CExcise Objective Questions

8/11/2019 CExcise Objective Questions

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Material Prepared by Surampudi V V S Prasad,AAO(DP Cell), PDA(Central), Hyd

CENTRAL EXCISE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1. The name of the Central Excise Act is:

(A)Central Excise Act 1985

(B)Central Excise Tariff Act 1985(C)

Central Excise Act 1944

(D)Central Excise and Salt Act 1945

(C)

2. Central Excise Act come into force w.e.f(A)

28-2-1944

(B)28-2-1985

(C)28-2-1945(D)28-2-1946

(A)

3. Central Excise Act Extends to:(A)Whole of India and extended further upto the designated areas

in the Continental Shelf and Exclusive Economic Zone

(B)

Whole of India except Jammu & Kashmir(C)Whole of India except Continental Shelf and EEZ(D)Whole of India except Himachal Pradesh

(A)

4. Functions of Adjudicating Authority are :

(A)administrative

(B)

Quasi Judicial

(C)

Semi administrative

(B)

5. In Central Excise Act Adjudicating Authority means:(A)

Customs Officer

(B)Judicial Officer

(C)Central Excise Officer

(D)Administrative Officer

(C)

6. The power of the AA rises with his status starting from

(A)

Inspector ending with Assistant Commissioner(B)Superintendent ending with Additional Commissioner(C)

Superintendent ending with Commissioner of Central Excise

(D)Assistant Commissioner ending with Chief Commissioner of

Central Excise

(D)


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7. Which of the following are not Adjudicating Authorities(A)Commissioner of Central Excise(Appeals)

(B)CBEC

(C)CESTAT

(D)

All of the above

(D)

8. Is curing amounts to manufacture in Central Excise Act(A)Yes

(B)No

(A)

9. What are Excisable goods in Central Excise Act(A)goods that find place in Customs Tariff (Schedule I).

(B)goods that find place in Central Excise Tariff (Schedule I).

(C)

goods notified by the Central Excise department annually

(D)

all of the above

(B)

10 Under which section goods are defined in Central Excise Act 1944(A)Section 2

(B)

Section 3

(C)Section 4

(D)None of the above

(D)

11. Under Excise law excisable goods should possess the followingcharacteristics

(A)

Mobility, Marketability and Excisebility(B)Mobility, Saleable

(C)Marketability and Saleable

(A)

12. In terms of Section 2(e) of Central Excise Act Factory Means(A)It is a place where some goods are manufactured

(B)It is a place where in excisable goods are manufactured

(C)It is a place where manufactured goods are sold

(B)

13. Name of fund created under Section 12-C of Central Excise Act is:(A)Consolidated Fund of India

(B)

Contingent Fund of India

(C)Consumer Welfare Fund

(C)

14. Money in the Consumer Welfare Fund is used for(A)Welfare of the Central Excise Officers

(B)Welfare of the Consumers

(C)Welfare of the poor and sick people

(B)


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15. What is manufacture under central excise law:(A)

As a result a new product quite different from the inputs should

be obtained

(B)The finished product must have a distinct name, character and

use quite different from the inputs.

(C) Both A and B

(C)

16. Charging Section of the Central Excise Act 1944 is:(A)

Section 3(1)

(B)Section 2(1)

(C)Section 4(1)

(D)

Section 5

(A)

17. Central Excise duty levied on(A)

all goods manufacture anywhere in the world

(B)

goods manufactured by the non government companies(C)

all excisable goods manufactured or produced in India

(D)none of the above

(C)

18 All the goods mentioned in Schedule I to CETA suffer a duty called(A)Cenvat

(B)

SAD

(C)BCD

(D)Both A and B

(A)

19 Cenvat stands for(A)

Central tax for valuation

(B)Customs value added tax

(C)Central Value added tax

(D)Central Excise Value added tax

(C)

20 Some of the goods mentioned in Schedule II of the Central Excise TariffAct 1985 attracts

(A)Cenvat and BCD

(B)

SAD and BCD

(C)Cenvat and SAD

(D)

Cenvat and E.Cess

(C)


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21 Central Excise duty is not leviable on the goods manufactured orproduced by:

(A)100% EOUs

(B)SEZ

(C)

STPs and BTPs(D)

Government Companies

(B)

22 Some times goods are cleared to DTA by 100% EOUs. In such caseCentral Excise duty is payable as per

(A)Customs Tariff

(B)

Central Excise Tariff

(C)100% EOUs Act

(A)

23 Under Production Capacity based levy, duty is payable

(A)

on the basis of monthly production(B)on the basis of half-yearly production

(C)on the basis of annual production capacity

(C)

24 Is production capacity based levy applicable to the goods manufacturedby 100% EOU

(A)Yes

(B)No

(B)

25 Section 4 of the Central Excise Act 1944 deals with

(A)

MRP based Valuation(B)Production capacity based valuation

(C)Transaction Value

(C)

26 If the valuation is not possible under Section 4 of the Central Excise Act,in such case valuation shall be done in accordance with

(A)Central Excise Tariff Act, 1985

(B)Central Excise Valuation Rules, 2000

(C)Customs Valuation Rules, 2000

(B)

27 In respect of the Transaction Value Which of the following is not correct(A)

must be a sale of the goods manufactured by the assessee

(B)the sale should be for the delivery of goods at the time and place

of removal.

