B. 40% C. 20% B. 35000 C. 20000 · Sub - SAPM 1. _____ activity is indulged into not for returns...

Wilson College BAF Department

Programme: TYBAF

Semester: VI - Regular Sample Question Set.

Sub - Cost Accounting 1 - Break-even analysis may be described as A. comparison between sales and cost B. comparison between production and sales C. comparison between fixed cost and variable cost D. comparison to make out capacity utilisation 2 - An increase in sales price A. does not affect the break-even point B. lowers the net profit C. increases the break-even point D. lowers the break-even point 3- Fixed cost per unit decreases when A. production volume increases B. production volume decreases C. variable cost per unit decreases D. prime cost per unit decreases 4- If sales are ` 5,00,000; variable costs are ` 2,00,000 and fixed cost are ` 2,40,000; the P/V Ratio will be A. 60% B. 40% C. 20% D. 45% 5 - A company has sales of ` 2,00,000; P/V Ratio is 20% and fixed cost is ` 15,000; the profit will be A. 25000 B. 35000 C. 20000 D. 40000 6 - Under marginal costing, cost is classified on the basis of

A. Function B. Behaviour C. Elements D. cost 7 - Contribution is the difference between A. Sales and Variable cost B. Sales and fixed cost C. Sales and Total cost D. Factory cost and profit 8 - Sales are 1,000 units @ ` 100 per unit variable cost ` 60,000. Fixed cost ` 28,000. The BEP in units will be A. 500 units B. 700 units C. 1000 units D. 1200 units 9- Profit ` 30,000, Marginal cost per unit ` 8, selling price per unit ` 10. The M/S will be. A. 140000/- B. 150000/- C. 125000/- D. 145000/- 10- Period cost is A. Fixed cost B. Variable cost C. Factory cost D. Prime cost

Sub - Financial Accounting - VII 1 - Investment accounting is governed by AS_____ A. 13 B. 14 C. 18 D. 12 2 - Loss on sale of investment is debited to ________ A. Profit & Loss account B. Investment ac C. Investors Account D. Shares Account 3- Right shares are issued to _________ A. Existing shareholders B. Future share holders C. Past share holders D. Preference shareholders 4 - Bonus shares are given to shareholders A. Free of cost B. At Premium C. At discount D. Out of sinking fund 5 - Current assets are expected to realize within ___ A. 12 months B. 6months C. 8 months D. 3 months 6 - IFRS are issued by ___________. A. IASB B. ICAI C. FASB D. IASC 7 - US GAAP are issued by _________. A. ICAI B. IASB C. FASB D. IASC 8 - Till date IFRS are_____________. A. 18 B. 14

C. 25 D. 5 9 - Balance-sheet of Electricity company is presented in A. schedule III format B. Three parts C. four parts D. five parts 10) Loan repayment period is _____ A. 10 years B. 12 years C. 16years D. 8 years

Sub - Taxation 1. GST Stands for A. Goods and Supply Tax B. Government Sales Tax C. Goods and Services Tax D. Good and Simple Tax 2. is levied on Intra State Supply of Goods and/or Services in Union Territory. A. SGST B. IGST C. UTGST D. GST is not levied 3.Goods and Services Tax is a tax levied on goods and services imposed at each point of . A. Sale B. Service C. Supply D. Manufacturing 4. Which of the following is not a bill passed by parliament for the implementation of GST in India? A. The Central GST Act, 2017 B. The State GST Act, 2017 C. The Integrated GST Act, 2017 D. None of above 5. Petroleum products have been temporarily been kept out of GST. A. One B. Two C. Three D. Five 6. In India, GST structure is in nature. A. Single B. Dual C. Triple D. Direct 7. Goods and Services Tax is a tax levied on goods and services imposed at each point of . A. Sale B. Service C. Supply D. Manufacturing

8. is levied on Intra State Supply of Goods and/or Services in Union Territory. A. SGST B. IGST C. UTGST D. GST is not levied 9. is levied on Intra-State Supply of goods and/or Services. A. CGST B. SGST C. IGST D. Both a & b 10. is levied on Inter State Supply of Goods and/or Services. A. CGST B. SGST C. IGST D. Both a & b

Sub - SAPM 1. _____ activity is indulged into not for returns but for mere reason of fun and satisfying habit of taking risk and adventure.

A. investment B. speculation C. Gambling D. None of the above

2. Depositing money in fixed deposit is an example of _____ investment. A. Financial B. Economic C. group D. Asset

3. An activity involving high risk taken to achieve high capital gains in short duration is known as _____.

A. speculation B. investment C. gambling D. Risk

4. Total of probability of various outcomes is always equal to _____. A. two B. three C. one D. Four

5. _____ returns are the total returns earned by an investor during the time period for which the investment is held.

A. Holding period B. Annualised C. Expected D. Future

6. Risk is associated with _____ returns. A. Past B. present C. future D. none of the above

7. Internal business risk is a source of _____ risk. A. Systematic B. Unsystematic C. Both (a) & (b)

D. None of the above

8. An unsystematic risk is the one which can be eliminated but the market risk is the _____ risk.

A. Ineffective B. Effective C. Remaining D. Aggregate

9. According to the capital market line, the expected return of any efficient portfolio is a function of _____ risk.

A. Unique B. total C. systematic D. Unsystematic

10. As per capital asset pricing model, beta is a measure of _______________ risk. A. company specific B. unsystematic C. total D. systematic

Sub - Financial Management 1. . The type of collateral kept for short term loan is:

a. Real Estate b. Plant & Machinery c. Stock of goods d. Equity Share Capital

2. Calculate MVA: Market Capitalization= Rs.4542 Book Value of Net worth= Rs. 1800

a. Rs. 2742 b. RS. 6342 c. Rs.81,75,600 d. Rs. 2472

2. The main objective of mergers are to benefit from economies of scale, reduce competition, achieve monopoly status and control the market.

a. Horizontal b. Vertical c. Conglomerate d. Concentric

4. In India, Certificates of Deposits was introduced in the year . a. 1959 b. 1989 c. 1899 d. 1979 5. Which AS is applicable for lease:

a. AS 12 b. AS 9 c. AS 19 d. AS 11

6. . Under method, shares are valued on the basis of expected dividend and normal rate of return.

a. Earning Yield Method b. Dividend Yield Method c. Goodwill d. Intrinsic

7.XYZ Ltd. had on 31st December, 2008; 80,000 equity shares at ` 10 each. It was decided to reduce shares to ` 8 each. The reduction is _____.

a. 160000 b. 80000 c. 200000 d. 150000

8 - In takeover the board member are usually the main shareholders.

a. Friendly b. Hostile c. Merger d. Bidding

9- Which of the following would be consistent with a more aggressive approach to financing working capital?

a. Financing short-term needs with short-term funds b. Financing permanent inventory buildup with long term debt c. Financing seasonal needs with short term funds d. Financing some long term needs with short term funds

10- In lease system, interest is calculated on .

a. Cash down payment b. Hire purchase price c. Cash price outstanding d. Lease rentals

