Anhvan thay hai trung tam luyen thi dai hoc qsc-45 - de cuong on thi tsdh-cd - 2013 (sau tet - cap...

Trung tâm Luyện thi Đại học CLC QSC-45

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CẤ TRÚC ĐỀ T MÔN T ẾNG AN

K Ố A1 VÀ D1 NĂM 2013

T ÀN P ẦN NỘ D NG / YẾ TỐ CẦN T ẾT TRONG ĐỀ T Ố CÂ

1. Ngữ âm - Trọng âm từ (chính / phụ)

- Trường độ âm và phương phức phát âm.

5

2. Ngữ pháp - Từ vựng: các loại từ đã học ở phổ thông

- Danh từ/ động từ (thì động từ & hòa hợp thì động từ)

- Đại từ/ tính từ / trạng từ

- Từ nối

- v.v…

7

- Cấu trúc câu 5

- Phương thức cấu tạo từ/sử dụng từ (word choice/usage) 6

- Tổ hợp từ / cụm từ cố định / động từ hai thành phần (phrasal

verb)

4

- Từ đồng nghĩa / trái nghĩa 3

3. Chức năng giao tiếp - Từ / ngữ thể hiện chức năng giao tiếp đơn giản... (khuyến khích

yếu tố văn hóa)

5

4. Kỹ năng đọc - Điền từ vào chỗ trống: (sử dụng từ / ngữ; nghĩa ngữ pháp; nghĩa

ngữ vựng); một bài text độ dài khoảng 200 từ.

10

- Đọc lấy thông tin cụ thể / đại ý (đoán nghĩa từ mới; nghĩa ngữ

cảnh; ví von; hoán dụ; ẩn dụ; tương phản; đồng nghĩa/dị

nghĩa…) một bài text, độ dài khoảng 400 từ, chủ đề: phổ thông.

10

- Đọc phân tích/đọc phê phán/tổng hợp/suy diễn; một bài text

khoảng 400 từ chủ đề: phổ thông.

10

5. Kỹ năng viết 1. Phát hiện lỗi cần sửa cho câu đúng (đặc biệt lỗi liên quan

đến kỹ năng viết).

5

2. Viết gián tiếp. Cụ thể các vấn đề có kiểm tra viết bao gồm:

- Loại câu.

- Câu cận nghĩa.

- Chấm câu.

- Tính cân đối.

- Hợp mệnh đề chính - phụ

Tính nhất quán (mood, voice, speaker, position…)

- Tương phản.

- Hòa hợp chủ - vị

- Sự mập mờ về nghĩa (do vị trí bổ ngữ…)

- ….

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CÁC NỘ D NG NGỮ P ÁP CẦN ÔN TẬP

1. PART OF SPEECH

1.1 Types of pronouns

- Personal pronouns

I / we / you / he / she / it / they

- Reflexive pronouns

Myself / yourself / yourselves / himself / herself / itself / themselves

- Relative pronouns

Who / whom / which / what / that / whose / how / when / where / why

- Demonstrative pronouns

This / that / these / those

- Unidentified pronouns

Every / any / some / no + thing / body / one

- Interrogative pronouns

Who / whom / which / what / that / whose / how / when / where / why

1.2 Type of articles: a / an / the / zero articles

1.3 Type of prepositions: place / time / between cause and effect, relationship, movement, …

1.4 Quantities and quantity modifier

1.5 Types of nouns

- Countable nouns and uncountable nouns

1.6 Types of adjective

- Order of adjective in a noun phrase

1.7 Types of adverbs

- Frequency

- Time

- Place

- Manner

- Modifier

- …

1.8 Conjunctive / connectors

- Coordinators: boyfans (but, or, yet, for, and, nor, so)

- Parallel: not only … but also, both ... and, (n)either … (n)or, …

1.9 Types of verbs:

- transitive verbs

- Intransitive verbs

- Phrasal verbs

2. VERB PROBLEMS

2.1 Verb tenses

- Simple present / past / future / near future

- Present / past / future progressive

- Present / past / future perfect

- Present perfect progressive

2.2 Verb patterns

- Simple form / bare infinitive / verb without “to”

Notice to some common verbs in a sentence

Modal verbs

Helping verbs

- To infinitive form (in present and past forms)


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- Gerund form (in present and past forms)

2.3 Passive voice

- Forms of passive

- Structures

- Types of passive sentences

A simple sentence

A reporting sentence

A double object sentence

A “It formal subject” sentence

Some common special passive sentence with adjective

- Causative forms

- To infinitive form in passive

- Gerund form in passive

2.4 Subject and verb agreement

- Relative pronouns

- There is / there are / here is / here are

- Some quantity modifiers

- Some common connectors in a simple structure and a parallel structure

- Some common special cases

2.5 Inverted between subject and verbs

- Phrases of place / time

- Words of negative or semi negative meaning

- Some common structures of clause of adverbs:

so … that, such … that, not only … but also, as (because / although), however, …

no sooner … than, not until, hardly … when / since, …

- some common special case

2.6 Subjunctive mood

- Structure of mood

- Some common verbs in mood (simple form / past form)

- Some common adjective in mood (simple form / past form)

Some common structures as: it + be + high / about time; as if, as though, … (simple form / past form)

3. CLAUSE PROBLEMS

3.1 Clause of adjective

- It formal as a subject

- It formal as an object

- Relative clause

Using who / whom / which / whose + N / that / when / where / why / how / what

Specific and non specific clause (having comma(s) or no comma(s))

Clause of quatity

Clause of the whole sentence modifier

Reduction of relative clause into present or past participle phrase

Reduction of relative clause into purpose phrase

3.2 Clause of noun

- Statement

- Wh – words (what / who / which / …)

- Whether or if

- To – infinitive

- Subjunctive sentences

- Reported speeches

- Emphasis to conjunction put at the beginning of sentence


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3.3 Clauses and Phrases of adverb

- Clause of time: when / since / while / before / after / by the time / asoon as / until (till) / ….

- Clause of manner: as if / as though /

- Clause of degree: too … to / enough … to

- Clause of result: so / such … that

- Clause of purpose: so that / in order that / so as that / …

- Clause of concession: although / though / even though / no matter + wh / Wh + ever / …

- Clause of reason: because (of) / since / as / due to / ….

- Clause of condition: if / unless / otherwise / in case / provided (providing) that / as (so) long as / …

- Clause of comparison: as … as / more (er) … than / the most (est) … of + N / the …, the … / …

- Clause of effective: therefore / so / as a result / …

4. STRUCTURE PROBLEMS

4.1 Tag – question

4.2 Parallel structures: both … and / not only … but also / as well, …

4.3 (Dis)Agreeing statement: so / too / either / neither

4.4 “It” used as a subject or an object

4.5 Some common structures with verbs / adjective / …

5. PRONOUNCING PROBLEM

5.1 Stress syllable of word

5.2 Pronunciation

- Vowel sound

- Consonant

- Silent sound

- Ed forms

- S / Es forms

6. VOCABULARY PROBLEMS

6.1 Economics and society

6.2 Civilization and culture

6.3 People and country

6.4 Science and politics

6.5 Sports and news

********************************************************************

CÁC VẤN ĐỀ VỀ G AO T ẾP

1. Cám ơn và đáp lai lời cám ơn:

- It was so / extremely / very kind / sweet / nice / good of you /… to do something.

- Thank you very much for…

- Thanks / thank you.

- Many thanks / thanks tons: cảm ơn nhiều.

- I am very much obliged to you for…! I am thankful…! I am grateful to you for…: tôi rất cám ơn

bạn vì…

Xin lỗi và đáp lại lời xin lỗi:

- I am sorry / I am awful / I am terrible sorry about that…

- I didn‟t mean it: tôi không cố ý.

- I apologize to you for: tôi xin lỗi bạn về…

- It‟s total / entirely my fault: đó hoàn toàn là lỗi của tôi.

- Please accept my apology: làm ơn chấp nhận lời xin lỗi của tôi.


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Người xin lỗi cũng có thể xin tha thứ:

- Please forgive me.

hoặc hứa:

- It will not happen again: chuyện này sẽ không xảy ra nữa.

Bày tỏ sự tiếc nuối:

- I should not have done that: tôi không nên làm vậy.

- I should have been more careful: lẽ ra tôi nên cẩn thận hơn.

- I wish I hadn‟t done that: ước gì tôi đã không làm vậy.

2. Đề nghị đƣợc bồi thƣờng:

- Please let me know if there is anything I can do to compensate for that: làm ơn cho tôi biết, tôi có thể

làm gì để bù đắp…?

- That‟s fine. I understand it completely!: không sao đâu, tôi hiểu mà.

- This kind of thing happens: chuyện này vẫn thường xảy ra mà.

- Don‟t worry about it: đừng lo.

- You didn‟t mean it: bạn không cố ý mà.

- It‟s doesn‟t matter: không sao đâu.

3. Khi chấp nhận lời xin lỗi trong những trƣờng hợp quan trọng, chúng ta có thể nói:

- I forgive you: tôi tha thứ cho bạn.

- Your apology is accepted: tôi chấp nhận lời xin lỗi của bạn.

- You are forgiven: bạn được tha thứ.

4. Bày tỏ sự cảm thông:

- I am sorry to hear that: tôi rất lấy làm tiếc khi biết điều này.

- I know this is too much to bear: tôi biết điều này là quá sức chịu đựng.

- I think I understand how you feel: tôi nghĩ tôi có thể hiểu được bạn cảm thấy thế nào.

- You have just got to learn to accept it and move forward: bạn phải học cách chấp nhận chuyện đã xảy

ra và tiếp tục sống.

5. Xin phép làm điều gì đó: Thường sử dụng với May / Might / Can / Could…

- May I leave the class early today? Xin phép cho em về sớm.

Một số cấu trúc khác như:

- Do / Would you mind if…: bạn có phiền không nếu…

- Is it OK / alright if…: Liệu có ổn không nếu…

- Do you think I can…: Liệu tôi có thể…

- Anybody might if…? Có ai phiền không nếu…?

Để đáp lại lời xin phép, nếu đồng ý có thể dùng lặp lại các từ May, Can.

- Để đáp lại câu xin phép về sớm, ta có thể nói:

- Yes, you may/ you can. Không dùng “Could” trong câu trả lời cho phép.

Ngoài ra còn một số cách diễn đạt khác:

- Sure! Certainly! Of course: Đương nhiên rồi.

- Go ahead: Cứ tự nhiên.

- Use it! Don‟t ask: Dùng đi, không cần xin phép!

Chú ý: khi người xin phép dùng các cấu trúc với: “Would/ Do you mind” thì câu đáp lại phải mang

nghĩa phủ định:


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- No, not at all: Hoàn toàn không.

- Of course not: Tất nhiên là không phiền gì.

- No, please do / go ahead: Không phiền đâu, cứ tự nhiên.

Để đáp lại lời xin phép, nếu từ chối, có thể dùng các cấu trúc sau:

- No, you can‟t: Không, không được.

- I am afraid you can‟t: Tôi e là không được.

- No, not now: Bây giờ thì không được.

hoặc dùng:

- I‟d rather you + Mệnh đề quá khứ đơn và đưa thêm lí do để giải thích.

6. Mời và đáp lại

- Would you like…? Bạn có thích…?

- I would like to invite you to…: Tôi muốn mời bạn…

- Do you fancy! Do you feel like…? Bạn có muốn…

- Let‟s …

- Shall we…?

Để đáp lại lời mời ngoài lời cảm ơn, chúng ta cũng có thể dùng:

- Yes, please! Vâng, cho tôi một ít.

- That is/sounds great! Sẽ rất tuyệt đấy.

- It is a great idea! Đó là một ý hay!

- Why not? Sao lại không nhỉ?

- OK! Let‟s do that: Được thôi, cứ thế đi.

- I would love to: Tôi rất thích.