(C)

the buyer should not be a person related to the assessee

(D)the price should not be the sole consideration

(D)


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28 Which of the following is includable in the assessable value(A)Sales Tax

(B)Excise Duty

(C)Additional consideration flowing from the buyer to the seller

(C)

29 The Government may fix tariff value for certain goods based on the(A)market trend in Retail trade

(B)market trend in wholesale trade

(C)market trend in international trade

(B)

30 Which of the following is not correct in respect of Related Person(A) the assessee and buyer are inter-connected undertakings

(B) the assessee and buyer are relatives

(C)

the assessee and buyer are friends

(D)

the assessee and buyer have mutual interest in the business ofone another

(C)

31 Inter Connected Undertakings are defined under(A)

Central Excise Act, 1985

(B)MRTP Act, 1956

(C)Finance Act 1994

(D)Customs Act, 1962

(B)

32 What is the full form of MRTP Act

(A)

Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1956(B)Monopolies and Relative Trade Practices Act, 1956

(C)Monopolies and Trade Practices Act, 1956

(A)

33 What is Bonded Ware House?(A) it is the place wherein excisable goods have been permitted to be

deposited without payment of duty.

(B) it is the godown of manufacturer

(C) It is the vacant room of the manufacturer for storage of

raw material

(A)

34 Section 4-A of Central Excise Act, 1944 deals with(A)Whole Sale Price valuation

(B)MRP based valuation

(C)

Specific rate based valuation

(D)Advoleram based valuation

(B)


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35 Which goods are comes under MRP based valuation(A)Goods notified under Wholesale Trade Act

(B)Goods notified under Retail Trade Act

(C)Goods covered under Standard Weight an Measurements Act

(C)

36 Under MRP based valuation duty is payable on(A)MRP less abatement

(B)MRP

(C)Whole sale price

(A)

37 If one package carries more than one RSP, then the assessable value is(A)Minimum price

(B)Maximum price

(C)

Average price of both

(B)

38 If the RSP declared on the package at the time of clearance of goodsfrom the factory is altered to increase the RSP, then the Assessable

value is

(A)

Original RSP

(B) Minimum Price

(C)Altered price

(C)

39 Remission of duty on goods found deficient in quantity due to naturaldeficiencies is allowed by the Central Excise Officer under

(A)

Section 5 of the Central Excise Tariff Act(B)Section 5(1) of the Central Excise Act, 1944

(C)Section 5(3) of the Central Excise Act, 1944

(B)

40 Under which Section Parliament empowers the Central Government toGrant Exemption From duty of Excise

(A)Section 5-A of Central Excise Act, 1944

(B)Section 5-A of Central Excise Tariff Act, 1944

(C)Section 6-A of Central Excise Act, 1944

(D)Section 6-A of Central Excise Tariff Act, 1944

(A)

41 Exemption Notifications are issued under(A)Section 5-A(1) of Central Excise Tariff Act, 1985

(B)Section 5-A(1) of Customs Act, 1962

(C)

Section 5-A(1) of Central Excise Act, 1944


(C)


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42 Exemption Notifications issued by Central Government are applicableto:

(A)Goods manufactured in EOU

(B)Goods manufacture in Government companies

(C)

Goods manufactured in EHTP(D)

Excisable goods manufactured in DTA

(D)

43 Time Limit for the issue of the explanation to the exemption notificationis

(A)Two years from the date of original notification/order

(B)

One year from the date of original notification/order

(C)Four years from the date of original notification/order

(D)Six months from the date of original notification/order

(B)

44 The explanation to the exemption notification given by the CentralGovernment will have effect from

(A) the date on which the original notification/order was brought into

force

(B) the date on which the explanation to the notification/order was

issued

(C) after one month from the explanation to the notification was issued

(A)

45 Section 6 of the Central Excise Act, 1944 deals with(A)

Valuation

(B)

Charging Section(C)Registration

(D)De bonding

(C)

46 What is the punishment for( first time conviction) offence with a dutyeffect More than one Lakh

(A)Imprisonment upto a maximum 7 years and fine

(B)Imprisonment upto a maximum 5 years and fine

(C)Imprisonment upto a maximum 7 years

(A)

47 What is the punishment for( first time conviction) offence with a dutyeffect upto one Lakh

(A)Imprisonment for not more than four years or fine or both

(B)Imprisonment for not more than three years or fine or both

(C)

Imprisonment for not more than two years or fine or both

(B)


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48 What is the punishment for subsequent offences irrespective of moneyvalue

(A)Imprisonment upto 10 years and fine

(B)Imprisonment upto 8 years and fine

(C)

Imprisonment upto 7 years and fine

(C)

49 Section 11 of Central Excise Act 1944 deals with(A) Recovery of Duties not levied or not paid or short levied or short

paid or Erroneous Refund

(B) Issue of SCN

(C) Recovery of Sums due to Government

(C)

50 Section 11-A of Central Excise Act 1944 deals with(A) Recovery of Duties not levied or not paid or short levied or short

paid or Erroneous Refund(B) Issue of SCN


(A)

51 Section 11-A(1) of Central Excise Act 1944 deals with(A) Recovery of Duties not levied or not paid or short levied or short

paid or Erroneous Refund

(B) Issue of SCN


(B)

52 Time Limit for issue of SCN in the case of other than suppression offacts, fraud, collusion etc. is(A)2 years

(B)3 years

(C)

One year

(D)5 years

(C)

53 Time Limit for issue of SCN in the case of frauds/collusion/willfulmisstatement of facts/willful suppression of facts/contravention of

Act/Rules, with an intent to evade payment of duty by the assessee or his

agent is

(A)

2 years

(B)3 years

(C)One year

(D)

