CAREER INSTITUTE KOTA (RAJASTHAN) …...13. A cubical block of wood of side 10 cm floats at the...

MAJOR TEST

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014

Path to Success

CAREER INSTITUTEKOTA (RAJASTHAN)

T M

FORM NUMBER

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME(ACADEMIC SESSION 2013-2014)

PAPER CODE 0 1 C M 4 1 3 0 9 2

Corporate Office

CAREER INSTITUTE

“SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005

Trin : +91 - 744 - 2436001 Fax : +91-744-2435003

E-Mail: [email protected] Website: www.allen.ac.in

ENTHUSIAST, LEADER AND ACHIEVER COURSE

INSTRUCTIONS ()

1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be alloted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the

correct seat only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be

removed from the examination and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.

2. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.

3. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.

4. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.

5. Each correct answer carries 1 marks, while one third mark will be deducted from the total of individual subject for each

incorrect answer.

1

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so /

Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to [email protected] within 2 days along with Your FormNo. & Complete Test Details.

Correction Form No. Test Details [email protected] mail

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014

FULL SYLLABUS

AIIMS # 01 DATE : 16 - 04 - 2014

16–04–2014

1/36Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 201401CM413092

MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE

1. The value of the constant p such that the vectors

(2i j k), (i 2 j 3k) and (3i p j 5k) are

coplanar is:-(1) zero (2) 2

(3) – 4 (4) –22. A ball is thrown vertically upward with speed

10 m/sec and i t returns to ground withspeed of 8 m/sec. There exists a constant airresistance. The maximum height attained bythe ball will be :

(1) 4.1 m (2) 5.1 m (3) 6.1 m (4) 7.1 m

3. One end of a spring of force constant k is fixed

to a fixed vertical wall and the other to a block

of mass m resting on a smooth horizontal surface.

There is another wall at a distance x0 from the

block. The spring is then compressed by 2x0 and

released. The time taken to strike the wall is :-

m

2x0 x0

Fixed

(1) 1 k

6 m(2)

k

m

(3)2 m

3 k(4)

k

4 m

4. The switches in figure (a) and (b) are closed at

t = 0 and reopened after a long time at t = t0. :-

C

(a)

R

(b)

RL

+ – + –

(a) The charge on C just after t = 0 is C

(b) The charge on C long after t = 0 is C

(c) The current in L just before t = t0 is /R

(d) The current in L long after t = t0 is /R

(1) a & d (2) b & c

(3) b & d (4) a & c

1. (2i j k),( i 2 j 3k) (3i p j 5k)

'p' :-

(1) (2) 2

(3) – 4 (4) –2

2. 10 m/sec

8 m/sec

(1) 4.1 m (2) 5.1 m (3) 6.1 m (4) 7.1 m

3. k m x

0

2x0

:-

m

2x0 x0

Fixed

(1) 1 k

6 m(2)

k

m

(3)2 m

3 k(4)

k

4 m

4. (a) (b) t = 0 t = t

0 :-

C

(a)

R

(b)

RL

+ – + –

(a) C t = 0 C (b) C t = 0 C (c) L t = t

0 /R

(d) L t = t0 /R

(1) a d (2) b c

(3) b d (4) a c

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS

16–04–2014TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014

2/36 Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014 01CM413092

MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

5. An aeroplane is flying at a uniform speed

v m/s at a height h from the ground. If the angle

subtended at an observation point on the ground

by two positions of the aeroplane t second apart

is , the height h will be :-

(1) vt

tan2 2

(2) 2vt

tan

(3)

vt

tan2

(4)

vt

2 tan2

6. A fish rising vertically up towards the surface of

water with speed 3 ms–1 observes a bird diving

vertically down towards it with speed 9 ms–1. The

actual velocity of bird is

y'

y

(1) 4.5 ms–1 (2) 5 ms–1

(3) 3.0 ms–1 (4) 3.4 ms–1

7. The bob of a simple pendulum executes simple

harmonic motion in water with a period t, while

the period of oscillation of the bob is t0 in air.

Neglecting frictional force of water and given that

the density of the bob is (4/3) ×1000 kg/m3. What

relationship between t and t0 is true :-

(1) t = t0

(2) t = t0/2

(3) t = 2t0

(4) t = 4 t0

8. An LR circuit with a battery is connected at

t = 0. Which of the following quantities is not zero

just after the connection ?

(1) Current in the circuit

(2) Magnetic field energy in the inductor

(3) Power delivered by the battery

(4) emf induced in the inductor

5. h

v /

t

h :-

(1) vt

tan2 2

(2) 2vt

tan

(3)

vt

tan2

(4)

vt

2 tan2

6. 3 ms–1

9 ms–1

y'

y

(1) 4.5 ms–1 (2) 5 ms–1

(3) 3.0 ms–1 (4) 3.4 ms–1

7. t

t0

(4/3) ×1000 kg/m3

:-

(1) t = t0

(2) t = t0/2

(3) t = 2t0

(4) t = 4 t0

8. LR t = 0 ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16–04–2014


MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


9. A coin placed on a rotating table just slips if it is

placed at a distance 4r from the centre. On

doubling the angular velocity of the table, the coin

will just slip when at a distance from the centre

equal to:-

(1) r

4(2)

r

2(3) r (4) 4r

10. A ray of light falls on the surface of a spherical

glass paper weight making an angle with the

normal and is refracted in the medium at an angle

. The angle of deviation of the emergent ray from

the direction of the incident ray

(1) ( – ) (2) 2( – )

(3) ( – ) / 2 (4) ( – )

11. Two waves

y1 = Acos(0.5 x – 100 t) and

y2 = Acos(0.46 x – 92 t)

are travelling in a pipe placed along x-axis. Find

the number of times intensity is maximum in time

interval of 1 sec:-

(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 10

12. A ferromagnetic material is kept in a magnetic

field. The field is increased till the magnetization

becomes constant. If the temperature is now

decreased, the magnetization :-

(1) will increase

(2) decrease

(3) remain constant

(4) may increase or decrease

13. A cubical block of wood of side 10 cm floats at

the interface between oil and water as shown in

the figure with its lower face 2.0 cm below the

interface. The density of oil is 0.5 gm/cm3. The

mass of the block is:-

Oil

2.0 cm

Water

(1) 600 gm (2) 680 gm

(3) 420 gm (4) 210 gm

9. 4r

:-

(1) r

4(2)

r

2(3) r (4) 4r

10.

(1) ( – ) (2) 2( – )

(3) ( – ) / 2 (4) ( – )

11. x- y

1 = Acos(0.5 x – 100 t)

y2 = Acos(0.46 x – 92 t)

:-

(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 10

12.

:-(1) (2) (3)

(4)

13. 10

2.0

0.5 /3 :-

Oil

2.0 cm

Water

(1) 600 (2) 680

(3) 420 (4) 210



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

14. A point source of light B is placed at a distance

L in front of the centre of a mirror of width d hung

vertically on a wall. A man walks in front of the

mirror along a line parallel to the mirror at a

distance 2L from it as shown. The greatest dis-

tance over which he can see the image of the light

source in the mirror is

d

L

B

2L

A

(1) d/2 (2) d (3) 2d (4) 3d

15. A wire of 9.8 × 10–3 kgm–3 passes over a

frictionless light pulley fixed on the top of a

frictionless inclined plane which makes an angle

of 30° with the horizontal. Masses m and M are

tied at the two ends of wire such that m rests on

the plane and M hangs freely vertically

downwards. The entire system is in equilibrium

and a transverse wave propagates along the wire

with a velocity of 100 ms–1. Choose the correct

option :-

mM

(1) m = 20 kg (2) m = 5 kg

(3) m = 2kg (4) m = 7 kg

16. A particle is projected in a plane perpendicular to

a uniform magnetic field. The area bounded by

the path described by the particle is proportional

to :-

(1) The velocity (2) The momentum

(3) The kinetic energy (4) None of these

17. Two capillary tubes of same length l and radii r

and 2r are fitted to the bottom of a vessel with

pressure head p in parallel with each other. What

should be the radius of the single tube of the

same length l that can replace the two so that the

rate of flow is not affected ?

