C083 Mock Test by Arihantbookscom

8/17/2019 C083 Mock Test by Arihantbookscom

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1. An electric dipole is placed in a non-uniform

electric field increasing along the +ve direction

of y -axis. In which direction does the dipole (i)

more (ii) rotate ?

(a) (i) Along the x -axis (ii) Clockwise

(b) (i) Along − ve x -axis (ii) Clockwise

(c) (i) Along + ve x -axis (ii) Anticlockwise

(d) (i) Along − ve x -axis (ii) Anticlockwise

2. Force acting on a test charge between the

plates of a parallel plate capacitor is F . If one of the plates is removed, then the force on the

same test charge will be :

(a) zero (b) F

(c) 2 F (d) F /2

3. The V - I graph for a conductor at temperatures

T 1 and T 2 are as shown in figure ( )T T 2 1− is

proportional to :

(a) cos 2θ (b) sin 2θ

(c) cot 2θ (d) tan 2θ

4. An electric kettle has two coils in parallel.

When one of these is switched on, the water

boils in 6 min when the other coil is switched

on the water boils in 3min. If both of them are

switched on simultaneously, how much time

will be taken to boil the water ?

(a) 2 min (b) 1.5 min(c) 1 min (d) 0.5 min

5. Figure shows three parallel wires carrying

currents as shown. The force on the wire b is :

(a) towards c

(b) towards a(c) zero

(d) perpendicular to current

6. A dip circle is placed in a plane perpendicular

to the magnetic meridian. The apparent angle

of dip is :

(a) 0° (b) 90°

(c) 45° (d) 60°

7. A square wave current switching rapidly

between + 0 5. A and − 0 5. A is passed through

an AC ammeter. Then the reading shown by it,

is :

(a) 0 25. A (b) 0 5. A

(c)0 5

2

. A (d) 0 5 2. A

8. Which one of the following depicts the output

emf from a single coil DC dynamo ?

GUJ-CET (Medical) Mock Test-1 3

Physics

x' x

– q

+q

θ

θ

T 2

T 1V

I

2A 4A 2A

a b c

GUJ-CET

MEDICAL ENTRANCE

MOCK TEST 1


2/8

9. When a polaroid is rotated the intensity of light

varies but never reduces to zero. It shows that

the incident light is :(a) completely plane polarised

(b) partially plane polarised

(c) unpolarised

(d) none of the above

10. In a thin air film 8 fringes occurs between two

points. The light is incident normally on the

film. The wavelength of light is 500 nm. What

is the difference in thickness of the film

between two points ?

(a) 4 µm (b) 2 mm

(c) 2 cm (d) none of these

11. The resolution limit of the eye is 1 min. At a

distance x km from the eye, two persons stand with a lateral separation of 3 m. For the two

persons to be just resolved by the naked eye, x

should be :

(a) 10 km (b) 15 km

(c) 20 km (d) 30 km

12. An air bubble inside a glass slab (µ = 1.5)appears at 6 cm when viewed from one side

and 4 cm when viewed from the opposite side.

The thickness of the slab is :

(a) 10 cm (b) 6.67 cm

(c) 15 cm (d) none of these

13. Two plano-convex lenses of radius of curvature R and refractive index µ = 1 5. will haveequivalent focal length equal to R, when, they are placed :

(a) at distance R

4

(b) at distance R

2

(c) at distance R

(d) in contact with each other

14. The lattice constant of a crystal is 0.4 nm X -rays are incident on the crystal and firstorder reflection is obtained at the grazing angle30°. What is the wavelength of the X -rays?(a) 0.1 nm (b) 0.2 nm

(c) 0.4 nm (d) 0.8 nm

15. What is the difference in the angular

momentum associated with the electron in the

two successive orbits of the hydrogen atom ?