WILSON COLLEGE

BMS DEPARTMENT

SEM VI/ 2019-20 BATCH

SAMPLE QUESTIONS

OPERATIONS RESEARCH

1. With regards to the simplex algorithm, the variable associated with the key

column is known as the ______

A. Slack variable

B. Incoming variable

C. Surplus variable

D. Outgoing variable

2. The objective function of a LPP is Min Z = 10x1 + 5x2. The solution to this LPP yields x1 = 500 x2= 375. Then the value of Z = ___

A. 6875

B. 3875

C.4875

D. 4500

3. For solving a LPP using the graphical method the _____ must be plotted

as lines on the graph

A. Objective function

B. Constraints

C. Non-negativity function

D. Decision variables

4. In respect of the simplex method, for deciding the key row ____ must be

determined

A. Replacement ratios

B. Slack variables

C. Surplus variables

D. Dummy variables

5. There exists an alternate optimal solution to a trasportation problem if the

delta value of any of the empty cells (unallocated cells) is _____

A. Zero

B. Negative

C. Infinity

D. Positive

6. An activity which represents end or completion of multiple activities is called _______________.

A. Merge event

B. Burst event

C. Merge and burst event

D. Concurrent activity

7. The time required by a job on each machine is called _________________ time.

A. Elapsed

B. Idle

C. Processing

D. Average

8. In job sequencing involving three machines, the sequence of operations is ____

A. Machine A, Machine B, Machine C

B. Machine B, Machine C, Machine A

C. Machine C, Machine A, Machine C

D. Machine A, Machine B, Machine B

9. In respect of sequencing of jobs, it is assumed that the processing time of all jobs on all machines are known and ____

A. Remains constant

B. Changes

C. Increases

D. Decreases

10. A Company transports from warehouses W1, W2 and W3 1000, 3000, and 8,000 units respectively to retail outlets R1, R2, R3 and R4 1500, 1500,

8000 and 2,000 units respectively. This transportation problem is _____

A. Balanced

B. Not balanced and requires a dummy warehouse quantity = 1000 units

C. Not balanced and requires a dummy retail outlet quantity = 1000 units

D. Not balanced and requires a dummy warehouse quantity = 2000 units

******

INTERNATIONAL FINANCE

1. IFRS Stands For _________

A. International Financial Recognition Standards

B. International Foreign Reporting Standards

C. International Financial Reporting Solutions

D. International Financial Reporting Standards

2. Balance Of Payment Identity Equation __________.

A. Ca + Fa = Ra = 0

B. Ca - Fa = Ra X 0

C. Ca + Fa - Ra = 0

D. Ca + Fa + Ra = 0

3. Ask Is Determined By The Following Formula _______________

A. Ask = Mid Rate - (Spread/2)

B. Ask = Mid Rate X (Spread/2)

C. Ask = Bid + (Spread/2)

D. Ask = Mid Rate + (Spread/2)

4. Spread Is Determined By The Following Formula ___________

A. Spread = Ask - Bid

B. Spread = Bid - Ask

C. Spread = Mid Rate - Bid

D. Spread = Ask

5. The Worlds Major Trading Currencies, Which Are All Free To Float Against Each Other, Include All Of The Following Except _________.

A. British Pound

B. Japanese Yen

C. Us Dollar

D. Spanish Peso

6. Nations That Have Major Economic Expansion Attract ________

A. Imports

B. Exports

C. Fdi

D. Privatization

7. In The Foreign Exchange Market, The ______ Of One Country Is Traded

For The _________ Of Another Country.

A. Currency; Currency

B. Currency; Financial Instrument

C. Currency; Goods

D. Goods; Goods

8. Currently The Largest Foreign Exchange Market In The World Is____

A. New York

B. Tokyo

C. Frankfurt

D. London

9. _______ Is A Real Time Gross Settlement Funds Transfer System Operated By The United States Federal Reserve Banks.

A. Swift

B. Chips

C. Chaps

D. Fedwire

10. Swift Stands For________________

A. System Of World Interbank Financial Transportation

B. Society Wide Interest And Financial Telecommunications

C. Society For Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunications

D. Society For Worldwide Interbank Financial Transportation.

*******

BRAND MANAGEMENT

1. Brand creates a relationship of ..... with the customers.

A. standards B. professionalism

C. trust D. credibility

2. ..... consists of Brand Recognition and Brand Recall.

A. Brand Awareness B. Brand Identity

C. Brand Imagery D. Brand Familiarity

3. ..... are the personal value and meaning that consumers attach to the

product and service attributes. A. Brand incentives

B. Brand benefits

C. Brand attributes D. Brand associations

4. Building blocks to the left side of the pyramid represent a more .....

A. emotional route B. practical route

C. sensible route D. rational route

5. ..... are a means to provide in-depth information and insights essential

for setting long term strategic direction for the brand. A. Brand positioning

B. Brand equity C. Brand recall

D. Brand audit

6. The four steps of brand building are Meaning, Response, Relationships

and ..... A. Equity

B. Identity C. Information

D. Branding

7. The 3C's of branding are Clarity, Consistency and ..... A. Constancy

B. Company C. Customer

D. Competitor

8. Branding helps to build ..... for the company or product. A. Recognition

B. Respect C. Competitors

D. Size

9. Branding provides ..... protection towards unique features or aspects of the product,

A. Equal B. Unequal

C. Legal D. Illegal

10. A strong brand can command a ........price as compared to other

brands. A. Premium

B. Lower C. Higher

D. No Significant change

*******

INNOVATIVE FINANCIAL SERVICES

1.Functions of SEBI

a. Monetary Stability b. Stable Payments & Currency system

c. Credit Allocation d. Regulatory body

2.In the domestic factoring _______ parties are involved. a. 3

b. 4 c. 5

d. 10

3. International Factoring is also termed as _____ Factoring a. Cross-Border

b. Wide-Border c. Foreign

d. Multi-country

4.The predominant agencies not involved in providing consumer finance are

a. Sales finance companies b. Hire purchase

c. Other non-banking institutions d. Overdraft Facility

5. Pricing of Consumer Finance not includes ____________

a. Rate of interest b. Default risk premium

c. Administration expenses d. 100% Risk cover

6.Benefits of credit cards are ___________

a. Application Fraud

b. Counterfeit card fraud c. Card never received fraud

d. Helpful in times of emergency

7. The credit ratings are expressed as ______________ a. Alphabetical

b. Numerical c. Numerical and Alphabetical

d. Analytical

8.The availability of cash and cash like instruments that are useful in purchase and investment are commonly known as ____

a. Cash crunch b. Liquidity

c. Credit

d. Marketability

9. Banking sector comes under which of the following sectors a. Marketing sector

b. Service sector c. Manufacturing sector

d. Industrial Sector

10.NBFC is a company registered under _____________ a. Indian Contract Act

b. Companies Act, 1956 c. RBI Act

d Companies act 2013

******

RETAIL MANAGEMENT

1. ___ stores have narrow product lines with deep variety, viz, apparel store, book store, etc.

A. Speciality

B. Departmental

C. Convenience

D. Non store

2. ___ psychology is the study of human responses to product

and service-related information and experiences.

A. Wholesaler

B. Consumer

C. Retailer

D. Manufacturer

3. ___ Identifies the item using a tag, which is made up of a

microchip with a coiled antenna and a reader with an antenna.

