Assistant District Public Prosecution Officer -...
Transcript of Assistant District Public Prosecution Officer -...
-
Assistant District Public Prosecution Officer Law-1
(Final Model Answer Key)
Q.No: 1
By which amendment, the words "Secular"
and "Socialist" were inserted in the preamble
of the constitution of India?
'' '' ''''
:! " ?
A 40th Constitution Amendment
B 24th Constitution Amendment
C 42nd Constitution Amendment
D 44th Constitution Amendment
Q.No: 2
The Appropriate writ issued by the supreme
court to qusah the appointment of a person
from a public office is
% " " )+
+ ! . /
?
A Certiorari
B Mandamus
C Prohibition
D Quo-warranto -"
Q.No: 3 The jurisdiction of the supreme court of
India may be enlarged by :
% 2/
:
A The President of India %& '
B The Parliament by resolution ) '
C The Parliament by making law '
D The President in consultation with Chief Justice Of India
+ , - %& '
-
Q.No: 4 The Supreme court recognised the
transgender in which of the following case:
6 %
.8 " : :
A M.Nagraj V/s union of india .
B Indian legal Authority V/s union of
India , 7
C Keshvanand Bharti V/s State of kerala , 9
D S.R.Bommai V/s union of India . . ;
Q.No: 5 Which of the following case relates to
doctrine of Eclipse :
.8 %
. :
A Bhikhaji V/s state of M.P = 9
B Keshava Madav Menon V/s state of Bombay
; 9
C Union of india V/s Navin Jindal ,
D Sajjan Singh V/s State of Rajasthan 9 ? ?
Q.No: 6 Clause (5) of Article 15 was inserted in
constitution of india by:
% 15 = (5) "
:
A Constitution 1st Amendment Act
B Constitution 7th Amendment Act B
C Constitution 17th Amendment Act C
D Constitution 93rd Amendment Act
Q.No: 7
In which of the following case, the Supreme
court held that the 'preamble' is not a part of
the constitution
.8 " %
8@ " " ''
:
A Re Berubari case D
B Golak Nath V/s State of punjab 9
C Keshvanand Bharti V/s state of kerala , 9
D All are correct )
-
Q.No: 8
"Which cannot be done directly, cannot be
done indirectly". This statement is related to
which of the doctrine:
'' AB C " , AB
C " '' - +)
" 2 :
A The Colourable legistation
B The Pith and Substance
C The Harmonious Construction
D The Doctrine of Eclipse "
Q.No: 9
The Concept of fundamental duties is derived
in Indian Constribution from the Constitution
of :
D
:
A U.S.S.R . . . .
B U.S.A . . .
C Ireland I
D Germany -
Q.No: 10
Article 15(4A) was inserted in Indian
Constitution by which of the following
Constitution Amendment Act:
% 15(4) :!
" :
A 26th J '
B 27th (27) '
C 77th (77) '
D None of these is correct
Question Deleted
Q.No: 11 Who among the following holds office during
the pleasure of the President of India :
.8 E6
A@ :
A Election Commissioner of India - K
B Governor of States 9L 9
-
C Judge of the Supreme Court " , ,
D Speaker of the Lok Sabha =M
Q.No: 12 Article 217 of the Constitution of India
relates to : % 217 2 :
A Ordinance making power = N K
B Election Commission -
C Appointment of Judge of the High Courts
" ,L N K
D High Courts to be Court of Record " , , D P
Q.No: 13 Who among the following is not appointed
by the President of India : .8 E6 + :
A Attorney General of India ,
B Advocate General of State 9 K
C Chairman of U.P.S.C = M
D Judge of the High Court " , ,
Q.No: 14 A bill is money bill or not, who decides : , @
?
A President %&
B Speaker of the Lok Sabha =M
C Prime minister C
D Finance minister C
Q.No: 15
Which Article of the constitution of India
relates to appointment of members of public
Service Commission:
%
!G + 2 :
A Article 315 " 315
B Article 316 " 316
C Article 317 " 317
-
D Article 318 " 318
Q.No: 16 Article 301 of the constitution is related to: % 301 2 :
A Rights to Property ;
B Rights of Civil Servants 7 L
C Money Bill
D Freedom of Inter- State Trade ,-9 R N ?C
Q.No: 17 Inter-State Council is established under
which of the following Article
" % @
@I / :
A Article 254 " 254
B Article 260 " 260
C Article 263 " 263
D Article 267 " 267
Q.No: 18 The case Lata Singh V. State of U.P relates
to which of the following : 2 :
A Right to go Abroad
B Right to Education M
C Right to Shelter S
D Right to Marriage
Q.No: 19 A promise to pay 'time barred debt' under
the contract act is:
2
:
A Not enforceable -
B Enforceable at the discretion of debtor N " -
C Enforceable -
D None of these is correct
-
Q.No: 20 A counter offer is: A A! :
A Invitation to an offer ? C
B Acceptance to offer ?
C Rejection of the offer ? N ?
D Conditional acceptance - ?
Q.No: 21 An agreement with a minor is void, hence: ! , : -
A Minor is never allowed to enforce such agreement
? -
B
Minor is allowed to enforce such agreement when other party makes no objection
? -
M
C Minor is always allowed to enforce such
agreement ? -
D None of these is correct
Q.No: 22 An agreement by fraud is: " :
A Void ,
B Voidable ,
C Illegal
D Immoral
Q.No: 23
When a person making a false statement
believing it to true and does not intend to
mislead the other party to the contract, it is
known as:
: )+ " )+) ,
)+)
Q , :
A Mistake
B Fraud
C Misrepresentation VR
D Undue influence
-
Q.No: 24 Coercion is provided under which the
following section of the Indian contract act:
A 2 .8
" 2 " :
A Section 14 14
B Section 15 15
C Section 16 16
D Section 17 17
Q.No: 25 Under Indian contract act acceptance of a
proposal must be:
2 A! !
: :
A Conditional or unconditional - - W
B Conditional but not absolute - , ,
C Unconditional and absolute W X - ,
D Unconditional and not absolute - W ,
Q.No: 26
'Voidable Contract' has been defined under
which of the following section of Indian
contract act:
2 '
' / " :
A Section 2(e) 2 ()
B Section 2(h) 2 ()
C Section 2(i) 2 ()
D Section 2(g) 2 ()
Q.No: 27 There may be contact without consideration
if: S A : :
A Agreement is in writing and registered [
B Parties to the agreement are in near relationship
M
C Agreement is made due to natural love
and affection ? X
D All are correct )
-
Q.No: 28 Mohri Bibi V.Dharmodas ghose case in
related to: 2 :
A Effecct of minor's agreement ?
B Effect of agreement by fraud N P X
C Effect of agreement without consideration
W
D None of these is correct
Q.No: 29 Which one of the following pairs does not
match: .8 W :
A Novation of the contract - Section 62 - 62
B Agreement in restraint of legal proceedings - Section 29
-\L P - 29
C Tender of performance - Section 38 N - 38
D Unlawful object and consideration - Section 23
] ^_ - 23
Q.No: 30 The Indian contract Act,1872 extends to - 2,1872 ! -
A The whole of india ;-
B The whole of india except the state of
Jammu & Kashmir ; _ 9 ;-
C
The whole of india except the state of Jammu & Kashmir, Nagaland And Sikkim
; _, K 9L
;-
D None of these is correct
Q.No: 31 Consent is said to be free when it is not
caused by:
. !X , .8
/ :
A Coercion
B Undue influence ;
C Fraud
D All are correct )
-
Q.No: 32
Where A contract contains a stipulation by
way of penalty on breach of contract, the
aggrieved party is entitled for
compensation:
, ! C
A , Y @ C
:
A Stipulated amount,if actual loss is proved
\ ? , N
B Stipulated amount, even actual loss is not proved
\ ? ,
N
C Reasonable amount but not more than stipulated amount
KK , N
D Reasonable amount, even more that of
stipulated amount if loss is proved KK , \ ?
N
Q.No: 33 Under a contract plea of Undue influence
may be raised:
" . .
:
A By beneficiary \ '
B By third party M '
C By stranger X '
D Only by the party whose consent was so caused
M ' N 7 N
Q.No: 34 Under Indian law consideration may be: 2 " @ A
: :
A Adequate -
B Equivalent t promise )
C Something having same value in eyes of law
N b% )
D All are correct )
Q.No: 35 Transfer of property Act, 1882 came into
force: . 2, 1882 ?
-
A 1st October,1882 1 K, 1882
B 1st July,1882 1 , 1882
C 15th July,1882 15 , 1882
D 1st September,1882 1 ;, 1882
Q.No: 36 For attestation how many Witnesses are
required: A " Z :
A One or more 1
B Two or more 2
C Three or more 3
D No number has been specified + \
Q.No: 37
Under the Act, 1882 which of the following
is not included within the term 'immoveable
property':
. 2, 1882 '!
.' . :
A Dilapidated house
B Growing Crops P
C Railway station ?
D Right to way ?
Q.No: 38
Improvements to mortgaged property is
provided in which following sections of T.P.
Act:
. .
2 " A :
A Section 63 63
B Section 63A 63
C Section 64 64
D Section 65 65
Q.No: 39 Which of the following does not come within
the ambit of 'living person' under T.P. Act:
. 2 @ .8
' )+' @ :
-
A Company ;
B Body of individuals RKL
C Idol -
D Association of individuals RKL
Q.No: 40 Which of the following property may be
transferred under T.P.Act:
. 2 .