(1) (17)1/4 r (2) 17r (3) 8.5 r (4) 17 r

14. d L B

2L

d

L

B

2L

A

(1) d/2 (2) d (3) 2d (4) 3d

15. 30°

9.8 × 10–3 kgm–3

m M

100 ms–1

:-

mM

(1) m = 20 kg (2) m = 5 kg

(3) m = 2kg (4) m = 7 kg

16.

:-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

17. l r 2r

(pressure head)

l

?

(1) (17)1/4 r (2) 17r (3) 8.5 r (4) 17 r

16–04–2014


MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


18. A ray of light of intensity I is incident on a

parallel glass-slab at a point A as shown in fig.

It undergoes partial reflection and refraction. At

each reflection 25% of incident energy is reflected.

The rays AB and A'B' undergo interference. The

ratio Imax

/ I

min is

B B'I

A A'

(1) 4 : 1 (2) 8 : 1

(3) 7 : 1 (4) 49 : 1

19. An arc of radius r carries charge. The linear density

of charge is and the arc subtends an angle

3

at the centre. What is electric potential at the centre

(1)012

(2) 06

(3) 0

(4) 03

20. Two parallel, long wires carry currents i1 and i

2

with i1 > i

2. When the currents are in the same

direction, the magnetic field at a point midway

between the wires is 10µT. If the direction of i2

is reversed, the field becomes 30µT. The ratio

i1/i

2 is :-

(1) 4 (2) 3

(3) 2 (4) 1

21. The amount of work done in stretching a spring

from a stretched length of 10 cm to a stretched

length of 20 cm is-

(1) Equal to the work done in stretching it from

20 cm to 30 cm.

(2) Less than the work done in stretching it from

20 cm to 30 cm.

(3) More than the work done in stretching it from

20 cm to 30 cm.

(4) Equal to the work done in stretching it from 0

to 10 cm.

18. I

A

25% AB

A'B' Imax

/ I

min

B B'I

A A'

(1) 4 : 1 (2) 8 : 1

(3) 7 : 1 (4) 49 : 1

19. r (arc)

3

(1)012

(2) 06

(3) 0

(4) 03

20. i1 i

2 (i

1 > i

2)

10µT i2

30µT i1/i

2

:-(1) 4 (2) 3

(3) 2 (4) 1

21. 10 20 (1) 20 30

(2) 20 30

(3) 20 30

(4) 0 10

Key Filling



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

22. A rod is placed along a line y = 2x with its centre

at origin. The moment of inertia of the rod is

maximum about

(1) x axis (2) y axis

(3) z axis (4) Data insufficient

23. Electric field at a distance x from origin is given

as E = 100

3x then potential difference between

points situated at x = 2 meter and x = 5 meter :-

(1) 10 V (2) 10.5V

(3) 5V (4) 2V

24. Energy equivalent to 10gm of U235 is:-

(1) 8 × 1011 J

(2) 9 × 1014 J

(3) 1017 J

(4) 11 × 1021 J

25. A locomotive of mass m starts moving so that its

velocity varies according to the law v k s

where k is constant and s is the distance covered.

Find the total work performed by all the forces

which are acting on the locomotive during the

first t seconds after the beginning of motion

(1) 4 21

W mk t8

(2) 2 4 21

W m k t4

(3) 4 41

W mk t4

(4) 4 41

W mk t8

26. One mole of an ideal gas follows the process

P= 0

2

0

P

V1

V

, P0 and V

0 are constants when the

volume of gas is changed from V0 to 2V

0, then

change in temperature will be :-

(1) 0 09P V

10R(2)

0 011P V

10R

(3) 0 07P V

10R(4)

0 013P V

10R

22. y = 2x

(1) x (2) y

(3) z (4)

23. 'x' E = 100

3x

x = 2 x = 5

:-

(1) 10 V (2) 10.5V

(3) 5V (4) 2V

24. 10gm of U235 :-

(1) 8 × 1011 J

(2) 9 × 1014 J

(3) 1017 J

(4) 11 × 1021 J

25. m

v k s k

s

t

-

(1) 4 21

W mk t8

(2) 2 4 21W m k t

4

(3) 4 41

W mk t4

(4) 4 41

W mk t8

26. P= 0

2

0

P

V1

V

P0 V

0 V

0 2V

0

:-

(1) 0 09P V

10R(2) 0 011P V

10R

(3) 0 07P V

10R(4) 0 013P V

10R

16–04–2014


MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


27. Effective resistance between point A and B for

following network is- (each branch of resistance is R)

A

B

(1) 5

R3

(2) 3

R5

(3) R (4) R

2

28. Hydrogen can't emit X-rays, because :-

(1) It has only one electron

(2) It is a gas

(3) Its atomic energy gap is very less

(4) All of the above

29. In the figure shown a ring of mass M and a block

of mass m are in equilibrium. The string is lightand pulley P does not offer any friction and

coefficient of friction between pole and M is µ.The frictional force offered by the pole on M is:-

m

PM

(1) Mg directed up

(2) µ mg directed up

(3) (M – m) g directed down

(4) µ mg direction down

30. A furnace is at temperature of 2000 K. At what

wavelength does it emit most intensively.

(1) 14450 Å (2) 1450 Å

(3) 145 Å (4) 14.5 Å

31. Two particles of mass m1 and m2 are initially at

rest and infinitely separated from each other. Due

to mutual interaction they approach each other.

Their relative acceleration of approach at a

separation x between them is :-

(1) 1 2

2

G(m m )

x

(2)

1 22

1 2

Gm m

(m m )x

(3) 1 22

2G(m m )

x

(4) None of these

27. A B

R

A

B

(1) 5

R3

(2) 3

R5

(3) R (4) R

2

28. X- (1) (2) (3) (4)

29. Mm PM µ M

m

PM

(1) Mg

(2) µ mg

(3) (M – m) g

(4) µ mg 30. 2000 K

:-(1) 14450 Å (2) 1450 Å

(3) 145 Å (4) 14.5 Å

31. m1 m2

x

:-

(1) 1 2

2

G(m m )

x

(2)

1 22

1 2

Gm m

(m m )x

(3) 1 22

2G(m m )

x

(4)



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

32. De Broglie wavelength of incident electrons at

metal Mo is 0.1Å. The minimum wavelength of

X–ray produced from Mo is

(1) 0.1 Å (2) 50 Å (3) 0.89 Å (4) 165 Å

33. A body of mass 10 kg is released from a Tower

of height 20m and body acquires a velocity of

10 ms–1 after falling through the distance 20m.

Calculate work done by the push of the air on the

body ? (Take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) – 500 J (2) + 500 J

(3) – 1500 J (4) + 1500 J

34. One mole of monoatomic gas is taken round the

cyclic process. Heat absorbed by gas in process

AB is :-

B

A C

3P0

P0

V0 V0

V

P

(1) 2.5 P0V

0(2) 3P

0V

0

(3) 3.5 P0V

0(4) 4.5 P

0V

0

35. For the circuit shown in fig. Calculate the charge

on 8F capacitor30 8µF

1V

13µF

4V

10

(1) 20 c (2) 10 c

(3) 4 c (4) 2 c

36. Two identical capacitors A and B are charged to

the same potential V and are connected in two

circuits and t = 0 as shown in figure. The charges

on the capacitors at a time t = CR are,

respectively :-

+ –

C

A

R

+ –

C

B

R

(a) (b)

(1) VC, VC (2) VC/e, VC

(3) VC, VC/e (4) VC/e, VC/e

32. Mo 0.1Å Mo

X- –

(1) 0.1 Å (2) 50 Å (3) 0.89 Å (4) 165 Å

33. 10 kg 20m

20m 10ms–1

(g = 10 m/s2 )

(1) – 500 J (2) + 500 J

(3) – 1500 J (4) + 1500 J

34. AB :-

B

A C

3P0

P0

V0 V0

V

P

(1) 2.5 P0V

0(2) 3P

0V

0

(3) 3.5 P0V

0(4) 4.5 P

0V

0

35. 8F

30 8µF

1V

13µF

4V

10

(1) 20 c (2) 10 c

(3) 4 c (4) 2 c

36. A B V

t = 0

t = CR :-

+ –

C

A

R

+ –

C

B

R

(a) (b)