Để từ chối, chúng ta cảm ơn và xin lỗi, sau đó có thể đưa ra lí do để giải thích:

- No, thanks: Không, cảm ơn.

- Sorry I don‟t particularly like: Xin lỗi nhưng tôi không thực sự thấy thích.

- I am afraid I can‟t: Tôi e rằng tôi không thể.

- I am sorry but I don‟t feel up to: Tôi xin lỗi nhưng tôi không thấy hào hứng lắm.

- I‟d rather give a miss if you don‟t mind: Nếu bạn không phiền thì để lúc khác.

- I‟d love to but…

- Some other time, perhaps: có lẽ để dịp khác đi.

- I wish I could: ước gì tôi có thể.

7. Đề nghị: Để đề nghị giúp đỡ ngƣời khác, chúng ta dùng một số cách diễn đạt sau:

- Let me help you: Để tôi giúp bạn.

- Can/ May I help you: tôi có thể giúp bạn được gì không?

- How can I help you? How can I be of help? Tôi có thể giúp bạn được chút gì không?

- Would you like some help? Do you need some help? Bạn có cần giúp gì không?

- Would you like something to drink? Bạn có muốn uống chút gì đó không?

- Let me make you a cup of coffee! Hãy để tôi pha cho bạn một tách café nhé!

- Shall I cook something for you? Để tôi nấu gì cho bạn ăn nhé?

Chấp nhận lời mời, lời đề nghi bằng cách cám ơn:

- Yes, please! Vâng.

- Yes, could I have some orange juice! Vâng. Vậy cho tôi nước cam.

hoặc dùng các cấu trúc giống như khi chấp nhận lời mời:


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- Thanks, that would be a great help! That would be helpful! Cám ơn, nếu bạn giúp tôi thì tốt quá!

- As long as you don‟t mind: Được chứ, nếu bạn không phiền.

- It would be nice/ great/ helpful/… if you could! Sẽ rất tốt, rất tuyệt nếu bạn giúp!

Để từ chối lời đề nghị, có thể dùng các cách sau:

- No, thanks: Không, cảm ơn.

- No, but thanks for offering! Không, nhưng cám ơn vì đã muốn giúp tôi.

- No, don‟t worry! Không sao đâu, đừng lo.

- No, that‟s OK! Không cần đâu, tôi ổn mà.

- Thanks but I can manage! Cám ơn nhưng tôi có thể tự xoay xở được!

8. Ra lệnh, đe dọa: Để ra lệnh và đe dọa, ngƣời ta có thể dùng thể cầu khiến, hoặc dùng với “must”,

“will”.

- You must go home early! Con phải về nhà sớm đấy!

- Leave me alone! Để tôi yên!

- Give me money or I will kill you! Đưa tiền đây không tao giết!

Để đáp lại các câu mệnh lệnh, có thể dùng các cách diễn đạt sau:

- I will/ I won‟t.

- OK.

- Take it easy! Bình tĩnh.

- Will do: Làm đây.

9. Phàn nàn, chỉ trích và cáo buộc: Khi phàn nàn, chỉ trích, một số cấu trúc sau thƣờng đƣợc sử dụng:

- Should (not) have + PP: Lẽ ra nên / không nên làm gì.

- You should have asked for permission!: Lẽ ra bạn nên xin phép trước chứ!

- What on earth have you been? Bạn đã đi đâu lâu vậy?

- Why on earth didn‟t you listen to me? Tại sao bạn lại không nghe tôi chút nào thế nhỉ?

- What the hell kept you there so long? Cái gì giữ bạn lại đó lâu thế?

Mức độ chỉ trích nặng nhẹ, còn tùy thuộc vào thái độ của người phàn nàn, chỉ trích. Thì hiện tại

tiếp diễn dùng với “always” cũng được dùng để chỉ sự phàn nàn, chỉ trích.

- You are always late! Bạn thường xuyên muộn đấy.

10. Khi cáo buộc, thƣờng dùng cách diễn đạt trực tiếp mô tả điều cáo buộc.

- You damaged my new carpet! Bạn làm bẩn tấm thảm mới mua của tôi rồi đấy!

- No one but you did it! Bạn chứ không phải ai khác đã làm điều này!

Khi nhận được lời cáo buộc, phàn nàn, người nghe có thể giải thích bằng cách xin lỗi. Phủ nhận lời

phàn nàn hay cáo buộc bằng các cấu trúc dưới đây, sau đó là lời giải thích:

- I don‟t think so: Tôi không nghĩ vậy.

- Watch your tongue! Cẩn thận với cái lưỡi của anh đấy!

- Mind your words/ Be careful what you say! Cẩn thận với những gì anh nói đấy!

- Not me: Không phải tôi.

- ********************************************************************


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CÁC P ƢƠNG P ÁP ÀM BÀ

1. N ỮNG Đ ỂM C NG CẦN Ƣ

- Làm đến câu trắc nghiệm nào thí sinh phải dùng bút chì tô ngay ô tròn trả lời trên phiếu trả lời, ứng với câu trắc

nghiệm đó, tránh làm toàn bộ các câu của đề thi trên giấy nháp hoặc trên đề thi rồi mới tô vào phiếu trả lời vì dễ bị

thiếu thời gian.

- Tránh việc chỉ trả lời trên đề thi hoặc giấy nháp mà quên tô trên phiếu trả lời.

- Chỉ tô các ô tròn bằng bút chì. Trong trường hợp tô nhầm hoặc muốn thay đổi câu trả lời, thí sinh dùng tẩy tẩy thật

sạch chì ở ô cũ, rồi tô kín ô khác mà mình mới lựa chọn.

- Số thứ tự câu trả lời mà thí sinh làm trên phiếu trả lời phải trùng với số thứ tự câu hỏi trắc nghiệm trong đề thi, chú ý

tránh trường hợp trả lời câu này nhưng tô vào hàng của câu khác trên phiếu trả lời.

- Tránh việc tô hai ô tròn trở lên cho một câu trắc nghiệm, máy sẽ không chấm, câu đó sẽ không được tính điểm.

- Không nên dừng quá lâu trước một câu trắc nghiệm nào đó. Nếu không làm được câu này, thí sinh nên tạm thời bỏ

qua để làm câu khác. Cuối giờ có thể quay trở lại làm câu đã bỏ qua nếu còn thời gian.

2. MỘT Ố CÁC G BÀ THI CỤ T Ể

Trong phần này sẽ được trình bày một số gợi ý cách làm các câu hỏi trắc nghiệm dưới dạng câu đơn (single sentence)

và dưới dạng một bài đọc (a text) và phần nhận diện lỗi (error identification)

2.1 Các câu hỏi trắc nghiệm dƣới dạng câu đơn.

Trong khi luyện cũng như trong phòng thi, thí sinh cần lưu tâm đến các đặc điểm sau của các loại câu này:

- Thứ nhất, các câu này kiểm tra tương đối toàn diện kiến thức ngôn ngữ (ngữ pháp, ngữ âm, từ vựng, vv) và kỹ

năng sử dụng ngôn ngữ (viết và đọc). Vì thế thí sinh cần đọc kỹ yêu cầu làm bài và xác định nghe xem kiến thức

mà người thiết kế đề thi muốn kiểm tra là gì

- Thứ hai, cần đọc hết câu dẫn và cả bốn lựa chọn để xác định xem:

từ loại cần điền vào chỗ trống là danh từ, động từ, hay tính từ ,vv

nghĩa của từ cần điền vào chỗ trống cho phù hợp với nghĩa của toàn câu

dạng thức ngữ pháp của từ cần phải điền vào chỗ trống.

Ví dụ:

Tony was when he passed the entrance exam.

A. tired B. pleased C. like D. pleasure

Trong câu trên, chúng ta thấy từ cần điền vào chỗ trống phải là một tính từ vì từ này đi sau động từ "to be". Vậy ta loại

được các phương án C (động từ) và D (danh từ). Trong số hai tính từ còn lại (A và B), thì đáp án B (pleased) là hợp nghĩa

trong văn cảnh của câu.

- Thứ ba, kể cả khi đã "nhìn thấy" từ đúng cho chỗ trống, thí sinh cần phải đọc cả bốn phương án đã cho vì yêu cầu

của bài có thể, và thường là chọn phương án đúng nhất. Trong số các phương án đã cho có thể có tới hơn một

phương án đúng, nhưng trong bố cảnh của câu đó, chỉ có một phương án đúng nhất. Đặc biệt là không nên dịch từ

tiếng Việt sang tiếng Anh, sau đó lựa chọn phương án

Ví dụ:

Mrs. Lan has been elected to be the _____ of the hotel.

A. director B. manager C. boss D. chair

Trong câu này, chúng ta thấy cả bốn phương án đều có nghĩa là người đứng đầu (giám đốc, người quản lý, sếp, chủ tịch)

của một đơn vị, cơ quan, tổ chức. Trong câu trên, nhiều thí sinh cho rằng từ "boss" là tốt nhất vì nó bao hàm nghĩa chung

nhất. Phương án này cũng đúng, nhưng trong bối cảnh của câu này thì phương án "manager" là đúng nhất vì đây là người

quản lý của một khách sạn "a hotel".

- Thứ tư, kể cả khi không quyết định được phương án nào là phương án đúng, thí sinh cũng không nên quá lo sợ mà

hãy bình tĩnh loại bỏ những phương án có khả năng bị sai nhiều. Thông thường người ra đề thi đưa vào hai

phương án "chắc chắn sai". Còn trong hai phương án còn lại, hãy lựa chọn phương án mình cảm thấy là đúng hơn.


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Tất nhiên cảm giác về ngôn ngữ của chúng ta cũng có thể sai, nhưng lựa chọn một trong hai phương án còn lại vẫn

tốt hơn là làm mò hoàn toàn

Ví dụ

It took Lan a long time to find the pair of shoes that .............. her blue trouserss.

A. liked B. fitted C. agreed D. matched

Trong số các phương án trên, chúng ta có thể loại được ngay các phương án A và C vì nghĩa không phù hợp. Nếu không

phân biệt được sự khác nhau giữa hai đáp án B và D, thí sinh nên theo cảm tính của mình lựa chọn một trong hai, và khả

năng đúng của chúng ta sẽ là 50/50 chứ không phải là 25/100. Trong trường hợp trên phương án D là đúng vì nghĩa của

câu là hợp về màu sắc.

Cuối cùng là trong bất kỳ trường hợp nào cũng không nên bỏ một câu nào vì có nếu chọn sai cũng không bị trừ điểm.

2.2 Bài đọc hiểu trắc nghiệm (multiple-choice comprehension questions).

- Bài tập đọc hiểu nhằm kiểm tra khả năng đọc bằng mắt lấy thông tin để lựa chọn phương án đúng cho các câu hỏi

về bài đọc đó. Có rất nhiều yêu cầu torng bài đọc hiểu như:

Lấy thông tin chính (main idea)

Lấy thông tin chi tiết (details)

Thông tin về dữ kiện và số liệu (facts and data)

Hiểu được ẩn ý (implied idea) hoặc ý kiến

Nghĩa của từ trong đoạn hoặc trong dòng

Quan điểm (opinion) của tác giả đối với vấn đề được nêu trong bài đọc.

Tuy nhiên trong các kỳ thi gần đây, chủ yếu các câu hỏi của phần này chỉ yêu cầu thí sinh xác định đúng

thông tin về dữ kiện và số liệu.

Trong bài thi trắc nghiệm, hai loại hình đọc hiểu phổ biến nhất là đọc và lựa chọn từ chính xác nhất để điền vào chỗ

trống, và đọc sau đó lựa chọn phương án trả lời đúng nhất cho một số câu hỏi về bài đọc như minh họa trong phần 2 ở

trên.

Có nhiều quan điểm khác nhau về cách làm bài này. Về cơ bản thì các chuyên gia về thi cử đưa ra hai cách chính.