5 years

(D)


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54 Time limit for adjudication of show cause notices issued in respect ofFraudulent Cases

(A)2 years

(B)One year

(C)

Six months(D)

Three months

(B)

55 Time limit for adjudication of show cause notices issued in respect ofcases other than Fraudulent

(A)2 years

(B)

One year

(C)Six months

(D)Three months

(C)

56 Under which section interest attracts on the duty paid short u/s 11-A(2)(A)Sec 11-A of Central Excise Act 1944

(B)Sec 11-AB(1) of Central Excise Act 1994

(C)Sec 11-D of Central Excise Act 1994

(B)

57 Where the duty determined u/s 11-A(2) has been reduced by theappellate authority interest is payable on

(A)duty determined u/s 11-A(2)

(B)50% of the duty determined u/s 11-A(2)

(C)

Reduced amount of duty

(C)

58 Where the duty determined u/s 11-A(2) has been increased by theappellate authority interest is payable on

(A)Increased amount of duty

(B)

Duty determined u/s 11-A(2)

(C)50% of the duty determined u/s 11-A(2)

(A)

59 Penalty For Short levy or non-levy in certain cases is imposed under(A)Section 11-AD of the Central Excise Act 1944

(B)Section 11-AC of the Central Excise Act 1944

(C)Section 11-AA of the Central Excise Act 1944

(D)

Section 11-AE of the Central Excise Act 1944

(B)

60 What is the penalty for duty short levied or not levied(A) penalty equal to the demand amount u/s 11-A(2).

(B) penalty equal to the demand amount u/s 11-A(1)

(C) 200% of the demand amount u/s 11-A(2)

(A)


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61 If the amount demanded u/s 11-A(2) and the interest thereon u/s 11-ABare paid within 30 days from the date of communication of demand, the

penalty u/s 11-AC shall be get

(A)fully waived

(B)abated 25%

(C)

abated 30%(D)

abated 35%

(B)

62 Section 11-B of Central Excise Act 1994 deals with(A)Interest payable on short levy of duty

(B)Penalty payable on short levy of duty

(C)

Claim for refund of duty paid in excess and interest thereon

(C)

63 Application for refund of Excise duty is submitted to:(A)

Superintendent of Central Excise

(B)

Assistant/Deputy Commissioner of Central Excise(C)

Development Commissioner of SEZ

(B)

64 Application for refund of Excise duty should be submitted in form :(A)Form R

(B)Form AR

(C)

Form S

(D)Form ARE-1

(A)

65. Time limit for refund claim to be made

(A)

Two years(B)

Six months

(C)30 days

(D)within one year from the relevant date with documentary proof

(D)

66 If the duty has been originally paid under protest by the manufacturer,then the Time limit for refund claim

(A)30 days

(B)No time limit

(C)

Six months

(D)One year

(B)

67 Section 11-BB of the Central Excise Act 1944 deals with(A)interest payable by the department on the delay of refund

(B)

interest payable by the assessee in respect of refund claim

(C)interest payable for short levy of duty

(A)


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68 If the refund ordered u/s 11-B(2) is not paid within three months fromthe date of receipt of refund application by AC/DC u/s 11-B(1),the

department shall ay interest at

(A)6%

(B)

Not below fiver percent an not exceeding thirty per cent perannum as is for the time being fixed by the Central Government

(C)15%

(D)18%

(B)

69 What is the time limit for refund claim u/s 11-C(2)(A)

6 months

(B)3 months

(C)2 months

(D)

5 months

(A)

70 Section 11-DDA of Central Excise Act 1944 deals with(A)Attachment of property

(B)Search and Seizure

(C)

Provisional Assessment

(A)

71 U/s 11-DDA of Central Excise Act 1944, department can provisionallyattach the property of assessee for

(A)One year and Extension upto two years by CCCE.

(B)

three months and Extension upto two years by CCCE.

(C)

six months and Extension upto two years by CCCE.

(C)

72 Consumer Welfare fund is created under(A)Section 12-A of the Central Excise Act 1944

(B)

Section 12-C of the Central Excise Act 1944

(C)Section 12-B of the Central Excise Act 1944

(B)

73 Is Consumer Welfare Fund is same for Central Excise, Customs andService tax

(A)No different funds are there for central Excise, Customs and

Service tax

(B)

Yes

(B)


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74 The accounts of Consumer Welfare Fund are to be maintained in theformat prescribed by

(A)Chief Accounts officer of the Central Excise Department

(B)Finance Ministry

(C)

C&AG of India(D)

Chief Accounts Manager of Consumer Welfare Fund

(C)

75 Central Excise Rule Covered under(A)Central Excise Rules 1944

(B)Central Excise Rules 2002

(C)

Central Excise Rules 1994

(B)

76 Who will pay central excise duty on molasses produced by KhandasariSugar Factory:

(A)

Manufacturer of Molasses(B)Procurer of Molasses

(C)No duty is payable on Molasses produced by the Khandasari

Sugar Factory

(B)

77 Central Excise Duty is payable by the producer/manufacturer/storer(ware house) on ------ basis

(A)fort night basis

(B)monthly basis

(C)

half yearly basis

(D)

daily clearance

(B)

78 Which date is the relevant date for Tariff rate and Tariff value for allgoods except Khandasari Molasses

(A)

Date of removal from factory/warehouse

(B)Date of manufacture of goods

(C)Date of usage of manufactured goods

(A)

79 For goods captively consumed, the date of removal is(A)date on which goods consumed

(B)date on which goods manufacture

(C)

date of issue of goods

(C)