(1) VC, VC (2) VC/e, VC

(3) VC, VC/e (4) VC/e, VC/e

16–04–2014


MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


37. Three objects A, B and C are kept in a straight

line on a smooth horizontal surface as shown in

figure. The object A is given velocity V0 towards

B. The head on clastic collision takes place

between A and B and then B makes completely

inelastic collision with C. All motions occur on

the same straight line. The final speed of C will

be :

m

A

V0

B C

2m 3m

(1) 0V

15(2)

02V

15

(3) 03V

15(4)

04V

15

38. An amount Q of heat is added to a monoatomic

ideal gas in thermodynamic process. In the process

gas expands and does Q/2 Work. Molar specific

heat of the gas is :-

(1) R (2) 2R

(3) 3R (4) 4R

39. The charge on A and B will be :-

C 2C

E, r

4r

3rA B

(1) CE, CE

2(2)

CE

2, CE

(3) CE

2,

CE

2(4) CE, CE

40. Diffusion current in a p-n junction is greater than

the drift current in magnitude :-

(1) If the junction is forward-biased

(2) If the junction is reverse-biased

(3) If the junction is unbiased

(4) In no case

37. A, B C

A

B V0 A B

B C

C

m

A

V0

B C

2m 3m

(1) 0V

15(2)

02V

15

(3) 03V

15(4)

04V

15

38. Q

Q/2

:-

(1) R (2) 2R

(3) 3R (4) 4R

39. A B C 2C

E, r

4r

3rA B

(1)CE, CE

2(2)

CE

2, CE

(3) CE

2,

CE

2(4) CE, CE

40. p-n :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

41. The density of a liquid is 1.2 g/mL. There are 35

drops in 2 mL. The number of molecules in 1 drop

is : (molecular weight of liquid = 70)

(1) 1.2

35NA (2)

21

35

NA

(3) 2

1.2

(35) NA (4) 1.2 NA

42. What is pH of the solution when 100 ml of 0.1M

HCl is mixed with 100 ml of 0.1M CH3COOH.

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 1.3 (4) 2.3

43. Which of the following halides cannot be

hydrolysed :-

(I) TeF6(II) SF

6(III) NCl

3(IV) NF

3

Choose the correct code :

(1) III and IV (2) I, II and III

(3) I, II and IV (4) II and IV

44. A current of 2.0 ampere passed for 5 hours

through a molten tin salt deposits 22.2 gm of

metal. The oxidation number of metal would be :

(Sn = 118) :-

(1) + 2 (2) + 4

(3) + 3 (4) + 1

45. In the reaction, 4A + 2B + 3C A4B

2C

3, what

will be the number of moles of product formed,

starting from 1 mol of A, 0.6 mol of B and

0.72 mol of C ?

(1) 0.25 (2) 0.3

(3) 0.24 (4) 2.32

46. The vapour pressure of a given liquid will decrease if.

(1) Surface area of liquid is decreased

(2) The volume of liquid in the container is decreased

(3) The volume of the vapour phase is increased.

(4) The temperature is decreased

47. IUPAC name of the given compound is :-

NH H

O

(1) N-Formyl ethenamine

(2) N-Formyl amino ethene

(3) Ethenamide

(4) N-Ethenylmethanamide

41. 1.2 g/mL. 2 mL 35

(= 70)

(1) 1.2

35N

A(2)

21

35

NA

(3) 2

1.2

(35) NA (4) 1.2 NA

42. 0.1 M HCl, 100 ml 0.1 M, 100 ml

CH3COOH pH

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 1.3 (4) 2.3

43. :-

(I) TeF6

(II) SF6

(III) NCl3

(IV) NF3

(1) III and IV (2) I, II and III

(3) I, II and IV (4) II and IV

44. 2 5 22.2 (Sn = 118) :-

(1) + 2 (2) + 4

(3) + 3 (4) + 1

45. 4A + 2B + 3C A4B

2C

3

A 1 B

0.6 C 0.72 ?(1) 0.25 (2) 0.3

(3) 0.24 (4) 2.32

46. :-

(1) (2) (3) (4)

47. IUPAC :-

NH H

O

(1) N-Formyl ethenamine

(2) N-Formyl amino ethene

(3) Ethenamide

(4) N-Ethenylmethanamide

Take it Easy and Make it Easy

16–04–2014


MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


48. At 370 K a gaseous reaction X 2Y + Z is

found to be first order. Starting the reaction from

pure X the total pressure is observed 156 mm Hg

after 15 minutes. After long time pressure is

observed 240 mm Hg when X is completely

dissociated. What will be the pressure of X after

15 minutes ?

(1) 42 mm Hg (2) 54 mm Hg

(3) 36 mm Hg (4) 80 mm Hg

49. 1 mol of an ideal gas at 27°C is compressed

reverssibly from 20 L to 2L. Find out S :-

(1) 4.606 cal / k (2) –4.606 cal / k

(3) –19.147 J / k (4) Both (2) & (3)

50. A complex is represented as CoCl3.xNH

3. It's

0.1 molal solution in water shows depression in

freezing point 0.558 K,Kf for H2O is

1.86 K kg mol–1. Assuming 100% ionisation of

complex and co-ordination number of Co is six,

calculate formula of complex :-

(1) [Co(NH3)6]Cl

3

(2) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2

(3) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl

(4) None of these

51. + CH3–Cl 3AlCl X 2 2

2

(1) CrO Cl

(2) H O Y

50%KOH

P + Q

Correct statement is :-

(1) Formation of X is Friedel craft reaction

(2) Formation of Y is Etard reaction

(3) Formation of P & Q is Cannizzaro's reaction

(4) All

52. Complex ion [A2BC]-2 does not confirm the

following oxidation number of A,B,C :-

(1) +6, –4, –2 (2) +2, –4, –2

(3) +3, –6, –2 (4) +3, –7, –1

53. At 0°C and 1 atm ice melt into water then the heat

capacity of system is :-

(1) Increasing (2) Decreasing

(3) Infinity (4) Zero

54. The order of ionisation potential between He+ ion

and H-atom (both species are in gaseous state) is :-

(1) I.P. (He+) = I.P. (H)

(2) I.P. (He+) < I.P. (H)

(3) I.P. (He+) > I.P. (H)

(4) Cannot be compared

48. 370 K X 2Y + Z

X

15 156 mm Hg

X

240 mm Hg 15 X

(1) 42 mm Hg (2) 54 mm Hg

(3) 36 mm Hg (4) 80 mm Hg

49. 1 mol 27°C 20 L 2LS :-(1) 4.606 cal / k (2) –4.606 cal / k

(3) –19.147 J / k (4) Both (2) & (3)

50. CoCl3.xNH3

0.1 0.558 K H2

O Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1

100% :-(1) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3

(2) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl

2

(3) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl

(4)

51. + CH3–Cl 3AlCl X 2 2

2

(1) CrO Cl

(2) H O Y

50%KOH

P + Q

:-(1) X (2) Y (3) P Q (4)

52. [A2BC]-2A,B,C

:-(1) +6, –4, –2 (2) +2, –4, –2

(3) +3, –6, –2 (4) +3, –7, –1

53. 0°C 1 :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

54. He+ H- IP :-

(1) I.P. (He+) = I.P. (H)

(2) I.P. (He+) < I.P. (H)

(3) I.P. (He+) > I.P. (H)

(4)



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

55. Which of the following is most stable free

radical:-

(1) HH

(2) MePh

(3) PhPh

(4) MeMe

56. Butter is an example of :-

(1) Water in oil emulsion

(2) Oil in water emulsion

(3) Solid sol

(4) None of these

57. Assuming that monsieur de-Broglie weighing

70 kg was jogging at 15 km/hr. Calculate the

wavelength at which he was jogging :-

(1) 4.166 m (2) 2.27 × 10-36 cm

(3) 2.27 × 10-36 m (4) None of these

58. Which is the correct order of ionization energies :-

(1) F– > F > Cl– > Cl (2) F > Cl > Cl– > F–

(3) F– > Cl– > Cl > F (4) F– > Cl– > F > Cl

59. Optically active compound is :-

(1) Isobutyl alcohol (2) Sec. butyl chloride

(3) t-Butylamine (4) Butan-2-one

60. When copper pyrities is roasted in excess of air, a

mixture of CuO and FeO formed. FeO is present as

impurities. This can be removed by slag during

reduction of CuO. The flux added to form slag is :-

(1) Silica which is an acidic flux.