A. Electronic Data Interchange

B. Radio Frequency Identification

C. Electronic Shelf Label

D. Barcode

4. Radio Frequency Identification was invented in 1948 by ___.

A. Henry Fayol

B. Harry German

C. Harry Stockman

D. Harry Khan

5. _____ involves green packaging and green transportation.

A. Green Management

B. Green Marketing

C. Green Retailing

D. Green Production

6. Reuse of materials and reduced wastage would lead to substantial _________.

A. cost savings

B. sales increase

C. promotion increase

D. publicity

7. __________ is the strategy adopted by the firm when it seeks to achieve growth with the existing products in the market.

A. Managing goods

B. Electronic retailing

C. Market penetration

D. Store management

8. ________ analysis is a framework that strategy consultants use to scan the external macro-environment in which a firm

operates.

A. Market

B. PEST

C. 7 S framework

D. SWOT

9. A firm uses bonuses, incentives and meaningful distinctions in pay as ______ to reward the performance.

A. salary

B. charity

C. grants

D. compensation

10. _______ is the most important factor in deciding the location of a store.

A. Connectivity

B. Pricing

C. Marketing

D. Retail mix

*******

INTERNATIONAL MARKETING

1. _______ is needed to bridge the gap between developed and developing

nations.

A. Local Trade

B. National Trade C. International Marketing

D. Regional trade

2. Trading Blocs give benefits to ______countries. A. Member

B. Non-member C. Rich

D. Poor

3. __________ is performance of business activities designed to plan, price, promote and direct the flow of a company's goods and services to

consumers. A. International marketing

B. IMC

C. Supply chain analysis D. Trade

4. A group of companies which has similar trade policies and ensure free

flow of goods and services is _______ A. Trading Bloc

B. Joint Venture C. Franchising

D. Mergers and aquisitions

5. _______ is not a feature of International marketing. A. Small scale operations

B. Presence of trading blocs C. Three Faced competition

D. Lengthy and time consuming

6. Operating internationally requires an extensive coordination between the

_______________ and the foreign operations and subsidiaries. A. Home branch

B. Home office C. Domestic office

D. Regional office

7. _____ refers to the necessity of technically skilled human resources to open in the market

A. Current Market Size B. Projected Market Growth

C. Number of Competitors

D. Requirement of technological skills

8. ____ provides a method for quantifying risk.

A. Export Analysis B. Market Share Analysis

C. Diversification Analysis D. Acquisition Analysis

9. _____ is “The Distribution of emotional roles between genders”

A. Individualism vs Collectivism B. Masculinity vs Femininity

C. Long-term orientation vs Short term orientation D. Indulgence vs Restraint

10. Terrorism, terrorist attacks and wars are major indicators of ____. A. Political Instability

B. Politically Neutral Economy

C. Political Risk D. Cultural Risk

******

STRATEGIC FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT

1. Market Value Of The Firm Is Calculated By The Following Formula.

A) Total Number Of Shares X Eps

B) Total Number Of Shares X Dps

C) Total Number Of Shares X Mps

D) Total Number Of Shares / Dps

2. Xbrl Stands For

A) Extra Business Regulation Ltd.

B) Excursive Business Reporting Law.

C) Extra-ordinary Business Reporting Language.

D) Extensible Business Reporting Language.

3. ________ Policy Is What The Company Uses To Decide How Much It Will Payout To The Shareholders In The Form Of Dividends.

A) Dividend Policy

B) Shareholders Policy

C) Taxation Policy

D) Policy Of Control

4. Decision Making Is The Main Function Of

A. Management B. Senior Executives

C. Junior Executives D. Executives

5. In Probability Analysis A. Probability Is Assigned To Each Year’s Cash Inflow.

B. Probability Is Assigned To Cash Outflow. C. Probability Is Assigned To Economic Situation

D. Probability Is Assigned To Last Three Year’s Cash Inflow.

6. Decision Tree Is

A) Tree With Branches

B) Pictorial Representation In A Tree Form C) Tree With Leaves Only

D) Tree Without Leaves Only

7. The Technique Used To Determine How Independent Variable Values Will

Impact A Particular Dependent Variable Under A Given Set Of Assumptions Is Defined As

A. Sensitivity Analysis B. Coefficient Of Variation

C. Risk Adjusted Discounting Rate D. Probability Technique

8. P. If Npv ≥ 0, Then Project Is Acceptable Otherwise Project Has To Be Rejected.

Q. If Npv ≤ 0, Then Project Is Acceptable Otherwise Project Has To Be Rejected.

A) (P) Is True But (Q) Is False

B) (P) False But (Q) Is True C) Both The Statement Are Wrong

D) Both The Statement Is Correct

9. Net Profit For Calculation Of Eva Is

A. Npat

B. Nbt

C. Nopat

D. Nop

10. Net Worth Include

A. Share Capital

B. Reserves Without Fictitious

C. Borrowed Fund

D. Current Liability

******

INDIRECT TAX

1. GST Stands for

(a) Goods and Supply Tax (b) Government Sales Tax

(c) Goods and Services Tax (d) Good and Simple Tax

2. is levied on Intra State Supply of Goods and/or Services in Union

Territory. (a) SGST

(b) IGST

(c) UTGST (d) GST is not levied

3.Goods and Services Tax is a tax levied on goods and services imposed at

each point of . (a) Sale

(b) Service (c) Supply

(d) Manufacturing

4. Which of the following is not a bill passed by parliament for the implementation of GST in India?

(a) The Central GST Act, 2017 (b) The State GST Act, 2017

(c) The Integrated GST Act, 2017

(d) None of above

5. Petroleum products have been temporarily been kept out of GST.

(a) One (b) Two

(c) Three (d) Five

6. In India, GST structure is in nature.

(a) Single (b) Dual

(c) Triple (d) (a) & (b) both

7. Goods and Services Tax is a tax levied on goods and services imposed at

each point of .

(a) Sale (b) Service

(c) Supply (d) Manufacturing

11. is levied on Intra State Supply of Goods and/or Services in Union Territory.

(a) SGST (b) IGST

(c) UTGST (d) GST is not levied

9. is levied on Intra-State Supply of goods and/or Services.

(a) CGST (b) SGST

(c) IGST

(d) Both a & b

10. is levied on Inter State Supply of Goods and/or Services. (a) CGST

(b) SGST (c) IGST

(d) Both a & b *******

MARKETING OF NON PROFIT ORGANIZATION

1. The main objective of _________ is to provide the besT possible services

with the given resources and the managerial decision.

A. Non Government Organisation

B. Non Corporation organization

C. Public organization

D. Government organization

2. _________ NGOs arise out of people's own initiatives.

A. Social

B. Regional

C. Communal

D. City wide

3. _________ does involves senior team members and the board members

of the organization.

A. HRM planning

B. Strategic planning

C. Organizing

D. Marketing

4. Every _____________ is part of a larger community, a citizen of society.

A. Non Government Organisation

B. Non Corporation organization

C. Public organization

D. Government organization

5. ___________ is integral part, it helps in building a new service or

campaign or fundraising product.