80 In case of Cigarettes, assessment shall be done by the(A)Superintendent or Inspector of Central Excise before removal

(B)

Manufacturer

(C)AC of Central Excise

(A)


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81 Which commodity has physical control of the department on removal(A)Granite

(B)Cigarettes

(C)Diamonds

(D)

Silver Articles

(B)

82 Under which rule assessee may clear goods on provisional assessmentbasis

(A)Rule 6 of Central Excise Rules 2002

(B)Rule 7(1) of Central Excise Rules 2002

(C)

Rule 6(1) of Central Excise Rules 2002

(B)

83 Assessee is required to submit a bond in Form B-2 for provisionalassessment. What is the value of the Bond?

(A) 2 times of estimated differential duty liability.(B) 3 times of estimated differential duty liability.

(C) equal to the differential duty liability

(B)

84 In addition to Bond in form B-2 the assessee is required to submitsecurity/bank guarantee for the clearances on provisional assessment.

What is the value of security?

(A)50% of the bond value

(B)75% of the bond value

(C)

25% of the bond value

(C)

85 Provisional Assessment should be finalized within(A)one year

(B)six months

(C)

three months

(D)one month

(B)

86 Chief commissioner of Central Excise may extend Time limit forfinalization of provisional assessment for a period of

(A)3 years

(B)2 years

(C)

Without any time limit

(C)

87 If final duty payable is more than the duty paid on provisional basis,assessee shall pay

(A)interest and penalty

(B)interest only

(C)no interest and penalty

(B)


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88 Due date for payment of duty by the SSI units is(A) 5

thof the month following the quarter

(B) 5th

of the next month

(C) 15th

of the month following the quarter

(A)

89 Central Excise Registration is not necessary in the case of(A)

trader

(B)Warehousing

(C)

First and Second Stage dealer

(D)Whole sale traders other than First and Second Stage dealer

(D)

90 DSA stands for(A)Daily Stores Account

(B)Daily Sales Account

(C)

Daily Stock Account

(C)

91 The first page and the last page of the daily stock account shall beauthenticated by the

(A)Commissioner of Central Excise

(B)Superintendent of Central Excise

(C)assessee or his authorized agent

(C)

92 DSA should be preserved for(A)one year

(B)

three years

(C)

five years(D)

five years immediately after the financial year

(D)

93 Excisable goods other than cigarettes shall be removed fromfactory/warehouse on invoice signed by


(B)

Superintendent of Central Excise

(C)assessee or his authorized agent

(C)

94 Invoices shall be prepared in(A)Duplicate

(B)

Triplicate

(C)Quadruplicate

(B)

95 Original invoice for buyer, triplicate for assessee, duplicate for(A)Range Officer

(B)Insurance agent

(C)Transporter

(C)


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96 Before making use of the Invoice Book, its Serial Number shall beintimated to the


(B)Range Officer

(C)Asst Commissioner of Division

(B)

97 Central Excise duty should be rounded off to the nearest(A)Ten rupees

(B)

Hundred rupees

(C)Rupee

(C)

98 Whenever the invoice is cancelled, intimation to this effect has to beintimated to the

(A)jurisdictional Range officer

(B)

Asst Commissioner of the Central Excise

(C)

Chief Commissioner of the Central Excise

(A)

99 Due date for filing of monthly return by the assessee is(A)15

thof the next month

(B)10th

of the next month

(C)5th

of the next month

(B)

100 Monthly return should be submitted by the assessee in the Form(A)ER-2

(B)

ER-1

(C)

ER-4(D)

ER-3

(B)

101 Due date for filing of Quarterly return by SSI units:(A)within 10 days after ending of the quarter

(B)5th

of the next month

(C)

15th

of the next month

(A)

102 SSI units file Quarterly Return in the Form(A)

ER-1

(B)ER-2

(C)

ER-3

(D)ER-4

(C)


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103 e-filing of returns is compulsory, where the Excise duty (CENVAT +PLA) paid by the assessee in a financial year is

(A) more than one crore

(B) more than 50 lakhs

(C) More than 1 lakh(D) Rs 10 lakh or more

(D)

104 Assessees who paid in the previous financial year ED of Rs.100 lakh ormore (CENVAT + PLA) shall also file Electronically

(A)Annual Installed capacity statement

(B)

Annual Financial Information Statement

(C)Details of Major Inputs

(B)

105 Annual Financial Information Statement should be submitted in the

form(A)ER-3

(B)ER-4

(C)ER-5

(D)

ER-6

(B)

106 Due date for submission of Annual Financial Information Statement forthe previous year

(A)by 30th

November of the Current year

(B)

by 30th

June of Current year

(C)

by 31

st

October of Current year

(A)

107 Annual Installed Capacity Statement should be submitted in the form(A)ER-6

(B)

ER-5

(C)ER-7

(D)ER-4

(C)

108 Due date for submission of Annual Installed Capacity Statement is(A)30

thApril of the succeeding financial year.

(B)30th

June of the succeeding financial year.

(C)

30thSeptember of the succeeding financial year.