/
A Public office
B A property which has not been
prohibited by law for transfer ; , ' -
C Pension ,
D Chance of succession ;R
Q.No: 41 Under section 7 of T.P.Act for transfer of
property it is not necessary that :
. 2 7 ,
. Z
" :
A In every circumstance the transferable property must be his own
P , ; ? N
B That person must be major RK ?
C That person must be sane RK ?_ ,
D That person must be competent to
contract R K P M
Q.No: 42
'A' transfers his property to 'B' with the
condition that 'B' shall never transfer this
property to anyone. The Transfer of
property is:
'' . '' @
" '' "
, . :
A Void ,
B Voidable ,
C Unlawful
D Lawful, but the condition is void , - ,
-
Q.No: 43
Under Section 17 of the T.P. Act regarding
accumulation of income of any property ,
the period from the date of the transfer is:
. 2 17
" .
2 :
A 18 Yrs 18 -
B 12 Yrs 12 -
C 10 Yrs 10 -
D 16 Yrs 16 -
Q.No: 44
'A' lets a farm to 'B' on condition that 'B'
shall walk a hundred miles in an hour. The
lease is:
'' '' [ @ "
= 100 [ -
A Unlawful
B Void ,
C Voidable ,
D Lawful, but condition is void , - ,
Q.No: 45
Transfer of property to an unborn person is
provided under which section of the T.P.
Act:
( ) )+
A . 2 " :
A Section 12 12
B Section 13 13
C Section 14 14
D Section 12 and 13 both 12 13 P
Q.No: 46
Under Section 30 of the T.P. Act, if the
ulterior disposition is not valid, the prior
disposition is:
. 2 30 :
) 2 @ )
:
A Affected by it
B Not affected by it
C Partly affected :
D Depends on the discretion of the count , -
-
Q.No: 47
Every transfer of immovable properly made
with intent to defeat or delay the creditors
of the transferor or transfer being a
fraudulent transfer, shall be :
! . G
"
, @ :
A Void ,
B Voidable ,
C Lawful
D Immoral
Q.No: 48 "Mesne profits" does not include : " : " @ . :
A
Profit which a person in wrongful possession of property has actually
received
; J RK
?: B
B
Profit which a person in wrongful possession of property might with due diligence have received
; J RK
B
C
Interest on the profits received by a person in wrongful possession of property
J RK ' B X
L J
D Improvement made by a person in wrongful possession of property
J RK ' N =
Q.No: 49 Which amongst the following is not a Civil
nature suit: .8 A :
A Suit relating to property ; ;
B Suit relating to marriage
C Suit relating to expulsion from caste % ;
D Suit relating to specific relief % ;,
Q.No: 50 In Which section of Civil procedure code
'Inter pleader suit' is given -
' ' A"] : "
: :
A Section 90 90
B Section 88 88
-
C Section 89 89
D Section 91 91
Q.No: 51 The principle of res judicata is not applicable
to which of the following :
A^ _ . " AI
:
A Suits L
B Execution of decree proceeding dN % -\L
C Arbitration proceeding =? -\L
D All are correct )
Q.No: 52 Which amongst the following is not a ground
for rejection of plant
. X "
A Where it does not disclose cause of action
X
B Where plaint filed in a court which is incompetent to try
C , P X
M
C Where the suit appears to be barred by law
C ' -
D Where it is not filed in duplicate C L P X
Q.No: 53 Written statement may be filed from the
date of summons within :
2 8 A!
:
A 30 days 30 \
B 45 days 45 \
C 60 days 60 \
D 120 days 120 \
Q.No: 54
Subsistence allowance to the judgment
debtor under C.P.C under which of the
following sections:
8@ 8G @ B ...
.8 " : :
A Section 56 56
-
B Section 57 57
C Section 58 58
D Section 60 60
Q.No: 55 If an indigent person succeeds in the suit
from whom the court fees will be realised :
: @ )+
D " :
A From the state 9
B From the opposite party
C From the subject matter of the suit N ?
D None of these is correct
Q.No: 56
When a second appeal under the Code Of
Civil Procedure 1908 before the High Court
may be preferred :
A"] : 1908 %
:
A On a substantial question of law X _
B On a substantial question of fact V X
C On a question of public policy _
D All are correct )
Q.No: 57 Caveat remains in force from the date of its
lodging: AB 2
A 30 days 30 \
B 45 days 45 \
C 60 days 60 \
D 90 days 90 \
Q.No: 58
Under the Code Of Civil Procedure 1908
language of subordinate courts is declared
by :
A"] : 1908 2! G
-
A Central Government ,e '
-
B State Government 9 '
C High Court of the state " , '
D Supreme Court " , '
Q.No: 59 A suit of a minor is instituted by ! ! " :
A Next friend C '
B Guardian M '
C Legal representative '
D Any one of them K P
Q.No: 60 Constructive Res judicata under the Code Of
Civil Procedure 1908 is provide under :
A"] : 1908 A` A
A " :
A Section 11 Explanation II 11 ?% 2
B Section 11 Explanation III 11 ?% 3
C Section 11 Explanation IV 11 ?% 4
D Section 11 Explanation V 11 ?% 5
Q.No: 61
If the plaintiff does not appear before the
court when the suit is called for hearing, the
suit will be -
:
, -
A Dismissed 7
B Heard ex-parte M N
C Rejected
D Returned \
Q.No: 62 In the Code Of Civil Procedure 1908
summary procedure is provided in -
`b A"] A"] : 1908 "
:
A Order 37 - 37
B Order 38 - 38
-
C Order 39 - 39
D Order 40 - 40
Q.No: 63
Under Order 16 of the Code Of Civil
Procedure 1908, which of the following has
been provided:
A"] : 1908 16
.8 " " :
A Summoning and attendance of
witnesses fML N
B Adjournment ?
C Hearing of the suit and examination of
witnesses N fML N M
D Affidavit C
Q.No: 64 When unnecessary persons are joined as
parties to the suit, it is called -
Z )+G
: :
A Non-joinder
B Mis-joinder
C Co-joinder
D Suit-joinder
Q.No: 65 If a person voluntarily participates in a sport
and receive grave injury, he has
: )+ !%@ A2
. -
A a claim in a torts for medical expenses but not for loss of income
P X - X
P
B a claim is torts for loss of earning capacity
N M P g
C no claim in torts because the injury was not willingly caused
P KLX
7 N
D no claim in torts because of the principal of "Volenti non fit injuria"
X L P M =
P
Q.No: 66 'A' gives lift in his car to 'B' for a specified '' '' Z )
-
destination and on the way due to
negligence of 'A' an accident is caused 'A'
has:
c S ! ''
@ '' -
A no responsibility towards 'B' ''
B no legal duty to take care of B's safety '' M
C a legal duty to take care of 'B' and is also liable for damages
''
- N =
D All are correct )
Q.No: 67 Tort in defined as a civil wrong for which
remedy is an action for:
B A 2 @ C
/ "
.8 @ ?
A Un liquidated damages _ -
B Liquidated damages _ -
C Un liquidated damages & Liquidated
damages _ - _ -
D No damages -
Q.No: 68
The exercise of ordinary rights for a lawful
purpose and in a lawful manner is no wrong
even if it causes damages. this is known as:
2@ Z 2 2@
A 2 @
.8
A Volenti non fit injuria , X ,7
B Injuria sine damno ,7
C Damnum sine injuria ,7
D Respondent superior 7?,, 7
Q.No: 69 'Respondent Superior' means: 'eE B' A
A Respondent is superior than plaintiff N P S%
B Master is superior ? S%
C Servant is not liable
-
D Master is vicariously liable ? D P
Q.N
o: 7
0
A
Codes:
:
B
Codes:
:
C
Codes:
:
D
Codes:
:
Q.No: 71
The principle of privacy of contract was hold
to be applicable to an action for tort in
which of the following cases:
" b B BG
", @ .8 "
: -
A Winterbottom V/s Wright
B Donoghue V/s Stevension ?,
C Grand V/s Australian Knitting Mills Ltd i ?& \ )
D Ashby V/s White R
-
Q.No: 72 Which of the following is not example of
vicarious liability
.8 A2 B
?
A Liability of the principal for the tort of
his agent
B Liability of partners for each others tort L
C Liability of the master for the tort of his servant
?
D Liability of the husband for the tort of his wife
Q.No: 73 Rule of absolute liability was propounded
by: @ B " A: " ?
A Justice Bhagavti , - S
B Justice Sodhi , - S
C Justice Ahmadi , - S
D Justice kuldeep Singh , - S
Q.No: 74
Which one of defense to strict liability is
based on the maximum, "volenti non fit
injuria"?
B G + ''
" /'' /
A Consent the plaintiff N
B Act of god _
C Act of third penty M
D Statutory Authority
Q.No: 75 The rule of 'absolute liability' was laid down
is which of the following case:
.8 " G " '@B'
A: "
A Ryland V. Fletcher I
B M.C. Mehta(Sriram food & fertilizer
company) vs Union of India
.. (S I k .)
C M.C. Mrehta (C.N.G. Fuel Case) vs Union
of India .. (...l )
-
D None of these is correct
Q.No: 76
In which one of the following cases the
supreme court of India gave the ruling that
sovereign immunity of the state is subject
to the fundamental right :
.8 G " %
A: " " I
AB . + 2
?