(a) h

π(b)

h

2 π

(c) h

2(d) h

16. In stable nuclei, the number of neutrons ( ) N isrelated to the number of protons ( ) Z in neutral

atom in general as :(a) N Z < (b) N Z =(c) N Z > (d) N Z ≥

17. The nuclear reaction 48107

47107Cd Ag→ can

occur with the :

(a) electron capture (b) positron capture

(c) proton emission (d) α-particle emission

18. A radioactive element X with half-life of 2 h,decays giving a stable element Y . After howmany hours the ratio of X to Y will be 1 : 7 ?

(a) 6 h (b) 8 h

(c) 10 h (d) 12 h

19. In a silicon transistor the base-current ischanged by 20 µ A and this changes theemitter-base voltage by 0 02. V and thecollector current changes by 2mA. If thetransistor is used as an amplifier with loadresistance 5 k Ω, what is the voltage gain ?(a) 100 (b) 200

(c) 250 (d) 500

4 GUJ-CET (Medical) Mock Test-1

(c)

(d)

(b)

(a)


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20. What is the nature of net charge on n-typesemiconductor ?

(a) Negative(b) Positive(c) Neutral

(d) May be negatively or positively chargeddepending on amount of impurity

21. Six identical capacitors are joined in parallel,

charged to a potential difference of 10 V,

separated and then connected in series, i e. . , the

positive plate of one is connected to the

negative plate of other. Then, potential

difference between free plates is :

(a) 10 V (b) 30 V

(c) 60 V (d)10

6 V

22. In a region of space having a uniform electric

field E , a hemispherical bowl of radius r isplaced. The electric flux φ through the bowl is :

(a) 2 πrE (b) 4 2π r E

(c) 2 2π r E (d) π r E 2

23. A thermister is dipped in a bath whose

temperature is to be measured. When the

temperature increases the current also

increases, because of decrease in :

(a) capacitance (b) reactance(c) resistance (d) resistivity

24. In a Wheatstone’s bridge shown in figure X Y =and A B> . The direction of the current in a wire connected between a and b will be from :

(a) a to b(b) b to a(c) b to a through c(d) a to b through c

25. Two identical cells send the same current in3 Ω resistance, whether connected in series orin parallel. The internal resistance of the cell

should be :

(a) 1 Ω (b) 3 Ω

(c)1

2 Ω (d) 3.5 Ω

26. 9 g of silver is deposited in 20 min by a battery

of 24 V . How many grams will be deposited in

40 min by a battery of 8 V ?

(a) 18 g (b) 36 g(c) 24 g (d) 6 g

27. An electric motor operates on a 50 V supply and a current of 12 A. If the efficiency of themotor is 30%, what is the resistance of the winding of the motor ?

(a) 6 Ω (b) 4 Ω

(c) 2.9 Ω (d) 3.1 Ω

28. When a straight conductor is carrying anelectric current :

(a) there are circular magnetic lines of forcearound it

(b) there are magnetic lines of force near it

(c) there are magnetic lines of force parallel toconductor along the direction of current

(d) there are magnetic lines of force parallel toconductor opposite to the direction of current

29. The seave of a galvanometer of resistance100 Ω contains 25 divisions. It gives adeflection of 1 division on passing a current of

4 10 4× − A. The resistance in ohm to be added

to it, so that it may become a voltmeter of range2.5 V is :

(a) 100 (b) 150

(c) 250 (d) 300

30. A ball magnet has a magnetic moment 2.5JT−1

and is suspended in a magnetic field of 0 2. T.Work done in turning the magnet from parallelto antiparallel position relative to the fielddirection is :

(a) 0.5 J (b) 1 J

(c) 2.0 J (d) zero

31. A coil of wire of certain radius has 100 turnsand a self-inductance of 15 mH. Theself-inductance of a second similar coil of 500turns will be :

(a) 75 mH (b) 375 mH

(c) 15 mH (d) none of these

32. If the coils of a transformer are made up of

thick wire, then :