(A)

109 LTU Stands for(A)

Larger Turnover unit

(B)Large Tax payer Unit

(C)Large Transport Unit

(B)


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110 Who can opt LTU scheme(A)

Assessees under Central Excise, Service Tax and Income Tax

laws who have paid Rs. Five Crore or more through PLA or

More than Rs. Ten Crore as advance tax/corporation tax

(B)Assessees under Central Excise, Service Tax and Income Tax

laws who have paid Rs. One Crore or more through PLA orMore than Rs. Ten Crore as advance tax/corporation tax

(C)Assessees under Central Excise, Service Tax and Income Tax

laws who have paid Rs. Five Crore or more through PLA or

More than Rs. One Crore as advance tax/corporation tax

(A)

111 For opting out of the LTU Scheme ---- notice is necessary(A)6 months notice

(B)3 months notice

(C)

One year notice

(D)

30 days notice

(D)

112 100% EOU shall maintain Daily Stock Account in Form(A)AC-1

(B)AC-2

(C)AC-3

(D)

AC-4

(A)

113 100% EOU shall submit monthly return in Form(A)

ER-1

(B)

ER-2(C)

ER-3

(D)ER-4

(B)

114 U/R 18 of Central Excise Rules 2002, Rebate can be allowed in thefollowing situation

(A)

Goods cleared to SEZ units

(B)Goods cleared to 100% EOUs

(C)Duty paid on raw materials imported

(D)

When goods are exported the Excise Duty paid on the exported

goods or the Excise Duty paid on the materials used in the

manufacture of the exported goods

(D)

115 Export goods are cleared from factory in form ARE-1 in(A)

Duplicate

(B)Quintuplicate

(C)Triplicate

(B)


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116 Assessable value of the goods captively consumed(A)

110% of the Cost of production

(B)120% of the Cost of production

(C)100% of the Cost of production

(A)

117 Name of the Central Excise Tariff Act is(A)

Central Excise Tariff Act, 1983

(B)Central Excise Tariff Act, 1985

(C)

Central Excise Tariff Act, 1984

(B)

118 Central Excise Tariff Act came in to force w.e.f.(A)

28-02-1987

(B)28-02-1985

(C)28-02-1986

(D)

28-02-1988

(C)

119 CETA extends to(A)Whole of India

(B)Whole of India except Jammu and Kashmir

(C)Whole of India except Himachal Paradesh

(A)

120 Through which section, the Central Government (ExecutiveGovernment) has been empowered to increase duty leviable u/s 2 of

CETA in respect of any goods

(A)

U/s 3(1) of Central Excise Act, 1944

(B)

U/s 3(1) of Central Excise Tariff Act, 1985(C)

U/s 4(1) of Central Excise Tariff Act, 1985

(B)

121 If the existing rate is NIL , the rate of duty to be notified should not bemore than

(A)20% of advalorem

(B)

30% of advalorem

(C)50% of advalorem

(C)

122 How many schedules are there in CETA 1985(A)3

(B)

2

(C)1

(D)4

(A)


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123 How may Sections are there in CETA 1985(A)20

(B)21

(C)22

(D)

23

(B)

124 How many Chapters are there in CETA 1985(A)96

(B)97

(C)98

(D)

91

(C)

125 Which chapters of CETA 1985 are kept blank for possible use in future(A) Chapter 77, 97 and 98

(B) Chapter 76,97 and 98(C) Chapter 77,96 and 97

(A)

126 Eight Digit code is followed with effect from(A)

28-02-2006

(B)28-02-2005

(C)28-02-2004

(B)

127 First four digits of code denotes(A)

Chapter Heading

(B)

Chapter Sub Heading(C)Tariff item Number

(A)

128 What is the full form of HSN(A)

Harmonised status of numbers

(B)Harmonised System of Nomenclature

(C)Hexa system of Nomenclature

(B)

129 Popular name of the HSN is(A)Mexico Nomenclature

(B)Italian Nomenclature

(C)

Brussels Nomenclature

(C)

130 Which section allows to amend Central Excise Act 1944(A)

Section 4 of the Central Excise Act 1944

(B)Section 4 of the Central Excise Act 1985

(C)Rule 4 of the Central Excise Rules, 2002

(D)Rule 4 of the Central Excise Valuation Rules, 2000

(B)


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131 Under which Section Central Government amend First and Schedulesof Central Excise Tariff Act, 1985

(A)Section 4 of Central Excise Tariff Act, 1985

(B)Section 5 of Central Excise Tariff Act, 1985

(C)Section 4(1) of Central Excise Tariff Act, 1985

(D)

Section 5(1) of Central Excise Tariff Act, 1985

(B)

132 In case of Khandasari Molasses date for determination of duty andtariff valuation

(A)Date on which Molasses cleared from the factory

(B)Date on which Molasses received by the procurer

(C)

Date on which Molasses produced

(B)

133 In case of Molasses produced by Khandasari Sugar factory who willpay the Central Excise Duty

(A)

procurer(B)

manufacturer

(C)no duty on molasses

(A)

134 Match the following:1) Rule 4 of CE Rules 2002 (a) Date for determination of duty

2) Rule 5 of CE Rules 2002 (b) Provisional Assessment

3) Rule 6 of CE Rules 2002 (c) Duty Payable on Removal

4) Rule 7 of CE Rules 2002 (d) Assessment of duty

(A) 1-a 2-c 3-d 4-b (B) 1-b 2-d 3-c 4-a(C) 1-c 2-a 3-d 4-b (D) 1-c 2-d 3-a 4-b

(C)

135 Who will permit storage of goods outside the factory without paymentof duty subject to certain conditions.

(A)Range Officer

(B)

Inspector

(C)Commissioner of Central Excise

(D)Chief Commissioner of Central Excise

(C)

136 Rule 7 of Central Excise Rules, 2002 allows assessee to pay duty on(A)

Provisional Assessment basis

(B)Transaction value

(C)Tariff Value

(D)