A Kasturilal ralia Ram Jain V/s State of U.P. ? 9
B State of rajasthan V/s Vidyawati ? 9 '
C People's union for democratic right V/s state of Bihar
) m\ n W
9
D Shyam sundar V/s State of rajasthan _ , ? 9
Q.No: 77 Last opportunity rule is associated with : . :
A Remoteness of damage M N -
B Volenti non fit injuria M , M
C Contributory Negligence M
D Negligence M
Q.No: 78 Liability in tort depends on: B B @
A Quantum of damage suffered N C
B Involvement of intention
C Infringement of legal right m
D Effect of public interest \
Q.No: 79 What is the exception to the principal "mens
rea"? '2 ' 2 X + ?
A Strict liability
B Use of force
C Assault m
-
D Deceit
Q.No: 80 Information technology Act, 2000 came into
enforce on - A2 2 2000,
A 1st September,2000 1 , 2000
B 1st October,2000 1 K , 2000
C 17th October,2000 17 K , 2000
D 17th September,2000 17 ; , 2000
Q.No: 81
Under which section of IT Act, 2000
"asymmetric crypto system" has been
defined:
A2 2 2000, "
" A" / "
A Section 2(1)(d) 2 (1)()
B Section 2(1)(e) 2 (1)()
C Section2(1)(f) 2 (1)()
D Section2(1)(g) 2 (1)()
Q.No: 82
The adjudicating officer under section 46 of
the IT Act, shall exercise jurisdiction to
adjudicate the matter in which claim of loss
does not exceed to -
A2 2 46
2@ 2 28@
2/ A
2
A Two crore Rupees 2 D
B Five crore Rupees 5 D
C Seven crore Rupees 7 D
D Eight crore Rupees 8 D
Q.No: 83
A person shall not be qualified for
appointment as a presiding officer of Cyber
Appellate Tribunal unless he is or has been
or is qualified to be:
2 2 C
+ )+ @
, @
A judge of the Supreme Court " , ,
B judge of the High Court " , ,
-
C judge of the District Court , ,
D None of these is correct
Q.No: 84 Which of the following case is related to
Information Technology Act:
.8 A2
2 .
A Lalita Kumari V/s U.P. state 9
B Lata Singh V/s U.P. state 9
C Charukhurana V/s union of India ]
D Shreya Singhal V/s union of India S
Q.No: 85
Which of the following Section of
information Technology Act relates to
authentication of electronic records:
+6 A .8
" .
A Section 3 3
B Section 4 4
C Section 5 5
D None of these is correct
Q.No: 86 Who will investigate offences under the
Information Technology Act :
A2 2 "
-
A Certifying Authority
B Controller of Certifying Authority 7L C
C Police officer not below the rank of inspector
M N K
D Deputy Superintendant of police M
Q.No: 87
Which of the following Section of IT Act has
been declared unconstitutional-by Supreme
court
A2 2 " %
"
A Section 66 A 66
-
B Section 65 A 65
C Section 66 66
D Section 70 A 70
Q.No: 88
Under the provisions of the Information
Technology Act 2000,whoever publishes are
transmits any material in the form of
electronic which contains sexually explicit
act or conduct shall be punished by which
sentence from the following on first
conviction
A2 2 2000 @
Z h +6 C A
A _ .
Y "
A imprisonment up to 3 years and fine up to Rs. 5 Lacs
3 - 5 D -
B imprisonment up to 2 years and fine up to Rs. 3 Lacs
2 - 3 D -
C imprisonment up to 1 year and fine up to Rs. 1 Lac
1 - 1 D -
D imprisonment up to 5 years and fine up to Rs. 3 Lacs or Both
5 - 3 D - ,
Question Deleted
Q.No: 89
Under the provisions of the Information
Technology Act2000, Offence of cyber
terrorism shall be punished by which
sentence from the following
A2 2 2000 @
" .
Y "
A Rigorous imprisonment of 10 years 10 -
B Simple imprisonment of 10 years and
fine up to Rs. 5Lacs 10 - 5 D -
C May extend to imprisonment for life
D Rigorous imprisonment of 7 years and
fine up to Rs. 3Lacs 7 - 3 D -
Q.No: 90
Under Section 12 of the Protection of
Women From Domestic violonce Act,2005,
Who may present an application -
: : 2, 2005
12 @ X A!
:
A Aggrieved person R RK
B Protection Officer M
-
C Any other person on behalf of the aggrieved person
R RK , RK
D All are correct )
Q.No: 91
The offence under section 32(1) of the
Protection of woman from Domestic violence
Act, 2005 shall be:
: : 2 2005
32(1) -
A Cognizable and non-bailable o
B Cognizable and bailable o
C Non-Cognizable and bailable o
D Non-Cognizable and non- bailable o
Q.No: 92
What Kinds of order may be passed by a
Magistrate in cases relating to domestic
violence in favour of aggrieved women and
against the respondent -
!6 : )2 :
ABi C_ .8
/ " :
A Protection order M
B Monetary order -
C Compensation order
D All are correct )
Q.No: 93
Under what provision of the protection of
woman from Domestic Violence Act, an
order for the temporary custody of Children
of the aggrieved person may be passed by
the magistrate:
: : 2
" A ) 2 )+ /
! !6 :
A Section 19 19
B Section 20 20
C Section 21 21
D Section 22 22
Q.No: 94
What is Penalty under the Protection of
woman for Domestic Violence Act for breach
of protection order by the respondent -
: : 2 @
ABi DD
-
! 2 :
A Imprisonment up to 1 year or with fine
up to 20,000/- or both.
- D -
B Imprisonment up to 6 months or with fine up to 10,000/- or both.
: D -
C Imprisonment up to 2 years or with fine up to 20,000/- or both.
- D -
D Imprisonment up to 1 year or with fine up to 10,000/- or both.
- D -
Q.No: 95
In which Section of the Protection of women
from Domestic Violence Act, protection has
been provided in case of proceeding taken
in good faith -
: : 2 "
j @ @:G
A " :
A Section 30 30
B Section 33 33
C Section 35 35
D Section 36 36
Q.No: 96 The Right to information is available to : 2 :
A Citizens only 7
B Citizens and non-citizens 7 - 7L
C All persons RKL
D All are correct )
Q.No: 97
Obligation of public authority has been
provided under which section of the Right to
information Act -
A2 _ 2
2 " :
A Section 4 4
B Section 5 5
C Section 8 8
D Section 9 9
-
Q.No: 98
State / Central public authority shall provide
information within which of the following
days after receipt of application :
I / k 2 Ab
. 8 :G :
A 15 days 15 \
B 30 days 30 \
C 45 days 45 \
D 60 days 60 \
Q.No: 99
The provision as to third party information
has been provided under which of the
following section of RTI, Act:
-)+ A 2
2 .8 " " :
A Section 6 6
B Section 9 9
C Section 10 10
D Section 11 11
Q.No: 100 Commissioner of the state information
Commission shall take oath before : I + -
A The President %& M
B The Chief justice of high court. " , + , M
C The Governor of the state. 9 9 M
D The Chief justice of India. + , M
Q.No: 101
Under which section the definition of a child
is given in the prohibition of child marriage
Act.2006
A 2, 2006 @
' " / "
A Sec-2(a) 2 ()
B Sec-3(a) 3 ()
C Sec-2(c) 2 ()
D Sec-3(c) 3 ()
-
Q.No: 102
Which section is related to the provisions
for the appointment of child marriage
prohibition officer under the Prohibition of
child marriage Act.2006.
A 2, 2006 "
@ A 2 +
A
A Sec-14 -14
B Sec-15 -15
C Sec-18 -18
D Sec-16 -16
Q.No: 103
Under Sec-13 of the Prohibition of child
marriage Act-2006 who may issue injection
order:-
A 2 2006 -13
@
A District Court ,
B High Court " ,
C First class judicial magistrate of
Metropolitan magistrate - , ?& ?&
D None of these is correct
Q.No: 104
The powers and duties of the prohibition
officer of the child marriage are defined
under which section of the Prohibition of
child marriage Act.2006
A 2 + @)
A 2,2006 "
8@
A Sec-19 -19
B Sec-16 -16
C Sec-20 -20
D Sec-17 -17
Q.No: 105
Under the Prohibition of child marriage
Act.2006 in which section provided that no
woman shall be punishable with
imprisonment -
A 2, 2006 "
: A
A Sec-14 -14
B Sec-11 -11
-
C Sec-15 -15
D Sec-17 -17
Q.No: 106
Under Young persons (Harmful publication)
Act.1956, What shall be the age of young
person.
D )+ ( A) 2,
1956 @ D )+ +
A Under the age of 16 years 16 -
B Under the age of 20 years 20 -
C Under the age of 18 years 18 -
D Under the age of 21 years 21 -
Q.No: 107
Under The Young persons (Harmful
publication ) Act.1956, in which section
definition of the "harmful publication" is
given
D )+ ( A) 2
1956, " " A"
/
A Sec-3(a) -3 ()
B Sec-4(a) -4 ()
C Sec-2(a) -2 ()
D Sec-2(d) -2 ()
Q.No: 108
Under the Young persons (Harmful
publications) Act.1956, in which section
power to seize and destroy harmful
publication is described
D )+ ( A) 2
1956, " AG
h: E + 8@
A Sec-6 -6
B Sec-5 -5
C Sec-7 -7
D Sec-8 -8
Q.No: 109
Under the Young persons (Harmful
Publication). Act, 1956 in which section
penalty for sale of harmful publication
provided is priscribed.