- Cách thứ nhất là đọc các câu hỏi trước sau đó đọc bài để tìm thông tin trả lời các câu hỏi đó. Cách này thường

dùng cho các bài đọc dài.

- Cách thứ hai là đọc bài trước, sau đó đọc các câu hỏi và quay trở lại bài để tìm thông tin trả lời. Cụ thể các bước

thực hiện cách làm này như sau:

Đọc nhanh một lượt từ đầu đến cuối.

Mục đích của lần đọc này là nằm được chủ đề của bài viết và nội dung sơ lược của nó.

Trong khi đọc, thí sinh bỏ qua mọi từ mới. Thậm chí nếu không hiểu cả một câu nào đó cũng có thể bỏ qua để

đọc tiếp.

- Đọc kỹ câu hỏi và tất cả các phương án A, B, C, D, sau đó xác định xem chỗ nào trong bài đọc có thông tin giúp

lựa chọn phương án đúng nhất. Cần chú trọng đến các từ đồng nghĩa giữa bài đọc và các phương án

- Khi lựa chọn câu trả lời, luôn luôn kiểm tra lại bước 2 ở trên để đảm bảo chắc chắn là đã xác định đúng chỗ có

thông tin cho câu hỏi mình đang trả lời.

- Để chọn được phương án trả lời đúng nhất, trước hết nên loại bỏ phương án chắc chắn sai (về số liệu, dữ kiện, vv),

phương án không có thông tin trong bài đọc, phương án chỉ đúng một phần để còn lại phương án cuối cùng là

phương án đúng nhất.

- Cần phân tích thật kỹ tất cả các phương án mà người ra đề đưa ra vì phương án trả lời đúng nhất có khi chỉ khác

một từ so với các phương án còn lại.

- Khi đưa ra quyết định lựa chọn phương án đúng nhất, không nên sử dụng kiến thức của mình về vấn đề được bàn

tới (hoặc các kiến thức không được nêu trong bài đọc. Phương án đúng nhất phải là phương án trả lời chính xác

nhất dựa vào thông tin có trong bài đọc.

Như đã nêu ở trên, trong số bốn phương án đưa ra có tới ba phương án mang tính "gây nhiễu" (distractor). Những

phương án gây nhiễu này có thể là các từ hoặc câu không đúng, chỉ đúng một phần, hoặc thông tin trong phương án đó

không có trong bài đọc, hoặc một từ dùng trong phương án đó khác với từ dùng trong bài đọc

Ví dụ:


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Trong bài là từ "should" còn trong phương án là từ "could" trong bài là từ "must" còn trong phương án là từ "will",

vv. Chính vì vậy thí sinh nên đọc thật kỹ tất cả các phương án đưa ra. Chúng ta cùng phân tích một bài đọc hiểu sau.

In August 1964, an American man named Norman Cousins suddenly became very ill. Within a week, he was in

hospital, unable to move his arms and legs and feeling terrible pain. It was impossible for him to sleep. His doctor said

that it was unlikely that he would get better.

Câu hỏi: Norman Cousins went to hospital because he .........

A. was unable to sleep. B. felt extremely unwell.

C. found he could laugh. D. would never get better again.

Đọc tất cả các phương án trên,

Phương án B bị loại vì thông tin không có trong bài đọc.

Phương án D có chứa một số từ giống như trong bài đọc nhưng cũng không đúng vì trong bài viết là "His doctor

said that it was unlikely that he would get better".

Phương án A thoạt nhìn có vẻ đúng vì trong bài có câu "It was impossible for him to sleep". Nhưng đọc kỹ lại ta

thấy là sau khi nhập viện rồi Norman mới không ngủ được, trước đó thì không biết, vì trong bài không đưa thông tin này.

Phương án C là đúng nhất vì "extremely unwell" là đồng nghĩa với "very ill"

2.3 Bài đọc hiểu trắc nghiệm chọn từ cho chỗ trống (multiple-choice word for gap filling).

Dạng điền từ vào chỗ trống (guided cloze reading), nghĩa là chọn một đáp án thích hợp để điền vào mỗi chỗ trống, đây

là dạng bài nhằm kiểm tra khả năng sử dụng ngôn ngữ và khả năng phân tích từ vựng và nội hàm đạon văn.

Loại bài này, nhằm vào sự vận dụng kiến thức từ vựng và thành ngữ, ngữ pháp trong mọi ngữ cảnh mà đoạn văn đặt ra

để chọn phương án chính xác.

Đọc lướt qua một lượt qua đoạn văn để hiểu nội dung

Đọc kỹ đoạn văn, chú ý đến chỗ trống cần chọn từ điền vào và từ / những cụm từ trước và sau chỗ trống đó.

Xác định từ loại ngay chỗ trống cần điền là gì hay nó là thành ngữ cần phải điền

Đọc kỹ bốn phương án cần lựa chọn là gì, xem xét chỗ cần điền liên quan đến ngữ pháp hay từ loại hay thành ngữ.

Nếu chỗ cần điền liên quan đến từ vựng, đọc kỹ cụm từ, câu hoặc đoạn văn đó, dựa vào ngữ cảnh hoặc nội

hàm của nó để có sự lựa chọn hợp lý

Nếu chỗ cần điền liên quan đến ngữ pháp, cấu trúc câu, xem xét lại các từ/cụm từ (từ loại: động từ, tính từ,

trạng từ, danh từ, giới từ, liên từ,...) để có phương án chọn hợp lý.

2.4 Bài tập xác định lỗi

Trong bài thi, loại hình bài tập này nằm trong phần kiểm tra kỹ năng viết của thí sinh. Yêu cầu của loại hình bài tập

này là như sau:

Mỗi câu có bốn từ hoặc cụm từ được gạch dưới,

Trong đó có một chỗ sai.

Xác định chỗ sai và viết câu trả lời trong phiếu trả lời.

Ví dụ:

One of the most serious medical problem that mankind is facing is H5N1.

A B C D

Chúng ta có thể áp dụng kỹ thuật làm bài giống như trong phần trắc nghiệm câu đơn. Người thiết kế các câu này muốn

kiếm tra thí sinh kiến thức ngôn ngữ tổng quát, nhưng chủ yếu là các kiến thức về ngữ pháp (sử dụng thời, động từ, danh

từ, tính từ, mạo từ, vv) từ vựng (dạng thức, sử dụng đúng từ trong văn cảnh, v.v..)

Sau khi xem xét cả bốn từ gạch chân ta xác định được chỗ sai là B vì sau One of phải là một danh từ đếm được số

nhiều. Các bạn hãy tham khảo lại cách làm các câu đơn trắc nghiệm như trong phần (a) ở trên.

2.5 4. Chọn câu đồng nghĩa với câu cho sẵn:

Dạng câu hỏi này bao gồm một câu cho sẵn và 4 phương án là 4 câu diễn giải nghĩa của câu đã cho, nhằm kiểm tra

khả năng hiểu của học sinnh ở cấp độ câu . Các em phải đọc và chọn một trong 4 phương án một câu có nghĩa đúng nhất

với câu gốc đã cho.

Dạng câu hỏi này thường kiểm tra hiểu các cấu trúc sau:

mệnh đè trạng ngữ,

Câu điều kiện,


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Câu tường thuật

………

Dạng câu hỏi này các cần đọc kĩ và hiểu rõ nghĩa của câu đã cho. Sau đó đọc các, phương án lựa chọn và loại bỏ các

phương án sai về cấu trúc, ngữ nghĩa hoặc mối liên hệ về thời gian để chọn ra câu có nghĩa gần nhất với câu đã cho.

Nếu vẫn không chọn được câu đúng nhất, các em hãy đọc lại các phương án còn lại và chú ý đến các chi tiết nhỏ khác

như chấm câu, khẳng định hay phủ định.

Chú ý: Đừng bao giờ chọn đáp án khi các em chưa đọc hết câu và các phương án lựa chọn.

Ví dụ:

We have run out of tea.

A. There‟s not much more tea left B. There is no tea left.

C. We have to run out to buy some tea. D. We didn‟t have any tea.

Câu này có nghĩa là “chúng tôi không còn trà” vì vậy đáp án B là câu trả lời đúng. Lựa chọn A không đúng ngữ pháp, lựa

chọn C có nghĩa hoàn toàn khác và lựa chọn D chỉ quá khứ.

2.6 5. Dạng bài tập phát âm:

Phần này được chia ra thành 2 dạng:

a. Phát âm :

Phần này, phải nhớ cách phát âm của các từ vựng thông qua tập đọc và lưu ý những âm đặc biệt. Với dạng câu hỏi

này, cần chú ý đến các mẫu tự. Trong đa số các trường hợp, mặt chữ giúp nhận biết được trong cách phát âm.

Ví dụ:

A. mechanic [k] B. architect [k] C. chemistry [k] D. choose. [t∫]

b. Nhấn trọng âm :

Ex: A. relate B. settle C. protect D. compose.

***************************************

Chúc các bạn thành công


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ĐỀ Ô 1

1-5. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other words.

1. A. shown B. flown C. grown D. crown

2. A. complexion B. examination C. exaggerate D. exhibit

3. A. accountant B. amount C. country D. founding

4. A. missed B. laughed C. stopped D. closed

5. A. initiate B. criteria C. certificate D. interactive

6-35. Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D that best completes each sentence.

6. We ....................... today and I got into trouble because I hadn't done it.

A. were checked our homework B. had our homework checked

C. have our homework checking D. had checked our homework

7. You can go to the party tonight ....................... you are sober when you come home.

A. as long as B. as far as C. as soon as D. as well as

8. She must ....................... in the garage when we came that's why she didn't hear the bell.

A. have been working B. be working C. have worked D. work

9. I'm sorry, but I've got ....................... much work to do to come to the beach today.

A. too B. such C. enough D. so

10. It‟s essential that every student ....................... the exam before attending the course.

A. passes B. would pass C. passed D. pass

11. I decided to go to the library as soon as I ........................

A. would finish what I did B. finished what I did

C. finished what I was doing D. finish what I did

12. Ancient Egyptians mummified the dead bodies through the use of chemicals, ....................... ancient Peruvians did

through natural processes.

A. because B. whereas C. whether or not D. even though

13. Please cut my hair ....................... the style in this magazine.

A. the same length like B. the same length as C. the same long like D. the same long as

14. ....................... in this national park declined from a few thousand to a few hundred in ten years.

A. For a number of tigers B. The number of tigers

C. A number of tigers D. That the number of tigers

15. ......................., he would have been able to pass the exam.

A. Studying more B. Had he studied more C. If he studied more D. If he were studying more

16. Study harder .......................

A. if you will pass the exam B. unless you pass the exam

C. or you won‟t pass the exam D. and you pass the exam

17. Fire safety in family houses,....................... most fire deaths occur, is difficult.

A. how B. when C. why D. where

18. ....................... of the financial crisis, all they could do was hold on and hope that things would improve.

A. In the end B. At the height C. On the top D. At the bottom

19. When I got my case back, it had been damaged ....................... repair.

A. over B. further C. above D. beyond

20. We intend to ....................... with the old system as soon as we have developed a better one.

A. do up B. do in C. do away D. do down

21. ....................... that she burst into tears.

A. So angry was she B. Such her anger C. She was so anger D. Her anger was so

22. ....................... before, his first performance for the amateur dramatic group was a success.

A. Though having never acted B. Despite he had never acted

C. As he had never acted D. In spite of his never having acted


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23. We regret to tell you that the materials you ordered are .......................

A. out of reach B. out of practice C. out of stock D. out of work

24. Do you remember Daisy? I ran ....................... her at the Fair yesterday.

A. by B. down C. across D. in

25. I‟m really sleepy today. I wish I ....................... Bob to the airport late last night.

A. weren‟t taking B. didn‟t take C. hadn‟t had to take D. didn‟t have to take

26. Mark: “.......................”

Helen: “Oh, thank you. I just got it yesterday.”