(a) eddy currents loss will be more

(b) magnetic flux leakage is reduced

(c) Joule’s heating loss is increased

(d) Joule’s heating loss is reduced


b

a

A B

Y X

c d


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33. In an electromagnetic wave, the direction of

the magnetic induction B→

is :

(a) parallel to the electric field E→

(b) perpendicular to the electric field E→

(c) antiparallel to the electric field E→

(d) random

34. Diffraction maxima appear in some specific

directions which obey certain conditions

known as :

(a) Bragg’s conditions

(b) Lane’s equations

(c) Davisson’s conditions


35. The thermo emf of a thermocouple is 25 µ V C/°at room temperature. A galvanometer of 40 Ω

resistance capable of detecting current as lowas 10 5− A , is connected with the thermocouple.

The smallest temperature difference then can

be detected by the system is :

(a) 16°C (b) 12°C(c) 8°C (d) 20°C

36. The magnetic susceptibility of a paramagnetic

substance at − °73 C is 0 0060. , then its value at− °173 C will be :

(a) 0.0030 (b) 0.0120

(c) 0.0180 (d) 0.0045

37. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with

proton changes by 0 25. %, if its momentum is

changed by p0. The initial momentum was :

(a) 1000

p (b) p0

400/(c) 40 0/ p (d) p0 100/

38. With increasing quantum number, the energy

difference between adjacent energy levels in

atoms :

(a) decreases

(b) increases

(c) remains constant

(d) decreases for low Z and increases for high Z

39. What is the output Y of the gate circuit shown

in the figure ?

(a) A B⋅ (b) A B⋅

(c) A B⋅ (d) none of these

40. With reference to ionospheric propagation, an

electromagnetic wave with a critical frequency

of 15MHz and incident at an angle of 45° willhave MUF of :

(a) 15 MHz (b) 15 2/ MHz(c) 15 2 MHz (d) none of these

1. If dispersed phase is liquid and dispersion

medium is liquid, the colloidal type will be :

(a) emulsion (b) gel

(c) aerosol (d) sol

2. 400 mL of standard gold sol is just prevented

from coagulation by the addition of 0.96 g of

starch before adding 1 mL of 10% NaCl

solution, the gold number will be :

(a) 2.4 (b) 76

(c) 240 (d) 24

3. Among the following sweetener which one has

the lowest sweetness value?(a) Alitame (b) Aspartame

(c) Saccharine (d) Sucralose

4. A reaction is spontaneous if :

(a) ∆ Gsystem 0

(c) ∆ Ssystem 0

5. The efficiency of packing is 68% in :

(a) hcp structure

(b) ccp structure

(c) fcc structure

(d) bcc structure

6. The half-life of a reaction varies linearly with

initial concentration of the reactant. The order

of the reaction is :

(a) 0 (b) 1

(c) 2 (d) 3

7. In AgBr there can occur :

(a) only Schottky defect

(b) only Frenkel defect

(c) both (a) and (b)


8. Water gas is a mixture of :

(a) CO2 and H O2 (b) CO and H O2(c) CO and H2 (d) CO and N2


Chemistry

Y

A

B


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9. Amides may be converted to amines by the

reaction named after :

(a) Perkin (b) Claisen

(c) Hofmann (d) Clemmensen10. The product of reaction of HBr with propene

is :

(a) 1-bromopropane (b) 2-bromopropane

(c) 3-bromopropane (d) none of these

11. Acylation of phenols with aromatic acylchloride in presence of NaOH is known as :

(a) Schotten-Baumann reaction

(b) Hell-Volhard-Zelenski reaction

(c) Haloform reaction

(d) Cannizaro reaction

12. Hydrolysis of lactose with dilute acid yields :

(a) equimolar mixture of D-glucose andD-glucose

(b) equimolar mixture of D-glucocse andD-galactose

(c) equimolar mixture of D-glucose andD-fructose

(d) equimolar mixture of D-galactose andD-galactose

13. The optical isomer of a compound :

(a) have similar physical and chemicalproperties

(b) have identical physical and chemicalproperties

(c) are superimposable mirror images(d) have identical physical but different

chemical properties

14. Nitrogen forms a variety of compounds in alloxidation states ranging from :

(a) −3 to +5 (b) −3 to +3(c) −3 to +4 (d) −3 to +6

15. Fungicides are organic compounds of :

(a) mercury (b) fluorine

(c) lead (d) chlorine

16. The characteristic colour in the flame test of

strontium is :