D )+ ( A) 2
1956, " A ]
: ! D 8l -
-
A Sec-4 -4
B Sec-5 -5
C Sec-3 -3
D Sec-7 -7
Q.No: 110
Under the Young persons(Harmful
Publication) Act, 1956 in which section
government has power is to declared
harmful publication forfeited -
D )+ ( A) 2
1956, " @
A m +
A Sec-3 -3
B Sec-5 -5
C Sec-6 -6
D Sec-4 -4
Q.No: 111
Under the protection of children from
sexual offences Act, 2012 the trial before
special court shall be governed by -
2 G G 2-2012
@ @: "
2 @
A Civil Procedure Code Xm \
B Criminal Procedure Code I Xm \
C Special Provisions
D None of these is correct
Q.No: 112
Under the Protection of children from
sexual offences Act, 2012 who will conduct
the cases before the Special Court:-
2 G G 2-2012
@ @:G
A District prosecution officer
B Government pleader N K
C Special public prosecutor
D Additional district public prosecutor 7K
-
Q.No: 113
Under the Protection of children from
sexual offences Act, 2012 the special court
shall complete the trial as for as possible
within a period from taking cognizance of
the offence.
2 G G 2 2012
@ n
" :G @ A
A 6 months 6
B 9 months 9
C 2 years 2 -
D 1 year 1 -
Q.No: 114
Under the Provision of Protection of
children fron Sexual offences Act 2012,
whoever commits sexual harassment upon
a child shall be punished with imprisonment
for
2 G G 2-2012
@ " 2 B
" 2
A 1 year and fine 1 - -
B 3 years and fine 3 - -
C 5 years and fine 5 - -
D 7 years and fine 7 - -
Q.No: 115
Under the Protection of children from
sexual offence Act, 2012 in which section
the sexual Harassment defined:-
2 G G 2-2012
@ " 2 B /
"
A Sec-2 -2
B Sec-5 -5
C Sec-9 -9
D Sec-11 -11
Q.No: 116
Under the Protection of children from
sexual offences Act, 2012 in which section
abetment of commit an offences is
punishable.
2 G G 2-2012
@ " EA @/
A Sec-14 -14
B Sec-17 -17
-
C Sec-19 -19
D Sec-16 -16
Q.No: 117
Protection of children from sexual offences
Act, 2012 under which section a child have
a right to take assistance of legal
practitioner
2 G G 2 2012
@ " G 2 )
2 :
A Sec-41 -41
B Sec-39 -39
C Sec-43 -43
D Sec-40 -40
Q.No: 118
Under the Protection of children from
sexual offences Act, 2012 in which section
procedure provided for recording of
statement of child.
2 G G 2 2012
@ 8 "
@ "
A Sec-22 -22
B Sec-24 -24
C Sec-26 -26
D Sec-28 -28
Q.No: 119
Under the Protection of children from
sexual offences Act 2012 Punishment for
"False Complaint" of "false Information" is
provided under
2 G G 2 2012
" @ ''o /'' ''o
'' = @/
A Sec-22 -22
B Sec-21 -21
C Sec-24 -24
D Sec-25 -25
Q.No: 120
In which section punishment for attempt to
commit an offences is prescribed under the
Protection of children from sexual offences
Act, 2012.
2 G G 2 2012
" @ " /
A = @/
-
A Sec-18 -18
B Sec-16 -16
C Sec-19 -19
D Sec-15 -15
Q.No: 121
Under the Immoral Traffic(prevention) Act,
1956, in which section the definition of
brothel is given -
) () 2 1956, "
Z / "
A Sec-3 -3
B Sec-2 -2
C Sec-3(1) -3 (1)
D Sec-2(a) -2 ()
Q.No: 122
Which section of the Immoral
Traffic(prevention) Act, 1956, provides
provision for closer of brothel and eviction
of offenders from the premises.
) () 2 1956, "
Z G "
2G " A
A Sec-17 -17
B Sec-15 -15
C Sec-18 -18
D Sec-20 -20
Q.No: 123
Which section of the Immoral Traffic
(prevention) Act, 1956, is related to the
punishment for living on the earnings of
prostitution?
) () 2 1956, "
Z @ @
= A
A Sec-5(1) -5(1)
B Sec-6 -6
C Sec-4(1) -4 (1)
D Sec-7(1) -7 (1)
Q.No: 124 Which section of the Immoral Traffic ) () 2 1956,
-
(prevention) Act, 1956. Who has discretion
to established protective homes and
corrective institution:-
! !
A State government 9
B Central government ,e
C Supreme court " ,
D District court K
Q.No: 125
Under the Immoral Traffic (prevention) Act,
1956, the state government established
special courts in any district of metropolitan
area after the consultation with.
) () 2 1956,
I " @
X !
A State women commission 9 \
B High court " ,
C Council of ministers C
D Legislative Council
Q.No: 126
Which section of the Immoral
Traffic(prevention) Act, 1956, provides
powers to the court to try cases summarily.
) () 2 1956, "
G G `b
+ AB
A Sec-22(B) -22 ()
B Sec-23 -23
C Sec-25 -25
D Sec-22(A) -22 ()
Q.No: 127
Under which section of the Immoral
Traffic(prevention) Act, 1956, who has the
power to make rules for carrying on the
purposes of this Act.
) () 2 1956, "
" + A "
2 AG
A Supreme court " ,
B National women's 9
C State Human rights commission %& \
D State government 9
-
Q.No: 128
Under which section of the Immoral
Traffic(prevention) Act, 1956, not be in
derogation of certain others Acts.
) () 2 1956,
2
2G D p
A Sec-17(A) -17()
B Sec-18 -18
C Sec-24 -24
D Sec-15 -15
Q.No: 129
Which section of the Immoral Traffic
(prevention) Act, 1956, procuring, inducing
or taking person for the sake of
prostitution?
) () 2 1956,
Z )+
BA/ 2
A Sec-4 -4
B Sec-5 -5
C Sec-6 - 6
D Sec-3 -3
Q.No: 130
Under which section of the Immoral Traffic
(prevention) Act, 1956, definition of child is
given.
) () 2 1956,
/ "
A Sec-2(a) - 2 ()
B Sec-2(g) - 2 ()
C Sec-2(aa) - 2 ()
D Sec-3(2-a) - 3 (2-)
Q.No: 131
Under the Immoral Traffic(prevention) Act,
1956. Which section provides punishment
for keeping a brothel or allowing premises
to be used as brothel?
) () 2 1956,
Z /
Z p A n
= A :
A Sec-2 -2
-
B Sec-4 -4
C Sec-3 -3
D Sec-7 -7
Q.No: 132
Under which section of the Immoral
Traffic(prevention) Act, 1956, is related to
conditions to be observed before placing
persons rescued under Sec-16 to parents or
guardians.
) () 2 1956,
16
)+G - @
q D
A Sec-17(A) - 17()
B Sec-17 -17
C Sec-15 -15
D Sec-14 -14
Q.No: 133
Under the Immoral Traffic(prevention) Act,
1956, which section is related to the
provision for punishment for "Seduction of
a person in custody".
) () 2, 1956
" " )+
" = A
A Sec-7 -7
B Sec-19 -19
C Sec-9 - 9
D Sec-14 -14
Q.No: 134
Under which section of the Immoral
Traffic(prevention) Act, 1956, the provision
for appointment of "special police officer
and advisory body" is given.
) () 2 1956,
" 2
" + A
A Sec-15 -15
B Sec-13 -13
C Sec-20 -20
D Sec-12 -12
-
Q.No: 135
Which section of the Indecent
Representation of Women(Prohibition) Act,
1986 defines "Indecent representation of
women".
: p (A) 2-
1986 " ": p"
/ "
A Sec-1 -1
B Sec-2(c) -2()
C Sec-2(f) -2()
D Sec-4(c) -4()
Q.No: 136
Who has the powers to enter and search
under the Indecent Representation of
Women(Prohibition) Act, 1986.
: p (A) 2-
1986 A
+ "
A State government 9
B Central government ,e
C Any gazetted officer authorized by state government
9 ' WC
D Any gazetted officer X WC
Q.No: 137
Which Section provides protection of action
taken in good faith under the Indecent
Representation of Women(Prohibition) Act,
1986
: p (A) 2-
1986 " r "
q A " :
A Sec-7 -7
B Sec-9 -9
C Sec-6 -6
D Sec-10 -10
Q.No: 138
Under the Indecent Representation of
Women(Prohibition) Act, 1986 who has the
power to make rules to carry out the
provisions of this Act.
: p (A) 2-
1986 G @
+ "
A State government 9
B State women commission 9 \
C National women commission %& \
-
D Central government ,e
Q.No: 139
Which section of the Juvenile justice (care
and protection of children) Act 2015 defines
"abandoned Child".
" ( )
2, 2015 " "/)+ B "
/ "
A Sec-2(1) -2(1)
B Sec-2(8) -2(8)
C Sec-3(I) -3(I)
D Sec-3(VIII) -3(VIII)
Q.No: 140
Who has the power to constitute the child
welfare committee under the Juvenile
justice(care & protection of children) Act,
2015.