A. Marketing Mix

B. Place

C. Cost management

D. Budgeting

6. _________ is a process where future income and expenditure are decided

in order to re-organize the expenditure process.

A. Positioning

B. Budgeting

C. Processing

D. Listing

7. The additional "P" for Non profit organization include ___________.

A. Philosophy

B. Physical evidence

C. People

D. Product

8. Cost management technique does not include ________.

A. Time management

B. Inventory management

C. Promotion

D. Outsourcing

9. ___________ methods helps in reorganization of the business by using

latest technology.

A. Time management

B. Inventory management

C. Capitalize on technology

D. Outsourcing

10. ________ is the combination of socially beneficial programs and

practices into corporation's business model and culture.

A. CSR

B. HSR

C. PSR

D. NSR

********

Wilson College

IT Department

Sample Questions: MScIT Sem 4 regular

Artificial Intelligence

1.Intelligence is a quick and accurate response to a

____________________.

a.Stimulus b.object c.reasoning d.logic

2.Two domains of knowledge philosophy and _________________.

a.Science b.psychology

temporal

c.data d.spatial data

3.Notation for heuristic function is a.f(n) b.h(n) c.n(f) d.n(h)

4.Which algorithm will work backward from the goal to solve a problem?

a.Forward

chaining

b.Backward

chaining

c.Hill-climb

algorithm d.Breadth first

5.Which is not a Connectives in First Order Logic?

a.and b.not c.or d.since

6.Which of this is a blind search algorithm

a.Breadth first search b.A*

c.Hill-climb algorithm d.best first

7.Which of this is not a blind search algorithm

a.Depth first b.breadth first c.A*

d.iterative

deepening

8.How many logical connectives are there in artificial intelligence? a.2 b.3 c.4 d.5

9.Which quantifier symbolises there exist a.existential

quanitified

b.universally

quantified c.quantified

d.partially

quantified

10.Which quantifier symbolises for all

a.existential

quanitified

b.universally

quantified c.quantified

d.partially

quantified

Cloud Management

1.Google cloud beongs to which type

a. Public

b. Private

c. Hybrid

d. Community

2.Lost work hours are indirect indicator of

a. Lost cost

b. Lost revenue

c. Lost asset

d. Lost access

3.What are the two types of outages

a. Business-important and business-foundation

b. Big and small

c. Direct and Indirect

d. Major and Minor

4.Characteristic of system to protect or recover from minor outages with

automated means is called

a. Disaster recovery

b. Fault tolerance

c. High Availability

d. Reliability

5.Availabity = ?????/?????+downtime ????? represents

a. repair time

b. uptime

c. MTBF

d. MTTR

6. RTO stands for

a. Resilient Time Objective

b. Robust Time Objective

c. Recovery Time Objective

d. Reliable Time Objective

7. Risk analysis of spiral model identify which scenarios

a. Failure

b. Fault

c. Bug

d. Error

8. With state synchronization the states between which 2 systems are

synchronized

a. Primary and Storage system

b. Primary and Disaster recovery system

c. Secondary and Disaster recovery system

d. Secondary and Storage system

9. How many different categories of system are there

a. 3

b. 4

c. 5

d. 6

10._____________ is the measurement of fault avoidance

a. Reliability

b. Availability

c. Serviceability

d. High Availabity

Computer Forensic

1. An argument for including computer forensic training computer

security specialists is:

a. It provides an additional credential.

b. It provides them with the tools to conduct their own

investigations.

c. It teaches them when it is time to call in law

enforcement.

d. It provides enforcement.

2. Computers can play the following roles in a crime:

a. Target, object, and subject

b. Evidence, instrumentality, contraband, or fruit of crime

c. Object, evidence, and tool

d. Symbol, instrumentality, and source of evidence

3.The first US law to address

computer crime was:

a. Computer Fraud and

Abuse Act (CFAA)

b. Florida Computer Crime Act

c. Computer Abuse Act

d. Abuse Act

4.The following specializations exist in digital investigations:

a.First responder

b.Forensic examiner

c.Digital investigator

d. Second examiner

5.The first tool for making forensic copies of computer storage

media was:

a.EnCase

b.Expert Witness

c.dd

d.Safeback

6.One of the most common approaches to validating forensic

software is to:

a.Examine the source code

b.Ask others if the software is reliable

c.Compare results of multiple tools for discrepancies

d.Computer forensic tool testing projects

7.An instrumentality of a crime is:

a.An instrument used to commit a crime

b.A weapon or tool designed to commit a crime

c.Anything that plays a significant role in a crime

d.Aln instrument

8.Having a member of the search team trained to handle digital

evidence:

a. Can reduce the number of people who handle the evidence

b. Can serve to streamline the presentation of the case

c. Can reduce the opportunity for opposing counsel to

impugn the integrity of the evidence

d. Can reduce analysis

9.An attorney asking a digital investigator to find evidence

supporting a particular line of inquiry is an example of:

a.Influencing the examiner

b.Due diligence

c.Quid pro quo

d.Voir dire

10.A digital investigator pursuing a line of investigation in a

case because that line of investigation proved successful

in two previous cases is an example of:

a.Logical reasoning

b.Common sense

c.Preconceived theory

d.Investigator’s intuition

IT infrastructure management

Q1. __________ takes into account IT services, hardware &

software, budgets, tools.

a. Partners/Suppliers Perspective

b. People Perspective

c. Products/Technology Perspective

d. Process Perspective

Q2. ______________ relates the end-to-end delivery of service

based on process flows





Q3. ___________________ takes into account the importance of

Partner and External Supplier relationships and how they

contribute to Service Delivery.





Q4. _________________ concerned with the “soft” side – IT

staff, customers and other stakeholders.





Q5. A _________ is a means of delivering value to customers by

facilitating outcomes customers want to achieve without the

ownership of specific costs and risks.

a. Seva

b. Service

c. Help

d. Maintenance

Q6. ITIL stands for the_________________.

a. Internet Technology Infrastructure Library

b. Information Technology in Load

c. Internet Technology Infrastructure Load

d. Information Technology Infrastructure Library

Q7. The _________________ process is concerned with the

development of service concepts in preparation for selection of

services to be provided.

a. Service Strategy

b. Service Design

c. Service Transition

d. Service Operation

Q8. __________can be defined as a structured set of coordinated

activities designed to produce an outcome and provide value to

customers or stakeholders.

a. Procedure

b. Processes

c. Function

d. Method

Q9. ____________________is the person responsible for

ensuring that the process is fit for the desired purpose and is

accountable for the output of that process.

a. Process owner

b. Service owner

c. Process Manager

d. Internal Service provider

Q10. _____________ Is the person responsible for the operational

management of a process

a. Process owner

b. Service owner

c. Process Manager

d. Internal Service provider

Wilson College

IT Department

Sample Questions: TYIT Sem 6 Regular

Software Project Management

1.Concept of "Total Quality" was created in ______.

A. Japan

B. US

C. UK

D. South Korea

2. Quality can be defined as Conformance to _________.

A. Specification

B. Market

C. Developer

D. Company

3. Quality can be recongnized but not defined. This is called as the _________

view of quality.