(a) orange (b) brick red

(c) crimson red (d) blood red

17. Acyl halides when reduced with LiAlH4 give

rise to :

(a) primary alcohols

(b) aldehydes

(c) secondary alcohols

(d) esters

18. Reactions of esters with Grignard reagents giverise to :

(a) primary alcohols

(b) secondary alcohols

(c) tertiary alcohols

(d) ketones19. Amorphous form of silica is :

(a) tridymite (b) cristobalite

(c) fumed silica (d) asbestos

20. For which of the following co-ordination

entities, the geometrical shape is tetrahedral?

(a) [Ni(H O) ]2 62+ (b) [Ni(CN) ]4

2–

(c) [NiCl ]42– (d) [Co(CN) F]5

3–

21. Which of the following is an addition polymer?

(a) nylon-6

(b) nylon-66

(c) high density polythene

(d) dacron

22. Which of the following is an ore of tin?(a) Spodumen (b) Malachite

(c) Calamine (d) Cassiterite

23. CH CH3 2+is more stable than CH3

+. This is due

to :

(a) inductive effect

(b) electromeric effect

(c) resonance effect

(d) hyperconjugative effect

24. Which hydrocarbon has the highest octane

number?

(a) Methane (b) Ethane

(c) Iso-octane (d) Triptane

25. Which of the following statements is correct?

An atomic orbital :

(a) is a single electron wave function

(b) describes trajectory of electron in the atom

(c) defines distribution of electron density inspace

(d) can be represented by boundary surfacediagrams.

26. The correct set of four quantum numbers for

the valence electron of rubidim [ ] Z = 37 is :

(a) n = 5, l = 0, m = 0, s = + 1 2 /(b) n = 5, l = 1, m = 0, s = + 1 2 /(c) n = 5, l = 1, m = 1, s = + 1 2 /

(d) n = 6, l = 0, m = 0, s = + 1 2 /27. After the emission of an α-particle from the

atom 92238 X the number of neutrons in the atom

will be :

(a) 138 (b) 140

(c) 144 (d) 150



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28. The electronegativity follows the order :

(a) F >O > Cl > Br

(b) F>Cl>Br>O

(c) O >F >Cl >Br

(d) C l >F >O >Br

29. The wavelength associated with a golf ball

weighing 200 g and moving at a speed of

5 m/h is :

(a) 20.5 10 m–10×

(b) 2.4 10 m–20×

(c) 2.4 10 m–30×

(d) 20.5 10 m–40×

30. The hybridisation of atomic orbitals of nitrogen

in NO2, NO3– and NH4

+ are :

(a) sp sp, 3 and sp2 respectively

(b) sp sp2 2

, and sp3

respectively (c) sp sp2, and sp3 respectively

(d) sp sp2 3, and sp respectively

31. Find the magnetic moment of a divalent ion in

aqueous solution if its atomic number is 25 :

(a) 3.0 BM (b) 4.9 BM

(c) 8.9 BM (d) 5.9 BM

32. The common features among the species

CN , CO– and NO+ are :

(a) bond order three and isoelectronic

(b) bond order three and weak field ligands

(c) bond order two and π-acceptors(d) isoelectronic and weak field ligands

33. de-Broglie wavelength is related to applied

voltage as :

