

c. gases at very high pressure d. gases at a very low

temperature

32. An isolated system can exchangea. matter with its surroundings

b. energy with its surroundingsc. neither matter nor energy with its surroundingsd. both matter and energy with its surroundings.

33. Heat of formation of an element in its standard state isa. 0 b. 0 d. a function of pressure

34. Heat of reaction isa. dependent on pressure only b. dependent on temperature onlyc. dependent on both pressure and temperatured. independent of temperature changes

35. Second law of thermodynamics is concerned witha. amount of energy transferred

b.

direction of energy transferc. irreversible process onlyd. non-cyclic process only

36. The absolute entropy for all crystalline substances at absolute zerotemperature

a. is zero b. is negative

c. is more than zero d. can‟t be determined

37. Joule – Thomson coefficient is defined asa. = ( ∂P/∂T)H b. = ( ∂T/ ∂P)H c. = ( ∂U/ ∂T)H d. – ( ∂U/ ∂P)H

38. Mollier diagram is a plot ofa. temperature vs. enthalpy b. temperature vs. entropyc. entropy vs. enthalpyd. temperature vs. internal energy


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39. Fill up the blank from among the following: Near their critical temperature all gases, occupy volumes……… that ofthe ideal gas

a. less than b. same as

c. more than d. half

40. Charles law for gases states that

a. V/T = constant b. V 1/Tc. V 1/P d. PV/T = constant

41. Absolute zero temperature signifiesa. minimum temperature attainable b. the temperature of the heat reservoir to which a Carnot engine

rejects all the heat that is taken in

c. the temperature of the heat reservoir to which a Carnot

engine rejects no heat

d. none of these

42. Entropy is measure ofa. disorder of a system b. orderly behavior of a systemc. only temperature changes of the systemd. none of these

43. For spontaneous changes in an isolated system( S = entropy )a. dS = 0 b. dS < 0

c. dS> 0 d. dS = constant

44. For equilibrium process in an isolated systema. dS = 0 b. dS < 0

c. dS>0 d. dS = constant

45. The four properties of a system via P,V,T,S are related bya. Gibbs-Duhem equation b. Gibbs-Helmholtz

equation

c. Maxwell’s equation d. none of these

46. For a constant volume process

a. dU = C pdT b. dU = Cv dT

c. dQ = dU + pdV d. dW = pdV

47. In a reversible processa. TdS = dU + dW b. dU – dW = TdSc. dW – dU = TdS d. TdS – dW – dU > 0

48. In an irreversible processa. TdS = UdW = 0 b. dU – dW – TdS = 0c. TdS – dU – dW


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d. enthalpy change is zero

54. If different processes are used to bring about the same chemicalreaction, the enthalpy change is same for all of them.

a. Hess’s law b. Kirchhoff‟s law c. Lavoisier and Laplace law d. none of these

55. Change of heat content when one mole of the compound is burnt inoxygen at constant pressure is called

a. calorific value b. heat of reaction

c. heat of combustion d. heat of formation

56. Melting of wax is accompanied witha. increase in entropy b. decrease in entropy

c. constant entropy d. none of these

57. Helmholtz free energy is defined asa. A = H – TS b. A = U – TSc. A = H + TS d. none of these

58. Gibbs free energy (G) is defined asa. G = U – TS b. G = H - TS c. G = H + TS d. G = U+ TS

59. Gibbs-Helmholtz equation isa. ∆G = ∆H + T[ ∂( ∆G)/ ∂T]P b. ∆G = ∆H – T∆T c. d(U – TS)T ,V 0

61. For an irreversible process involving only pressure volume worka. (dG)T, p0

c. (dG)T, p=0 d. (dA)T, v > 0

62. Pick out the correct equation relating G and Aa. G = A + PV b. G = U + A

c. G = A – TS d. G = A + TS

63. A chemical reaction will occur spontaneously at constant pressure andtemperature, if free energy is

a. zero b. positive

c. negative d. none of these

64. Clapeyron equation deals with thea. rate of change of vapor pressure with temperature b. effect of an inert gas on vapor pressurec. calculation of G for spontaneous phase changed. temperature dependence of least of phase transition

65. In any spontaneous processa. only G decreases b. only A decreases

c. both G and A decreases d. both G and A increases

66. Pick out the Claussius-Clayperon equation from the following:a. dP/dT = ∆ H/T ∆V b. ln P = - ∆H/ RT + constant c. ∆G = ∆H + T[ ∂ ( ∆G)/∂T]P d. none of these

67. Free energy charges for two reaction mechanism X and Y arerespectively – 15 and 5 units. It implies that X isa. slower than Y b. faster than Y

c. three times slower than Y d. three times faster than Y

68. Chemical potential isa. an extensive property b. an intensive propertyc. a force which derives the chemical system to equilibriumd. both b and c

69. Chemical potential of its component of a system is given by

a. i = ( G/ni)T,P,ni b. i = ( A/ni)T,P,ni


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84. Equilibrium constanta. decreases as the temperature increases for an exothermic

reaction b. decreases as the temperature decreases for an exothermic reaction

c. will decrease with increasing temperature for a exothermic reactiond. none of these

85. As the entropy of the universe is increasing day by day the work producing capacity of a heat engine is

a. not changed b. decreasing

c. increasing d. data insufficient can‟t be predicted

86. Refrigeration cyclea. violates second law of thermodynamicsb. involves transfer of heat from low temperature to high

temperature

c. both a and bd. d. none of these

87. Ideal refrigeration cycle isa. same as Carnotb. same as reverse Carnot cyclec. dependent on refrigerant properties

b. the least efficient of all refrigeration processes

88. Fundamental principle of refrigeration is based ona. zeroth law of thermodynamics b. first law of thermodynamics

c.

second law of thermodynamicsd. third law of thermodynamics

89. Coefficient of Performance (COP) of a refrigerator is the ratio ofa. work required to refrigeration obtainedb. refrigeration obtained to the work requiredc. lower to higher temperatured. higher to lower temperature

90. In a working refrigerator value of COP is alwaysa. 0 b.


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97. Refrigerants commonly used for domestic refrigerations area. ethyl chloride b. freon 12

c. propane d. CO2

98. Air refrigeration cyclea. is most efficient of all refrigeration b. has very low efficiencyc. requires relatively quantities of air to achieve a significant amount

of refrigeration

d. both b and c

99. Coefficient to performance for a reversed Carnot cycle working between temperatures T1 and T2 (T1> T2) is

a. T2 /(T1 - T2) b. T1 /(T1 – T2)c. (T2 – T1) / T1 d. (T1 – T2) /T2

100. Dry ice isa. moisture free ice b. solid helium

c. solid carbon dioxide d. none of these

CHEMICAL ENGINEERING CALCULATIONS

1. In flue gas analysis by Orsat‟s apparatus, carbon monoxide is absorbed by

(a) cuprous chloride (b) potassium hydroxide

(c) alkaline pyrogallol solution (d) none of these

2. Calorific value as determined by bomb calorimeter is(a) higher calorific value at constant volume

(b) gross calorific value at constant pressure(c) lower calorific value at constant pressure(d) net calorific value at constant volume