(2) Lime stone which is a basic flux.

(3) SiO2 which is a basic flux.

(4) CaO which is basic flux.

61. The uncertainty in position and velocity of a

particle are 10-10 m and 5.27 × 10-24 ms-1

respectively. Calculate the mass of the particle in

terms of kg. :-

(1) 99 kg (2) 9.9 kg

(3) 0.99 kg (4) 0.099 kg

62. The second electron gain enthalpies (in kJ mol-1 )

of oxygen and sulphur respectively are :-

(1) –780, + 590 (2) –590, + 780

(3) +590, + 780 (4) +780, + 590

63. CH CH CH= – 3 3

2

(1) O

(2) Zn / H O X + Y

X and Y can not be distinguished by :-

(1) NaOI (2) Fehling's solution

(3) NaHSO3(4) None

55. :-

(1) HH

(2) MePh

(3) PhPh

(4) MeMe

56. (Butter) :-(1) ()(2) ()(3) (4)

57. 70 kg 15 / :-(1) 4.166 m (2) 2.27 × 10-36 cm

(3) 2.27 × 10-36 m (4) 58. IP :-

(1) F– > F > Cl– > Cl (2) F > Cl > Cl– > F–

(3) F– > Cl– > Cl > F (4) F– > Cl– > F > Cl

59. :-(1) Isobutyl alcohol (2) Sec. butyl chloride

(3) t-Butylamine (4) Butan-2-one

60. CuO FeO FeO CuO :-(1) (2) (3) SiO2 (4) CaO

61. 10-10 5.27 × 10-24 - –1 kg(h = 6.625 × 10–34 Js) :-

(1) 99 kg (2) 9.9 kg

(3) 0.99 kg (4) 0.099 kg

62. Oxygen sulphur (in kJ mol-1 ) :-(1) –780, + 590 (2) –590, + 780

(3) +590, + 780 (4) +780, + 590

63. CH CH CH= – 3 3

2

(1) O

(2) Zn / H O X + Y

X Y :-(1) NaOI (2) (3) NaHSO3 (4)

16–04–2014


MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


64. The phenomenon of optical activity will be shown

by :-

(1) M

A

AB

BB

B(2)

M

A

AB

Ben

(3) M

A

A

enen(4)

M

B

B

65. At high pressure, the compressibility factor (Z)

is equal to :-

(1) 1 (2) 1 – Pb

RT

(3) 1 + Pb

RT(4) Zero

66. A molecule XY2 contains two , two -bonds and

one lone pair of electron in the valence shell of

X. The arrangement of lone pair as well as bond

pairs is :-

(1) Square pyramidal

(2) linear

(3) Trigonal planar

(4) Unpredictable

67. Which of the following is most acidic :-

(1)

COOH

NO2

(2)

COOH

OCH3

(3)

COOH

NO2

(4)

COOH

OCH3

68. In [Cu(NH3)4]2+ ion the unpaired electron is

present is :-

(1) 2p subshell

(2) 4p subshell

(3) 3d subshell

(4) 4s subshell

64. :-

(1) M

A

AB

BB

B(2)

M

A

AB

Ben

(3) M

A

A

enen(4)

M

B

B

65. (Z) :-

(1) 1 (2) 1 – Pb

RT

(3) 1 + Pb

RT(4)

66. XY2 ,

lp bp

:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

67. :-

(1)

COOH

NO2

(2)

COOH

OCH3

(3)

COOH

NO2

(4)

COOH

OCH3

68. [Cu(NH3)4]2+ e- :-

(1) 2p

(2) 4p

(3) 3d

(4) 4s



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

69. Hydrolysis of sucrose gives :-

Sucrose + H2O Glucose + Fructose

Equilibrium constant KC for the reaction is

2 × 1013 at 300k. Calculate Gº at 300k.

(1) – 7.64 × 104 J mol–1

(2) – 4.67 × 104 J mol–1

(3) – 8.94 × 105 J mol–1

(4) – 2.39 × 105 J mol–1

70. FAsF bond angle in AsF3Cl2 molecule is :-

(1) 90° and 180° (2) 120°

(3) 90° (4) 180°

71. CH C Cl3– –

O 2Pd H X Cu

300 C Y

6 5

2

(1) C H MgBr

(2) H O Z

Which is incorrect :-

(1) X = CH3–CH2–OH

(2) Y = CH3–COOH

(3) Z = CH CH C H3 6 5– –

OH

(4) None

72. Glucose and Fructose are :-

(1) Chain isomers

(2) Position isomers

(3) Functional isomers

(4) Metamers

73. NH4HS(S) NH3(g) + H2S(g)

The equilibrium pressure at 25ºC is 0.660 atm.

What is KP for the reaction.

(1) 0.109 (2) 0.218

(3) 1.89 (4) 2.18

74. Bond length of S—O bond is maximum in :-

(1) SOCl2

(2) SOBr2

(3) SOF2

(4) All have same

75. Which is most reactive for sodalime

decarboxylation ?

(1) Me

COOH(2)

Et

COOH

(3) F

COOH(4)

Cl

COOH

69. :-

Sucrose + H2O Glucose + Fructose

300k 2 × 1013 300k

Gº

(1) – 7.64 × 104 J mol–1

(2) – 4.67 × 104 J mol–1

(3) – 8.94 × 105 J mol–1

(4) – 2.39 × 105 J mol–1

70. AsF3Cl

2 FAsF :-

(1) 90° and 180° (2) 120°

(3) 90° (4) 180°

71. CH C Cl3– –

O 2Pd H X Cu

300 C Y

6 5

2

(1) C H MgBr

(2) H O Z

:-(1) X = CH

3–CH2–OH

(2) Y = CH3–COOH

(3) Z = CH CH C H3 6 5– –

OH

(4) 72. :-

(1) (2) (3) (4)

73. NH4HS(S) NH3(g) + H2S(g)

25ºC 0.660 atm KP

(1) 0.109 (2) 0.218

(3) 1.89 (4) 2.18

74. S—O :-

(1) SOCl2 (2) SOBr2

(3) SOF2

(4) All have same

75. :

(1) Me

COOH(2)

Et

COOH

(3) F

COOH(4)

Cl

COOH

16–04–2014


MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


76. Which is monomer of Polystyrene ?

(1) Cl

(2) CH=CH2

(3) C CH

(4) CH OH2

77. Which of the following buffers have a pH greater

than 7 ?

(a) AgOH + AgBr

(b) CH3COOH + CH3COONa

(c) Mg(OH)2 + Mg(OH)Cl

(d) NH3 + (NH4)2SO4

(1) a, b (2) Only b

(3) a, b, c (4) a, c, d

78. A + H2O B + HCl

B + H2O C + HCl

Compound (A) , (B) and (C) will be respectively :-

(1) PCl5,POCl3, H3PO3

(2) PCl5,POCl3,H3PO4

(3) SOCl2

, POCl3

, H3PO

3

(4) PCl3, POCl

3 , H

3PO

4

79. CH CH C NH3 2 2– – –

O

2

( aq .)