" ( )
2, 2015 ' D '
: + "
A Central government ,e
B State government 9
C High court ,
D None of these is correct
Q.No: 141
Under the Juvenile justice (care and
protection of children) Act, 2015 what is
the penalty for non registration of child
care institutions.
" ( )
2, 2015 !
!6 (!6) =
A Shall be punished with imprisonment which may extend to one year or a fine not less than one lakh rupees or both.
-
] , - L d X
B Only one year imprisonment. - -
C Only one lakh rupees fine. - ] -
D None of these is correct.
Q.No: 142
Which section of the Juvenile justice (care
and protection of children) Act, 2015
provides procedure for 'inter country'
" ( )
2, 2015 " "
-
adoption of an orphan or abandoned or
surrendered child. , /B s@ -
B h A"] A
A Sec-58 58
B Sec-57 57
C Sec-56 56
D Sec-59 59
Q.No: 143
Who will create the 'juvenile justice fund'
under the Juvenile justice (care and
protection of children) Act, 2015
" ( )
2, 2015 " 2
" "
A State government 9
B Child welfare committee )
C Central government ,e
D None of these is correct
Q.No: 144
Under the Juvenile justice(care and
protection of children) Act, 2015 the
penalty for offence of non reporting is -
" ( )
2, 2015 /@
!
A Shall be punished with imprisonment up to one year
N -
B Shall be punished with imprisonment up to seven years
N -
C
Shall be liable to imprisonment up to
six months or fine of ten thousand rupees or both
N : N
] - L
D Shall be liable for fine uo to one lakh rupees
- ]
Q.No: 145
Giving and Taking dowry is punishable
under which section of the Dowry
prohibition Act, 1961
A 2-1961
@ " @
A Sec-3 -3
B Sec-4 -4
-
C Sec-3 and 4 -3 4
D Sec-6 -6
Q.No: 146
Court can take cognizance for the offence
under the Dowry prohibition Act, 1961 upon
-
A 2-1961 @
" n
A On Police report 7-
B On Complaint 7
C Both (Police report & Complaint) 7- 7
D None of these is correct
Q.No: 147
If the maternal uncle of bridegroom
demands Dowry from the paternal uncle of
bride. This act punishable under which
section of the Dowry prohibition Act 1961.
:
A 2 1961 "
@
A Secction-3 -3
B Section-4 -4
C Section-3 read with Section-4 -3 \ -4
D None of these is correct
Q.No: 148 The provision of making list of presents
received at he time of marriage is -
Ab G
A
A Mandatory for bride and bridegroom - o
B Discretionary for bride and bridegroom -
C Mandatory for the father of
bridgegroom o
D None of these is correct
Q.No: 149
If the bride dies with in 7 years of her
marriage otherwise than due to natural
course then her property related to her
marriage shall be transferred to
: D 7 @ A
] B
2 /
A Children
-
B Is no children then parent
C Husband
D Both (Children and Is no children then parent)
L
Q.No: 150
Father of bride gives present of customary
nature to bride which are not exceeding his
financial status, come under the definition
of dowry. This statement is -
: D p: A
B
/
A True
B False
C Can not say
D None of these is correct
-
Assistant District Public Prosecution Officer Law-2
(Final Model Answer Key)
Q.No: 1 Abetment of an offence can be constituted by :
A Intentional aid
B Instigation
C Conspiracy
D All are correct
Q.No: 2 The law of bigamy does not apply where:- "
A There was no mens rea
B The other spouse was living in a shared house / /# &
C Bonafide reasons to believe that shows was dead ( )* , /# - #
D None of these is correct
Q.No: 3 "Illicit intercourse" implies ''' ''
A Rape #
B Prostitution 4#
C Sex between two person not united by lawful marriage 5 789
D Sex with a sleeping woman
-
B Section-428 428
C Section-411 411
D Section-403 403
Q.No: 6 Which one of the following is not included as a "public servant" under section 21 of the Indian Panal Code 1860
7 8 1860 - 21 2 3 "-" -
0 3 " -
A Pilot of Indian Airlines >
B Government school's teacher 5 @A
C Justice of supreme court BC
D Chairman of co-operative society . E
Q.No: 7 Difference between murder and culpable homicide was laid down in the case of
/ 3 9 3 9
A Reg vs. Govinda
B Bachan singh vs. state of punjab @ H
C Tapti prasad vs. king Emperor I E J
D K.M Nanawati vs. state of Maharashtra .. KL H
Q.No: 8 Bride burning is an offence as defined under section :- 9 3 0
A 302 of IPC > - 302
B 304 of IPC > - 304
C 300 of IPC > - 300
D 304 B of IPC > - 304
Q.No: 9 Z instigates X to murder Y. X refuses to do so what offence Z has committed
Z X Y - / . X Z '
9
A Attempt of computer # E
B Criminal conspiracy
C Abetment to commit murder # M KE
D No offence
Q.No: 10 Section 511 of the Indian penal code provides :- 7 8 - 511
A For application of I.P.C in Jammu and Kashmir N 4 & - 8
B A power to executive to frame rules of Indian Panal Code > & - *@ 8
-
C A power to court to declare any act as an offence , # - 8
D A residuary section of criminal attempt E - @K
Q.No: 11 'A' cut down tree B's land with intention to take away that tree without B's consent. A has committed the offence of :-
'A' 'B' - @ 'B' - 9
'A' ' 9
A No offence until the tree is taken away ,
B Criminal breach of trust
C Theft as soon as tree was cut down and severed from ground , H9
D Criminal misappropriation of property N# *
Q.No: 12 'A' and ' B ' agreed to commit theft in C's house but no theft was actually committed They have committed the offence of :-
'A' 'B', C 3 " 9 3 "
" E; 9
A Criminal conspiracy
B Abetment by conspiracy 5 #E
C Abetment by instigation 5 #E
D No offence
Q.No: 13 The maximum limit of solitary confinement under section 73 of I.P.C is :-
7 8 - 73 2 E 0 - 9
A One year *
B Three months
C Two year *
D Six months :
Q.No: 14 A without B's consent and with intent to cause injury fear or annoyance to B incites a dog to spring upon B, A has committed :
A, B - @ B F, F 0
/ B , A 0 9
A Mischief MK
B Assault
C Negligent conduct with respect to animal - & A*
D Use of criminal force -E
Q.No: 15 Under the Criminal procedure code the period of limitation for taking
cognizance of any offence punishable with imprisonment of three years is :-
7 9G 8 3 2 7
H 2
A Two years *
-
B three years *
C Six months :
D No limitation *
Q.No: 16 Under section 357 A (2 ) of cr. p.c . Which of the following authority is authorized to decide quantum of compensation
357 (2) 7 9G 8 2
- I 2
A Sessions Judge
B Sub - Divisional Magistrate -> L
C District Magistrate L
D State or District legal services Authority H E
Q.No: 17 At trial, it appears to the Magistrate that the case be ought to be tried
by the court of sessions, in which section of the code he shall commit
the case?
K 9 E
9 8 2 - 2" 8 - 9 3
A Section-209 209
B Section-323 323
C Section-325 325
D Section-193 193
Q.No: 18 A Magistrate of the first class may award a sentence of imprisonment under code of criminal procedure, 1973 up to the period of
2 K E 7 9G 8 1973 3
9
A A three years according to section 29 29 3 * -
B Three and half year according to section 30 30 3 * 6 -
C Seven years according to section 31 31 7 * -
D Ten years according to section 27 27 10 * -
Q.No: 19 Who can take cognizance under section 190 of the Code of criminal procedure 1973
190 7 9G 8 1973 2 H
A session Judge
B High court C
C Judicial Magistrate L
D District Magistrate L
Q.No: 20 According to first schedule of Cr. P.C 1973 offence of Robbery on the
high way between sunset and sunrise, shall be punishable for rigorous
imprisonment of 14 years and fine, is tribal by
7 9G 8 1973 - ''2 L M
2 - 14 2 8 2 7 ''
9
-
A Sessions judge 5
B Assistant sessions judge 5
C Additional sessions judges under section 28 5 28 *
D First class magistrate E * L
Q.No: 21 In a summons case the magistrate can stop the proceeding at any stage without pronouncing judgment, this has been provided under
which section of code of criminal procedure 1973.
3 K 2 2 9 G 2"
7 9G 8 1973 3 9 3 9
A Section - 258 258 &
B Section - 257 257 &
C Section - 259 259 &
D Section - 209 209 &
Q.No: 22 Which offence is not compoundable under section 320(2) of code of criminal procedure 1973?
320(2) 7 9G 1973 8 2 9 " 9
A Causing miscarriage under section 312 Indian penal code 1860 * * 312 > 1860
B Criminal breach of trust under section 406 Indian penal code 1860
406 > 1860
C Causing death by rash or negligent under section 304-A Indian penal code 1860
A* * # M 304 > 1860
D Voluntarily causing grievous hurt under section 325 Indian penal code 1860
C* M 325 > 1860
Q.No: 23 Special summon under section 206 of Cr. P.C can be issued by 7 9G 8 - 206 3 9 " 9
A A magistrate L 5
B A court of sessions 5
C By magistrate as well as the court of sessions L 9 5
D By the high court C 5
Q.No: 24 Mark the incorrect matching. P
A Power to compel restoration of abducted females Section - 98 9 @ - 8 98
B Search for persons wrongfully confined Section 97 789 @ 97
C Magistrate may direct search in his presence - 104 L & S 104
D Power of police officer to seize certain property Section - 102 N @ - @ - 8 102
Q.No: 25 "Directorate of prosecution" under Section - 25A of the code of '' '' 7 9G 8 1973 - 25 3 9
-
criminal Procedure 1973, has been inserted by which of the following
Amendment Act.