3. Incomplete combustion of a fuel is characterized by(a) smoke formation

(b) high gas temperature(c) high percentage of oxygen in flue gas(d) high carbon monoxide content in flue gas

4. For maximum discharge through a chimney, its height should be(a) 200 meters

(b) infinitely long

(c) more than 105.7 meters

(d) equal to the height of the hot gas column producing draught

5. Oxygen percentage (by weight) in atmospheric air is(a) 19 (b) 21

(c) 23 (d) 29

6. Stack (chimney) height in a big thermal power plant is dictated by(a) pollution control aspect

(b)

draught to be created(c) limitation of constructional facilities(d) none of these

7. A particular coal is said to be free burning when it(a) burns completely (b) gives smokeless burning

(c) shows little or no fusing action (d) none of these

8. As time passes, the calorific value of stored coal(a) decreases (b) increases

(c) remains unaltered

(d) may increase or decrease (depends on the method of storage)

9. Emission of dense white smoke out of chimney of a thermal power plant is an indication of the use of

(a) less air for combustion (b) correct amount of air for combustion

(c) too much air for combustion (d) pulverized coal in boilers

10. Use of pulverized coal in boiler furnace provides(a) high calorific value (b) better combustion


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22. The maximum adiabatic flame temperature in air compared to that in pure oxygen is

(a) much lower(b) much higher

(c) same(d) either lower or higher, depends on the type of fuel

23. Adiabatic flame temperature of a fuel is dependant on the initialtemperature of

(a) the fuel (b) the air

(c) both fuel and the air (d) neither fuel nor the air

24. Preheating of(a) the gaseous fuel before combustion decreases the flame

temperature

(b) Combustion air decreases the flame temperature

(c)

either the fuel or the air or both increases the flametemperature

(d) either the fuel or the air does not affect the flame temperature

25. The fuel ratio of a coal is(a) the ratio of its percentage of fixed carbon to that of volatile matter(b) helpful in estimation of its rank(c) both (a) and (b) (d) neither (a) nor (b)

26. A fuel containing carbon and carbon monoxide (but containing thehydrogen or its compounds) is burnt in pure oxygen at constant

pressure. Its gross calorific value as compared to the net calorific valuewill be

(a) more (b) less

(c) same (d) data insufficient; can‟t be predicted

27. Removal of hydrogen from coke oven gas(a) increases its calorific value (b) decreases its calorific value

(c) does not alter its calorific value (d) is not possible on

commercial scale

28. With increase in calorific value of fuels, their adiabatic flametemperatures

(a) increase(b) decrease

(c) remain unchanged(d) may increase or decrease; depends on the quantity of products

of combustion

29. Grindability index of a coal is 100. It implies that the(a) coal can be pulverized with great difficulty(b) coal can‟t be pulverized (c) coal can easily be pulverized(d) power consumption in grinding the coal will be very high

30. If the specific heat of gaseous products of combustion of a fuel is high,the adiabatic flame temperature will be

(a)

low (b) high

(c) very high if fuel is of low calorific value(d) none of these

31. Calorific value (kcal/kg) of dry wood may be around(a) 5 (b) 50

(c) 500 (d) 5000

32. A coal containing high amount of volatile matter will have(a) low ignition temperature (b) very little content

(c) high fusion point of its ash (d)low adiabatic flame temperature

33. Steam is intermittently admitted in to the fuel bed during the productionof producer gas to

(a) convert CO to CO2(b) increase in combustion rate(c) increase the gas production rate

(d) minimize the chances of clinker formation


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34.Which of the following is called “blue gas”?

(a) coke oven gas(b) water gas(c) natural gas

(d) producer gas (produced using Kopper Totzek gasifier).

35. During combustion of gaseous fuel deficiency of air

(a) lengthens the flame (b) tends to shorten

the flame

(c) does not affect the flame length (d) increases the flame

temperature

36. Use of excess of combustion air in the combustion of fuels results in

(a) heat losses (b) long flame

(c) condensation of water vapor from the flue gas

(d) none of these

37. A gaseous fuel in order to develop luminosity on burning, must contain

(a) carbon monoxide (b) hydrocarbons

(c) hydrogen (d) oxygen

38. Preheating of gaseous fuel results in increased

(a) flame length (b) flame

temperature

(c) quantum of flue gas (d) ignition

temperature

39. Quantity of coke oven gas produced by high temperature carbonization

of one ton of dry coal may be around

(a) 30 Nm3

(b) 300 Nm3

(c) 3000 Nm3 (d) 30,000 Nm

3

40. Coke oven gas is a better fuel than blast furnace gas because of its

higher

(a) calorific value, cleanliness and relatively low distribution cost (dueto its low specific gravity)

(b) adiabatic flame temperature(c) heat release rate (thus requiring smaller combustion chamber)(d) all of the above

41. Which of the following constituents of fuel does not contribute to its

calorific value on combustion

(a) hydrogen (b) sulfur

(c) carbon (d) none of these

42. Combustion of pulverized coal as compared to that of lump coal

(a) develops a non-luminous flame (b) develops a low temperature

flame

(c) can be done with less excess air (d) provides a lower rate of

heat release

43. Which of the following is the most important deterrents to an extended

use of pulverized coal in boiler firing?