(a) λ =2me V

h(b) λ =

h

me V 2

(c) λ =2me V

h(d) none of these

34. Molecular shapes of SF , CF4 4 and XeF4 are :

(a) the same, with 2, 0 and 1 lone pair of electrons respectively

(b) the same, with 1, 1 and 1 lone pair of electrons respectively

(c) different, with 0, 1 and 2 lone pair of electrons respectively

(d) different, with 1, 0 and 2 lone pair of electrons respectively

35. The correct order of Ist ionisation potential

among the elements Be, B, C, N, O is :

(a) B < Be < C < O < N

(b) B < Be < C < N < O

(c) Be < B < C < N < O

(d) Be < B < C < O < N

36. 4 g of helium is expanded from 1 atm to one

tenth of its original pressure at 30°C. What is

the change in its entropy assuming it to be ideal

gas ?(a) 19.15 JK –1 (b) 191.5 JK –1

(c) 1.915 JK –1 (d) 0.1915JK –

37. If 1.71 g of sugar (molecular mass = 342) is

dissolved in 500 cm3 of a solution at 300 K.

What will be its osmotic pressure?

( R = 0.083 L bar K mol–1 –1)

(a) 204 bar (b) 0.249 bar

(c) 24.9 bar (d) 20.4 bar

38. Aspirin is :

(a) seconal (b) barbituric acid

(c) chloroxylenol (d) acetyl salicylic acid

39. Insulin is a :

(a) steroid hormone (b) peptide hormone

(c) amine hormone (d) vitamin

40. Gun metal is an alloy of :

(a) Cu+Zn (b) Cu+ Ag

(c) Cu + Sn + Zn (d) Cu + Zn + Ni

1. Hybridoma technology is used to :

(a) kill the cancer cells

(b) formation of monoclonal antibodies

(c) formation of somatic hybrids

(d) formation of antibiotics

2. Oxygen is transported by :

(a) blood plasma (b) leucocytes

(c) erythrocytes (d) thrombocytes

3. Hydrophytes are characterised by :

(a) thick and large leaf

(b) delicate and mucilagenous stem

(c) short spinous stem

(d) all of the above


Biology


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4. Mammalian lungs contain a large number of

minute alveoli (air sacs), this is to allow :

(a) more space for increasing the total volume

of inspired air(b) more surface area for diffusion of gases

(c) more spongy texture for keeping lungs inproper shape

(d) more nerve supply to keep the organs working more efficiently

5. Yeast is used in the production of :

(a) acetic acid (b) citric acid

(c) ethyl alcohol (d) curd

6. Body tissues obtain oxygen from

oxyhaemoglobin because of its dissociation

caused by :

(a) low oxygen concentration

(b) low oxygen and high carbon dioxide

concentration(c) low carbon dioxide concentration

(d) high carbon dioxide concentration

7. The vaccine of hepatitis-B is a :

(a) first generation vaccine

(b) interferon

(c) second generation vaccine

(d) third generation vaccine

8. Testes in rabbit are :

(a) inside the body

(b) on the sides of the kidneys

(c) in scrotal sacs

(d) on either side of dorsal aorta

9. The term ‘Ecosystem’ was coined by :

(a) E. P. Odum (b) A.G. Tansley

(c) Carl Mobius (d) W. Clementus

10. Kidneys in rabbit are :

(a) at the same level

(b) right kidney is at a higher level than leftkidney

(c) left kidney is at a higher level than rightkidney

(d) kidneys are at the level of testes

11. Streptomycin was isolated first time by :

(a) A. Flemming (b) Robert Koch

(c) N. Borlaugh (d) S. Waksman

12. Which is a common passage in swallowing food

and breathing ?

(a) Larynx (b) Gullet

(c) Glottis (d) Pharynx

13. Which of the following micro-organism is used

for conversion of milk into curd ?