A. Transcendental

B. User

C. Product

D. Manufacturing

4."Quality is fitness for purpose". This is called as the ______

view of quality.

A. Product

B. User

C. Transcendental

D. Manufacturing

5.When Quality depends on the amount which the customer is

willing to pay, it is called as _____.

A. User

B. Manufacturing

C. Value

D. Product

6.The cost which arises from the efforts to prevent defects is

called as ________.

A. Appraisal cost

B. Prevention cost

C. Failure cost

D. Miscellaneous cost

7.“One defect hides another defect” is termed as ?

A. Camouflage Effect

B. Cascading Effect

C. Coverage Effect

D. Redundant Code

8.Which of the following is not included in failure costs?

A. Rework

B. repair

C. failure mode analysis

D. Analysis

9.Which of the following is not included in External failure

costs?

A. Testing

B. help line support

C. warranty work

D. complaint resolution

10.Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA?

A. inter-process inspection

B. maintenance

C. quality planning

D. testing

BUSINESS INTELLIGENCE

1. _________ is the outcome of extraction and processing

activities carried out on data?

A. Knowledge

B. Information

C. Data

D. Raw Data

2. Which of the following is not a component of business

intelligence analysis cycle?

A. Analysis

B. Insight

C. Decision

D. Design

3. What is a model ______?

A. A selective abstraction of real world

B. A selective imagination of 1st world

C. A selective proposal of real world

D. A selective example of second word

4. Which model observes the status of a system only at

the beginning or at the end of discrete intervals?

A. Discrete-time dynamic models

B. Static-time dynamic models

C. Symbolic -time dynamic models

D. Iconic-time dynamic models

5. Divisive methods are ______ techniques.

A. Top-Down

B. Left-Right

C. Right-Left

D. Bottom-Up

6. Which is not an evaluation technique for classification

model?

A. Cross validation

B. ROC curve

C. Confusion matrix

D. Regression

7. In Customer lifetime value graph ____ & ____are

represented in axis?

A. Time & Profit

B. Budget & Profit

C. Losses & Budget

D. Time & Budget

8. is the optimization formula

used in____________?

A. Calls planning

B. production planning

C. Price planning

D. Revenue planning

9. First basic step for knowledge management process

is__________?

A. summarizing information

B. Data collection

C. Data analysis

D. Data classification

10. Artificial intelligence is a study and design of________?

A. Operations Research

B. Intelligent Agents

C. Neuroscience

D. Control Theory

Security In Computing

1. As a first step towards protecting its information assets, a business should

undertake an Enterprise-wide Risk Assessment with an emphasis on:

a)IR b)CMR c)CMA d) SFG

2. Meaning of ALE:

a)Annualized Loss Expectancy b) Automatic Loss Expense

c)Annual Loss Expense d) Analysis

3. The 3 D’s of security:

a)Defense, Deterrence,Detection b)Defence,Detect,Determine

c)Detection,Defence,Deterence d) Detection

4. Alternate name for transitive security:

a)equipment b) equivalent c)transfer d)transmit

5. Virus spreading through multiple ways:

a)Polimorphic b)Multipartite c)Overwrite d) Overread

6. Alternate name for Cavity Viruses:

a)Resident b) Macro c)Spacefiller d) Micro

7. ------------- virus implants itself in the memory of a computer.

a)Direct action b)Overwrite c)Resident d) Mini

8. ----------- is a standalone malware.

a)Bot b) Rootkit c)Worms d) Roolbot

9. Chat channels become the main target.

a)Internet worms b)IRC Worms c)email worms d) email

10. --------------- can be employed by cyber-thieves and hackers:

a)Trojans b)Worms c)Viruses d) IRC

Principles of Geographic Information

1.Which system is designed to capture, store ,manipulate, analyse, manage and

present spatial or geographic data

A. Satellite

B. WEB

C. Database

D. GIS

2.What are the two abstractions of Real Objects in GIS

A. Discrete, continuous

B. Integer, float

C. Char, String

D. CLOB,BLOB

3.GIS stands for

A. Generic Information System

B. Geographic Information System

C. Geological Information System

D. Geographic Information Sharing

4.GIS deals with which kind of data

A. Numeric data

B. Binary data

C. Spatial Data

D. Complex data

5.By spatial data we mean data that has

A. Complex values

B. Positional values

C. Graphic values

D. Decimal values

6.Which of the following is related to GIS

A. Euclidean Space

B. Ramanujan Space

C. Pythogorian Space

D. Einstein space

7.Among the following which do not come under the components of GIS?

A. Hardware

B. Software

C. Data

D. Compiler

8.Which talks about scientific discipline of study in academia

A. GIScience

B. GPS

C. Computer Science

D. Data Science

9.which are the two types of spatial data

A. Integer,Char

B. float,string

C. BLOB,CLOB

D. Raw,Dervied

10.Which one of the following is not functional component of GIS?

A. Data analysis

B. Data capture

C. Data hiding

D. Data storage

Cyber Laws

1.In march 1999, which virus caused an estimated damage to US $80 million

paralyzing email system

A. CD universe

B. Melissa

C. Slammer

D. Nesses

2. Which of the following is not a type of cyber-crime?

A. Data theft

B. Forgery

C. Damage to data and systems

D. installing antivirus for protection

3. According to the IT Act, 2008 is a person who sends, generates, stores or

transmits any electronic message to be sent, generated, stored or transmitted to any

other person and does not include an Intermediary is known as

A. Originator

B. Addressee

C. Agent

D. Leader

4. “invitation to treat” is one types of a

A. Agreement

B. Contract

C. Deal

D. Offer

5. EULA stands for?

A. End-user Loyalty Agreement

B. End-user Agreement

C. End-License Agreement

D. End-user License Agreement

6. UDRP stands for

A. Uniform Dispute Resolution Policy

B. Name Resolution Policy

C. Uniform Domain Name Dispute Resolution Policy

D. Unique Domain Name Dispute Resolution Policy

7. Who administer UDRP?

A. WTO

B. WIPO

C. Supreme Court

D. High court

8. OECD stands for_________

A. Organisation for Economic Corporation Development

B. Organisation for Economic Developmental

C. Organisation and Educational Corporation

D. Organisation corporation

9. DTAA stands for _________

A. Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement

B. Data Taxation Avoidance Agreement

C. Double Taxed Agreement Act

D. Double Taxable Agreement Act

10. what is a meaning of deficiency.

A. default

B. inadequacy in the quality

C. changes in quality

D. changes in quantity

Wilson College

IT Department

Sample Questions: TYIT Sem 6 ATKT

Internet Technology

1.Why was the OSI model developed?

A. manufacturers disliked the TCP/IP protocol suite

B. the rate of data transfer was increasing exponentially

C. standards were needed to allow any two systems to communicate

D. None of the choices are correct

2.The _______ model shows how the network functions of a computer ought to be

organized.

A. CCITT

B. OSI

C. ISO

D. ANSI

3.The physical layer is concerned with the movement of _______ over the physical

medium.

A. Programs

B. Dialogs

C. Protocols

D. Bits

4.The OSI model consists of _______ layers.