A. What a beautiful dress you have on! B. How a beautiful dress you‟re wearing!

C. When have you got this beautiful dress? D. You‟ve just bought this beautiful dress, haven‟t you?

27. Matthew‟s hands were covered in oil because he ....................... his bike.

A. had been mending B. has mended C. has been mending D. had mended

28. “I think we should recycle these bags. It will help protect the environment.”

“....................... ”

A. Never mind B. I can‟t agree with you more

C. You can say that again D. It‟s rubbish. We shouldn‟t use it.

29. Host: “I‟m terribly sorry for this inconvenience.”

Guests: "......................."

A. It‟s mine. I came late B. It‟s not your fault

C. I‟ll do better next time D. Fine, thanks

30. Once known as the “Golden State” because of its gold mines, .......................

A. North Carolina today mines few metallic minerals

B. few metallic minerals are mined in North Carolina today

C. there are few metallic minerals mined in North Carolina today

D. today in North Carolina few metallic minerals are mined

31. Anyone who has ever pulled weeds from a garden ....................... roots firmly anchor plants to the soil.

A. well aware B. is well aware that C. is well aware of D. well aware that

32. Global warming is damaging the environment. ......................, governments are trying to reduce this warming.

A. Consequently B. Unequivocally C. Evidently D. Indisputably

33. The two nations got into a ....................... over air pollution. The two governments solved the dispute peacefully.

A. ego B. symptom C. treaty D. conflict

34. The bank is reported in the local newspaper ....................... in broad daylight yesterday.

A. to be robbed B. robbed C. to have been robbed D. having been robbed

35. In many aspects, the problems that John faced are ....................... a young man and woman might face today.

A. much like that B. much like those C. like much those D. like much that

36-40. Choose the underlined part among A, B, C or D that needs correcting.

36. Dreams are (A) commonly (B) made up of (C) either visual and (D) verbal images.

37. Today, successful farmers are experts not only in (A) agriculture, (B) but also in (C) market, finance, and (D) accounting.

38. Many bridges in New England (A) were covered with wooden roofs to protect (B) it (C) from (D) rain and snow.

39. Ducks are (A) less susceptible (B) to infection (C) than (D) others types of poultry.

40. Mary (A) said her friends that she (B) would never walk (C) alone in the forest after (D) dark.

41-50. Choose the correct sentence among A, B, C or D which has the same meaning as the given one.

41. "Leave my house now or I'll call the police!" shouted the lady to the man.

A. The lady threatened to call the police if the man didn't leave her house.

B. The lady said that she would call the police if the man didn't leave her house.

C. The lady told the man that she would call the police if he didn't leave her house.

D. The lady informed the man that she would call the police if he didn't leave her house.

42. He last had his eyes tested ten months ago.

A. He had tested his eyes ten months before. B. He had not tested his eyes for ten months then.


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C. He hasn't had his eyes tested for ten months. D. He didn't have any test on his eyes in ten months.

43. "You should have finished the report by now," John told his secretary.

A. John reproached his secretary for not having finished the report.

B. John said that his secretary had not finished the report.

C. John reminded his secretary of finishing the report on time.

D. John scolded his secretary for not having finished the report.

44. "If I were you, I would take the job," said my room-mate.

A. My room-mate was thinking about taking the job.

B. My room-mate advised me to take the job.

C. My room-mate introduced the idea of taking the job to me.

D. My room-mate insisted on taking the job for me.

45. "It's too stuffy in this room, isn't it?" said the guest.

A. The guest suggested that the room should be aired.

B. The guest remarked that the room should be aired.

C. The guest said that the room was too crowded.

D. The guest said that there was too much stuff in the room.

46. My professor will retire next month after teaching chemistry for twenty years.

A. Twenty years after teaching chemistry, my professor will retire next month.

B. After my professor has finished teaching chemistry for twenty years, she will retire.

C. Having taught chemistry for twenty years, my professor will retire next month.

D. It will be twenty years next month since my professor retired.

47. Peter is attending a private school and is majoring in electronics.

A. Peter is specializing in electronics at a private school.

B. Peter is a major at a private electronics school

C. Although Peter is attending a private school, he's majoring in electronics.

D. Peter's private school is letting him major in electronics.

48. Children reared in poverty tend, on the average, to do poorly on tests or intelligence.

A. Impoverished children are generally not as intelligent as rich children.

B. Behind the poverty trend is an assumption that children are stupid.

C. Children from poor families have a tendency to fear badly on intelligence tests.

D. Intelligence tests are poorly administered to poor children.

49. Animal experiments suggest that good nutrition during the first three years of human life is crucial.

A. Experiments have proven that it is very important for a human baby under three years of age to have some nutrition.

B. Because of the experiments with the animals, researchers believe that good nutrition for infants is very important.

C. If animals are deprived of health food for three years, they will not be healthy.

D. If infant humans do not eat good food for three years, they will act like animals.

50. After many long and grueling hours of practice, Rita finally became an accomplished violinist.

A. Rita's long and grueling hours of practice helped her become an accomplished violinist.

B. Rita accomplished many long and grueling hours of practice and became a violinist.

C. After becoming an accomplished violinist, Rita spent many long and grueling hours of practice.

D. Rita spent many long and grueling hours accomplishing her violin practice.

51-60. Choose the word or phrase among A, B, C or D that best fits the blank space in the following passage.

Whenever we read about the natural world nowadays, it is generally to be (51)....................... direct prediction about

its imminent destruction. Some scientists go so (52) ....................... as to assert that from now on, the world can no longer

be called "natural", insofar as future processes of weather, (53) ....................... , and all the interactions of plants and

animal life will no longer carry on in their time-honored way, unaffected by (54) ........................ There will never be

such a thing as "natural weather" again, say such writers, only weather (55) ....................... by global warming.

It is hard to know whether to believe such prophets of doom, possibly because what they are saying seems too

terrible to be (56) ........................ There are other equally influential scientists who argue that climate, for example, has

changed many times over the (57) ......................., and what we are experiencing now may simply be part of an endless


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cycle of change, rather than a disaster on a global (58) ........................ One cannot help wondering whether these

attempts to wish the problems away (59) ....................... underlie the extent to which western industrialized countries are

to blame for upsetting the world's (60) .......................

51. A. made B. given C. told D. granted

52. A. much B. often C really D. fare

53. A. change B. atmosphere C. climate D. even

54. A. man B. beings C. people D. human

55. A. built B. manufacture C. affected D. organized

56. A stopped B. true C. guessed D. here

57. A. top B. again C. century D. world

58. A. sense B. form C. scale D. existence

59. A. simply B. to C. that D. or

60. A. future B. ecology C. balance D. population

61-70. Choose the item among A, B, C or D that best answers the question about the passage.

The ocean bottom - a region nearly 2.5 times greater than total land area of the Earth - is a vast frontier that even

today is largely unexplored and uncharted. Until about a century ago, the deep - ocean floor was completely

inaccessible, hidden beneath waters averaging over 3.6000 meters deep. Totally without light and subjected to intense

pressures hundreds of times greater than at the Earth‟s surface, deep-ocean bottom is a hostile environment to humans, in

some ways as forbidding and remote as the void of outer space.

Although researchers have taken samples of deep-ocean rocks and sediments for over a century, the first detailed

global investigation of the ocean bottom did not actually start until 1968, with the beginning of the National Science

Foundation‟s Deep Sea Drilling Project (DSDP). Using techniques first developed for the offshore oil gas industry, the

Dad‟s drill ship, the Glomar Challenger, was able to maintain a steady position on the ocean‟s surface and drill in very

deep waters, extracting samples of sediments and rock from the ocean floor.

The Glomar Challenger completed 96 voyages in a 15 – year research program that ended in November 1983.

During this time, the vessel logged 600,000 kilometers and took almost 20,000 core samples of seabed sediments and

rocks at 624 drilling sites around the world. The Glomar Challenger‟s core samples have allowed geologists to

reconstruct what the planet looked like hundreds of millions of years ago and to calculate what it problem look will like

millions of years in the future. Today, largely on the strength of evidence gathered during the Glomar Challenger‟s

voyages, nearly all earth scientists agree on the theories of plate tectonics and continental drift that explain many of the

geological processes that shape the Earth.

The cores of sediment drilled by the Glomar Challenger have also yielded information critical to understanding the

worlds past climates. Deep - ocean sediments provide a climatic record stretching back hundreds of millions of years;

because they are largely isolated from the mechanical erosion and the intense chemical and biological activity that

rapidly destroy much land - based evidence of past climates. This record has already provided insights into the patterns

and causes of past climatic change - information that may be used to predict future climates

61. The author refers to the ocean bottom as a “frontier” because it................

A. attracts courageous explorers B. is not a popular area for scientific research

C. contains a wide variety of life forms D. is an unknown territory

62. The word “inaccessible” is closest meaning to .................

A. unusable B. unreachable C. unrecognizable D. unsafe

63. The author mentions outer space in the first paragraph because.................

A. it is similar to the ocean floor in being alien to the human environment

B. techniques used by scientists to explore outer space were similar to those used in ocean exploration.

C. the Earth‟s climate millions of years ago was similar to condition in outer space.

D. rock formations in outer space are similar to those found on the ocean floor

64. Which of the following is True of the Glomar Challenger?

A. It is a type of submarine. B. It has gone on over 100 voyages.

C. It made its first DSDP voyage in 1968. D. It is an ongoing project.


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65. The word “extracting” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to .................

A. locating B. breaking C. analyzing D. removing

66. The Deep Sea Drilling Project was significant because it was .................

A. attempt to find new sources of oil and gas

B. the first extensive exploration of the ocean bottom

C. funded entirely by the gas and oil industry

D. composed of geologists from all over the world

67. The word “strength” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to .................

A. endurance B. basis C. discovery D. purpose

68. The word “they” in the last paragraph refers to .................

A. sediments B. cores C. climates D. years

69. The DSDP can be said to be ................ in terms of geological exploration.

A. a total flop B. of crucial importance C. a great success D. a west of time and effort

70. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as being a result of the Deep Sea Drilling Project?

A. Geologists were able to determine the Earth‟s appearance hundreds of millions of years ago.

B. Two geological theories became more widely accepted by scientists.

C. Geologists observed forms of marine life never before seen

D. Information was revealed about the Earth‟s past climatic changes.


Butterflies are among the most extensively studied insects, an estimated 90 percent of the world‟s species have

scientific names. As a consequence, they are, perhaps, the best group of insects for examining patterns of terrestrial

biotic diversity and distribution. Butterflies also have a favorable image with the general public. Hence, they are an

excellent group for communicating information on science and conservation issues such as diversity.

Perhaps the aspect of butterfly diversity that has received the most attention over the past century is the striking

difference in species richness between tropical and temperate regions.

For example, in 1875 one biologist pointed out the diversity of butterflies in the Amazon when he mentioned that

about 700 species were found within an hour's walk, whereas the total number found on the British islands did not exceed

66, and the whole of Europe supported only 321. This early comparison of tropical and temperate butterfly richness has

been well confirmed.

A general theory of diversity would have to predict not only this difference between temperate and tropical zones,

but also patterns within each region, and how these patterns vary among different animal and plant groups. However, for

butterflies, variation of species richness within temperate or tropical regions, rather than between them, is poorly

understood. Indeed, comparisons of numbers of species among the Amazon basin, tropical Asia, and Africa are still

mostly "personal communication" citations, even for vertebrates. In other words, unlike comparison between temperate

and tropical areas, these patterns are still in the documentation phase.

In documenting geographical variation in butterfly diversity, some arbitrary, practical decisions are made. Diversity,

number of species, and species richness are used synonymously; little is known about the evenness of butterfly distribution.

The New World butterflies make up the preponderance of examples because they are the most familiar species. It is hoped

that by focusing on them, the errors generated by imperfect and incomplete taxonomy will be minimized.