None of the above

(A)


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137 CCCE can extend time limit for finalization of provisional assessmentupto a period of

(A)6 months

(B)One year

(C)

Two years(D)

No time limit

(D)

138 In respect of SSIs, payment of duty on quarterly is available only if theTurn Over in the previous financial year is not more than

(A)Rs 90 lakhs

(B)

Rs 1.50 crore

(C)Rs 3.50 crore

(D)Rs 4.00 crore

(D)

139 Compounded Levy Scheme applicable to(A)Pan Masala and tobacco products

(B)Aluminum Steel patties

(C)Iron sheets

(D)

None of the above

(B)

140 Compounded Levy Scheme is(A)mandatory

(B)optional

(C)

applicable to every assessee automatically

(D)

none of the above

(B)

141 Is assessee paying duty under compounded levy scheme eligible fortaking cenvat credit on inputs and capital goods

(A)

Yes

(B)No

(C)Eligible after crossing turnover Rs 1.50 lakh


(B)

142 In which form 100% EOUs has to maintain DSA(A)Form AC-1

(B)

Form AC-2

(C)Form AC-3

(D)Form AC

(A)


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143 Under which Rule assessee can export any excisable goods from thefactory without payment of duty

(A)Rule 18 of Central Excise Rules 2002

(B)Rule 19(1) of Central Excise Rules 2002

(C)

Rule 19(2) of Central Excise Rules 2002(D)

None of the above

(B)

144 Penalty under Rule 25 of Central Excise Rules 2002 equal to(A) not exceeding the Duty on the offending goods or Rs.5000

whichever is greater

(B)

not exceeding the Duty on the offending goods or Rs.4000


(C) not exceeding the Duty on the offending goods or Rs.2000


(D)

None of the above

(C)

145 General Penalty under Rule 27 of Central Excise Rules 2002 is:(A) Penalty upto Rs.5000/- and Confiscation of goods

(B)

Penalty upto Rs.2000/- and Confiscation of goods

(C) Penalty upto Rs.3000/- and Confiscation of goods

(D) None of the above

(A)

146 Central Excise Valuation Rules, 2000 come in to force w.e.f(A)

1.7.2000

(B)

1.8.2000(C)1.4.2000


(A)

147 Normal Transaction value means(A) transaction value at which the lowest aggregate quantity

of goods are sold on a particular day .

(B) transaction value at which the greatest aggregate quantity

of goods are sold on a particular day.

(C) transaction value at which the greatest aggregate quantity

of goods are sold in a month

(D) transaction value at which the least aggregate quantity

of goods are sold in a month

(B)


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148 U/r 4 of CE Valuation Rules,2000, if price at the time of removal is notknown, then the value for discharging duty liability is

(A)value mentioned in the CAS-4 Certificate

(B)based on NTV

(C)

based on price charged nearest to the time of removal(D)

none of the above

(C)

149 In which case valuation will be done in accordance with the Rule 5 ofCentral Excise Valuation Rules, 2000

(A)if price is for delivery at a place other than the place of removal

(B)

if price is for delivery at factory gate

(C)if price is for sale and at the time of removal


(A)


(A)if price is for delivery at a place other than the place of removal

(B)Price Sole consideration is not satisfied

(C)

Goods cleared for depot


(B)

151 If goods are sold from depot then valuation will be done in accordancewith

(A)

Rule 6 of Central Excise Valuation Rules, 2000

(B)

Rule 8 of Central Excise Valuation Rules, 2000(C)Rule 9 of Central Excise Valuation Rules, 2000

(D)Rule 7 of Central Excise Valuation Rules, 2000

(D)

152 Valuation for captive consumption will be done u/r(A)Rule 8 of Central Excise Valuation Rules, 2000

(B)Rule 7 of Central Excise Valuation Rules, 2000

(C)Rule 4 of Central Excise Valuation Rules, 2000

(D)Rule 5 of Central Excise Valuation Rules, 200

(A)

153 In case of captive consumption the assessable value is(A) 110% of the invoice value

(B) 110% of the Cost of production

(C) 110% of the NTV


(B)


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(A) Sale to Related persons

(B) Sale to ICUs

(C)

Sale to Government companies(D)

None of the above

(A)


A. Sale to Related persons

B.

Sale to ICUs

C. Sale to PSUs

D. None of the above

(B)

156 Name of the Cenvat Credit Rules(A) Cenvat Credit Rules,2002

(B) Cenvat Credit Rules,2000

(C) Cenvat Credit Rules,2003

(D) Cenvat Credit Rules,2004

(D)

157 Cenvat Credit Rules are come into force w.e.f(A) 10.09.2004

(B) 10.08.2004

(C) 10.07.2004


(A)

158 Full form of CENVAT(A) Central Excise Value Added Tax

(B) Customs Value Added Tax

(C) Central Value Added Tax


(C)

159 Cenvat credit Rules, 2004 applicable to(A) Whole of India

(B) Whole of India except Jammu and Kashmir in r/o of service tax

(C) Whole of India except Northern States


(B)


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160 Match the following:1) Rule 2(a) of Cenvat credit Rules 2002 (a) Inputs

2) Rule 2(d) of Cenvat credit Rules 2002 (b) Capital Goods

3) Rule 2(e) of Cenvat credit Rules 2002 (c) Exempted Goods

4) Rule 2(k) of Cenvat credit Rules 2002 (d) Exempted services

(A) 1-a 2-c 3-d 4-b (B) 1-b 2-d 3-c 4-a

(C) 1-c 2-a 3-d 4-b (D) 1-b 2-c 3- 4-a

(D)