A. Three

B. Five

C. Seven

D. eight

5.In the OSI model, as a data packet moves from the lower to the upper layers, headers are

A. added

B. removed

C. rearranged

D. modified

6. In the OSI model, when data is transmitted from device A to device B, the header from

A's layer 5 is read by B's _______ layer.

A. Physical

B. Transport

C. Session

D. Presentation

7.In the OSI model, which layer functions as a liaison between user support layers

and network support layers?

A. Physical

B. Transport

C. Session

D. Presentation

8.In the OSI model, which layer functions as a liaison between user support layers

and network support layers?

A. network layer

B. physical layer

C. transport layer

D. session layer

9. In the OSI model, what is the main function of the transport layer?

A. node-to-node delivery

B. process-to-process message delivery

C. Synchronization

D. updating and maintenance of routing tables

10.In the OSI model, encryption and decryption are functions of the ________ layer.

A. Transport

B. Session

C. Presentation

D. Application

Project Management

Q1) What are Requirements refined and analyzed to assess their clarity, completeness,

and_____

A. Consistency

B. Correctness

C. Concurrency

D. None of these

Q2) A software project that meets all the given objectives is a success of _________.

A. Project fundamental purpose

B. Project quality

C. Project requirement

D. Project management myth

Q3) ___________ is not an effective software project management focus..

A. people

B. product

C. process

D. popularity

Q4) What is the abbreviation of PM-CMM…

A. product management capability maturity model

B. process management capability maturity model

C. people management capability maturity model

D. project management capability maturity model

Q5) _________ is not a project manager’s activity.

A. project design

B. project management

C. project planning

D. project control

Q6) The __________ is not an approach to software cost estimation?

A. Analytical

B. Critical

C. Empirical

D. Heuristic

Q7) Which one of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?

A. Staff turnover

B. Testing

C. Product competition

D. Specification delays

Q8) What is the process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as

A. Project Management

B. Project Management Life Cycle

C. Manager life cycle

D. All of the mentioned

Q9) Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for_________.

A. customers

B. project manager

C. team

D. project

Q10) Which of the following is the sub-process of process improvement?

A. Process introduction

B. De-processification

C. Process analysis

D. Process distribution

Data Warehousing

1. is a subject-oriented, integrated, time-variant, nonvolatile collection of

data in support of management decisions.

A. Data Mining.

B. Data Warehousing.

C. Web Mining.

D. Text

Mining

2. The data Warehouse is .

A. read only.

B. write only.

C. read write only.

D. none.

3. Expansion for DSS in DW is .

A. Decision Support system.

B. Decision Single System.

C. Data Storable System.

D. Data Support

System.

4. The important aspect of the data warehouse environment is that data found within

the data warehouse is .

A. subject-oriented.

B. variant.

C. interface

D. Data

5. The time horizon in Data warehouse is usually .

A. 1-2 years.

B. 3-4years.

C. 5-6 years.

D. 5-10

years.

6. The data is stored, retrieved & updated in .

A. OLAP.

B. OLTP.

C. SMTP.

D. FTP.

7. describes the data contained in the data warehouse.

A. Relational data.

B. Operational data.

C. Metadata.

D. Informational

data.

8. predicts future trends & behaviors, allowing business managers to

make proactive, knowledge-driven decisions.

A. Data warehouse.

B. Data mining.

C. Datamarts.

D. Metadat

a.

9. is the heart of the warehouse.

A. Data mining database servers.

B. Data warehouse database servers.

C. Data mart database servers.

D. Relational data

base servers.

10. is the specialized data warehouse database.

A. Oracle.

B. DBZ.

C. Informix.

D. R

WILSON COLLEGE

SEM VI Sample Questions for TYBMM 2019-2020

Advertising and Marketing Research

1. Research Process is

A. Collection of Data

B. Irrelevant Data

C. Conceptual framework

D. Drawing conclusions

2. Literature review is

A. Recap of the study

B. Information

C. Evaluation of the research

D. Simple summary of the research

3. _____________ hypothesis contains only one variable thereby it is also called as

universal variate hypothesis.

A. Relational Hypothesis

B. Descriptive Hypothesis

C. Null Hypothesis

D. Directional Hypothesis

4. Advance plan of research is called as ____________.

A. Research process

B. Research design

C. Research proposal


5. Census comes under which research?

A. Causal

B. Exploratory

C. Descriptive

D. Preference

6. Causal research is used to ________

A. Describe marketing problems or situations

B. Quantify observations that produce insights unobtainable through other forms

of research

C. Find information at the outset in an unstructured way

D. Test hypotheses about cause-and-effect relationships

7. Simulation is a process of conducting experiments on a __________ model representing a

phenomenon.

A. Operating

B. Symbolic

C. Abstraction

D. Substitution

8. The ______ method collects the data from the same sample respondents at intervals either

by mail or by personal interview.

A. Panel

B. Personal

C. Preparatory

D. Introduction

9. Plagiarism is a ______ problem in research

A. Universal

B. Local

C. Unimportant

D. Fictional

10. Information of how buyers think about, use, or otherwise view brands, goods or services

within the context of their lives. There insights are typically derived through ethnographic

methods.

A. Consumer insight

B. Resonance test

C. Communication test

D. Concept test

Legal Environment and Advertising Ethics

1. An advertisement that focuses on employment is a part of

a. Controversial advertising

b. Social advertising

c. Subliminal advertising

d. Puffery

2. The Thumbs up advertisement which comes with a disclaimer pertains to

a. Advertising and children

b. Advertising and women

a. Advertising and senior citizens

b. Advertising and religious minorities

3. Portrayal of women in a derogatory manner is offensive under

a. Drugs and cosmetics act

b. Copyright Act

c. Patents and trademark act

d. Indecent representation of women act

4. Constitutional and Consumer laws are

a. Personal laws

b. Laws of the land

c. Laws pertaining to media

d. professional laws

5. ‘Can't Buy My Love: How Advertising Changes the Way We Think and Feel’ is book

written by

a. Thom Jones

b. Jean Kilbourne

c. Jane Trahey

d. Shirley Polykoff

6. For an ad campaign to be considered socially responsible, the advertising used in the

campaign must meet an ______________standard.

a. Attractive

b. Practical

c. Logical

d. Ethical

7. __________________manipulates us to buy things we do not need by playing on our

emotions.

a. Trade Exhibitions

b. Direct Marketing

c. Advertising

d. Public Relations

8. ______________ mark’s quality standards dictate that their diamonds must be at least 0.14

carats in size.

a. ISI Mark

b. HallMark

c. ForeverMARK

d. Woolmark

9. The Press Council is located at

a. New Delhi

b. Mumbai

c. Bangalore

d. Ahmedabad

10. The_____________ has been established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006,

which is a consolidating statute related to food safety and regulation in India.