71. Which aspect of butterflies does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Their physical characteristics B. Their adaptation to different habitats

C. Their names D. Their variety

72. The word "consequence" in the passage is closest in meaning to "……………………….".

A. requirement B. analysis C. result D. explanation

73. Butterflies are a good example for communicating information about conservation issues because they……………

A. are found mainly in temperate climates B. have been given scientific names

C. are simple in structure D. are viewed positively by people

74. The word "striking" in the passage is closest in meaning to "………………………."

A. noticeable B. successful C. confusing D. physical


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75. The word “exceed” in the passage is closest in meaning to "……………………….".

A. allow B. go beyond C. come close to D. locate

76. All of the followings are mentioned as being important parts of a general theory of diversity EXCEPT …………..

A. differences between temperate and tropical zones

B. variation of patterns of distribution of species among different animals and plants

C. patterns of distribution of species in each region

D. migration among temperate and tropical zones

77. The author mentions "tropical Asia" in the passage as an example of a location where …………………

A. a general theory of butterfly diversity has not yet been firmly established

B. butterflies are affected by human populations

C. butterfly behavior varies with climate

D. documenting plant species is more difficult than documenting butterfly species

78. Which of the following is NOT well understood by biologists?

A. European butterfly habitats

B. Comparisons of behavior patterns of butterflies and certain animal groups

C. Differences in species richness within a temperate or a tropical region

D. Differences in species richness between temperate and tropical regions

79. The idea "little is known about the evenness of butterfly distribution" is that …………………………

A. there are many other things that we don't know about butterfly evenness distribution

B. we don't know anything about butterfly evenness distribution

C. we know much about butterfly evenness distribution

D. we know about butterfly evenness distribution to some extent

80. The word "generated" in the passage is closest in meaning to "……………………….".

A. assisted B. estimated C. requested D. caused

*************************************************************

ĐỀ Ô 2

1-5. Pick the word that has the stress differently from that of the other words.

1. A. future B. prospect C. guidance D. involve

2. A. facilitate B. hydrology C. participate D. intimacy

3. A. represent B. permanent C. continent D. sentiment

4. A. romantic B. reduction C. popular D. financial

5. A. optimist B. immediate C. fabulous D. accuracy


6. I won‟t change my mind ................................ what you say.

A. no matter B. whether C. although D. because

7. “I‟d rather you................................ home now.”

A. go B. gone C. went D. going

8. It is very important for a firm or a company to keep ................................ the changes in the market.

A. track about B. up with C. pace of D. touch with

9. There was nothing they could do ................................ leave the car at the roadside where it had broken down.

A. than B. but C. unless D. instead of

10. Jane ................................ law for four years now at Harvard.

A. studied B. is studying C. studies D. has been studying

11. “How do you like your steak done?”

“ .................................”

12. Susan‟s doctor insists ................................ for a few days.

A. that she is resting B. her to rest C. her resting D. that she rest


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13. ................................ he arrived at the bus stop when the bus came.

A. No sooner had B. No longer has C. Not until had D. Hardly had

A. I don‟t like it much B. Very little C. Well done D. Very much

14. “How many times have I told you ................................ football in the street?”

A. not to play B. not playing C. do not play D. not to have played

15. We couldn‟t fly ................................ because all the tickets had been sold out.

A. economic B. economy C. economics D. economical

16. John: “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our environment?”

Laura: “................................”

A. Of course not. You bet! B. There‟s no doubt about it.

C. Well, that‟s very surprising. D. Yes, it‟s an absurd idea.

17. Through an ................................, your letter was left unanswered.

A. overcharge B. overtime C. oversight D. overtone

18. “Please, will you just tidy your room, and stop ................................ excuses!”

A. making B. having C. doing D. taking

19. John paid $2 for his meal, ................................ he had thought it would cost.

A. not as much B. less as C. not so much as D. not so many as

20. “Should we bring a lot of money on the trip?”

“Yes. ................................ we decide to stay longer.”

A. Because B. So that C. In case D. Though

21. My mother told me to ................................ for an electrician when her fan was out of order.

A. turn B. rent C. write D. send

22. The United States consists of fifty states, ................................ has its own government.

A. each of that B. each of which C. hence each D. they each

23. “Don‟t fail to send your parents my regards.” “.................................”

A. Thanks, I will B. You‟re welcome C. Good idea, thanks D. It‟s my pleasure

24. She had to hand in her notice ................................ advance when she decided to leave the job.

A. from B. to C. with D. in

25. He ................................ to the doctor after the accident, but he continued to play instead.

A. couldn‟t go B. should have gone C. must have gone D. didn‟t have to go

26. The kitchen ................................ dirty because she has just cleaned it.

A. mustn‟t be B. can‟t be C. should be D. may be

27. They didn‟t find ................................ in a foreign country.

A. it easy live B. it to live easy C. it easy to live D. easy to live

28. Lora: “Your new blouse looks gorgeous, Helen!”

Helen: “.................................”

A. You can say that again B. I‟d rather not

C. Thanks, I bought it at Macy‟s D. It‟s up to you

29. There should be an international law against .................................

A. deforestation B. forestry C. reforestation D. afforestation

30. “Mum, I‟ve got 600 on the TOEFL test.”

“................................”

A. You are right. B. Good way! C. Oh, hard luck! D. Good job!

31. “This library card will give you free access ................................ the Internet eight hours a day.”

A. in B. to C. on D. from

32. Only when you grow up ................................ the truth.

A. do you know B. you will know C. you know D. will you know

33. “Buy me a newspaper on your way back, ................................?”

A. do you B. don‟t you C. can‟t you D. will you

34. “Don‟t worry. I have ................................ tire at the back of my car.”

A. other B. another C. the other D. others


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35. The forecast has revealed that the world‟s reserves of fossil fuel will have ................................ by 2015.

A. used off B. taken over C. caught up D. run out


36. James was worried that he was (A) the last person to submit the (B) physical assignment (C) but he was actually (D)

the second.

37. Today it seems (A) hardly credible, but Los Angeles grew (B) as it did because in its (C) early days it had a highly

advanced (D) public transporting system.

38. After the (A) social science lecture all students are invited (B) to take part in a discussion (C) of the issues which were

(D) risen in the talk.

39. A football match (A) begins (B) with the ball (C) kicking forwards from a spot (D) in the center of the field.

40. They had a discussion (A) about (B) training not only the new employees but also (C) giving them (D) some

challenges.


41. While I strongly disapproved of your behavior, I will help you this time.

A. Despite of my strong disapproval of your behavior, I will help you this time.

B. Despite my strong disapproval of your behavior, I will help you this time.

C. Although I strongly disapproved of your behavior, but I will help you this time.

D. Because of your behavior, I will help you this time.

42. I‟m sorry I interrupted your speech in the middle.

A. Your speech is very sorry for being interrupted in the middle.

B. I‟m sorry to interrupt your speech in the middle.

C. It‟s my pity to interrupt your speech in the middle.

D. I apologized for having interrupted your speech in the middle.

43. I was not surprised to hear that Harry had failed his driving test.

A. By having failed his driving test, Harry made no surprise.

B. If Harry had not failed his driving test, I would have been surprised.

C. Harry‟s having failed his driving test is not my surprise.

D. It came as no surprise to me that Harry had failed his driving test.

44. She has always had a good relationship with the children.

A. She has always got on well with the children. B. She has got a lot of friend children.

C. She has always got away well with the children. D. The children have had her as their friend.

45. I have called this meeting in order to present the latest sale figures.

A. This meeting is in order to present the latest sale figures.

B. My purpose in this meeting is in order to present the latest sale figures.

C. My purpose in having called this meeting is to present the latest sale figures.

D. This meeting is called in order to present the latest sale figures.

46. It‟s your duty to finish your homework before you go to school.

A. You were supposed to finish your homework before you go to school.

B. Your homework is supposed to be finished before going to school.

C. That your homework is finished before you go to school is your duty.

D. Your duty finishing your homework before you go to school is necessary.

47. "You didn‟t lock the door this morning as I found the keys on the table when I got home!" the woman told her son.

A. The woman scolded her son with unlocking the door that morning as she found the key on the table.

B. The woman criticized her son for not locking the door that morning, adding that she saw the keys on the table.

C. The woman blamed her son for not unlocking the door that morning as she found the key on the table.

D. The woman reproached her son of not locking the door that morning, emphasizing that she saw the keys on

the table.

48. When he was asked for more information about the burglary, the man appeared quite upset.

A. When asking for more information about the burglary, the man appeared quite upset.


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B. On being asked for more information about the burglary, the man appeared quite upset.

C. Being asked for more information about the burglary, the man appeared quite upset.

D. The man appeared quite upset, asking for more information about the burglary, the man appeared quite upset.

49. The Prime Minister is unlikely to call an early general election.

A. The likelihood is that the Prime Minister will call an early general election.

B. The likelihood is great that the Prime Minister will call an early general election.

C. It‟s likely that the Prime Minister will call an early general election.

D. There is little likelihood of the Prime Minister calling an early general election.

50. What the politician was saying fell on deaf ears last night.

A. The politician fell deaf when he was speaking last night.

B. What the politician was saying deafened the listeners last night.

C. No one took notice of what the politician was saying last night.

D. No one listened to what the politician was saying last night because they had deaf ears.


Why did you decide to read, and will you keep reading to the end? Do you expect to understand every single part of it

and will you remember anything about it in a fortnight‟s (51) ........................? Common sense (52) ........................ that

the answers to these questions depend on “readability”- whether the (53) ........................ matter is interesting, and the

argument clear and the (54) ........................attractive. But psychologists are trying to (55) ........................ why people

read – and often don‟t read certain things, for example technical information. They also have examined so much the

writing as the readers.

Even the most technically confident people often (56) ........................ instructions for the video or home computer in

favor of hands- on experience. And people frequently take little notice of consumer information, whether on nutritional

labels or in the small print of contracts. Psychologists researching reading (57) ........................ to assume that both

beginners and competent readers read everything put in front of them from start to finish. There are (58) ........................

among them about the role of eyes, memory and brain during the process. Some people believe that fluent readers take in

very letter or word they see; other (59) ........................that reader rely on memory or context to carry them from one

phrase to another. But they have always assumed that the reading process is the same: reading starts, comprehension (60)

........................, then reading stops.

51. A. time B. period C. term D. gap

52. A. transmits B. suggests C. informs D. advises

53. A. content B. text C. subject D. topic

54. A. information B. pattern C. layout D. assembly

55. A. rate B. value C. determine D. ensure

56. A. ignore B. pass C. miss D. omit

57. A. lead B. tend C. undertake D. consent

58. A. contests B. objections C. separations D. arguments

59. A. direct B. press C. insist D. urge

60. A. occurs B. establishes C. issues D. sets


"The economic history of the United States", one scholar has written, "is the history of the rise and development

of the capitalistic system". The colonists of the eighteenth century pushed forward what those of the seventeenth century

have begun: the expansion and elaboration of an economy born in the great age of capitalist expansion.

Our excellent natural resources paved the way for the development of abundant capital to increase our growth.

Capital includes the tools – such as: machines, vehicles, and buildings – that makes the outputs of labor and resources

more valuable. But it also includes the funds necessary to buy those tools. If a society had to consume everything it

produced just to stay alive, nothing could be put aside to increase future productions. But if a farmer can grow more corn

than his family needs to eat, he can use the surplus as seed to increase the next crop, or to feed workers who build

tractors. This process of capital accumulation was aided in the American economy by our cultural heritage. Saving


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played an important role in the European tradition. It contributed to American‟s motivation to put something aside today

for the tools to buy tomorrow.

The great bulk of the accumulated wealth of America, as distinguished from what was consumed, was derived

either directly or indirectly from trade. Though some manufacturing existed, its role in the accumulation of capital was

negligible. A merchant class of opulent proportions was already visible in the seaboard cities, its wealth as the obvious

consequence of shrewd and resourceful management of the carrying trade. Even the rich planters of tidewater Virginia

and the rice coast of South Carolina finally depended for their genteel way of life upon the ships and merchants who sold

their tobacco and rice in the markets of Europe. As colonial production rose and trade expanded, a business community

emerged in the colonies, linking the provinces by lines of trade and identity of interest.