161 Which of the following is not inputs(A)

raw material

(B)accessories

(C)paints

(D)

LDO and HSD

(D)

162 Trading is(A)Taxable service

(B)Exempted service

(C)

None of the above

(B)

163 Match the following:1) Rule 2(m) of Cenvat credit Rules 2002 (a) Input service

2) Rule 2(n) of Cenvat credit Rules 2002 (b) Output Service

3) Rule 2(p) of Cenvat credit Rules 2002 (c) Job Work

4) Rule 2(l) of Cenvat credit Rules 2002 (d) IPS Distributor

(A) 1-d 2-c 3-b 4-a (B) 1-b 2-d 3-c 4-a

(C) 1-c 2-a 3-d 4-b (D) 1-b 2-c 3- 4-a

(A)

164 Which is the following is not eligible to take cenvat credit(A)Central Excise Duty

(B)Education Cess on Central Excise Duty

(C)Service Tax

(D)Customs Duty

(D)

165 Which of the following is not eligible to take cenvat credit by the outputservice provider

(A)CVD

(B)

Spl.CVD

(C)Central Excise Duty

(D)Education on Excise Duty

(B)


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166 NCCD stands for(A)

National Council for Central Excise Duty

(B)National Council for Customs Duty

(C)National Calamity Contingent Duty


(C)

167 Clean Energy Cess is levied on(A)coal, lignite, and peat

(B)

Tobacco products

(C)Aluminium Pattas


(A)

168 Clean Energy Cess come into force w.e.f.(A)1.7.2011

(B)

1.7.2010

(C)

1.4.2012(D)

1.4.2010

(B)

169 Due date for payment of Clean Energy Cess(A)5

thof the second month after the month of removal

(B)15th

of the second month after the month of removal

(C)

10th

of the second month after the month of removal


(A)

170 When the manufacturer or provider of OPS removes IP or CG as such,

then(A)

he shall pay an amount equal to the credit taken

(B)the removal shall be under cover of invoice

(C)both A and B are correct

(D)A is correct

(C)

171 If the inputs or capital goods removed for providing output service bythe output service provider then

(A)he shall pay an amount equal to the credit taken

(B)

the removal shall be under cover of invoice

(C)both A and B are correct

(D)

No need to pay any amount

(D)


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172 If Capital goods are used and cleared (not as scrap) then the assesseehas to

(A)Pay an amount equal to the credit taken reduced by the

percentage points for each quarters of a year or part thereof

calculated by the straight line method(B)

Pay duty on transaction value

(C)No need to pay any duty


(A)

173 If CG is cleared as waste and scrap the manufacturer shall pay(A) Pay an amount equal to the credit taken reduced by the percentage

points for each quarters of a year or part thereof calculated by the

straight line method

(B) an amount equal to duty payable on transaction value

(C) No need to pay any duty(D) None of the above

(B)

174 When cenvat credit on Inputs can be taken(A)

as per the assesses choice

(B)on receipt of invoice

(C)on payment of amount

(D)on receipt of I.P in the factory of the manufacturer or in the

premises of the provider of OPS

(D)

175 In respect of Capital Goods how much credit is available in the year ofreceipt(A)100%

(B)50%

(C)

75%

(D)25%

(B)

176 SSIs are eligible for ____ credit in the year of capital goods received(A)100%

(B)50%

(C)Credit not available to SSIs as they are claiming benefit

(D)

None of the above

(A)


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177 IP or CGs sent for repairs, reconditioning or job work has to bereceived back within

(A)one month

(B)180 days

(C)

One year(D)

None of the above

(B)

178 If IPs or CGs sent for repairs, reconditioning etc are not received backwithin 180 days then assessee has to

(A)pay an amount equivalent to the CENVAT Credit attributable

to the goods by debiting CENVAT credit or otherwise.

(B)No need to pay any amount

(C)This has to brought to the notice of the department

(D)

None of the above

(A)

179 A service provider can file revised return within(A) one month

(B) within 60 days from the date of original return submitted

(C) within one year

(D) none of the above

(B)

180 A declaration of information relating to the principal IPs has to besubmitted in the form

(A) ER-1

(B) ER-4

(C) ER-6

(D) ER-5

(D)

181 Due date for submission of ER-5 Return(A)March 31

stevery year

(B)April 30th

every year

(C)November 30th

every year


(B)

182 Submission of ER-5 Return is mandatory for all the assesses who(A)

has paid ED Rs 1 crore or more

(B)

has paid ED Rs 10 lakhs or more

(C)has paid ED Rs 25 lakhs or more


(A)


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183 Due date for submission of ER-6 Return(A)5

th of next month for the principal IPs received an consumed

w.r.t the quantity of F.P manufactured

(B)15th

of next month for the principal IPs received an consumed

w.r.t the quantity of F.P manufactured(C)

10th

of next month for the principal IPs received an consumed

w.r.t the quantity of F.P manufactured


(C)

184 General penalty under Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004 is(A)

not more than Rs 2,000

(B)not more than Rs 5,000

(C)not more than Rs 10,000

(D)

none of the above

(B)

185 INTOSAI stands for(A) International Organisation of Supreme Audit Institutions

(B) International Organisation of Special Audit Institutions

(C) International Organisation of Statistical Audit Institutes

(D) none of the above

(A)

186 Auditing Standards consists of(A)Three parts

(B)