Br

KOH P 3CHCl

KOH Q

3H O

R + S; R & S are :-

(1) CH CH C OH3 2– – –

O

& NH3

(2) CH3–CH

2–NH

2 & HCOOH

(3) CH C OH3– –

O

& NH3

(4) CH3–CH

2–CH

2–NH

2 & HCOOH

80. Which of following statements is false :-

(1) Amino acids are negatively charged in basic

medium

(2) Nylon-6 is condensation homopolymer

(3) Polythene and polystyrene both are fibre

polymer

(4) All sulpha drug act as bacteriostatic

76. :-

(1) Cl

(2) CH=CH2

(3) C CH

(4) CH OH2

77. pH, 7 ?(a) AgOH + AgBr

(b) CH3COOH + CH3COONa

(c) Mg(OH)2 + Mg(OH)Cl

(d) NH3 + (NH4)2SO4

(1) a, b (2) Only b

(3) a, b, c (4) a, c, d

78. A + H2O B + HCl

B + H2O C + HCl

(A) , (B), (C) :-

(1) PCl5,POCl

3, H

3PO

3

(2) PCl5,POCl

3,H

3PO

4

(3) SOCl2

, POCl3

, H3PO

3

(4) PCl3, POCl

3 , H

3PO

4

79. CH CH C NH3 2 2– – –

O

2

( aq .)

Br

KOH P 3CHCl

KOH Q

3H O

R + S; R S :-

(1) CH CH C OH3 2– – –

O

& NH3

(2) CH3–CH2–NH2 & HCOOH

(3) CH C OH3– –

O

& NH3

(4) CH3–CH2–CH2–NH2 & HCOOH

80. :-(1)

(2) -6

(3)

(4)



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

81. :-(1)

(2) DNA

DNA

(3)

(4)

82. :-

(1)

(2)

(3) RNA

(4)

83. (A–D)

?

(C)

(B)

(A)

(D)

(1) A -

B -

(2) B -

C -

(3) C - ATP

D - A-

(4) A - ATP

D -

81. Choose the incorrect statement of the following:-

(1) Compared to many other organisms, bacteria

as a group show the most extensive metabolic

diversity.

(2) Many bacteria have small circular DNA inside

the genomic DNA

(3) Mesosomes are infloldings of cell membrane

(4) Bacteria have thin filamentous extensions

from their cell wall.

82. The spherical structure(s) present in the

nucleoplasm:-

(1) Has contents continuous with rest of the

nucleoplasm

(2) Is a membrane bound structure

(3) Is a site of active messenger RNA synthesis

(4) Are smaller and more numerous in cells

actively carrying out protein synthesis

83. Consider the following diagram showing four

stages (A–D) of muscle contraction and select the

option with incorrect information regarding these

stages ?

(C)

(B)

(A)

(D)

(1) A - Myosin head not attached with actin due

to masking of active sites.

B - Binding of energized myosin heads to the

exposed active sites on actin filaments

(2) B - Formation of cross bridges

C - Rotation of myosin heads and sliding of

actin filaments over myosin.

(3) C - Utilising the energy by myosin heads from

ATP hydrolysis

D - Sliding of actin filaments towards the

centre of the A-bond

(4) A - Utilising the energy by myosin heads from

ATP hydrolysis

D - Breaking of cross-bridges

16–04–2014


MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


84. Most recently formed biosphere Reserve of India

is :-

(1) Cold desert (H.P.)

(2) Sundarbans (W.B.)

(3) Panna (M.P.)

(4) Seshachalam (A.P.)

85. Which is a correct statement ?

(1) Perithecium is a closed fruiting body.

(2) Sexual reproduction in Albugo is oogamous.

(3) Ascomycetes is known as club fungi.

(4) Sexual reproduction in Helminthosporium is

oogamous.

86. Consider the following four statements (I-IV)

related to cell cycle, and select the correct option

stating them as true [T] and false [F]

I. Cell growth (in terms of cytoplasmic increase)

is a continuous process

II. Interphase is the phase of actual cell division

III. The number of chromosomes doubles in

S-phase.

IV The cells that do not divide further exit

G1- phase to enter an inactive stage

Options :

I II III IV

(1) T F F F

(2) F T T T

(3) F F T T

(4) T F F T

87. Select the correct option regarding the following

structures, their location and functions.

(1) Schwann cells : Absent in CNS but forms

myelin sheath throughout the PNS including

autonomic and somatic neural systems.

(2) Electrical synapses : Specialised for rapid

impulse transmission and are found in CNS,

cardiac muscles and some smooth muscles.

(3) Corpus callosum : Tract of nerve fibres

present in cerebral cortex (grey matter) and

interconnects both the cerebral hemispheres

in mammals.

(4) Vestibular apparatus : Located above the

cochlea and contains specific receptors for

body balance, body posture and hearing

84. (1) (H.P.)

(2) (W.B.)

(3) (M.P.)

(4) (A.P.)

85. ?

(1)

(2)

(3) (club)

(4)

86. (I-IV) [T] [F] I.

II.

III. S-IV G1-

:I II III IV

(1) T F F F

(2) F T T T

(3) F F T T

(4) T F F T

87.

(1) : CNS

PNS

(2) :

CNS,

(3) :

()

(4) :



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

88. One of the most poisonous chemical produced by

burning of plastics containing chlorine. e.g. (PVC),

is:-

(1) Ozone

(2) Dioxin

(3) 3-4 Benzopyrine

(4) Hydrocarbon

89. Choose the wrong pair :-

Column - I Column - II

(A)Phytopthora

infestans(E) Tikka

(B)Ustilago

maydis(F) Covered smut

(C)Cercospora

personata(G) Wilt

(D) Fusarium (H) Late blight

(1) A = H (2) B = E

(3) C = E (4) D = G

90. Mark the option which truly represent the event

of cell division stage in given diagram :-

(1) Spindle fibers attach to kinetochores of

chromosomes

(2) Splitting of centromere

(3) Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform

(4) More than one option is correct

91. How many hormones from the below list interact

with intracellular receptors and regulate

chromosome function and gene expression.

GH, Oxytocin, ADH, ANF, Aldosterone, Cortisol,

Thyroxin, Epinephrine, Estradiol, GnRH,

Progesterone

(1) Four (2) Five

(3) Six (4) Seven

88.

(PVC) :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 3-4

(4) 89. :-

LrEHk - I LrEHk - II

(A) (E)

(B) (F)

(C) (G)

(D) (H)

(1) A = H (2) B = E

(3) C = E (4) D = G

90. :-

(1)

(2)

(3) ER

(4)

91.

GHADH, ANF, ,

, , , GnRH,

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

16–04–2014


MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


92. Match the column-I with column-II –

Column-I Column-II

(A) Choanocytes (i) Bombyx

(B) Comb Plates (ii) Echinus

(C) Mantle andRadula

(iii) Ctenoplana

(D) Jointedappendages

(iv) Spongilla

(E) Water vascularsystem

(v) Pila

(1) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv), E – (v)

(2) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (v), D – (i), E – (ii)

(3) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (v), D – (i), E – (ii)

(4) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (i), E – (v)

93. Neophron & Pavo are included in the same

taxonomic group as :-

(1) Hyla & Corvus

(2) Psitticulla & Struthio

(3) Bufo & Pristis

(4) Pteropus & Columba

94. Independent assortment can not be observedwhen :-(1) Characters are located on different

chromosome

(2) Characters are distantly located on samechromosome

(3) Characters are closely located on samechromosome

(4) 7 characters located on 7 chromosomes

95. Find an incorrect statement with respect to

findings of HGP ?

(1) Dystrophin protein gene, is the largest gene

of human genome.

(2) Chromosome Y has fewest, 231 genes

(3) SNPs are identified at about 2.4 million

locations.

(4) The functions are unknown for over 50% of

discovered genes.

92. -I -II –

dkWye-I dkWye-II

(A) (i)

(B) (ii)

(C) (iii)

(D) (iv)

(E) (v)

(1) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv), E – (v)

(2) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (v), D – (i), E – (ii)

(3) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (v), D – (i), E – (ii)

(4) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (i), E – (v)

93. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

94. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 7 7

95. HGP

:-

(1) Dystrophin

(2) Y , 231

(3) SNPs 2.4

(4) 50%



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

96. Which one of the following can generate the

maximum number of action potentials –

(1) S.A. node

(2) A.V. node

(3) Bundle of HIS

(4) Purkinje fibres

97. Urochordates have notochord only in the larval

tail. They are basically :-

(a) Marine

(b) Have unpaired appendages

(c) Tunicates

(d) Protochordate

How many points are correct

(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 1

98. In phloem the transport of sugar is bidirectional

because :-

(1) the leaves and roots both are photosynthetic

in plants

(2) the source-sink relationship for phloem is

variable

(3) the location of the phloem in plant body can

be changed according to the season

(4) the phloem in plants is open at both ends

99. Find out the correct statements from the

followings :-

(a) In lac-operon, polycistronic structural gene is

regulated by a common promoter and

regulatory gene

(b) In lac-operon one regulatory gene (the i gene)

is present, here the term i refers to the inducer

(c) Lactose is the substrate for the enzyme

beta–galactosidase and it regulates switching

on and off of the operon.