61. With what subject is this passage mainly concerned?

A. Geography B. Finance C. Economics D. Culture

62. The phrase "paved the way" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ……………...

A. paid for B. supported C. accumulated D. resembled

63. It can be inferred from the passage that the European ancestors of early Americans ………………...

A. sent many tools to America B. taught their skills to their offspring

C. were accustomed to saving D. were good farmers

64. The word "funds" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ……………....

A. money B. resource C. labour D. capital

65. According to the passage, which of the following would lead to accumulating capital?

A. Training workers who produce goods. B. Studying the culture history of the country

C. Consuming what is produced D. Planting more of a crop than what is needed

66. The word "it" in the third sentence of paragraph 2 refers to....................

A. growth B. resource C. labour D. capital

67. According to the passage, capital includes all of the following EXCEPT………….

A. factories B. tractors C. money D. workers

68. According to the passage, the emergence of a business community in the colonies was a result of ...............

A. efficient saving B. the immigration

C. the success of production and trade D. the existence of manufacturing

69. The word "negligible" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to.....

A. very important B. not very important C. able to be neglected D. necessary to be neglected

70. The phrase "put aside" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to………….....

A. hidden B. saved C. reviewed D. consumed


Herman Melville, an American author best known today for his novel Moby Dick, was actually more popular during his

lifetime for some of his other works. He traveled extensively and used the knowledge gained during his travels as the

basis for his early novels. In 1837, at the age of eighteen, Melville signed as a cabin boy on a merchant ship that was to

sail from his Massachusetts home to Liverpool, England.

His experiences on this trip served as a basis for the novel Redburn (1849). In 1841, Melville set out on a whaling

ship headed for the South Seas. After jumping ship in Tahiti, he wandered around the islands of Tahiti and Moorea. This

South Sea island sojourn was a backdrop to the novel Omoo (1847). After three years away from home, Melville joined

up with a U.S. naval frigate that was returning to the eastern United States around Cape Horn. The novel White Jacket

(1850) describes this lengthy voyage as a navy seaman.

With the publication of these early adventure novels, Melville developed a strong and loyal following among readers

eager for his tales of exotic places and situations. However, in 1851, with the publication of Moby Dick, Melville's

popularity started to diminish. Moby Dick, on one level the saga of the hunt for the great white whale, was also a heavily

symbolic allegory of the heroic struggle of humanity against the universe.

The public was not ready for Melville's literary metamorphosis from romantic adventure to philosophical

symbolism. It is ironic that the novel that served to diminish Melville's popularity during his lifetime is the one for which

he is best known today.


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71. The main subject of the passage is .............................

A. Melville's travels B. the popularity of Melville's novels

C. Melville's personal background D. Moby Dick

72. According to the passage, Melville's early novels were .............................

A. published while he was traveling B. completely fictional

C. all about his work on whaling ships D. based on his travel experience

73. In what year did Melville's book about his experiences as a cabin boy appear?

A. 1837 B. 1841 C. 1847 D. 1849

74. The word "basis" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ............................

A. background B. message C. bottom D. dissertation

75. The passage implies that Melville stayed in Tahiti because ............................

A. he had unofficially left his ship B. he was on leave while his ship was in port

C.he had finished his term of duty D. he had received permission to take a vacation in Tahiti

76. A "frigate" in paragraph 1 is probably ............................

A. an office B. a ship C. a troop D. a fishing boat

77. How did the publication of Moby Dick affect Melville's popularity?

A. His popularity increased immediately. B. It had no effect on his popularity.

C. It caused his popularity to decrease. D. His popularity remained as strong as ever.

78. According to the passage, Moby Dick is .............................

A. a romantic adventure B. a single-faceted work

C. a short story about a whale D. symbolic of humanity fighting the universe

79. The word "metamorphosis"in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .............................

A. circle B. change C. mysticism D. descent

80. The passage would most likely be assigned reading in a course on .............................

A. nineteenth-century novels B. American history

C. oceanography D. modem American literature

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1. A. punctuality B. technological C. representative D. characteristic

2. A. equip B. vacant C. secure D. oblige

3. A. effectiveness B. accountancy C. satisfaction D. appropriate

4. A. prevention B. implement C. fertilize D. enterprise

5. A. dynamism B. accompany C. comfortable D. interview


6. ................ patient, and you will succeed.

A. To be B. Are C. Be D. Being

7. It is believed ................ causes weight loss.

A. much stress B. much stress that C. it is much stress D. that much stress

8. “Which of the two boys is a boy scout?”

“................ of them is.”

A. All B. None C. Neither D. Both

9. He doesn‟t seem to be successful ................ hard he works.

A. whatever B. although C. but D. however

10. “I am terribly sorry!”

“ ................................”

A. It‟s nothing B. Nothing C. Don‟t worry D. Never mind!


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11. Are there any interesting ................ in the paper?

A. news B. pieces of news C. piece of news D. new

12. We‟ve decided to interview only ten ................ for the job.

A. applicants B. applicable C. appliances D. applications

13. The child was told to eat all his vegetables or ................ he would get no ice cream.

A. in case B. in fact C. instead D. else

14. The stolen jewels were ................ a lot of money.

A. priced B. worth C. cost D. valued

15. My brother is intelligent but he ................ common sense.

A. fails B. wants C. misses D. lacks

16. I am ................ tired to think about that problem at the moment.

A. simply B. far too C. much more D. nearly

17. His ................ of the school regulations really can‟t be ignored any longer.

A. carelessness B. inattention C. unfamiliarity D. disregard

18. ................ after trying three times, he passed the examination.

A. Last of all B. Lastly C. At last D. Last

19. I think you should stay................

A. calm B. tranquil C. peaceful D. quiet

20. “Help!” “................................................................”

A. Just a minute! B. Moment! C. I come at once! D. Wait on!

21. All work is better than ................ at all.

A. no B. no one C. none D. not

22. The question of late payment of the bills was ................ again at the meeting

A. raised B. risen C. brought D. taken

23. None of us has ever ................ of cheating in class.

A. declared B. persisted C. approved D. concluded

24. We have been working hard. Let‟s ................ a break.

A. make B. find C. do D. take

25. It never ................ my mind he will tell lies to me.

A. crosses B. takes C. enters D. happens

26. I‟m afraid you‟ll have to make a decision at once. We have no time to .................

A. save B. spare C. draw D. adjust

27. Those men are paid by .................

A. an hour B. hour C. every hour D. the hour

28. “Take me some medicine from the first aid kit, ................ you?

A. don‟t B. can C. do D. will

29. The ship was put into quarantine and the passengers and the crew were ....................... to land

A. ordered B. forbidden C. permitted D. let

30. He spent his entire life ................ round the world, never setting down anywhere.

A. scattering B. vesting C. roaming D. roaring

31. “Would you mind helping me with these heavy boxes?”

“................................”

A. “Yes, I would.” B. “Not at all.” C. “What a pity!” D. “My Gosh!”

32. I wish you wouldn‟t call him ................ that insulting name.

A. by B. with C. in D. under

33. They received a ten-year sentence for ................ armed robbery.

A. committing B. practicing C. doing D. making

34. In life ................ can make a mistake; we‟re all human.

A. anyone B. someone C. some people D. not anybody

35. “Could I speak to Susie May, please?”

“Yes,.................................”

A. Answering B. Talking C. Saying D. Speaking


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36. Mrs. Stevens, along (A) with (B) her cousins from New Mexico, (C) are planning (D) to attend the festivities.

37. Hung Yen has (A) long been (B) well - known for (C) it‟s excellent longan (D) fruits

38. As soon as (A) we‟ve finished (B) supper, (C) we‟ll all go (D) to downtown to see our friends.

39. The (A) 6 - year - old boy resembles (B) to his mother (C) somewhat more than (D) does his older brother.

40. I (A) want (B) to live (C) for (D) hundred years.


41. Diana ran into her former teacher on the way to the stadium yesterday.

A. Diana caused an accident to her teacher while she was going to the stadium.

B. Diana‟s car ran over her teacher on the way to the stadium.

C. Diana happened to meet her teacher while she was going to the stadium.

D. Diana‟s teacher got run over whole she was going to the stadium.

42. You should have persuaded him to change his mind.

A. It was essential to persuade him to change his mind but you didn‟t.

B. You didn‟t persuade him to change because of his mind.

C. You should persuade him to change his mind.

D. You persuaded him to change his mind but he didn‟t listen.

43. When the unemployment rate is high, the crime rate is usually also high.

A. The unemployment rate and the crime rate are both higher.

B. The higher the unemployment rate is, the higher the crime rate is.

C. The unemployment rate is as high as the crime rate.

D. The high rate of unemployment depends on the high rate of crime.

44. I wish you hadn‟t said that.

A. I wish you not to say that B. If only you didn‟t say that

C. I hope you will not say that D. It would be nice if you hadn‟t said that.

45. "You‟re always making terrible mistakes", said the teacher.

A. The teacher asked his students why they always made terrible mistakes.

B. The teacher realized that his students always made terrible mistakes.

C. The teacher complained about his student making terrible mistakes.

D. The teacher made his students not always make terrible mistakes

46-50. Choose the correct sentence among A, B, C or D to complete the meaningful sentence from the given words.

46. Successful salespeople know their products thoroughly .................................

A. and the needs of the market understood B. but the needs of the market are understood properly

C. understanding the needs of the market D. and understand the needs of the market properly

47. The Vietnamese students have to take an entrance exam .................................

A. for going to a college and university B. in order that they should go to a college or university

C. so as go to a college or university D. so that they can go to a college or university

48. ................................, many animals can still survive and thrive there.

A. Being severe weather conditions in the desert B. Although the weather conditions in the desert are severe

C. The weather conditions in the desert to be severe D. Even though the weather conditions in the desert severe

49. Hillary changed her major from linguistics to business, .................................

A. hoping she can easier get a job B. with the hope for being able finding a better job

C. hoping to find a job more easily D. with hopes to be able easier to get employment

50. An excellent hairstylist can make a man seem to have more hair .................................

A. as has actually he B. than he actually has C. than it actually is D. as is it actually


Many parents believe that they should begin to teach their children to read when they are (51) ............................

more than toddlers. This is fine if the child shows a real interest but forcing a child could be counter-productive if she


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isn't ready. Wise parents will have a (52) ............................ attitude and take the lead from their child. What they should

provide is a selection of (53) ............................ toys, books and other activities. Nowadays there is plenty of good (54)

........................... available for young children, and of course, seeing plenty of books in use about the house will also (55)

............................ them to read.

Of course, books are no longer the only source of stories and information. There is also a huge range of videos,

which can reinforce and extend the pleasure a child finds in a book and are (56) ............................ valuable in helping to

increase vocabulary and concentration. Television gets a bad review as far as children are concerned, mainly because too

many spend too much time watching programmes not intended for their age (57) ............................. Too many television

programmes induce an incurious, uncritical attitude that is going to make learning much more difficult. However, (58)

............................ viewing of programmes designed for young children can be useful. Just as adults enjoy reading a book

after seeing it serialised on television, so children will pounce on books which (59) ............................ their favorite

television characters, and videos can add a new (60) ............................ to a story known from a book.