(a) ash disposal problem(b) excessive fly-ash discharge from the stack(c) high power consumption in its transportation(d) erosion of induced draft fan blades

44. Pulverized coal used in boiler firing need have

(a) less moisture content (b) high fusion point

of its ash

(c) high bulk density (d) lower ash constant

45. Dry air required to burn one lb of carbon completely may be around

(a) 11.5 lb (b) 2.67 lb


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(c) 16 lb (d) none of these

46. Dry air requirement for burning 1 ft3 of CO to CO2 may be around

(a) 2.4 ft3 (b) 1.75 ft

3

(c) 0.87 ft3 (d) 11.4 ft

3

47. Washing of coal

(a) reduces its sulfur and ash content(b) controls its ash fusibility and increases its calorific value(c) improves its coking properties

(d) all (a), (b), and (c)

48. Which of the following has the highest gross calorific value?

(a) blast furnace gas (b) coke oven gas

(c) carburetted water gas (d) oil refinery gas

49. Most of coking coals are

(a) anthracite coal (b) bituminous coal

(c) lignite (d) none of these

50. High excess air in combustion of fuels results in

(a) increased fuel consumption (b) incomplete combustion

(c) smoky flame (d) none of these

51. Atomizing steam to fuel oil ratio in a burner should be around

(a) 0.5 (b) 2(c) 3 (d) 5

52. For every 10% increase in the excess air; the fuel consumption increases

by

(a) 0.1% (b) 2%

(c) 5% (d) 10%

53. Ash content in the coke produced from a coking coal having 20% ash

may be around

(a) 5% (b) 2%

(c)17% (d) 25%

54. Out of the following fuels, the difference between the net and gross

calorific value is maximum in case of

(a) pitch (b) fuel oil

(c) blast furnace gas (d) bituminous gas

55. Spontaneous combustion of coal on storage results due to

(a) inadequate ventilation(b) low temperature oxidation(c) storage in large heaps with small surface to volume ratio

(d)

all (a), (b) and (c)56. Low temperature oxidation of coal resulting from bad storage conditions

does not decrease its

(a) caking power (b) calorific value

(c) hydrogen content (d) oxygen content

57. Efficient burning of anthracite coal requires

(a) low preheat of air (b) fine grinding

(c) high excess air (d) all (a), (b) and (c)

58. Rate of temperature oxidation of coal due to bad storage conditions

(a) decrease with increase in surface area(b) does not vary with increase in surface area(c) is more for low volatile coal compared to high volatile coal(d) is accelerated by storage in large heaps with small surface to

volume ratio


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59. Fusion of point coal ash increases in its

(a) iron sulfate content (b) iron silicate content

(c) lime and magnesia content (d) all (a), (b) and (c)

60. Which of the following accentuates clinkering trouble on furnace grate

burning coal

(a) low density of carbonized residue containing high proportions ofiron and sulfur

(b) low forced draught and fuel bed temperature(c) thick fire and preheated primary air(d) all (a), (b) and (c)

61. A coal having high ratio of volatile matter to fixed carbon as compared

to a coal having low ratio of volatile matter to fixed carbon

(a) is less liable to spontaneous combustion on storage(b) is more difficult to ignite and produces a shorter flame(c) requires smaller combustion space and less secondary air(d) none of these

62. Which of the following can be made into briquettes without the use of a

binder

(a) lignite (b) bituminous coal

(c) anthracite coal (d) none of these

63. Presence of free moisture in coal is most disadvantageous during

(a) its pulverization (as it requires more power)(b) combustion of fine slacks on the grates

(c) handling (e.g. when emptying wagons)(d) none of these

64. Which of the following is not a binder for coal briquetting?

(a) coal tar (b) bitumen

(c) molasses (d) none of these

65. Highly caking coals

(a) produce weak coke(b) produce strong coke(c) may damage the coke oven walls during carbonization(d)

both (b) and (c)

66. Presence of free moisture in coal during its high temperature

carbonization

(a) reduces the coking time(b) protects the volatile products from pyrolysis (cracking) in the

presence of hot coke and hot oven walls(c) increases the loss of fine coal dust from the ovens when charging(d) none of these

67. Higher percentage of ash in coal meant for the production of

metallurgical grade coke

(a) increases the hardness of coke(b) increases the abrasion resistance of coke(c) causes brittleness in steel

(d) none of these

68. Increases in ash content of blast furnace coke

(a) reduces its consumption in the furnace(b) increases its consumption in the furnace

(c) does not affect its consumption in the furnace(d) decreases its hardness and abrasion resistance

69. High sulfur content in a fuel

(a) increases the dew point of the flue gases(b) decreases the dew point of the flue gases(c) reduces combustion efficiency by limiting the permissible

temperature reduction of the flue gases

(d) both (a) and (c)


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70. With the increase in carbonization temperature

(a) gas yield increases

(b) tar yield increases

(c) hydrogen percentage in the coke oven gas decreases

(d) methane percentage in the coke oven gas increases

71. Fill up the blank

With increase in time of carbonization at a particular temperature (say

1000C ), the ………. percentage in coke oven gas increases

(a) hydrogen (b) methane

(c) unsaturates (d) all (a), (b) and (c)

72. Producer gas containing least amount of tar is produced by

(a) partial combustion of coal(b) partial combustion of large size (


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(c) 20 (d) 55

83. Percentage of hydrogen in coke oven gas may be around

(a) 1 (b) 5

(c) 20 (d) 50

84. Percentage of methane in coke oven gas may be around

(a) 1 (b) 10

(c) 25 (d) 55

85. Coke oven gas compared to blast furnace gas is

(a) more explosive and inflammable (b) less poisonous(c) lighter (d) all (a), (b) and (c)

86. Which of the following gases will require maximum amount of air for

combustion of 1 Nm3 gas?

(a) blast furnace gas (b) natural gas

(c) producer gas (d) water gas

87. Which of the following will generate maximum volume of product of

complete combustion (Nm3/Nm

3 of fuel)?

(a) carburetted water gas (b) blast furnace gas

(c) natural gas (d) producers gas

88. Which is the heaviest fuel gas out of the following?

(a) blast furnace gas (b) coke oven gas

(c) water gas (d) carburetted water gas

89. „Fuel can be defined as a substance which produces heat by

(a) combustion (b) nuclear fission

(c) nuclear fusion (d) all (a), (b) and (c)

90. Catalyst used in Fisher-Tropsch process is

(a) Nickel (b) Zinc oxide

(c) Alumina (d) Thorium oxide

91. In the flue gas analysis by Orsat‟s apparatus, oxygen is absorbed by

(a) potassium hydroxide (b) cuprous chloride

(c) alkaline pyrogallol solution (d) none of these

92. In flue gas analysis by Orsat‟s apparatus, carbon dioxide is absorbed by

(a) potassium hydroxide (b) dilute potassium carbonate

(c) cuprous chloride (d) alkaline pyrogallol solution

93. The sequence of absorption in flue gas analysis by Orsat‟s apparatus isrespectively

(a) CO2, O2, CO (b) CO, O2, CO2

(c) CO2, CO, O2 (d) O2, CO2, CO

94. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?