(a) Xanthomonas citri

(b) Bacillus megatherium

(c) Acetobacter aceti

(d) None of the above14. The hardest substance of vertebrate body is :

(a) keratin (b) enamel

(c) dentine (d) chondrin

15. Cotton belongs to family :

(a) Solanaceae (b) Cucurbitaceae

(c) Leguminosae (d) Malvaceae

16. Pepsin is secreted in :

(a) intestine (b) liver

(c) gonads (d) stomach

17. Terpentine is obtained from :

(a) flowers of angiosperms

(b) wood of gymnosperms

(c) pteridophytes(d) bacteria

18. Narrower distal end of stomach is called :

(a) cardiac (b) duodenum

(c) pharynx (d) pylorus

19. Kohler and Milstein developed biotechnology

for :

(a) monoclonal antibodies

(b) steroid synthesis

(c) immobilization of enzymes

(d) myeloma

20. Secretin hormone is produced in :

(a) stomach (b) intestine

(c) liver (d) pancreas

21. Which of the following is formed by the

reactions of UV-rays of sunlight ?

(a) SO2 (b) CO

(c) Ozone (d) Florides

22. Glycogen is stored in :

(a) liver and muscles (b) liver only

(c) muscles only (d) pancreas

23. In India highest amount of coal is present in :

(a) West Bengal (b) Maharashtra

(c) Jharkhand (d) Assam

24. Vermiform appendix is a part of :

(a) alimentary canal (b) nervous system

(c) vascular system (d) reproductive system

25. Genetically engineered human insulin is

called :

(a) humulin (b) haematin

(c) hybridoma (d) hybrid

26. Islets of Langerhans produce :


8/8

(a) insulin (b) rennin

(c) ptyalin (d) HCl

27. The food chain starts from :

(a) consumer (b) producer(c) decomposer (d) nitrogen fixation

28. Trypsin converts :

(a) fats into fatty acids(b) starch and glycogen into maltose(c) proteins into peptones(d) sucrose into glucose and fructose

29. Humulin is a :

(a) form of chitin (b) human insulin

(c) digestive enzyme(d) antibiotics

30. Smallest bone in rabbits body is :

(a) patella (b) stapes

(c) atlas (d) floating rib

31. The substrate for photorespiration is :(a) glycolate (b) acetyl Co-A

(c) pyruvic acid (d) glucose

32. Acromian process found in rabbit is :

(a) pectoral girdle

(b) femur

(c) vertebral column

(d) pelvic girdle

33. Pinus seed is originated in :

(a) capsule (b) microsporophyll

(c) microsporangia (d) megasporophyll

34. The units of the nervous system are :

(a) neurons (b) dendrites

(c) axon (d) cyton

35.The endosperm of Pinus is :(a) haploid (b) diploid

(c) triploid (d) polyploid

36. Muscular tissue is differentiated into :

(a) unstriped, striped

(b) striped cardiac

(c) cardiac, unstriped

(d) unstriped, striated and cardiac

37. Which of the following is the product of

glucose fermentation by yeast ?

(a) C H O6 12 6 (b) C H OH2 5(c) (C H O )6 10 5 n (d) CH OH2

38. Epithelial tissue serves as :

(a) protective covering

(b) reproductive structures

(c) corpuscles

(d) nerve cells

39. From which part of Cocos nucifera, coir is

obtained :

(a) endocarp (b) mesocarp

(c) epicarp (d) any part of fruit

40. Among pesticides zinc phosphate is used for :

(a) spraying (b) fumigation

(c) killing weevils (d) rodents


PHYSICS

1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (a)9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (d)

17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (c) 21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (b)25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (b) 31. (b) 32. (d)33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (c)

CHEMISTRY

1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (c)9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (c)

17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (c) 21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (d)25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (b) 31. (d) 32. (a)33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (a) 36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (b) 40. (c)

BIOLOGY

1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (c)9. (b) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (d)

17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (b) 21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (a)25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (b) 31. (a) 32. (a)33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (d) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (d)

NSWERS A

C083 Mock Test by Arihantbookscom

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