51. A. scarcely B. rarely C. slightly D. really

52. A. cheerful B. contented C. relaxed D. hopeful

53. A. bright B. thrilling C. energetic D. stimulating

54. A. material B. sense C. produce D. amusement

55. A. provoke B. encourage C. provide D. attract

56. A. properly B. worthily C. perfectly D. equally

57. A. set B. band C. group D. limit

58. A. cautious B. choice C. approved D. discriminating

59. A. illustrate B. extend C. feature D. possess

60. A. revival B. dimension C. option D. existence


Although they are an inexpensive supplier of vitamins, minerals, and high-quality protein, eggs also contain a high

level of blood cholesterol, one of the major causes of heart diseases. One egg yolk, in fact, contains a little more than

two-thirds of the suggested daily cholesterol limit. This knowledge has driven egg sales to plummet in recent years,

which in turn has brought about the development of several alternatives to eating regular eggs. One alternative is to eat

substitute eggs. These egg substitutes are not really eggs, but they look somewhat like eggs when they are cooked. They

have the advantage of having low cholesterol rates, and they can be scrambled or used in baking. One disadvantage,

however, is that they are not good for frying, poaching, or boiling. A second alternative to regular eggs is a new type of

egg, sometimes called „designer‟ eggs. These eggs are produced by hens that are fed low-flat diets consisting of

ingredients such as canola oil, flax, and rice bran. In spite of their diet, however, these hens produce eggs that contain the

same amount of cholesterol as regular eggs. Yet, the producers of these eggs claim that eating their eggs will not raise the

blood cholesterol in humans.

Egg producers claim that their product has been portrayed unfairly. They cite scientific studies to back up their

claim. And, in fact, studies on the relationship between eggs and human cholesterol levels have brought mixed result. It

may be that it is not the type of eggs that is the main determinant of cholesterol but the person who is eating the eggs.

Some people may be more sensitive to cholesterol derived from food than other people. In fact, there is evidence that

certain dietary fats stimulate the body‟s production of blood cholesterol. Consequently, while it still makes sense to limit

one‟s intake of eggs, even designer eggs, it seems that doing this without regulating dietary fat will probably not help

reduce the blood cholesterol level.

61. What is the main purpose of the passage?

A.To introduce the idea that dietary at increases the blood cholesterol level

B. To make people know about the relationship between eggs and cholesterol

C. To persuade people that eggs are unhealthy and should not be eaten

D. To convince people to eat „designer‟ eggs and egg substitutes.

62. According to the passage, which of the following is a cause of heart diseases?

A. minerals B. cholesterol C. canola oil D. vitamins


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63. What has been the cause for changes in the sale of eggs?

A. increasing price B. decreased production

C. dietary changes in hens D. concerns about cholesterol

64. What is meant by the phrase „mixed result’?

A. The result are blended B. The result is a composite of things

C. The result is inconclusive D. The result are mingled together

65. According to the author, which of the following may reduce blood cholesterol?

A. reducing egg intake but not fat intake B. increasing egg intake and fat intake

C. decreasing egg intake and fat intake D. increasing egg intake but not fat intake

66. Which of the following could best replace the word „somewhat‟?

A. in fact B. a little C. indefinitely D. a lot

67. According to the passage, one yolk contains approximately what fraction of the suggested daily limit for human

consumption of cholesterol?

A. 3/4 B. 2/3 C. 1/2 D. 1/3

68. The word „portrayed‟ could best be replaced by which of the following?

A. studied B. destroyed C. tested D. described

69. What is the meaning of „back up‟?

A. reverse B. advance C. block D. support

70. According to the passage, egg substitutes cannot be used to make any of the following types of eggs EXCEPT?

A. boiled B. poached C. scrambled D. fried


An air pollutant is defined as a compound added directly or indirectly by humans to the atmosphere in such

quantities as to affect humans, animals, vegetation, or materials adversely. Air pollution requires a very flexible

definition that permits continuous change. When the first air pollution laws were established in England in the fourteenth

century, air pollutants were limited to compounds that could be seen or smelled - a far cry from the extensive list of

harmful substances known today. As technology has developed and knowledge of the health aspects of various chemicals

has increased, the list of air pollutants has lengthened. In the future, even water vapor might be considered an air

pollutant under certain conditions.

Many of the more important air pollutants, such as sulfur oxides, carbon monoxide, and nitrogen oxides, are found in

nature. As the Earth developed, the concentration of these pollutants was altered by various chemical reactions; they

became components in biogeochemical cycles. These serve as an air purification scheme by allowing the compounds to

move from the air to the water or soil. On a global basis, nature's output of these compounds dwarfs that resulting from

human activities.

However, human production usually occurs in a localized area, such as a city. In such a region, human output

may be dominant and may temporarily overload the natural purification scheme of the cycles. The result is an increased

concentration of noxious chemicals in the air. The concentrations at which the adverse effects appear will be greater than

the concentrations that the pollutants would have in the absence of human activities. The actual concentration need not be

large for a substance to be a pollutant; in fact, the numerical value tells us little until we know how much of an increase

this represents over the concentration that would occur naturally in the area. For example, sulfur dioxide has detectable

health effects at 0.08 parts per million (ppm), which is about 400 times its natural level. Carbon monoxide, however, has

a natural level of 0.1 ppm and is not usually a pollutant until its level reaches about 15 ppm.

71. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The economic impact of air pollution. B. What constitutes an air pollutant.

C. How much harm air pollutants can cause. D. The effects of compounds added to the atmosphere.

72. The word "adversely" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to …………………

A. negatively B. quickly C. admittedly D. considerably

73. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that .............................

A. water vapor is an air pollutant in localized areas B. most air pollutants today can be seen or smelled

C. a substance becomes an air pollutant only in cities D. the definition of air pollution will continue to change


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74. The word "These" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to.............................

A. the various chemical reactions B. the pollutants from the developing Earth

C. the compounds moved to the water or soil D. the components in biogeochemical cycles

75. For which of the following reasons can natural pollutants play an important role in controlling air pollution?

A. They function as part of a purification process. B. They occur in greater quantities than other pollutants.

C. They have existed since the Earth developed. D. They are less harmful to living beings than other pollutants.

76. According to the passage, human-generated air pollution in localized regions .............................

A. can be dwarfed by nature's output of pollutants B. can overwhelm the natural system that removes pollutants

C. will react harmfully with natural pollutants D. will damage areas outside of the localized regions

77. The word "localized" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to .............................

A. specified B. circled C. surrounded D. encircled

78. According to the passage, the numerical value of the concentration level of a substance is only useful if .....................

A.the other substances in the area are known B.it is in a localized area

C. the natural level is also known D.it can be calculated quickly

79. The word "detectable" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to.............................

A. beneficial B. special C. measurable D. separable

80. Which of the following is best supported by the passage?

A. To effectively control pollution, local government should regularly review their air pollution laws.

B. One of the most important steps in preserving natural lands is to better enforce air pollution laws.

C. Scientists should be consulted in order to establish uniform limits for all air pollutants.

D. Human activities have been effective in reducing air pollution.

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1. A. exist B. extinct C. explorer D. expand

2. A. eternal B. energy C. eradicate D. eliminate

3. A. ancient B. educate C. strange D. address

4. A. desert B. reserve C. observant D. conserve

5. A. astound B. account C. country D. mounting


6. “Why don‟t you sit down and................................?”

A. make yourself at peace B. make yourself at rest

C. make it your own home D. make yourself at home

7. “You ................................have cooked so many dishes. There are only three of us for lunch.”

A. wouldn‟t B. oughtn‟t C. needn‟t D. couldn‟t

8. The Second World War................................in 1939.

A. brought about B. turned up C. broke out D. took out

9. “We‟d better................ if we want to get there in time.”

A. turn down B. speed up C. take up D. put down

10. ................................ without animals and plants?

A. What would life on earth be like B. How would life on earth be for

C. What will life on earth be like D. How will life on earth be like

11. The temperature................................takes place varies widely from material to material.

A. which melting B. at which melting C. at which they melt D. which they melt

12. Harry: “Are you ready, Kate? There‟s not much time left.”

Kate: “Yes, just a minute. ................................!”

A. No longer B. I won‟t finish C. I‟d be OK D. I‟m coming


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13. The village was................ visible through the dense fog.

A. only B. barely C. mostly D. hard

14. “................................ you treat him, he‟ll help you. He‟s so tolerant.”

A. No matter how B. In addition to C. Even though D. As if

15. I could not................ the lecture at all. It was too difficult for me.

A. get along B. make off C. take in D. hold on

16. I did not want to believe them, but in fact, ................__ was true

A. what they said B. what has said C. that they were said D. which they said

17. “You‟ll recognize Jenny when you see her. She................a red hat.”

A. will wear B. will be wearing C. wears D. is wearing

18. Alfonso: “I had a really good time. Thanks for the lovely evening.”

Maria: “.................”

A. I‟m glad you enjoyed it B. Yes, it‟s really good

C. Oh, that‟s right D. No, it‟s very kind of you

19. This shirt is ................that one.

A. as much expensive as B. not nearly as expensive as

C. a bit less expensive D. much far expensive than

20. The sign “NO TRESPASSING” tells you................”

A. not to photograph B. not to smoke C. not to enter D. not to approach

21. Sue: “Can you help me with my essay?”

Robert: “................................”

A. Yes, I‟m afraid not. B. I think that, too. C. Not completely D. Why not?

22. The instructor blew his whistle and.................

A. off the runners were running B. off ran the runners

C. off were running the runners D. the runners run off

23. She built a high wall round her garden.................

A. to enable people not taking her fruit B. so that her fruit would be stolen

C. to prevent her fruit from being stolen D. in order that her fruit not be stolen

24. Before I left for my summer camp, my mother told me to take warm clothes with me ................ it was cold.

A. despite B. in case C. so that D. whereas

25. “Never be late for an interview,........................ you can‟t get the job.”

A. unless B. otherwise C. or so D. if not

26. If it................ for the heavy storm, the accident would not have happened.

A. weren‟t B. hadn‟t been C. isn‟t D. were

27. The sky was cloudy and foggy. We went to the beach, .................

A. however B. even though C. so D. yet

28. He never lets anything................ him and his weekend fishing trip.

A. come between B. come on C. come up D. come among

29. Joan: “Our friends are coming................., Mike?”

Mike: “I‟m sorry, but I can‟t do it now.”

A. Shall you make some coffee, please B. Shall I make you like some coffee

C. Why don‟t we cook some coffee D. Would you mind making some coffee

30. This fruit has been in the fridge for over three weeks! It is all …………….

A. rotten B. moldy C. bitter D. sour

31. If someone is down to earth, he is very …………….

A. shy B. practical C. strange D. sad

32. Our boss would rather................ during the working hours.

A. us not chatting B. we didn‟t chat C. us not chat D. we don‟t chat

33. On the battle field ……………..

A. lied the tanks B. did the tanks lie C. lay the tanks D. the tanks lay


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34. It is the recommendation of many psychologists ………. to associate words and remember names.

A. mental images are used B. that a learner must use mental images

C. that a learner use mental images D. that a learner uses mental images

35. As coal mines became deeper, the problems of draining water, bringing in fresh air, and …........................ to the

surface increased.

A. transporting ore B. ore is transporting C. how ore is transported D. to transport ore


36. (A) Publishing in the UK, the book (B) has won a number of awards (C) in recent regional (D) book fairs.

37. During our tour of (A) the refinery, (B) it was seen that both propane (C) and gasoline were produced (D) in large

volumes.

38. (A) The first important requirements for you (B) to become a mountain climber (C) are your strong passion and (D)

you have good health.

39. Hardly (A) did he enter the room (B) when all (C) the lights (D) went out.

40. A professor of (A) economy and history at our university (B) developed a new theory of the relationship (C) between

historical events and (D) financial crises.


41. The student next to me kept chewing gum. That bothered me a lot.

A. The student next to me kept chewing gum, that bothered me a lot.

B. The student next to me kept chewing gum, which bothered me a lot.

C. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothering me a lot.

D. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothered me a lot.

42. Transportation has been made much easier thanks to the invention of cars. However, cars are the greatest contributor

of air pollution.

A. The invention of cars has made transportation much easier, but cars are among the greatest contributors of air pollution.

B. Although the invention of cars has made transportation much easier, people use cars to contribute to the

pollution of air.

C. Although the invention of cars has made transportation much easier, cars are the greatest contributor of air pollution.