A By the Act No.25 of 2005 2005 . 25
B By the Act NO.45 of 2005 2005 . 45
C By the Act NO.2 of 2005 2005 . 2
D By the Act NO.15 of 2005 2005 . 15
Q.No: 26 Disposal of property during the pendency of trial is governed by: Q 9 3
A Section - 454 of Cr. p. c 454 > E,T
B Section - 452 of Cr. p. c 452 > E,T
C Section - 453 of Cr. p. c 453 > E,T
D Section - 451 of Cr. p. c 451 > E,T
Q.No: 27 Under Section 83 of Cr.P.C. 1973, the court may order the attachment of any property of the person who is absconding -
7 9G 8 1973 - 83 R E Q' - / -
T
A After publication of the proclamation 5 E 4
B Before publication of the proclamation 5 E *
C Simultaneously with the issue of proclamation 5 -
D Either after publication of the proclamation or Simultaneously with the issue of proclamation
5 4 5 -
Q.No: 28 Cognizance of offence under section 498 A of IPC, 1860 can be taken on
7 8 1860 - 498 H
A Police report @ M*
B On the complaint of the person aggrieved U 78 M
C On the complaint of the father, mother, brother or sister of the person aggrieved
U M
D All are correct
Q.No: 29 Which one of the following statement is correct? 3 /
A Accused is not competent witness @8 78 A A
B The accused shall punishable if he gives false answer under Section 313 Code of criminal procedure
> E,T - 313 * # @8 >
,
C Conviction or commitment on evidence partly recorded by one magistrate and partly by another can be done.
: L 5 : L 5 @@W X
@Y * -
D The compounding of an offence under section 320 (8) of Cr . P. C shall not have the effect of an acquittal.
> E,T - 320 (8) E 8
-
Q.No: 30 Which one of the following statement is incorrect about irregularities, which does not vitiate proceedings?
'' 2" " '' 3 3 -
/
A To hold an inquest under Section - 176 of Cr. P.C > E,T - 176 # A
B To tender pardon under Section 306 of Cr. P.C > E,T - 306 A
C Takes cognizance of an offence under clause (C) of sub - section (1) of section 190 Cr.PC.
> E,T - 190 - (1) () ,
[
D To issue a search - warrant under Section 94 of Cr.P.C > E,T - 94
Q.No: 31 In which of the following, secondary evidence relating to a document cannot be given?
3 9 0 3 U "
8 ?
A When the original document is in possession of the person against whom the document is sought to be proved , @* , & , 78 \ &
] ,
B When the original document is in possession of the person who wants to prove it
, 78 \ & ]
C When the original document is lost without any default or negligence on the part of the person who wants to prove it
, 78 - A 7T ] ] ,
D When the original document is of such nature which cannot be easily moved
, E M ,
Q.No: 32 Which kind of agreement can be presumed by the Court under Section 85-A of the Indian evidence Act?
U - 85- E2 E 9
- - ?
A Written Agreement @W
B Oral Agreement W
C Electronic Agreement 8L
D None of these is correct
Q.No: 33 A witness unable to speak, if gives his statement in writing before the Court, then such Evidence Shall be deemed to be:
3 2 8 E 3 3 , 3 -
U
A Oral evidence W X
B Documentary evidence X
C Hearsay evidence ^ X
D Secondary evidence X
Q.No: 34 When the court has to form an opinion as to the electronic signature of any person, the opinion of the certifying authority which has issued
E 9 Q' 'K F
2 " - 'K F " 9 -
-
the electronic signature certificate is:
A Inadmissible in evidence X & _`
B Irrelevant fact a
C Relevant fact a
D None of these is correct
Q.No: 35 In which of the following cases the burden of proof of not committing
the particular offences is on an accused person and not on the
prosecution?
3 9 3 9 '
9 ?
A Section 111 and 113 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 X 1872 - 111 113 &
B Section 111- A,113-A,113-B and 114-A of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
X 1872 - 111 , 113-, 113-, 114- &
C Section 111A, 112 and 113-B of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 X 1872 - 111- , 112 113- &
D Section 111A,112 and 113 A of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 X 1872 - 111 , 112 113 &
Q.No: 36
A witness cannot be converted into an accused person, though may be compelled to answer questions relating to an offence. Under which
section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, this immunity is granted to
a witness?
F ' V 02 " 9
2 3 W X U 1872
- - 3 Z
A Under Section 148 148 &
B Under Section 163 163 &
C Under Section 131 131 &
D Under Section 132 132 &
Q.No: 37
To reach at a proper conclusion and for proof of relevant fact, court
may ask any question, in any form, at any time to any person or witnesses. This power is conferred to the court under which section of
the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
E 2 [; Z
9 F 9 V 3 9 W
U 1872 - 9 3 E ' - -
A Section 135 and 136 135 & 136 &
B Section 165 165 &
C Section 148 148 &
D Section 137 137 &
Q.No: 38 'A' is tried for a riot and is proved to have marched as the head of a mob. The cries of the mob are relevant as:
'' 0 9 - @
-
A They are related to thing said or done by the conspirators in reference to the common design
b 89, M & M9 5
- 9
B Explanation of the nature of the transaction 7 - E K @
C Explanation of motive or preparation K
D Explanation of occasion, cause or effect of facts a9 , M9 K
-
Q.No: 39
'A' prosecutes 'B' for adultery with 'C' who is 'A's' wife. 'B' denies that
'C' is 'A's' wife, but the court convicts 'B' for adultery. Thereafter, 'C' is prosecuted for bigamy for marrying 'B' during 'A's' lifetime. 'C' says
that she was never 'A's' wife. The judgment against 'B' is:
'' , / '' 2 ,'' ''
/ 9 '' - / '' E 2
'' M /W '' 3 ''
'' - ''
'' - / " '' V 8 2 -
A Irrelevant against 'C' ''
B Relevant against 'B' ''
C Not Relevant against 'B' and 'C' '' ''
D Relevant against 'C' ''
Q.No: 40 Husband and wife both are competent witness for each other: / VM F F ; -
A In Civil case @ &
B In Investigation &
C In Criminal case 9
D In Civil and Criminal @ 9 &
Q.No: 41 According to schedule cast and schedule tribe (Atrocities) Act, 1989
"Schedule Cast and Schedule Tribe" Shall have same meaning assigned to them respectively under-
(/ ) , 1989
E2 '' '' " 2 3 2
A Section 2(24) and Section 2(25) of code of criminal procedure 1973
> E,T 1973 & 2 (24) 2 (25) *
B Article 2(22) and Article 2(23) of constitution of India C 2 (22) 2 (23) *
C Article 366(24) and Article 366(25) of constitution of India C 366 (24) C 366(25) *
D Section 2(24) and Section 2(25) of Indian penal code > - 2 (24) 2 (25) *
Q.No: 42
The provision regarding the person who compels or entices any
member of Schedule Cast and Schedule Tribe to do "begar" is
provided in the following section of Schedule Cast and Schedule Tribe(prevention of Atrocities)Act, 1989
(/ ) ,1989
E2 9 3 Q'
Q' ''
A Section 3(III) 3 (III)
B Section 3(IV) 3 (IV)
C Section 3(V) 3 (V)
D Section 3(VI) 3 (VI)
Question Deleted
-
Q.No: 43
According to schedule cast and schedule tribe (prevention of
Atrocities) Act,1989 what shall be the maximum punishment under section 3 for a person who not being member of schedule cast and
schedule tribe does any offence against any member of schedule cast
and schedule tribe?
(/ ) , 1989 -
3 Q' 3 ' "
"
Q' 0 ?
A Death punishment #>
B Life imprisonment
C Rigorous imprisonment up to 14 years 14 *
D Rigorous imprisonment up to 20 years 20 *
Q.No: 44 According to schedule cast and schedule tribe (prevention of
Atrocities)Act,1989 what shall be enhanced punishment for the
subsequent conviction mentioned in the act ?
(/ ) , 1989
W^ 2 7 ' ?
A Imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than six month, but which may extend to one year
6 , *
B Imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than one year, but which may extend to punishment provided for that offence
1 * , @ >
C Imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than one year, and also include fine provided for that offence
1 * , @ * >
D Imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than one month, but which may extend to one year
1 , *
Q.No: 45 Under the schedule cast and schedule tribe (prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 which presumptions shall be drawn as regarding the
offences -
(/ ) , 1989
; 3 ; 3 -
A Common intention
B Common object Y
C Abetment KE
D All are correct
Q.No: 46
Under which of the following provision of any mentioned act, the state government has power to impose and realize fine for all other matters
connected under schedule cast and schedule tribe (prevention of
Atrocities) Act,1989
(/ ) 1989
E2 2 9 3 _ 8 2
E E ; - ' Z ?