(d) The y-gene of lac–operon codes for

transacetylase

(e) The z-gene codes for beta-galactosidase

(1) a and c (2) a, b and e

(3) a, c and e (4) a, c, d and e

100. Papaya is a :-

(1) Dioecious plant

(2) Monoecious plant

(3) Bisexual plant

(4) None of the above

96. (1) S.A. node

(2) A.V. node

(3) Bundle of HIS

(4) Purkinje fibres

97. :-(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 1

98. :-

(1)

(2) -

(3)

(4)

99.

(a)

(b) (i ) i

(c) (on) (off)

(d) y-

(e) z-(1) a c (2) a, b e(3) a, c e (4) a, c, d e

100. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

Time Management is Life Management

16–04–2014


MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


101. If the margins of sepals and petals overlap one

another but not in any particular direction, the

aestivation is called :-

(1) Valvate (2) Twisted

(3) Imbricate (4) Vexillary

102. Enzyme, which can catalyse both carboxylation

and oxygenation of RuBP in the chloroplast, is

not found in which of the following cells ?

(1) Mesophyll cells of C4 plants

(2) Mesophyll cells of C3 plants

(3) Mesophyll cells of CAM plants

(4) Bundle sheath cells of C4 plants

103. Read the following statements :-

(a) It produces disorder in females more often than

in males

(b) All female offsprings will exhibit disorder, if

father possesses the same

(c) Do not transmitted to son if mother does not

exhibit disorder.

Which of the following gene will have the above

stated features?

(1) Sex-linked recessive gene

(2) Sex-linked dominant gene

(3) Autosomal dominant gene

(4) Autosomal recessive gene

104. Fats and oils are glycerides, in which fatty acids

are esterified with :-

(1) Glycerol (2) Amino acid

(3) Fatty acid (4) Sugar

105. A primarily are involved in defence mechanisms

of the body and the B help in osmotic balance :-

(1) A– serum, B = Fibrinogen

(2) A – Albumin, B = Plasma Proteins

(3) A – Globulins, B = Albumins

(4) A = Platelets, B = Plasma

106. How many water molecules are produced in

mitochondria with the help of ETS during

complete oxidation of one pyruvic acid ?

(1) Six (2) Twelve

(3) Two (4) Five

101.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

102. , RuBP

?(1) C4 (2) C3

(3) CAM

(4) C4

103. :-

(a)

(b)

(c)

(1) -

(2) -

(3)

(4)

104.

:-

(1) (2)

(3) (4) 105. A B

:-

(1) A– , B =

(2) A – , B =

(3) A – , B =

(4) A = , B = 106.

ETS ?(1) (2) (3) (4)



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

107. ?(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

108. ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4) 109.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

110. ?2,4-(1) (2) (3) (4)

111. (a)

(b) CFC CH4

(c) O

3

(d) (1) a, b (2) d(3) c, d (4) a, b, c

107. Which one of the following is not correctly

described ?

(1) Anabaena

Can fix atmospheric nitrogen in free form.

(2) Saccharum barberi

Tropical cane grown in South India had

thicker stems and higher sugar content.

(3) Micropropagation

Method of producing thousands of plants

through tissue culture.

(4) Cytoskeleton

An elaborate network of filamentous

proteinaceous structures present in the

cytoplasm.

108. In a polysaccharide chain the individual

monosaccharides are linked by which bond ?

(1) Peptide bond (2) Glycosidic bond

(3) Ester bond (4) Hydrogen bond

109. The first sign of growing foetus may be noticed

by –

(1) Movement of limbs

(2) Listening to the heart sound

(3) Observing the head size

(4) Formation of genital organ

110. How many plant growth regulators, in the list

given below, are not naturally found in plants ?

2,4-Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid,

Indole butyric acid,

Zeatin,

Naphthalene acetic acid,

Kinetin,

Indole acetic acid

(1) Three (2) Five (3) Four (4) Two

111. How many statements are correct ?

(a) Biomagnification is natural aging of a lake by

nutrient enrichment of its water

(b) After CFC, methane is major cause of green

house effect

(c) Ozone is secondary pollutant in troposphere

(d) Thickness of ozone is measured in Dobson

unit

(1) a, b (2) only d

(3) c, d (4) a, b, c

16–04–2014


MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


112. Secondary metabolites are produced by :-

(1) Plants

(2) Fungi

(3) Microbial cells


113. Read the following statements –

(a) The embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres is called

a blastula

(b) The blastomeres in the blastocyst are arranged

into an inner layer called trophoblast

(c) Blastocyst becomes embedded in the

endometrium of the uterus

How many of the above statements are correct

(1) Two (2) One

(3) Zero (4) Three

114. How many enzymes in the list given below are

diasaccharidase ?

Enterokinase, Chymotrypsin, Aminopeptidase,

Pepsin, Lactase, Rennin, Carboxypeptidase,

Nuclease, Nucleotidase, Maltase, Sucrase

(1) Six (2) Three

(3) Five (4) Four

115. How many statements are incorrect ?

(a) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted

(b) Pyramid of energy is never inverted

(c) In terrestrial ecosystem, a much larger fraction

of energy flows through detritus food chain

(d) Humus is highly resistant to microbial action

and undergoes decomposition at an extremely

slow rate

(1) One (2) Two

(3) All of these (4) None

116. Bacteriophages are one of the most commonly

used vectors because of :-

(1) High copy number

(2) Small sized genome

(3) High carrying capacity

(4) All the above

112. :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

113.

(a) 8 16

(b)

(c)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

114. ? (1) (2)

(3) (4)

115. ?(a)

(b) (c)

(d)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

116.

?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

117. Identify the cell organelles labelled as A, B, C and

D. Mark the correct option with respect to

organelle and its function :-

A

B

CD

(1) A- Major site for synthesis of glycolipid.

(2) B- Performs the function of packaging of

materials to be delivered to only intracellular

targets.

(3) C- Sites of anaerobic respiration

(4) D - Main arena of cellular activities

118. Find out the incorrect statement :-

(1) An increase in body fluid volume, stimulate

the ADH release.

(2) Vasopressin, being a powerful vasodialator,

decreases the glomerular blood pressure.

(3) Decrease in blood flow to the atria of the heart

can cause the release of atrial natriuretic

factor(ANF)


119. If a new habitat is just being colonised, _____

may contribute more significantly to population

growth than ______ :-

(1) Birth rate, death rate

(2) Immigration, emigration

(3) Immigration, birth rate

(4) Emigration, death rate

120. How many of the following are breeds of

buffalo ?

Pashmina, Gir, Sahiwal, Mehsana, Surti

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Three (4) Five

117. A, B, C D :-

A

B

CD

(1) A-

(2) B- (targets)

(3) C-

(4) D -

118. :-

(1) ADH

(2) ,

(3) (ANF)

(4)

119. _____

______

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

120. ?

, , ,,

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

16–04–2014


MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


DIRECTIONS FOR Q. NO. 121 TO 180

These questions consist of two statements

each, printed as Assertion and Reason.

While answering these Questions you are

required to choose any one of the

following four responses.

A. If both Assertion & Reason are True & the

Reason is a correct explanation of the

Assertion.

B. If both Assertion & Reason are True but

Reason. is not a correct explanation of the

Assertion.

C. If Assertion is True but the Reason is False

D. If both Assertion & Reason are false.

121. Assertion :– The stream of water flowing at high

speed from a garden hose pipe tends to spread like

a fountain when held vertically up, but tends to

narrow down when held vertically down.