a. FDA

b. FSSAI

c. BIS

d. CMMI

Financial Management for Marketing and Advertising

1. Quantity sold in previous year of Product X is 25,000 units and it increased by 20% in

next year; quantity sold next year =

A. 30,000

B. 27,500

C. 50,000

D. 20,000

2. The Current Assets are Rs.5,00,000 and Current Ratio is 2.5:1, then Current

Liabilities are

A. Rs.1,00,000

B. Rs.2,00,000

C. Rs.2,50,000

D. Rs.3,50,000

3. Cost of milk in an ice-cream is

A. Direct Material Cost

B. Indirect Material Cost

C. Direct Labour Cost


4. “Sales Commission” is classified as

A. Factory Cost

B. Selling Cost and Distribution Cost

C. Administration Cost

D. Perfect Cost

5. Which of these is not a loan capital?

A. Debentures

B. Term loans

C. Equity shares

D. Bank loan

6. Current assets does not includes

A. Debtors

B. Cash and bank

C. Stock

D. Creditors

7. enjoy voting rights

A. Preference shareholders

B. Equity shareholders

C. Debenture holders

D. Debt holders

8. is the costliest source of finance

A. Equity

B. Debentures

C. Term Loans

D. Preference shares

9. Purchase of long-term asset is decision.

A. Investing decision

B. Working capital management

C. Dividend policy decision

D. Financing decision

10. High current ratio indicates

A. High solvency

B. Less liquidity

C. High liquidity

D. Less Efficiency

Agency Management

1. Companies turn to an advertising agency to develop an __________.

a) Advertisement policies

b) Advertising Strategies

c) Advertising Campaign.

d) Advertising investors

2. __________ Department is the link between the ad agency and its clients.

a) Media buying

b) Account service

c) Creative

d) Finance& Accounting

3. A _________ is the method and sequence of actions in the service performance.

a) Placement

b) Promotion

c) Process

d) Product

4. Which market coverage strategy in which company follows ‘one product-one

segment’ principle?

a) Differentiated Marketing

b) Undifferentiated Marketing

c) Concentrated Marketing

d) Segmented Marketing

5. ____________objectives should follow the same rules as the sales objectives, and be

measurable, quantifiable and time specific.

a) Advertising

b) Marketing

c) Media planning

d) Media buying

6. ______________ is performed on a non-linear editing system (NLE)

a) Video editing

b) Sound editing

c) Exporting

d) Content editing

7. ___________storyboards are a series of pencil or ink drawings that help to visualize

the video before filming begins

a) Secondary

b) Traditional

c) Primary

d) Animated

8. Adding visual effects mainly is a ___________ production process.

a) Pre

b) Post

c) Video

d) Sound

9. Which step of AIDA Model persuades the audience to make a purchase

a) Attention

b) Action

c) Desire

d) Interest

10. Market Study is _______

a) study of financial demand of the project

b) of project in terms of proximity from raw material & market place, infrastructure

facility, law & order situation in the locality

c) it involves the study of market in terms of future demands, Current market scenario &

Market practices

d) study of human resources required for the project

The Principles & Practices of Direct Marketing

1. For the year 2015 sales is 250000, marketing Cost is 75000 then the contribution will

be.

a. 100000

b. 176000

c. 175000

d. 200000

2. The rate of interest on loan is been calculated on the years for calculating the life

time value of the customer

a. Present

b. Past

c. Middle

d. All the years

3. It identifies a company, a brand, a business to a customer.

a. Banner Advertising

b. Homepage

c. Internet tools

d. Pop-ups

4. The strongest aspect of Customer Relationship Management is that it is:

a) Very Cost effective and productive

b) Does not deal with customer experience

c) Is less effective and non-productive

d) Time consuming and Costly

5. A process to retain the existing customer & not let him diverge.

a. Customer Need

b. Customer Response

c. Customer Loyalty

d. Customer retention

6. It describes media viewing habits & media preferences of consumers.

a. Geographic

b. Culture

c. Media Graphics

d. Strategy

7. They are sent to consumers at home giving information about various products.

a. Business-to-business catalogues

b. Consumer Catalogues

c. Email Marketing

d. Kiosk Marketing

8. Selling by using Psychological rather than economic inducement to attract & retain

customers.

a. CRM

b. IMC

c. Relationship Marketing

d. Kiosk Marketing

9. It is a modern marketing technique.

a. Pay Per Click Advertising

b. Television

c. Trade Shows

d. Print

10. NDNC register is used to curb.

a. Unsolicited Commercial Communication

b. Media planning

c. Advertising

d. Unsolicited Applications

Contemporary Issues

1. The primary role of UDHR is to provide:

A. Freedom of action

B. Mutual respect

C. Human rights which encourage freedom of speech and expression

D. Mutual support and encouragement

2. Narmada Bachao Andolan, 1985 was initiated by:

A. Medha Patkar

B. Megha Soni

C. Megan Fox

D. Medha Shailaja Payekar

3. CEDAW can make a difference to women by supporting them for rights of

A. Right to vote and Right to education

B. Right to seek justice

C. Right to participate in Lok Sabha

D. Right to participate in other political wings.

4. HIPPO stands for conservation of

A. hippopotamus

B. Crocodiles

C. Snakes

D. Endangered species

5. POCSO stands for

A. Protection of children from sexual offences

B. Protection of children from slave offences

C. Protection of children from serious offences

D. Protection of children

6. Ozone depletion means

A. Thinning of earth’s layer

B. Evaporation of earth’s layer

C. Thickening of earth’s layer

D. Double formation of earth’s layer

7. Right to development means

A. The right to access wellbeing of an individual

B. The right to be violent for your well being

C. The right to seek justice

D. The right to understand society

8. The World Environment day is celebrated on

A. 5th May

B. 5th June

C. 18th July

D. 16th August

9. When Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) was made?

A. 10th December 1948

B. 8th August 1956

C. 20th June 1950

D. 10th November 1942

10. Sexual Harassment at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013

mandates every organization to have a committee to redress sexual harassment complaints

filed by women employees. The committee is called

A. Women’s Cell

B. Internal Complaints Committee

C. Local Complaints Committee

D. Local civil society

Digital Media

1. What is the name of Facebook's analytic page?

a) Princeps

b) Viewership

c) Discover

d) Insights

2. There has been tremendous increase in the number of Internet user since ____, the so

called "year of Internet".

a) 1992

b) 1995

c) 1994

d) 1996

3. What does SERP stand for?

a) Search Entry Rating Procedure

b) Search Engine Result Page

c) Search engine result procedure

d) Semi Engine Result Page

4. SEO is to improve the volume and……………..to a website from search engines

a) Look

b) Quality of traffic

c) Feel

d) Colour

5. Google was founded in which year?

a) 4th September 1998

b) 9th September 1985

c) 4th September 1989

d) 6th September 1995

6. Maximum Tweet length is _________

a) 40 characters

b) 180 characters

c) 240 characters

d) 280 characters

7. URL stands for ________

a) unique reference label

b) uniform reference label

c) uniform resource locator

d) unique resource locator

8.8

8. The 4Ps of digital marketing as defined by Philip Kottler are:

a) Price, Product, Place, and Promotion

b) Price, Performance, Place, and Promotion

c) Price, Product, Place, and Positioning

d) PR, Product, Place, and Person

9. What’s the one platform that doesn’t use hashtags?

a) Facebook

b) Instagram

c) Snap chat

d) Twitter

10. _________prevent or reduce large Scale damage from cybercriminal activities by

protecting information.