A Section - 10 of protection of civil right Act 1955 @ A , 1955 - 10 *
B Section - 10 A of protection of civil right Act 1955 @ A , 1955 - 10 *
C Section - 10 of untouchability (offences) Act 1955 K () , 1955 - 10 *
D Section - 10 A of untouchability (offences) Act 1955 K () , 1955 - 10 *
Q.No: 47 Definition of "hunting" According to the Wild life (protection) Act-1972 includes :-
'''' - 0 E (F) 1972 E2
-
-
A Injuring any part of the body of any wild animal , E , A_
B Damaging eggs of wild birds or reptiles A 9 9
C Both (Injuring any part of the body of any wild animal & Damaging eggs of wild birds or reptiles)
( , E , A_ A
9 9 )
D None of these is correct
Q.No: 48 Which section of the Wild life (protection) Act 1972 deals with the provisions regarding "Restriction on entry in Sanctuary"
E (F) 1972 E2 - '`7 3
2E' E -
A Section - 25 - 25
B Section - 26 - 26
C Section - 27 - 27
D Section - 28 - 28
Q.No: 49 Which one of the following is not a "Vermin" according to schedule 5th of Wild life (protection) Act 1972:-
E F 1972 - 5 3 ''
E'' " -
A Common crow
B Mice
C Rats
D Turtle
Q.No: 50 Which chapter of the Wild life (protection) Act 1972 is related to prevention and detention of offence :-
E (F) 1972 - M ;
E -
A Chapter 6 Y 6
B Chapter 5A Y 5
C Chapter 5 Y 5
D Chapter 3 Y 3
Q.No: 51 Which of the following is not food as defined under section 3(1) (j) of The Food safety and Standard Act 2006.
F 2006 - 3 (1) (j) 3 0 '' ''
a 3 3 ' " -
A Infant food C 9
B Packaged drinking water ,
C Animal feed
D Alcoholic drink @
-
Q.No: 52 Which section of the Food safety and standard Act 2006 provides that
"No advertisement shall be made of any food which is misleading the
provisions of this Act, the rules and regulations made there under:
F 2006 - 9 P 3
9 '' H " ;
c ''
A Section - 24 -24
B Section - 23 -23
C Section - 22 -22
D Section - 21 -21
Q.No: 53 Food safety and standard Act 2006 provides that "No food operator
shall himself or by any person on his behalf manufacture, store, sell
or distribute any article of food:-
F 2006 9
- E R 2, 7, G "
R -
A Which is unsafe eA
B Which is misbranded @a
C For which a license is required @ [I 4
D All are correct
Q.No: 54 A person found guilty of misbranded food under section 52 of Food safety and standard Act 2006, shall be liable to a penalty which may
extend to:
F 2006 - 52 2 [
Q' 2 7 9 -
A Up to Three lac rupees f
B Up to Fifty thousand rupees C f
C Up to two lac rupees f
D Up to one lac rupees f
Q.No: 55 Under the Prevention of corruption Act, 1988 No person shall be appointed as special Judge unless he is or has been __
2 Q' c 1988 , 2
E V 3 ' 82 " - 9 -
A Sessions Judge.
B Additional sessions Judge. M8
C Assistant Sessions Judge.
D All are correct
Q.No: 56 Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding powers of special Judge appointed under prevention of corruption Act, 1988 ?
3 c , 1988 2 E
'; 2 3 / -
A He may take cognizance of offence without accused being committed to him
9 [ @ @8 - *
B He shall follow the procedure prescribed by the Code of
criminal procedure 1973 for trial of warrant cases by
magistrate
@ > E,T 1973 & L 5 > E9
@ E,T
C It shall be lawful for him to pass sentences of 3 year while conviction in summary trial
5 eAI & @Y -N , *
-
D He may tender a pardon to person who took part in commission of offence
X @EI - gK 78 A
& @
Q.No: 57 The word "Legal remuneration" has been defined in which section of the Prevention of corruption Act, 1988
c , 1988 2 9 3 '' 0e'' a
-
A Section - 2 -2
B Section - 7 -7
C Section - 4 -4
D Section - 8 -8
Q.No: 58 According to prevention of corruption Act,1988 any public servant
obtaining valuable thing without consideration under Sec-11 shall be
punishable with :
c 1988 - 11 2 @
f Z , g -
A Imprisonment for a term not less than one month but which may extend to one year and shall also be liable to fine
- * - , ,
* U ,
B Imprisonment for a term not less than six month but which may extend to five year and shall also be liable to fine
- * - , , :
* U ,
C Imprisonment for a term not less than six month but which may extend to seven year and shall also be liable to fine
- * - , , :
* U ,
D Imprisonment for a term not less than six month but which may extend to ten year and shall also be liable to fine
- * - , , :
* U ,
Q.No: 59 Which of the following is not criminal misconduct by public servant according to prevention of corruption Act, 1988?
' c 1988, 2
" -
A Habitually accepts gratification other than legal remuneration , 78 i: M^@ @ j* M
@EI
B if he cannot satisfactorily account for cash with him during the period of his office
\ N & - E -
C if he accept gratification reward as legal remuneration M M^@ k & @EI &
D if he accept valuable thing for spouse without consideration @ ] E EI &
Q.No: 60 In which section punishment has been provided for person who habitually commits offences relating to gratification without
consideration under the Prevention of corruption Act 1988:
c 1988 - 9 3 @
0
Z `: - 20 -
A Section - 13 -13
B Section - 14 -14
C Section - 15 -15
D Section - 16 -16
-
Q.No: 61 Which of the following word has not been defined under prevention of corruption Act, 1988
3 a c , 1988 2 0
" 9 -
A Corruption mK
B Gratification M
C Public duty
D Election *
Q.No: 62 Out of the following whose prior sanction is required to prosecute under prevention of corruption Act 1988
3 9- 2 c ,1988
2 W
A Head of the department YA
B Authority who has appointed such public servant E 8 ,
C Authority who has competent power to remove him from office E A
D All are correct
Q.No: 63 Which of the following section contains provision regarding presumption under prevention of corruption Act, 1988
c , 1988 2 9 3
A Section - 17 -17
B Section - 18 -18
C Section - 19 -19
D Section - 20 -20
Q.No: 64 Which section of the Prevention of corruption Act, 1988 contains provisions that military laws are not affected by it
3 3 9 c ,1988
- ; " -
A Section - 23 -23
B Section - 24 -24
C Section - 25 -25
D Section - 26 -26
Q.No: 65 Under the Arms Act, 1959 which one of the following is not "Ammunition":
, 1959 3 ' '' V'' "
A Rockets
B Fues
C Grenades _
D Firearms (
-
Q.No: 66 Under the which section of Arms Act,1959 Central Government can prohibit import or export of arms:
1959 E2 9 3 Eh ; -
2
M
A Section - 9 -9
B Section - 10 -10
C Section - 11 -11
D Section - 12 -12
Q.No: 67 According to the Arms Act,1959 if officer does not send his report on
application of license with in prescribed time to licensing authority,
the licensing authority:
- , 1959 " 8
3 HZ - 02 H " " i
H " -
A Will wait further for thirty days EA
B May refuse or grant license without further waiting ] EA , [I #
C Ask the superintendent of police to submit the report within 15 days
@ A 15 & M* o
D Will report himself without further wait ] EA , M*
Q.No: 68 Who can arrest the person conveying the arms under suspicious circumstances under the Arms Act, 1959
3 " , 1959 8P 0; 3
Q'; - j" ?
A Any magistrate L
B Police officer @
C Railway officer
D All are correct
Q.No: 69 Which Section of the Arms act,1959 provides search and seizure of house of premises by magistrate?
, 1959 2 9 3 K 0 -
-
A Section - 22 -22
B Section - 23 -23
C Section - 24 -24
D Section - 25 -25
Q.No: 70 What is the maximum Punishment provided for contravention of
section 7 of Arms Act, 1959, mentioned in Section 25 of the same Act
along with fine.
, 1959 25 3 f 7 f -
2 8
A Not less than three years but exceeds to five years. * *
B Not less than five years but exceeds to Seven years. * *
-
C Not less than Seven years but exceeds to ten years. * *
D Not less than seven years but exceeds to imprisonment of life. *
Q.No: 71 Under Arms Act 1959, what punishment along with fine is provided
for the person who knowingly purchases arms from unlicensed
person.
,1959 2 Q' 9
HZ 8 Q' /8 G -
A Imprisonment up to 10 years - *
B Imprisonment up to 3 years - *
C Imprisonment up to 5 years - *
D Imprisonment up to 7 years - *
Q.No: 72 Under Arms Act, 1959, the license can be varied, suspended and revoked under section:-
, 1959 HZ 3 ,
-
A Section - 14 - 14
B Section - 15 - 15
C Section - 17 - 17
D Section - 18 - 18
Q.No: 73
Under Arms Act, 1959 for the Prosecution of persons for
contravention of section 3 relating to license for acquisition and
possession of firearms and ammunition, previous sanction of which authority is needed?
, 1959 2 3 9- 2 3 3 8
f 9 PE; V 2 a - HZ
3 W
A District & Session judge
B District Magistrate L
C Sub-divisional Magistrate L
D Public prosecutor @
Q.No: 74 Which authority has power to exempt or withdraw from any part of India operation of all or any of provision of Arms Act,1959
3 1959 ; ; 9
FI 3 3 /l
A Central government <
B State government H
C Central government & State government both < H
D The President of India KL
Q.No: 75 Under which section of NDPS Act, 1985 the provision of enhanced punishment for offences after previous conviction has been made?