Reason :– In any steady flow of an incompressible

fluid, the volume flow rate of fluid remains

constant.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

122. Assertion :– Where two vibrating tuning forks

having frequencies 256 Hz and 512 Hz are held

near each other, beats cannot be heard.

Reason :– The principle of superposition is valid

only if the frequencies of the oscillators are nearly

equal.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

123. Assertion :– There is a critical temperature for

each liquid at which its surface tension reduces

to zero.

Reason :– At the critical temperature

intermolecular forces for liquids and gases

becomes equal and liquid expands like gases.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

124. Assertion :– Resonance is special case of forced

vibration in which the natural frequency of

vibration of the body is the same as the impressed

frequency of external periodic force and the

amplitude of forced vibration is maximum.

Reason :– The amplitude of forced vibrations of

a body increases with an increase in the frequency

of the externally impressed periodic force.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

121 180

A.

B.

C.

D.

121. :– :– (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

122. :– 256 Hz 512 Hz

:–

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

123. :–

:–

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

124. :–

:–

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

125. Assertion :– With increase of temperature elastic

property of a substance decreases.

Reason :– Elasticity is due to intermolecular

forces which decreases with increase of

intermolecular distance.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

126. Assertion :– Electric field inside a current carrying

wire is zero.

Reason :– Total charge present in current carrying

wire is zero.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

127. Assertion :– When the direction of motion of a

particle moving in a circular path is reversed the

direction of radial acceleration still remains the

same (at the given point).

Reason :– Particle revolves on circular path in any

direction such as clockwise or anticlockwise the

direction of radial acceleration is always towards

the centre of the circular path.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

128. Assertion :– Gauss theorem is valid in

gravitation also.

Reason :– Gravitation is a conservative field

obeys inverse square law.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

129. Assertion :– In Karate a brick is broken with a

bare hand.

Reason :– In this process the impulse is sharp.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

130. Assertion : A domestic electrical appliance

working on a three pin, will continue working

even if the top pin is removed

Reason : The third pin is used only as a safety

device

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

131. Assertion :– In Young's double slit experiment,

the fringes become indistinct if one of the slits is

covered with cellophane paper.

Reason :– The cellophane paper decrease the

wavelength of light.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

125. :–

:–

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

126. :–

:– (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

127. :–

:–

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

128. :– :– (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

129. :– :–

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

130. : 3-

:

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

131. :–

:–

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

16–04–2014


MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


132. Assertion :– The gravitational field of moon is

much less than that of earth.

Reason :– Gravitational field of a given mass (M)

depends upon M/r2, which is much smaller for

moon.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

133. Assertion :– The cloud in sky generally appear

to be whitish.

Reason :– Diffraction due to clouds is efficient

in equal measure at all wavelengths.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

134. Assertion :– Electric field is conservative.

Reason :– Changing magnetic field produces

electric field.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

135. Assertion :– The earth without atmosphere would

be inhospitably cold.

Reason :– All heat would escape in the absence

of atmosphere.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

136. Assertion :– We do not accelerate electron is

cyclotron.

Reason :– Electron is negatively charged

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

137. Assertion :- The ratio P

V

C

C for a diatomic gas is

less than that for monoatomic gas.

Reason :- The molecules of a monoatomic gas

have more degrees of freedom than those of a

diatomic gas.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

138. Assertion :– Cloud appear white is the sky.

Reason :– Scattering due to water droplet is

proportional to 4

1

.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

139. Assertion :- Internal energy of an ideal gas

depends only on temperature and not on volume.

Reason :- Temperature is more important than

volume

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

132. :–

:– (M)

M/r2

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

133. :–

:–

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

134. :– :–

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

135. :–

:–

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

136. :– :– (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

137. :- P

V

C

C

:- (1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) D

138. :–

:– 4

1

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

139. :-

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

140. Assertion :– In electron capturing event, nucleus

emits X-rays.

Reason :– Energy of X-rays is of the order of order

of MeV.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

141. Assertion :- Glucose (C6H

12O

6) and acetic acid

(CH3COOH) have same percentage composition.

Reason :- Empirical formula of glucose and acetic

acid are same.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

142. Assertion :- Melting point of Mn is more than thatof Fe.

Reason :- Mn has higher number of unpaired e–

than Fe in atomic state.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

143. Assertion :- A process is called adiabatic if the

system does not exchange heat with the

surroundings :-

Reason :- It does not involve increase or decrease

in temperature of the system :-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

144. Assertion :- Ethylamine and Dimethylamine can be

distinguished by hofmann's carbylamine reaction.

Reason :- Dimethylamine is more basic than

Ethylamine.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

145. Assertion :- 3s-orbital have two spherical node :-

Reason :- The number of spherical node is

s-orbital is given by (n-1), where n is principle

quantum number :-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

146. Assertion :- Acidic dehydration of butan-2-ol

completes with faster rate than that of Butan-1-ol.

Reason :- Acidic dehydration of Butan-2-ol

mainly gives But-2-ene while But-1-ene is mainly

formed from Butan-1-ol.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

147. Assertion :- Introduction of inert gas to a gaseous

reaction at equilibrium. Keeping pressure constant

shifts the equilibrium in a direction.

Reason :- Due to introduction of inert gas the

partial pressures of various reactants and products

are decreases.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

140. :–

X-

:– X- MeV

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

141. :- (C6H

12O

6) acetic acid

(CH3COOH)

:- acetic acid (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

142. :- Mn Fe

:- Mn Fe

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

143. :-

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

144. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

145. :- 3s-

:- s (n-1)

n

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

146. :- -1- -2- :- -2--2--1--1-(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

147. :-

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

16–04–2014


MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


148. :- N.B.S. 3- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

149. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

150. :-

Cl

+ Cl2 3AlCl

Cl

Cl(Major)

:- –I +M (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

151. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

152. :- Zn Fe Cu

Hg

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

153. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

154. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

155. :- dx2–y2 py

z :- z-(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

148. Assertion :- Propene reacts with N.B.S. to mainly

give 3-Bromopropene.

Reason :- Reaction follows free radical

substitution mechanism.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

149. Assertion :- In crystal lattice, the size of the cation

is larger in a tetrahedral hole than in an octahedral

hole.

Reason :- The cations occupy more space than

atoms in crystal packing.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

150. Assertion :-

Cl

+ Cl2 3AlCl

Cl

Cl(Major)

Reason :- –I-effect of chlorine dominates over it

+M-effect so it is meta directing.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

151. Assertion :- Isotonic solutions must have same

molar concentration.

Reason :- Solutions which have same

concentration are known as isotonic solution.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

152. Assertion :- Zn and Fe decomposes steam while

Cu and Hg does not.

Reason :- A metal can displace H2 from water

only if its reduction potential is less than that of

hydrogen.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

153. Assertion :- First electron gain enthalpy of all

elements is positive.

Reason :- Successive electron gain enthalpy of all

elements is negative.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

154. Assertion :- On increasing temperature

concentration of activated molecules increases.

Reason :- Activation energy increases with the

rise in temperature.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

155. Assertion :- If dx2–y2 and p

y orbitals come close

together along z-axis, they can form -bond by

sideways overlapping.

Reason :- Both orbitals do not have electron

density along z-axis.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

156. Assertion :- Number of unpaired electrons in[Fe(Co)5] is fourReason :- CO is strong field ligand(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

157. Assertion :- H2S is more acidic, then H

2O.

Reason :- H—S bond is weaker than O—H

bond.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

158. Assertion :- Glucose gives a reddish-brown

precipitate with Fehling's solution.

Reason :- Reaction of glucose with Fehling's

solution gives CuO and gluconic acid.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

159. Assertion :- Red phosphorus is less volatile than

white phosphorus.

Reason :- Red phosphorus has a discrete

tetrahedral structure.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

160. Assertion :- Bakelite is thermosetting polymer.

Reason :- Because it is condensation copolymer

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

161. Assertion :- Viruses did not find a place in any

classification.

Reason :- Virus contain genetic material that

could be RNA or DNA.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

162. Assertion :- The descending limb of loop of Henle

is permeable to water but almost impermeable to

electrolytes.