a) Industrial law

b) Business law

c) Cyber law

d) General law

Press Laws and Ethics

1. Section 153A is ____.

a. Promoting enmity between different groups on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, etc.

b. Sedition

c. Defamation

d. Freedom of Speech and Expression

2. Section 499 is ____.

a. Publication of names of victims of sexual crimes

b. Defamation (libel and slander)

c. Publication of names of victims of sexual crimes

d. Keeping Lottery Office

3. In which year was the Indian Penal Code passed into law?

a. 1947

b. 1957

c. 1860

d. 1973

4. The Supreme Court of India had its inaugural sitting on ____.

a. 15th August 1947

b. 26th January 1947

c. 26th January 1950

d. 15th August 1950

5. Section 66A and 69 were introduced to the IT Act in the year ____.

a. 2000

b. 2008

c. 2010

d. 2020

6. What is the penalty under Section 66D of the IT Act?

a. Imprisonment up to three years, or/and with fine up to INR 1,00,000

b. Imprisonment up to three years, or/and with fine up to INR 2,00,000

c. Imprisonment up to three years, or/and with fine up to INR 5,00,000

d. Imprisonment up to three years, with fine

7. Which of the following Acts enforces the exclusive legal right of a person to reproduce,

publish and sell a matter and form of a literary, musical or artistic creative work?

a. Right to Privacy

b. IT Act

c. Copyright Act

d. Right to Information

8. What legal term describes “an act of authority (usually a judge) taken without formal

prompting from another party”?

a. Suo motu

b. Habeas corpus

c. estoppel

d. warrant

9. How many PCI members are included from the Lok Sabha?

a. One

b. Two

c. Three

4. Four

10. What is Section 67 of the IT Act?

a. Publishing information which is obscene in electronic form

b. Publishing images containing sexual acts

c. Publishing child porn or predating children online

d. Failure to maintain records

Broadcast Journalism

1.Which of these is the sister service of Prasar Bharati’s Doordarshan?

A. Satellite Radio

B. Community Radio

C. FM Radio

D. All India Radio

2. Which of the following is not a media regulatory body in India?

A. Radio Regulatory Board of India

B. Advertising Standards Council of India

C. Press Council of India

D. Central Board of Film Certification

3. The journey of Indian television started as an experimental basis with a financial grant

from UNESCO in?

A. 1950

B. 1947

C. 1959

D. 1969

4. First private TV channel in Malayalam was?

A. Kairali

B. Surya

C. Asianet

D. India Vision

5. Term broadcasting refers to?

A. Airborne transmission of radio and TV waves

B. Various media technologies

C. A device which produce radio waves

D. Mobile

6. The key Narrator of a newscast or program is called?

A. Announcer

B. Anchor

C. Editor

D. Audience

7. When a reporter speaks over video in a news package, it is called a __________

A. Narration

B. Voiceover

C. Turnover

D. Handover

8. Which among the following is video editing software?

A. Final cut pro

B. Dream weaver

C. Photoshop

D. Pinterest

9. Which of the following is an example of new media?

A. Blog

B. Newspaper

C. FM radio

D. Television

10. Internet was first developed in which country ?

A. US

B. UK

C. Japan

D. Germany

Business & Magazine Journalism (Combination of Niche-I & II)

1. RBI has ____ regional offices and ____ Sub-offices

A. 19,9

B. 18,8

C. 17,9

D. 16,5

2. Who bears half of the price of subsidy allotted to underprivileged?

A. Government

B. Subsidy Association

C. Government Authorities

D. Non-Government Organisation

3. The Bombay Stock Exchange was established in

A. 1875

B. 1873

C. 1874

D. 1872

4. National Stock Exchange of India Limited (NSE) is located in

A. Delhi

B. Mumbai

C. Chennai

B. Kolkata

5. The Authority which issues currency

A. RBI

B. SEBI

C. State Government

D. Finance Ministry

6. The First Five Year plan of Planning Commission was launched in?

A. 1951

B. 1961

C. 1971

D. 1981

7. The Chairman of SEBI is nominated by

A. President of India

B. Union Government of India

C. Governor

D. Finance Minister

8. SEBI is authority which looks after

A. Banks

B. Stock Markets

C. Infrastructure

D. Finance

9. Who was the Prime Minister of India who brought the New Economic Policy in

1991?

A. Dr. Manmohan Singh

B. P V Narasimha Rao

C. Atal Bihari Vajpayee

D. Rajiv Gandhi

10. The allegations of _____ Scam rocked the Rajiv Gandhi Government.

A. Jeep Scam

B. Coal Scam

C. Bofors Scam

D. 2G Spectrum Scam

Issues of Global Media

1.The progress in global communication was facilitated by

a. Cables

b. Satellite

c. Nuclear energy

d. Wireless

2.Which countries get a greater salience in global media?

a. Asian

b. African

c. Western

d. Latin American

3. The NAM declaration on media issues was entitled

a. Media Report

b. World without Borders

c. Many Voices One World

d. Third World Enlightenment.

4. What is the full form of NWICO?

a. New World International Communication Order

b. National World International Connecting Order

c. New World Information and Communication Order

d. Neutral World Information and Communication Organisation

5. The headquarters of NANAP were located at

a. Rome

b. Belgrade

c. Djakarta

d. Singapore

6. CNN is owned by which group?

a. CBS Corporation

b. Time Warner

c. Walt Disney

d. MGM

7. Which of the following is considered a national newspaper in Japan?

a. Chunichi Shimbun

b. Asahi Shimbun

c. Iromoto Shimbun

d. Tareigati Shimbun

8. Which is the official Chinese TV Channel?

a. Mandarin Television

b. United China Television

c. China Central Television

d. National Peoples TV

9. The Kisha Kurabu is a unique feature of the media of which of these countries?

a. China

b. Malaysia

c. Afghanistan

d. Japan

10. The news agency pool formed by non aligned countries was named

a. ANI

b. Bloomberg

c. NANAP

d. Associated Press

News Media Management

1. A company that has its business in various sectors is called:

a) Print

b) Conglomerate

c) Trust

d) Ownership

2. A place where news is produced is called?

a) Newsroom

b) Newspaper

c) Office

d) Department

3. Who plays a vital role in making employees understand and following a company's

rules and authority?

a) Management

b) Editor

c) Director

d) Staff

4. Attracting new employees are working towards retaining them is the role of:

a) Editor

b) Manager

c) Leader

d) HR

5. Economic Liberalization in India led to:

a) Pandemic

b) Exploitation

c) Globalization

d) Corruption

6. The method of rating television shows is termed as:

a) RRP

b) TRP

c) Readership Survey

d) Viewership

7. Eenadu is a part of:

a) Times Group

b) Zee Group

c) Star Group

d) Ramoji Group

8. Sky Network is now called:

a) Star Network

b) Times Group

c) Zee Network

d) Sony Netwok

9. IBN- Lokmat is part of which network?

a) CNN

b) BBC

c) Network 18

d) Star Network

10. Which department looks after the distribution of newspapers?

a) Circulation Department

b) Dispatch Department

c) Advertising Department

d) HR Department

B. 40% C. 20% B. 35000 C. 20000 · Sub - SAPM 1. _____ activity is indulged into not for returns...

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