(a) lignite (b) sub-bituminous

coal

(c) anthracite (d) peat

95. The main product of high temperature carbonization is

(a) coke (b) ammonia

(c) tar (d) coke oven gas

96. High temperature carbonization produces

(a) inferior coke compared to low temperature carbonization(b) less of gases compared to liquid products(c) large quantity of tar compared to low temperature carbonization(d) none of these

97. High temperature carbonization takes place at

(a) 2000C (b) 600 C


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(c) 1100 C (d) 1600 C

98. Low temperature carbonization takes place at

(a) 300 C (b) 1100 C

(c) 500-650

C (d) 150 C

99. Proximate analysis of determines

(a) moisture, ash, sulfur, volatile matter(b) moisture, volatile matter, ash, fixed carbon(c) moisture, sulfur, nitrogen, fixed carbon(d) none of these

100. Ultimate analysis of coal determines

(a) carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, sulfur(b) carbon, ash, sulfur, nitrogen(c) carbon, sulfur, volatile matter, ash

(d) carbon, volatile matter, ash, moisture

CHEM ICAL PROCESS IN DUSTRIES

1. Catalysts used in the manufacture of sulfuric acid by chamber and

contact processes are

respectively

(a) V2O5 and Cr 2O3

(b) Oxides of nitrogen and Cr 2O3

(c) V2O5 on a porous carrier and oxides of nitrogen

(d) oxides of nitrogen and V2O5 on a porous carrier

2. In contact process, SO3 is absorbed in 97% H2SO4 and not in water because

(a) SO3 gas is sparingly soluble in water

(b) water forms an acid mist which is difficult to absorb(c) the purity of acid is affected

(d) scale formation in absorber is to be avoided

3. Contact process

(a) yields acid of higher concentration than chamber process(b) yields acids of lower concentration than chamber process

(c) is obsolete

(d) eliminates absorber

4. 20% Oleum means that in 100 lb., there are 20 lb. of

(a) SO3 and 80 lb of H2SO4 (b) H2SO4 and 80 lb SO3

(c) SO3 for each 100 lb of H2SO4

(d) H2SO4 and 80 lb SO35. Producer gas consists mainly of

(a) CO, CO2, N2, H2 (b) CO, H2

(c) H2, CH4 (d) C2H2, CO2, H2

6. Oxygen is produced by fraction of air using

(a) Linde's process(b) Claude's process

(c)

both Linde's and Claude's process(d) Bayer's process

7. Raw materials for 'Solvay Process' for manufacture of the soda ash are

(a) salt, limestone ,ammonia and coke oven gas(b) ammonia, salt and limestone(c) ammonia, limestone and coke(d) ammonia and coke oven gas

8. Economics of 'Solvay Process" depends upon the efficiency of

(a) carbonating tower(b) ammonia recovery(c) ammonia recovery and size of plant(d) ammoniation of salt solution

9. Mercury cells for caustic soda manufacture compared to diaphragm cells(a) require lower initial investment(b) require more power(c) produce lower concentration of NaOH(d) none of these

10. Cement mainly contains

(a)CaO, SiO2, Al2O3 (b) MgO, SiO2, K 2O

(c) Al2O3, MgO, Fe2O3


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(d) CaO, MgO, K 2O

11. Gypsum is(a) calcium chloride(b) potassium sulfate(c) sodium sulfate

(d) calcium sulfate12. Glauber's salt is

(a) calcium sulfate(b) potassium sulfate(c) potassium chlorate(d) sodium sulfate decahydrate

13. Permanent hardness of water is due to the presence of calcium and

magnesium

(a) bi-carbonates(b) sulfates and chlorides(c) carbonate(d) chlorides

14. Widely used method for conditioning of boiler feed water is

(a) cold lime process(b) coagulation(c) hot-lime soda process(d) sequestration

15. Hydrazine is largely used(a) as a starting material for 'hypo'(b) in photographic industry

(c)

as rocket fuel(d) in printing industry16. Trinitro-toluene is

(a) used in glycerin manufacture(b) an explosive(c) used in dye manufacture(d) used in paint manufacture

17. Oil is

(a) a mixture of glycerides

(b) a mixture of glycerides of fatty acids

(c) solid at normal temperature(d) ester of alcohols other than glycerin

18. Wax is

(a) a mixture of glycerides(b) a mixture of esters of polyhydric alcohols except glycerin(c) liquid at room temperature

(d) a mixture of glycerides of fatty acids

19. Unsaturated oils compared to saturated oils have

(a) lower melting point and higher reactivity to oxygen

(b) higher melting point and higher reactivity to oxygen

(c) lower melting point and lower reactivity to oxygen

(d) higher melting point and lower reactivity to oxygen

20. Rancidity of oil can be reduced by(a) decoloration(b) hydrogenation(c) oxidation(d) purification

21. Solvent used for extraction of oil is

(a) hexane(b) methyl ethyl ketone(c) furfural(d) benzene

22. Solvent extracted oil

(a) has low free fatty acid-content

(b) is odorless(c) has more of unsaturated oil(d) none of these

23. Hydrogenation of oil does not

(a) remove double bonds(b) rise in melting point(c) improve its resistance oxidation(d) none of these

24. Catalyst used in hydrogenation of oil is


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(a) nickel

(b) platinum(c) iron(d) alumina

25. Soaps remove dirt by(a) increasing the surface tension(b) decreasing wettability(c) supplying hydrophilic group

(d) none of these26. Metallic soap is

(a) sodium salt of fatty acids

(b) potassium salt of fatty acids

(c) both sodium and potassium salt of fatty acids

(d) aluminum or calcium salt of fatty acids

27. Fat splitting catalyst is

(a) CaCO3

(b) ZnO(c) alumina(d) iron

28. Free alkali in toilet soap is

(a) less than that in a laundry soap

(b) more than that in a laundry soap(c) same as that in a laundry soap(d) not present in laundry soap

29. Soap cannot be used with hard water because(a) hard water contains sulfate

(b) they form insoluble calcium soaps which precipitate

(c) they attract back the removed dirt

(d) they increase the surface tension

30. Builders are added in soap to

(a) boost cleaning power(b) act as anti-redeposition agent

(c) act as corrosion inhibitor

(d) acts as fabric brightener

31. Bio-degradable detergents

(a) can be readily oxidized(b) pose problem in sewerage plant

(c) have an isoparaffinic structure(d) should not be used as it spoils the cloth

32. Which of the following is a detergent?

(a) fatty alcohol

(b) alkyl benzene sulfonate(c) fatty acids(d) methyl chloride

33. Yellow glycerin is made into white, using

(a) activated carbon

(b) diatomaceous earth(c) bauxite(d) bentonite

34. Essential oils are usually obtained using(a) steam distillation(b) extractive distillation(c) solvent extraction(d) leaching

35. Plasticizers are added to paints to(a) make it corrosion resistant

(b) make glossy surface

(c) give elasticity and prevent cracking of the film(d) increase atmospheric oxidation