Reason :- Henle's loop plays a significant role in

the maintenance of high osmolarity of medullary

interstitial fluid.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

163. Assertion :- Gymnosperm exhibit xerophytic

characters.

Reason :- They have loosely arranged tissues less

developed xylem and more living tissue in their

plant bodies.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

164. Assertion :- Erythropoeitin, thyroxin and cortisol

supports production of RBCs in bone marrow.

Reason :- They all interacts with intracellular

receptors and alters transcription and translation

process in their target cells in bone marrow.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

156. :- [Fe(Co)5] 4

:- CO (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

157. :- H2S, H

2O

:- H–S H–O

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

158. :- :- CuO (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

159. :-

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

160. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

161. :- :- ,RNA

DNA(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

162. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

163. :- :- (1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) D

164. :-

:- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

16–04–2014


MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


165. Assertion :- Circulatory system is open in

Molluscs.

Reason :- In Molluscs, blood flows in haemocoel

instead of blood vessel.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

166. Assertion :- The Probability of DNA

polymorphism would be higher in non coding

DNA sequences.

Reason :- Mutations in these sequences have

immediate effect on an individuals reproductive

ability.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

167. Assertion :- The veins vary in thickness in the

reticulate venation of the dicot leaves.

Reason :- The size of vascular bundles are not

dependent on the size of the veins.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

168. Assertion :- Scientifically it is correct to say that

the sex of the baby is determined by the father and

not by the mother.

Reason :- The presence of X or Y chromosome

in the sperm determines the sex of the baby.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

169. Assertion :- Oogenesis is a highly wasteful

process.

Reason :- A number of follicles of ovary undergo

atresia and the Oogonium forms only one ovum.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

170. Assertion :- Exsitu(off site) conservation is thedesirable approach.

Reason :- When there are situations where ananimal or plant is endangered or threatened andneeds urgent measure to save it from extinction.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

171. Assertion :- S-phase marks the phase of DNA

replication

Reason :- S-Phase marks the phase of

chromosome duplication

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

172. Assertion :- Excessive irrigation without proper

drainage of water leads to salinity in the soil.

Reason :- Waterlogging draws salt to the surface

of the soil.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

165. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

166. :- DNA DNA

:- DNA

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

167. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

168. :-

:- X Y

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

169. :-

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

170. :- :-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

171. :- S- DNA

:-S-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

172. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

173. Assertion :- ER contains cisternae and tubules

Reason :- The grana, in the plastid is the site of

light reaction

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

174. Assertion :- The amount of CO2 that can diffuse

through the diffusion membrane per unit

difference in partial pressure is much higher

compared to that of O2.

Reason :- The solubility of CO2 is 20 – 25 times

higher than that of O2.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

175. Assertion :- Phenylketonuria is an inborn error

of metobolism and inheritated as autosomal

recessive trait.

Reason :- Phenylketonuria is formed due to

mutation in gene located on X-chromosome.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

176. Assertion :- An ovule generally has a single

embryosac.

Reason :- The process of formation of embryosac

is called megasporogenesis.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

177. Assertion :- Certain prokaryotic

micro-organisms are capable of fixing

atmospheric nitrogen.

Reason :- Only certain prokaryotic species are

found in the atmosphere i.e. in the direct contact

of nitrogen (N2).

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

178. Assertion :- RNA is more stable as compare of

DNA.

Reason :- RNA is preferred for transfer of genetic

information.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

179. Assertion :- Process of competitive inhibition of

enzyme is often used in the control of bacterial

pathogens.

Reason :- Malonate, which closely resembles the

succinate in structure, inhibit the succinic

dehydrogenase enzyme

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

173. :-ER

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

174. :-

CO2 , O

2

:- CO2 , O

2

20 – 25

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

175. :-

:- X-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

176. :-

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

177. :-

:-

(N2)

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

178. :- DNA RNA

:- RNA

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

179. :-

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

16–04–2014


MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


180. Assertion :- Bt cotton is one of important

transgenic crop from agricultural enhancement

point of view.

Reason :- Bt cotton is one of the pesticide resistant

plant so it minimise the use of chemical pesticides.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

181. Which site in India is included in the World

Heritage list in 2013 ?

(1) Western Ghats

(2) Elephanta cave

(3) Jantar Mantar, Jaipur

(4) Hill forts, Rajasthan

182. For which book Eleanor Catton wins the Man

Booker Prize 2013 ?

(1) The Luminaries

(2) Inferno

(3) Dead Ever After

(4) The Madness Underneath

183. 'Unbreakable' is the autobiography of which one ?

(1) Saina Nehwal (2) Mary Kom

(3) Sushil Kumar (4) Gagan Narang

184. Which President of India was associated with the

Trade Union Movement ?

(1) Rajendra Prasad

(2) V.V. Giri

(3) Zakir Husain

(4) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy

185. In the Gupta age, who wrote the famous book

'Brihat Samhita' ?

(1) Varahamihira (2) Kalidasa

(3) Banabhatta (4) Vishakhadutta

186. Who among the following said "my boy, no, you

are an Indian first and then a Muslim" ?

(1) Jawaharlal Nehru

(2) Mohammad Iqbal

(3) Mohammad Ali Jinnah

(4) Syed Ahmad Khan

187. Who among the following was regarded as

'Zinda Pir' ?

(1) Babar (2) Akbar

(3) Jahangir (4) Aurangzeb

180. :- Bt :- Bt (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

181. 2013 (1) (2) (3) (4)

182. 2013 (1) (2) (3) (4)

183. '' (1) (2) (3) (4)

184. (1) (2) (3) (4)

185. ''

(1) (2) (3) (4)

186. " " ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

187. ''

(1) (2)

(3) (4)



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

188. Which of the following seas has the highest

salinity ?

(1) Dead sea (2) Red sea

(3) Mediterranean sea (4) Caspian sea

189. Among the following, who was a member of

Rajya Sabha while becoming Prime Minister ?

(1) Morarji Desai (2) Charan Singh

(3) V. P. Singh (4) Indira Gandhi

190. With which neighbouring country, India has a

dispute over the water division of Teesta River ?

(1) Bangladesh (2) Pakistan

(3) Nepal (4) Bhutan

191. Which of the following domestic animals was not

known to the Indus Valley people ?

(1) Cow (2) Bull

(3) Buffalo (4) Horse

192. To which Fundamental Right, Reservation in

Government jobs is related ?

(1) Right to Freedom

(2) Right to Equality

(3) Right against Exploitation

(4) Right to Constitutional Remedies

193. After Independence, the first Indian State

constituted on linguistic basis is ?

(1) Punjab (2) Andhra Pradesh

(3) Kerala (4) Gujarat

194. Out of the following which one is not accepted

as Varna ?

(1) Brahmana (2) Vaishya

(3) Rajput (4) Shudra

195. Which tool is used to find out exact location on

the earth ?

(1) GPS (2) GIS

(3) PSLV (4) GSLV

196. In India, the highest contribution to GDP i.e. Gross

Domestic Product is from ?

(1) Primary sector

(2) Secondary sector

(3) Tertiary sector

(4) Exclusively agriculture sector

188.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

189.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

190.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

191.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

192.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

193.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

194.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

195.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

196. (GDP)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16–04–2014


MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


197. Recently scientists have discovered Higgs-Boson

particle. It is also known as ?

(1) Quantum particle (2) God particle

(3) High mass particle (4) Classical particle

198. The most populated desert in the world is –

(1) Sahara (2) Kalahari

(3) Gobi (4) Thar

199. What was the slogan of world environment day

in the year 2013 ?

(1) Think, eat and save

(2) Save water

(3) Save Biodiversity

(4) Save the earth

200. The only Annual Session of Indian National

Congress in 1924 Presided by Mahatma Gandhi

was held at ?

(1) Kakinada (2) Ahmedabad

(3) Vardha (4) Belgaum

197. (1) (2) (3) (4)

198. (1) (2) (3) (4)

199. 2013 (1) (2) (3) (4)

200.

1924

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Your moral duty

is to prove that is



MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

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