Four parts

(C)

One part(D)None of the above

(B)

187 C&AG of India adopted the(A)

SOSAI Auditing Standards

(B)British Auditing Standards

(C)INTOSAIs Auditing Standards


(C)

188 Who should collect the Commissionerate/ Division/ Range wise detailsof all the assessees from the department/ assessees and has to maintain

database

(A)C&AG office, New Delhi

(B)CERA Hqrs of the AG/PDA(Central)

(C)

PDA(Central), Mumbai


(B)


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189 Units which are paying central Excise Duty more than Rs 5 crorethrough PLA are classified as

(A)Category A Units

(B)Category B units

(C)

Category C Units(D)

None of the above

(A)

190 Category A units has to be planned for audit(A)bi-annual

(B)annual

(C)

Tri-annual


(B)

191 Units which are paying central Excise Duty more than Rs 1 cored and

less than Rs 5 crore through PLA are classified as(A)Category B units

(B)Category C units

(C)Category A units

(D)

None of the above

(A)

192 Category B units has to be planned for audit(A)bi-annual

(B)annual

(C)

Tri-annual

(D)

None of the above

(B)

193 Category B units will be selected for audit on the basis of(A)instructions from Hqrs Office

(B)

at the choice of CERA Hqrs

(C)Risk analysis

(D)Randomly

(C)

194 Category C units may be programmed for audit only for the purposeof

(A) system reviews/issue based or commodity based identified by the

headquarters

(B) at the instance of department

(C) at the discretion of PDA(Central)


(A)


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195 Audit plant is for(A)monthly

(B)quarterly

(C)annually

(D)

none of the above

(C)

196 Audit plan should be approved by(A)Headquarters Office

(B)PDA or AG

(C)Group Officer

(D)

None of the above

(B)

197 CERA filed parties consist of(A)

not less than 3 members

(B)

not less than 4 members(C)not less than 2 members


(A)

198 Tour programme should be prepared for(A)annual

(B)monthly

(C)half yearly

(D)Quarterly

(D)

199 Audit programme should be intimated to department and to theassessee(A) 2 weeks before taking up of audit

(B) 3 weeks before taking up of audit

(C) On month before taking up of audit


(A)

200 All objections should be issued in the form of(A)brief Notes

(B)Audit Enquiry

(C)Preliminary objection Memos or HMs

(D)

None of the above

(C)

201 Preliminary objection Memos should be issued to the(A)

Jurisdictional Range officer

(B)AC/DC of the Division

(C)Commissioner of Central Excise


(A)


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202 Preliminary objection Memos should be signed by the(A)

AAO

(B)SAO

(C)Supervisor

(D)Sr.Ar

(B)

203 Local Audit Report should be drafted in(A)Three parts

(B)

Four Parts

(C)Two Parts


(A)

204 Part-1 of LAR contains(A)objections raised during the current year

(B)

outstanding objections of previous audit

(C)

high money value objections(D)

none of the above

(B)

205 Part-IIA of LAR contains(A)objections with a money value less than Rs 10 lakhs

(B)objections which are likely to find a place in the Audit Report of

Comptroller and Auditor General of India

(C)objections with a money value more than Rs 10,000


(B)

206 Draft Inspection Report Should be prepared by(A)

Sr.Ar

(B)SAO

(C)Supvr

(D)AAO

(D)

207 Draft Inspection Report Should be Reviewed by(A)SAO

(B)AAO

(C)

Sr.Ar

(D)DAG

(A)


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208 IRs should be submitted to the Local Headquarters within(A)15 days of completion of audit

(B)10 days of completion of audit

(C)One week of completion of audit

(D)

5 days of completion of audit

(D)

209 IR should be approved by the(A)SAO

(B)PDA

(C)Group Officer

(D)

None of the above

(C)

210 Cases involving revenue effect over Rs 1 crore may be submitted to the(A)

DAG

(B)

PDA or AG(C)CAG of India


(B)

211 LAR should be issued to the department(A)within a month from the date of completion of audit

(B)within two months from the date of completion of audit

(C)within 15days from the date of completion of audit

(D)within 10days from the date of completion of audit

(A)

212 Objections taken in concurrent audit or local audit should be entered in(A)PDP Register(B)SOF Register

(C)LAR Register

(D)

Objection Book

(D)

213 Objection Book should be closed for every(A)month

(B)quarter ending

(C)six months


(A)

214 Objection Book should be closed under the signature of(A)AAO of Local Hqrs

(B)

SAO of Local Hqrs

(C)Group Officer


(B)


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215 Objection Book should be reviewed by(A)

Group Officer

(B)PDA/AG

(C)Branch Officer


(A)

216 Objection Book should be prepared(A)Each Range wise

(B)

Each Division wise

(C)Each Commissionerate wise


(C)

217 Due date for submission of PDP register for review of Group Officer orPDA is

(A)

10th

of every month

(B)

5th

of every month(C)

15th

of every month


(A)

218 SOFs forwarded to the commissionerates should get confirmation offacts within

(A)

4 weeks

(B)6 weeks

(C)One month

(D)

Two months

(B)

219 DP Money Value in respect of Central Excise and Service Tax is(A)Rs 5 lakhs

(B)Rs 10 lakhs

(C)Rs 20 lakhs

(D)Rs 7.5 lakhs

(B)

220 Due date for submission of Calendar of Return is(A)10

thof every month

(B)

5th

of every month

(C)15th

of every month

(D)

None of the above

(A)

CExcise Objective Questions

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