36. Which oil is preferred for paint manufacture?

(a) drying oil(b) non-drying oil(c) semi-drying oil(d) saturated oil

37. Function of thinner in a paint is to

(a) accelerate the oxidation of oil


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(b) prevent gelling of the paint(c) suspend pigments and dissolve film-forming materials(d) form a protective film

38. Varnish does not contain

(a)

pigment(b) thinner(c) dryer(d) anti-skinning agent

39. Enamels

(a) give good glossy finish(b) are same as varnish(c) are prepared from non-drying oil(d) do not contain pigment

40. SO2 is bubbled through hot sugar-cane juice to

(a) act as an acidifying agent(b) increase its concentration

(c) increase the amount of molasses(d) increase the crystal size

41. Molasses is the starting material for

(a) alcohol(b) essential oil(c) fatty acids(d) ether

42. The ideal pulp for the manufacture of paper should have high

(a) cellulose content

(b) lignin content(c) both (a) and (b)(d) neither (a) nor (b)

43. In Kraft process of paper manufacture, white cooking liquor consists of

caustic soda

(a) sodium sulfide, sodium carbonate(b) sodium sulfite, sodium carbonate(c) sodium sulfite, sodium sulfide(d) and sodium carbonate

44. Comparing sulfate process with sulfite process, we find that

(a) both temperature and pressure in former is less than that in the

latter

(b) both temperature and pressure in former is more than that in

the latter(c) temperature is more in former whereas pressure is more in the

latter

(d) pressure is more in the former whereas temperature is less in the

latter

45. Cooking liquor in case of sulfite process is

(a) sodium sulfite and sodium bisulfite(b) magnesium sulfite and free SO2 in acid medium

(c) magnesium sulfate and magnesium bicarbonate

(d) sodium bisulfite

46. Which is a high-grade pulp?

(a) rag pulp

(b) mechanical pulp(c) sulfate pulp(d) sulfite pulp

47. Which of the following paper does not require a filler during

manufacture?

(a) bond paper(b) writing paper(c) blotting paper(d) colored paper

48. Bleaching of paper pulp is done with(a) activated clay(b) bromine

(c)

chlorine or chlorine dioxide(d) magnesium sulfite49. Sizing material is incorporated in paper to

(a) impart resistance to penetration by liquids(b) increase its thickness

(c) increase its flexibility and opacity

(d) increase its brightness

50. Viscose rayon is

(a) cellulose nitrate


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(b) regenerated cellulose nitrate(c) regenerated cellulose acetate(d) regenerated cellulose fiber

51. Which of the following coal has the highest calorific value?

(a) Lignite(b) Sub-bituminous

(c) Anthracite(d) Peat

52. The main product of high temperature carbonization is

(a) Coke(b) Ammonia(c) Tar(d) Phenol

53. High temperature carbonization produces

(a) inferior coke compared to low temperature carbonization(b) less of gases compared to liquid products

(c) larger quantity of tar compared to low temperature carbonization

(d) relatively low tar and yields of gaseous products are larger

than the yield of liquid

products54. High temperature carbonization takes place at

(a) 4000 - 5000ºF(b) 950ºF(c) > 1650ºF(d) < 1000ºF

55. Low temperature carbonization takes place at

(a) 500ºF(b) 1300ºF(c) 750 - 1100ºF

(d) 2500 F56. Proximate analysis of coal determines

(a) moisture, ash, sulfur, volatile matter

(b) moisture, volatile matter(c) moisture, sulfur, nitrogen, fixed carbon

(d) carbon, hydrogen, ash

57. Ultimate analysis of coal determines

(a) moisture, hydrogen, nitrogen, sulfur(b) carbon, ash, sulfur,nitrogen(c) carbon, sulfur, volatile matter, ash

(d) carbon,volatile matter, ash, moisture58. Washing of coal is done to

(a) remove the inherent impurities(b) remove the adhering impurities(c) reduce the ash content(d) both b and c

59. A good quality coal should have

(a) low fusion point of ash

(b) high ash content

(c) high sulfur content

(d) none of these60. Coke oven gas consists mainly of

(a) H2, CH4 (b) CO, CO2 (c) H2, CO(d) CH4, CO

61. Lurgi coal gasifier is a pressurized

(a) moving bed reactor(b) fixed bed reactor(c) fluidized bed reactor(d) entrained bed reactor

62. In Lurgi gasifier

(a) cooking coals cannot be used(b) low carbon conversion efficiency is achieved

(c) entrainment of solids is higher

(d) large quantity of coal can be processed63. The catalyst used in shift converter is

(a) nickel(b) vanadium(c) silica gel(d) alumina


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64. The gasification reaction C + H2O CO + H2 is

(a) exothermic(b) endothermic

(c) catalytic(d) autocatalytic

65. The combustion reaction C + O2 CO2 is

(a) exothermic(b) endothermic(c) autocatalytic(d) catalytic

66. Kopper-Totzek coal gasifier

(a) can give ammonia synthesis gas(b) is a moving bed reactor

(c) cannot use cooking coal

(d) operate at very high pressure

67. Acrylonitrile is mainly used in

(a) polymer industry(b) printing industry(c) dyeing industry(d) photographic industry

68. The major use of butadiene is

(a) as a plasticizer for unsaturated polyester

(b) in the manufacture of synthetic rubber(c) as an anti-skinning agent in paint

(d) as corrosion inhibitor69. Phenol is mainly used

(a) to produce benzene(b) to produce phenol formaldehyde(c) to produce polyester resin(d) as a plasticizer for unsaturated polyester

70. Phthalic anhydride is made by

(a) Oxidation of naphthalene(b) Oxidation of benzene

(c) Dehydrogenation of ethyl benzene(d) Oxidation of toluene

71. Trinitrotoluene (TNT), an explosive, is made by nitration of

(a) nitrobenzene

(b) toluene(c) nitrotoluene

(d) benzene

72. Which is the most suitable dye for synthetic fibers?

(a) acid dye(b) azoic dye(c) pigment dye(d) mordant dye

73. Fumigant insecticides

(a) kill insects when they eat it

(b) emit poisonous vapor(c) are absorbed throughout the plant

(d) are stomach poisons74. Systemics insecticides(a) are absorbed throughout the plant(b) kill insects following external bodily contact(c) are stomach poisons(d) emit poisonous vapor

75. DDT stands

(a) diethyl-diphenyl-trichloromethane

(b) dichloro-diphenyl-trichloromethane(c) diphenyl-dichloro-trichloromethane(d) dichloro-diphenyl-trichloroethane

76. BHC (Benzene hexa-chloride) is made by chlorination of benzene

(a) which is an addition reaction(b) which is a substitution reaction(c) in absolute dark(d) in presence of sunlight