: 2 , 1985 - 9 3
2 ZW ; 2 -
-
A Section - 30 -30
B Section - 31 - 31
C Section - 31A - 31
D Section - 32 -32
Q.No: 76 The chairman of appellate tribunal constituted under narcotic drug and substance Act,1985 shall be the person who is or has been or is
qualified to be:
: 2 1985 2 8
MF Q' 2 Z -
A Judge of supreme court or of High Court C C
B Judge of Supreme court only C
C Judge of High court only C
D Judge of District Court only
Q.No: 77 According to NDPS Act,1985 the competent authority or appellate tribunal may amend any order within a period of
: 2 1985 2 F "
9 9
A Two years *
B Three years *
C One year *
D Six months :
Q.No: 78 Under the provisions of NDPS Act,1985 the officer has the power of seizure in Public place and arrest
: 2 1985 - 9 3 "
3 R j - ' 8 ?
A Section - 43 -43
B Section - 44 -44
C Section - 45 -45
D Section - 46 -46
Q.No: 79 Which offences shall be triable only by special courts constituted under section 36-A of NDPS Act, 1985
3 9 : 2 ,
1985 - 36-A 2 8 E ;
A Offences punishable with imprisonment for term more than one year.
* -
B Offences punishable with imprisonment for term more than two year.
* -
C Offences punishable with imprisonment for term more than three year.
* -
D Offences punishable with imprisonment for term more than six months.
: -
-
Q.No: 80 Chapter IV of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic substances Act,1985 is related to provisions :-
: 2 1985 M 4 ;
E -
A Offences and penalties 9
B Authorities and officers E
C Procedure E,T
D Prohibition, control and regulation E ,
Q.No: 81 Definition of "Opium" includes :- ''-'' - 0 3 -
A Any preparation containing more than 0.2 percent of morphine.
@* & 0.2 E q
B Coagulated juice of the opium poppy -
C Any mixture, with or without any neutral material, of the coagulated juice of the opium poppy
- @^ KE *
]
D All are correct
Q.No: 82 Section 15 NDPS Act,1985 is provide punishment for :- 15 NDPS Act,1985 7 -
A Contravention in relation to Coca plant and Coca leaves. - #9 N @ >
B Contravention in relation to opium poppy and opium - - N & @ >
C Contravention in relation to prepared opium @* - & @ >
D Contravention in relation to poppy straw & @ >
Q.No: 83 Section _______ of NDPS Act, 1985 is related to constitution of special courts :
NDPS 1985 - _______ E E -
A Section - 36 -36
B Section - 37 -37
C Section - 38 - 38
D Section - 39 - 39
Q.No: 84 The word "Electricity" is defined in the following section of the Electricity Act, 2003 , 2003 2 '' '' - 0 9 3
"
A 2(21) 2 (21)
B 2(22) 2 (22)
C 2(23) 2 (23)
D 2(24) 2 (24)
-
Q.No: 85 What a person can do when he gets license under section 12 of the Electricity Act, 2003 Q' , 2003 - 12 3 HZ Z
W 3 '
A Transmission of electricity
B Distribution electricity
C Undertaking Trading in Electricity & 7
D All are correct
Q.No: 86 Which of the following organization / commission is not mentioned under Electricity Act, 2003 3 / 2003 3 2 "
A National load dispatch centre KL E <
B State load dispatch centre H E <
C Inter State Load dispatch centre *H E <
D Regional Load dispatch centre E@ E <
Q.No: 87 Theft of electricity has been defined in which section of Electricity Act, 2003 2003 - 9 2 @" - " -
A Section - 134 -134 &
B Section - 135 -135 &
C Section - 136 - 136 &
D Section - 138 - 138 &
Q.No: 88 Under the electricity Act, 2003 what factors are taken into
consideration by adjudicating officer for calculating quantum of
penalty: , 2003 E 2 " - I
2 9 ; M -
A Amount of disproportionate gain 7T Mk EI
B Gain of unfair advantage 9 -
C The repetitive nature of default 7T - ,
D All are correct
Q.No: 89 Under the Electricity Act, 2003 in the case of theft of electricity, what
shall be the punishment fine on the first conviction if the load exceeds
10 kilowatt?
, 2003 " ; 3 3
' 7 - I 10 9
" -
-
A Not less than two times the financial gain on account of such theft of electricity
#
B Not less than three times the financial gain on account of such theft of electricity
#
C Not less than five times the financial gain on account of such theft of electricity
#
D Not less than six times the financial gain on account of such theft of electricity
#
Q.No: 90 Abetment of an offence is punishable under which section of the Electricity Act, 2003? ; , 2003 -
A Section - 150 -150 &
B Section - 151 - 151 &
C Section - 152 -152 &
D Section - 153 -153 &
Q.No: 91 Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding offence in the Electricity Act, 2003? 3 , 2003 3 2 3
; 2 3 / -
A Certain offences are non bailable
B compounding of offence is provided 9 E
C Civil Court also have Jurisdiction to try cases @ - M EI
D Special Courts are constituted under the Act, for trial of offences
9 @ 9 E
Q.No: 92 Under which section of electricity Act, 2003 provision of arbitration has been provided? , 2003 2 9 3 M -
A Section - 157 -157
B Section - 158 -158
C Section - 159 -159
D Section - 160 - 160
Q.No: 93 Which of the following statement is not correct regarding the powers of special court constituted underthe Electricity Act, 2003? , 2003 2 8 E - ';
2 3 3 / -
A This court has power to review its judgments 5 M * *
B This court is deemed as court of session for purpose of Act @ 9 @
C This court can't determine civil liability against person or consumer for theft 8 78 @ @ #
-
*
D This court has power to try any case summarily eAI @ A
Q.No: 94 Who are prohibited from employment under section 22 of the M.P. excise Act 1915, from the following
3 9 M " , 1915 - 22 E2
2
A Male under 21 years and any woman 21 * k
B Child under 14 years 14 *
C Child and any woman
D Male under 18 years and any woman 18 * k
Q.No: 95 Under Which section of M.P. Excise Act 1915 license can be cancelled or suspended
M " , 1915 - 9 3 HZ @
A Section 30 30
B Section 31 31
C Section 32 32
D Section 28 28
Q.No: 96 The maximum imprisonment that can be awarded for illegal possession is under section 36 M.P Excise Act 1915 is .
M " , 1915 E2 36 3 9 2
a ?
A Six months :
B Ten months
C Four months
D Two months
Q.No: 97 Tender of pardon to accused person turning approver is stated under which section of M.P Excise Act 1915
M " , 1915 - 9 3 ' F
E ?
A Section 61 61
B Section 62 62
C Section 63 63
D Section 61 A 61
Q.No: 98
According to M.P Excise Act, 1915 which of the following do not fail under definition of "Excisable article",
1) Poppy straw
2) opium
3) intoxicating sugar 4) alcoholic liquor
M " , 1915 E2 3 ' '' " '' -
0 E2 " ?
1) I
2)-
-
3) '
4)f
A 1 and 4 only 1 4
B 2 and 3 only 2 3
C 3 only 3
D 1,2,3, and 4 1,2,3, 4
Q.No: 99 Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding M.P Excise Act ,1915.
M " , 1915 E2 3 3 ' / ?
A State government may prohibit import or export of any intoxicant
H B * E
B Magistrate may ask any person to execute a bond for good behavior
L , 78 @ - K
C No offence is compoundable under the act 8 * ,
D Officer of land revenue act after empowered by state government may arrest any person without warrant
- N H 5 E 89
& , 78 s
Q.No: 100 Chapter VII of M.P Excise Act, 1915 is related to- M " , 1915 E -
A Duties and fees *7
B Offences and penalties
C Import export and transport * M
D Manufacture, possession and sale *, \ T
Q.No: 101 The application of motor vehicles Act, 1988 extends to whole of India -
1988
A Except East Frontiers & B# E9
B Except the state of Jammu and Kashmir & N 4
C In whole of India &
D None of these is correct
Q.No: 102 Articulated vehicle means a motor vehicle to which - ''P '' a" 3
A A Trailer is attached L (
B A Semi Trailer is attached * L (
C A Trailer and a semi trailer are attached L * L (
D None of these is correct
-
Q.No: 103 Certificate of Registration under the Motor vehicles Act, 1988 means
the certificate issued by a competent authority to the effect that
motor vehicle is registered in accordance of provisions of -
''K" I'' F " 8
I 9 () 9 ,
1988 3 :-
A Chapter vi Y vi k
B Chapter vii Y vii k
C Chapter viii Y viii k
D Chapter iv Y iv k
Q.No: 104 "Conductor's license" according to the Motor vehicle Act, 1988 means the license issued by competent Authority under -
1988 3 ''E' HZ''
HZ F " " 9
A Chapter iii Y iii &
B Chapter v Y v &
C Chapter iv Y iv &
D Chapter ii Y ii &
Q.No: 105 "Dealer" in the Motor vehicles Act, 1988 includes a person who is engaged -
1988 2 ''Q"'' Q'
A in building bodies for attachment to chassis only @ ( @ 9 * &
B in repair of motor vehicles only 9 - N &
C in the business of hypothecation, leasing or higher purchase of motor vehicles only
9 , t T &
D All are correct
Q.No: 106 "Heavy passenger motor vehicle" under the Motor vehicle Act, 1988
means any public or private service vehicle whose gross vehicle
weight of exceeds -
''" I '' 1988
3 P
A 8,000 kilograms 8000 ,_
B 12,000 kilograms 12000 ,_
C 10,000 kilograms 100