77. Analgesic drugs are


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(a) pain relievers

(b) antibiotics(c) used in the treatment of TB(d) used in the treatment of typhoid

78. Antibiotic(a) prohibits/destroys the growth of micro-organism(b) is used as pain reliever

(c) is an anti-malaria

(d) is an anaesthetic

79. Penicillin is made employing

(a) continuous fermentation process(b) aerobic batch fermentation(c) anaerobic batch fermentation(d) aerobic or anaerobic batch fermentation

80. Which of the following is not an antibiotic?

(a) penicillin

(b) streptomycin(c) tetracyclin(d) quinine

81. Molecular weights of polymers are in the range of

(a) 10 - 1000(b) 105 - 109 (c) 10

3- 10

7

(d) 105 - 107 82. Zeigler process

(a) produces high density polyethylene(b) produces low density polyethylene(c) uses no catalyst

(d) employs very high pressure

83. Poly-Vinyl Chloride (PVC) is

(a) thermosetting(b) thermoplastic(c) a fibrous material

(d) chemically active84. Phenol formaldehyde

(a) employs addition polymerization(b) employs condensation polymerization

(c) is a monomer(d) is an abrasive material

85. Epoxy resin

(a) is a good adhesive(b) is an elastomer(c) cannot be used on surface coatings(d) is a polyester

86. Vulcanization of rubber

(a) decreases its tensile strength(b) increases its ozone and oxygen reactivity(c) increases its oil and solvent resistant(d) converts its plasticity into elasticity

87. Most commonly used rubber vulcanizing agent is(a) sulfur(b) bromine(c) platinum(d) alumina

88. Styrene butadiene rubber (SBR) is

(a) a natural rubber(b) a synthetic polymer(c) a synthetic monomer(d) another name for silicon rubber

89. Nylon-6 is manufactured from

(a) caprolactam

(b) hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid(c) hexamethylene diamine and maleic anhydride

(d) hexamethylene diamine and sebacic acid

90. Nylon 6-6 is manufactured from

(a) hexamethylene diamine adipic acid(b) hexamethylene diamine and maleic anhydride

(c) caprolactam

(d) dimethyl terephthalate and ethylene glycol


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91. Dacron is

(a)

a polyester(b) an unsaturated polyester(c) a polyamide(d) an inorganic polymer

92. Celluloid is

(a) cellulose acetate(b) regenerated cellulose(c) cellulose nitrate(d) cellulose acetate butyrate

93. Thermoplastic materials

(a) do not soften on application of heat(b) are heavily branched molecules

(c) are solvent insoluble(d) are capable of softening or fusing when heated and ofhardening again when cooled

94. Thermosetting materials

(a) are capable of becoming permanently rigid when heated or

cured(b) soften on application of heat(c) are solvent insoluble(d) are heavily branched molecules

95. Type of glass used in optical work is(a) soda-lime glass(b) fiber glass

(c)

lead glass(d) borosilicate glass96. Silicon carbide is

(a) an adhesive(b) an abrasive(c) a type of glass(d) brittle

97. The temperature in the calcium carbide furnace is

(a) 200 - 300ºC

(b) 700 - 850ºC(c) 2000 -2200ºC(d) 4000 - 4500ºC

98. Cumene (Isopropyl benzene) is made by

(a) oxidation of naphthalene(b) propylene alkylation of benzene(c) polymerization of a mixture of benzene and propylene

(d) polymerization of propylene

99. Glycerin can be obtained from

(a) fat(b) naphthalene(c) cumene(d) sucrose

100. Cumene is the starting material for the production of

(a) benzoic acid(b) phenol and acetone(c) isoprene(d) styrene

101. Which of the following is not responsible for causing permanent

hardness of water?

(a) Ca(HCO3)2 (b) CaCl2 (c) MgCl2 (d) NaCl

102. Zeolite used in water softening process (cation exchange) is

regenerated by washing

with… (a) brine(b) chloramines(c) sodium bisulfite(d) liquid chlorines

103. Presence of H2S in raw water (to be chlorinated) results in

(a) reduced softening capacity of zeolite

(b) increase dosage of chlorine to provide a disinfecting residual

in the water


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(c) easy removal of its hardness

(d) residual turbidity

104. Lime and soda ash are added to water to remove

(a) bicarbonates and sulfates of calcium and magnesium

(b)

undesirable taste and odor (c) bacteria(d) its corrosiveness

105. Chloramines are used in water treatment for

(a) disinfection and control of taste and odor

(b) corrosion control

(c) removing turbidity

(d) control of bacteria

106. Deaeration of water in its treatment is necessary as it

(a) minimizes its turbidity(b) helps in controlling its taste and odor

(c)

minimizes its corrosiveness(d) controls bacteria107. Sodium Bisulfate is used for

(a) deaeration of water(b) dechlorination of water(c) both a and b

(d) neither a nor b

108. Dechlorination of treated water is necessary to

(a) remove residual turbidity(b) reduce the bacterial load on filter(c) control taste and odor(d) remove chlorinous taste

109. The main used of the activated carbon in water treatment is to control(a) bacterial growth(b) taste and odor

(c) turbidity(d) corrosion

110. Alum [Al2(SO4)3] is used as a coagulant in water treatment to remove

(a) color(b) turbidity(c) bacteria

(d) all a, b and c

111. Use of hydrated lime in water treatment

(a) before filtration, reduces the bacterial load on filters

(e) after filtration, combats the corrosiveness of water due to

presence of O2 and CO2 (c) is to adjust the pH value

(d) all a, b and c112. The purpose of adding Na2CO3 to water of low alkalinity is to

(a) permit the use of alum as a coagulant(b) increase the softening capacity of zeolite

(c) facilitate the easy regeneration of zeolite

(d) all a, b and c

113. Pick out the true statement pertaining to water treatment

(a) Slow sand filters can remove color completely(b) Activated carbon can be used for taste and odor control without

subsequent filtration

(c) Application of activated carbon reduces the temporary hardness ofwater

(d) Normally, the turbidity is removed by adding a coagulant prior

to sedimentation

114. Pick out the false statement pertaining to water treatment

(a) Aeration of water is effective in CO2 removal

(b) The zeolite water softening process reduces the hardness ofwater by not more

than 50%

(c) Sodium sulfate or sodium carbonates do not cause hardness in

water

(d) Water with pH value less than 7, is acidic

115. Pick out the wrong statement pertaining to solvent extraction of oil

Rate of extraction…. (a) decreases with decrease of thickness of the flakes


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(b) increases with the increasing flake size keeping the flake thickness

constant

(c) increases considerably with the rise of temperature

(d) decreases as the moisture content of flakes increases

116. Fats as compared to oils have(a) more unsaturated glycerides of fatty acids

(b) less unsaturated glycerides of fatty acids(c) much higher reactivity to oxygen

(d) lower melting point

117. Salt is added in the kettle during soap manufacture to separate

(a) soap from lye(b) glycerin from lye(c) the metallic soap(d) the unsaponified fat from soap

118. Hydrazine (N2H4) is used mainly as

(a) explosive

(b) rocket fuel(c) an additive in detergent

(d) catalyst

119. Oils are partially hydrogenated (not fully) to manufacture vanaspati,

because fully saturated

solidified oils

(a) cause cholesterol build up and blood clotting(b) are prone to rancid oxidation

(c) always contain some amount of nickel (as their complete removal

is very difficult)(d) have affinity to retain harmful sulfur compounds

120. Hydrogenation of oil takes place in

(a) an autothermal reactor(b) a trickle bed reactor(c) a plug flow reactor(d) backmix reactor

121. Temperature during hydrogenation of oil should not be more than

200ºC, otherwise it will

result in

(a) pyrolysis of oil(b) sintering of porous catalyst(c) hydrogen embrittlement(d) all a, b and c

122. Shaving soaps are(a) soft potassium soaps (potassium salt of fatty acid) with free

stearic acid to give

lather a lasting property (b) metallic soaps compounded with frothing agents

(c) high free alkali soaps having excess of cane sugar and alcohol

(d) usually soap soaps

123. Transparent soaps (e.g. Pears) are

(a) usually soft soaps (made from coconut oil) in which cane

sugar and alcohol are

added and finally washed with methylate spirit to achieve

transparency

(b) metallic soaps with frothing agent and free stearic acid to achievetransparency

(c) metallic soaps with frothing agent from which glycerin has not

been recovered

(d) high free alkali soaps having excess of cane sugar and alcohol

124. Glycerin is recovered from lye by

(a) evaporation followed by vacuum distillation(b) liquid extraction technique

(c) extractive distillation technique

(d) steam distllation125. Glycerin is not used in the

(a) manufacture of explosive

(b) conditioning and humidification of tobacco(c) manufacture of pharmaceuticals

(d) manufacture of caustic soda


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FLOW OF FLUIDS

1. A fluid is one which(a) cannot remain at rest under the action of shear force(b) continuously expands till it fills any container(c) is incompressible(d) permanently resists distortion

2. In an incompressible fluid density(a) is greatly affected by moderate changes in pressure(b) is greatly affected only by moderate changes in temperature(c) remains unaffected with moderate change in temperature and

pressure(d) is sensible to changes in both temperature and pressure

3. Potential flow is the flow of(a) compressible fluids with shear(b) compressible fluids with no shear(c) incompressible fluids with shear(d) incompressible fluids with no shear

4. Potential flow is characterized by(a) irrotational and frictionless flow

(b) irrotational and frictional flow(c) one in which dissipation of mechanical energy into heat occurs(d) the formation of eddies within the stream

5. Newton‟s law of viscosity relates(a) shear stress and velocity(b) velocity gradient and pressure intensity(c) shear stress and rate of angular deformation in a fluid(d) pressure gradient and rate of angular deformation

6. Dimension of viscosity is(a) ML

-1T

-1 (b) MLT

-1

(c) MLT-1

T (d) MLT

7. Poise is converted into stoke by(a) multiplying with density (gm/c.c.)

(b)

dividing with density (gm/c.c.)(c) multiplying with specific gravity(d) dividing with specific gravity

8. Dimension of kinematic viscosity is(a) ML

-2 (b) L

2T

-1

(c) L2T (d) L

2T

2

9. With increase in the temperature viscosity of a liquid(a) increase (b) decreases

(c) remains constant (d) first decreases and then increases

10. For water, when the pressure increases the viscosity(a) also increases (b) decreases

(c) remains constant (d) first decreases and then increases

11. The pressure intensity is the same in all direction at a point in a fluid(a) only when the fluid is frictionless(b) only when the fluid is at rest having zero velocity(c) when there is no motion of one fluid layer relative to an

adjacent layer

(d) regardless of the motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacentlayer

12. Choose the set of pressure intensities that are equivalent(a) 4.33 psi, 10 ft. of water, 8.83 inches of Hg.(b) 4.33 psi, 10 ft. of water, 20.7 inches of Hg.(c) 10 psi, 19.7 ft. of water, 23.3 inches of Hg.(d) 10 psi, 19.7 ft of water, 5.3 inches of Hg.


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13. For a fluid rotating at constant angular velocity about vertical axis as arigid body, the pressure intensity varies as the

(a) square of the radial distance(b) radial distance linearly

(c) averse of the radial distance(d) elevation along vertical direction

14. The center of pressure is(a) always below the centroid of the area(b) always above the centroid of the area(c) a point on the line of action of the resultant force(d) at the centroid of the submerge area

15. A rectangular surface 3‟x4‟, has the lower 3 edge horizontal and 6‟ below a free oil surface (sp. gr. 0.8). The surface inclination is 300 with

the horizontal. The force in one side of the surface i s :(y = specific

weight of water)

(a) 39.6y (b) 48y(c) 49.2y (d) 58y

16. Fill up the blanksA stream tube is that which has ……… cross-section entirely bounded by stream lines.

(a) a circular (b) any convenient(c) a small (d) a large

17. Mass velocity is the independent of temperature and pressure when theflow is(a) unsteady through uncharged cross-section(b) steady through changing cross-section(c) steady and the cross-section is unchanged(d) unsteady ant the cross-section is changed

18. In turbulent flow(a) the fluid particles move in an orderly manner

(b) momentum transfer is on molecular scale only(c) shear stress is caused more effectively by cohesion than

momentum transfer

(d) shear stresses are generally larger than in a similar laminar

flow

19. Turbulant flow generally occurs for cases involving

(a) highly viscous fluid (b) very narrow passages

(c) very slow motion (d) none of these

20. An ideal fluid is(a) frictionless and incompressible

(b) one which obeys Newton‟s law of viscosity (c) highly viscous (d) none of these

21.Steady flow occurs when(a) conditions change steadily with time(b) conditions are the same at the adjacent points at any instant(c) conditions do not change with time at any point(d) rate of change of velocity is constant

22. Which of the following must be followed by the flow of fluid (real orideal)?

(i) Newton‟s law of viscosity (ii) Newton‟s second law of motion (iii) the continuity equation(iv) velocity of boundary must be zero relative to boundary

(v) fluid cannot penetrate a boundary(a) I, II, III (b) II, III, V(c) I, II, V (d) II, III, V

23. Discharge (ft3/sec) from a 24 inch pipe of water at 10 ft/sec will be

(a) 7.65 (b) 32.36

(c) 48.22 (d) 125.6

24. The unit velocity head is


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(a) ft-lb/sec (b) ft-lb/ft3

(c) ft-lbf/lb.m (d) ft-lb.f/sec

25. Bernoulli‟s equation describes

(a)

mechanical energy balance in potential flow(b) kinetic energy balance in laminar flow(c) mechanical energy balance in turbulent flow(d) mechanical energy balance in boundary layer

26. The kinetic energy correction factor for velocity distribution of laminar

flow is

(a) 0.5 (b) 1.66(c) 1 (d) 2

27. The momentum correction factor for the velocity distribution of laminar

flow is

(a) 1.3 (b) 1.66(c) 2.5 (d) none of these

28. The loss due to sudden expansion is

(a) V12 – V2

2

2gc (b) (V1 – V2)

3

2gC (c) V1 – V2

2gc

(d) none of these

29. The loss due to sudden contraction is proportional to(a) velocity (b) velocity head(c) turbulence (d) none of these

30. The value of critical Reynolds number for pipe flow is

(a) 1300 (b) 10,000

(c) 100,000 (d) none of these

31. Reynolds number flow of water at room temperature through 2 cm

diameter pipe at

average velocity of 5 cm/sec is around

(a) 2000 (b) 10

(c) 100 (d) 1000

32. Shear stress in a fluid flowing in a round pipe(a) varies parabolically across the cross-section(b) remains constant over the cross-section(c) is zero at the center and varies linearly with the radius(d) is zero at the wall and increase linearly to the center

33. Discharge in laminar flow through a pipe varies

(a) as the square of the radius(b) inversely as the pressure drop(c) inversely as the velocity(d) as the square of the diameter

34. Boundary layer separation is caused by(a) reduction of pressure below vapor pressure(b) reduction of pressure gradient to zero(c) an adverse pressure gradient(d) reduction of boundary layer thickness to zero

35. The friction factor for turbulent flow in a hydraulically smooth pipe

(a) depends only on Reynolds number(b) does not depend on Reynolds number(c) depends on the roughness(d) none of these

36. For a given Reynolds number, in hydraulically smooth pipe, further

smoothing

(a) brings about no further reduction of friction factor

(b) increases the friction factor(c) decreases the friction factor(d) none of these

37. Hydraulic radius is the ratio of

(a) wetted perimeter to flow area


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(a) < 1 (b) > 1

(c) < 5 (d) none of these

51. Drag co-efficient CD is given by (in Stoke‟s law range)

(a) CD = 16R e.p(b)

CD = 24R e.p(c) CD = 18.4

R e.p

(d) CD = 0.079R e.p

52. At low Reynolds number

(a) viscous forces are unimportant(b) viscous forces control(c) viscous forces control and inertial forces are unimportant

(d) gravity forces control53. At high Reynolds number

(a) inertial forces control and viscous forces are unimportant

(b) viscous forces predominate(c) inertial forces are unimportant and viscous forces control(d) none of these

54. For flow of fluid through packed bed, the superficial velocity is

(a) less than the average velocity through channels(b) more than the average velocity through channels(c) dependent on the pressure drop across the bed(d) same as the average velocity through channels

55. Pressure drop in a packed bed for laminar flow is given by

(a) Kozeny-Carman equation (b) Blake-Plummer equation

(c) Leva‟s equation (d) none of these

56. Pressure drop in a packed bed for turbulent flow is given by

(a) Kozeny-Carman equation (b) Blake-Plummer equation(c) Leva‟s equation (d) none of these

57. Force acting on a particle settling in fluid are

(a) gravitational and bouyant forces

(b) centrifugal and drag forces(c) gravitational or centrifugal, bouyant and drag forces(d) external, drag and viscous forces

58. Terminal velocity is

(a) a constant velocity with no acceleration(b) a fluctuating velocity(c) attained after moving one-haft of total distance(d) none of these

59. In hindered settling, particles are

(a) placed farther from wall

(b) not affected by other particles and the wall(c) near each other (d) none of these

60. Drag co-efficient in hindered settling is

(a) lesser than in free settling(b) equal to that in free settling(c) not necessarily greater than in free settling(d) greater than free settling

61. For the free settling of a spherical particle through a fluid, the slope ofCD – log NRe, plot is(a) 1 (b) – 1(c) 0.5 (d) – 0.5

62. In continuous fluidization

(a) solids are completely entrained(b) the pressure drop less than that for batch fluidisation(c) there is no entrainment of solids(d) velocity of the fluid is very small


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63. Pressure drop in fluidized bed reactor is

(a) less than that in a similar packed bed reactor(b) more than that in a similar packed bed reactor(c) same as that in a similar packed bed reactor

(d) none of these

64. Slugging in a fluidized bed can be avoided by

(a) using tall narrow vessel(b) using deep bed solids(c) the proper choice of particle size and by using shallow beds of

solids(d) using very large particles

65. Minimum porosity for fluidization is

(a) that corresponding to static bed(b) that corresponding to completely fluidized bed

(c) the porosity of the bed when true fluidization begins(d) less than that of the static bed

66. In a fluidized bed reactor

(a) temperature gradients are very high(b) temperature is more or less uniform(c) hot spot formed(d) segregation of the solids occurs

67. Lower BWG means

(a) lower thickness tube(b) lower cross-section of tube(c) outer diameter of tube(d) inner diameter of tube

68. Cavitation occurs in a centrifugal pump when

(a) the suction pressure < vapour pressure of the liquid at that

temperature(b) the suction pressure > vapour pressure of the liquid at that

temperature

(c) the suction pressure = vapour pressure(d) the suction pressure = developed head

69. Cavitation can be prevented by

(a) suitably designing the pump(b) maintaining the suction head sufficiently greater than the

vapour pressure(c) maintaining suction head = developed head(d) maintaining suction head lower than the vapour pressure

70. Priming needed in a

(a) reciprocating pump (b) gear pump

(c) centrifugal pump (d) diaphragm pump

71. The maximum depth from which a centrifugal pump can draw water

(a) dependent on the speed N of the pump(b) dependent on the power of the pump(c) 34 feet (d) 150 feet

72. Boiler feed pump is usually a

(a) reciprocating pump (b) gear pump(c) multisatge centrifugal pump (d) diaphragm pump

73. Plunger pumps are used for

(a) higher pressure (b) slurries

(c) viscous mass (d) none of these

74. Molten soap mass is transported by a

(a) diaphrag

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