D. However easier the invention of cars has made transportation, it is cars that are among the greatest

contributors of air pollution.

43. He was suspected to have stolen credit cards. The police have investigated him for days.

A. He has been investigated for days, suspected to have stolen credit cards.

B. Suspecting to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.

C. Having suspected to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.

D. Suspected to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.

44. The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room. He opened the window.

A. The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room because he opened the window.

B. The man opened the window in order to get some fresh air in the room.

C. The man got some fresh air in the room, even though he opened the window.

D. Having opened the window, the room could get some fresh air.

45. The plan may be ingenious. It will never work in practice.

A. Ingenious as it may be, the plan will never work in practice.

B. Ingenious as may the plan, it will never work in practice.

C. The plan may be too ingenious to work in practice.

D. The plan is as impractical as it is ingenious.

46-47 Choose the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following

questions.

46. We offer a speedy and secure service of transferring money in less than 24 hours.

A. uninterested B. unsure C. open D. slow


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47. The Red Cross is an international humanitarian agency dedicated to reducing the sufferings of wounded soldiers,

civilians and prisoners of war.

A. happiness B. worry and sadness C. pain and sorrow D. loss

48-50 Choose the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following

questions.

48. The most important thing is to keep you occupied.

A. busy B. comfortable C. free D. relaxed

49. My uncle, who is an accomplished guitarist, taught me how to play.

A. skillful B. famous C. perfect D. modest

50. After many year of unsuccessfully endeavoring to form his own orchestra, Glenn Miller finally achieved world fame

in 1939 as a big band leader.

A. requesting B. trying C. offering D. deciding


The first question we might ask is: What can you learn in college that will help you in being an employee? The

school teaches a (51) ........................ many things of value to the future accountant, doctor or electrician. Do they also

teach anything of value to the future employee? Yes, they teach the one thing that it is perhaps most valuable for the

future employee to know. But very few students bother (52) ........................ it.

This basic is the skill ability to organize and express ideas in writing and in speaking. This means that your

success as an employee will depend on your ability to communicate with people and to (53) ........................ your own

thoughts and ideas to them so they will (54) ........................ understand what you are driving at and be persuaded.

Of course, skill in expression is not enough (55) ........................ itself. You must have something to say in the first

place. The effectiveness of your job depends (56) ........................ your ability to make other people understand your work

as they do on the quality of the work itself.

Expressing one‟s thoughts is one skill that the school can (57) ........................ teach. The foundations for skill in

expression have to (58) ........................ early: an interest in and an ear (59) …………. language; experience in organizing

ideas and data, in brushing aside the irrelevant, and above all the habit of verbal expression. If you do not lay these

foundations (50) …………. your school years, you may never have an opportunity again.

51. A. large B. great C. far D. lost

52. A. learning B. to learn C. with learning D. learn

53. A. interpret B. give out C. transfer D. present

54. A. both B. not C. as well D. either

55. A. on B. for C. by D. in

56. A. on most B. most on C. much on D. on much

57. A. quite B. hardly C. truly D. really

58. A. lied B. laid C. lain D. lay

59. A. by B. in C. for D. of

60. A. during B. of C. for D. when


Martin Luther King Jr. is well known for his work in civil rights and for his many famous speeches, among them is

his moving "I Have A Dream" speech. But fewer people know much about King's childhood. M.L. as he was called, was

born in 1929, in Atlanta, Georgia at the home of his maternal grandfather. M.L's grandfather, the Reverend Williams,

purchased their home on Auburn Avenue in 1909, twenty years before M.L. was born. The Reverend Williams, an

eloquent speaker, played an important role in the community since so many people's lives centered around the church.

He allowed his church and his home to be used as a meeting place for a number of organizations dedicated to the

education and social advancement of blacks. M.L. grew up in this atmosphere with his home being used as a community

gathering place and was, no doubt, influenced by it.

M.L.'s childhood was not especially eventful. His father was a minister and his mother was a musician. He was the

second of three children, and he attended all-black schools in a black neighborhood. The neighborhood was not poor,


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however, Auburn Avenue was the main artery through a prosperous neighborhood that had come to symbolize

achievement for Atlanta's black people. It was an area of banks, insurance companies, builders, jewelers, tailors, doctors,

lawyers, and other black owners, black-operated businesses and services. Even in the face of Atlanta's segregation, the

district thrived. Dr. King never forgot the community spirit he had known as a child, nor did he forget the racial

prejudice that was a seemingly insurmountable barrier that kept black Atlantans from mingling with whites.

61. What is the passage mainly about?

A. the prejudice that existed in Atlanta B. Martin Luther King's childhood

C. M.L.'s grandfather D. the neighborhood King grew up

62. The word "eloquent" in the first paragraph means most nearly ....................... .

A. powerful B. active C. romantic D. fascinating

63. As used, the word "eventful" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to which of the following?

A. valued B. memorable C. admirable D. emotional

64. The word "It" in paragraph 2 refers to which of the following?

A. achievement B. neighborhood C. segregation D. services

65. According to the author, blacks in King's neighborhood were involved in at the following businesses services

EXCEPT ....................... .

A. dentistry B. medicine C. law D. banking

66. According to the author, King was influenced by ....................... .

A. community spirit B. black lawyers C. his mother D. his speeches

67. The word "thrived" in the second paragraph refers to which of the following?

A. achieved B. surrendered C. flourished D. held

68. As used in the reading, which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "seemingly"?

A. apparently B. inevitably C. inexplicably D. hastily

69. The word "mingling" in the second paragraph could best be replaced by which of the following?

A. interfering B. gargling C. consuming D. associating

70. According to the author, M.L. ....................... .

A. had a difficult childhood B. was a good musician as a child

C. loved to listen to his grandfather speak D. grew up in a relatively rich area of Atlanta


Millions of people are using cellphones today. In many places, it is actually considered unusual not to use one. In

many countries, cellphones are very popular with young people. They find that the phones are more than a means of

communication - having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and connected.

The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals worried. Some doctors are

concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile phones. In England, there

has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone companies are worried about the negative publicity of such

ideas. They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your health.

On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use mobile phones.

Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detected with modern scanning equipment. In one case, a

traveling salesman had to retire at young age because of serious memory loss. He couldn't remember even simple tasks.

He would often forget the name of his own son. This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day,

every day of his working week, for a couple of years. His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer's

doctor didn't agree.

What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-tech machines can detect

very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies agree that there is some radiation, but

they say the amount is too small to worry about.

As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it's best to use mobile phones less often. Use your

regular phone if you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone only when you really need it. Mobile phones

can be very useful and convenient, especially in emergencies. In the future, mobile phones may have a warning label that

says they are bad for your health. So far now, it's wise not to use your mobile phone too often.


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71. According to the passage, cellphones are especially popular with young people because .................................

A. they make them look more stylish B. they are indispensable in everyday communications

C. they keep the users alert all the time D. they cannot be replaced by regular phones

72. The changes possibly caused by the cellphones are mainly concerned with .................................

A. the mobility of the mind and the body B. the smallest units of the brain

C. the arteries of the brain D. the resident memory

73. The word "means" in the passage most closely means .................................

A. “meanings” B. “expression” C. “method” D. “transmission”

74. The word "potentially" in the passage most closely means .................................

A. “obviously” B. “possibly” C. “certainly” D. “privately”

75. "Negative publicity" in the passage most likely means .................................

A. information on the lethal effects of cellphones B. widespread opinion about bad effects of cellphones

C. the negative public use of cellphones D. poor ideas about the effects of cellphones

76. Doctors have tentatively concluded that cellphones may .................................

A. damage their users‟ emotions B. cause some mental malfunction

C. change their users‟ temperament D. change their users‟ social behaviors

77. The man mentioned in the passage, who used his cellphone too often, .................................

A. suffered serious loss of mental ability B. could no longer think lucidly

C. abandoned his family D. had a problem with memory

78. According to the passage, what makes mobile phones potentially harmful is .................................

A. their radiant light B. their power of attraction

C. their raiding power D. their invisible rays

79. According to the writer, people should .................................

A. only use mobile phones in urgent cases B. only use mobile phones in medical emergencies

C. keep off mobile phones regularly D. never use mobile phones in all cases

80. The most suitable title for the passage could be .................................

A. “Mobile Phones: A Must of Our Time” B. “Technological Innovations and Their Price”

C. “The Way Mobile Phones Work” D. “The Reasons Why Mobile Phones Are Popular”

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ĐỀ Ô 5


1. A. bound B. sound C. county D. poultry

2. A. shower B. allow C. below D. down

3. A. kicked B. pleased C. fixed D. missed

4. A. heads B. dates C. mistakes D. hats

5. A. examine D. determine C. valentine D. heroine


6. There are a lot of ways in which people can ....................... knowledge.

A. dice B. attain C. budget D. deem

7. Early humans ....................... their homes and diet to match the environment

A. advocated B. hindered C. affirmed D. adapted

8. The party, ....................... I was the guest of honor, was extremely enjoyable.

A. at which B. for which C. to which D. by which

9. It‟s high time we ....................... cutting down the rain forest.

A. stopped B. must stop C. shall stop D. stop

10. The student said there were a few points in the essay he ....................... impossible to comprehend.

A. has found B. was finding C. had found D. would find


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11. Loudspeakers were fixed in the hall so that everyone ....................... an opportunity to hear the speech

A. ought to B. must have C. may have D. should have

12. ......................., he remained optimistic.

A. Though badly wounded he was B. Badly wounded as he was

C. As he was badly wounded D. As badly wounded he was

13. I am surprised ....................... this city is a dull place to live in.

A. that you should think B. by what you are thinking

C. that you would think D. with what you are thinking

14. Susan is very hard-working, but her pay is not ....................... for her work.

A. enough good B. good enough C. as good enough D. good as enough

15. Would you be so kind ....................... open the window for me, please?

A. that B. as to C. as D. that you

16. Careful surveys have indicated that as many as 50 percent of patients do not take drugs ....................... directed.

A. like B. as C. so D. which

17. Speaking a new language ....................... is important for effective communication.

A. unpleasantly B. actively C. physically D. accurately

18. It has been estimated that ....................... species of animals.

A. more than a million B. it is a million or more C. there are over a million D. are over a million of

19. In Africa, educational costs are very low for those who are ....................... enough to get into universities.

A. ambitious B. fortunate C. aggressive D. substantial

20. Printing ink is made ....................... of a paste, which is applied to the printing surface with rollers.

A. to from B. the form C. in the form D. so that it forms

21. Although ....................... cold climates, they can thrive in hot, dry climates as well.

A. sheep adapted well B. well-adapted sheep C. sheep, well adapted to D. sheep are well adapted to

22. ....................... an organism to become a fossil.

A. Rarely B. It is rare C. Rare is D. It is rare for

23. After John ....................... a rough outline of the model, he will begin painting.

A. had drawn B. has drawn C. drew D. is drawing

24. The zoo ....................... by the time we reach there.

A. closes B. will close C. will have closed D. is closing

25. She had changed so much that ....................... anyone recognized her.

A. hardly B. not C. almost D. nearly

26. Take this road and you will ....................... at the hotel in five minutes.

A. find B. come C. arrive D. reach

27. "How was your teaching job last winter?" "I regret ....................... harder to help my students."

A, not tried B. not having tried C. not to try D. not have tried

28. I ....................... I ask him for the money he owes me, he says he will bring it in a few days, but I don't think he has

got it at all.

A. Whenever B. However C. Whatever D. Wherever

29. ....................... with the size of the whole earth, the highest mountains do not seem high as all.

A. Compared them B. When compared C. If you compare D. Comparison

30. There's no ....................... in going to school if you're not willing to learn.

A. reason B. point C. aim D. purpose

31. They were made ....................... all the cleaning in the house.

A. to do B. do C. doing D. done

32. Not until ....................... himself serious ill.

A. he had completed the task did he find B. had he completed the task did he find

C. he completed the task did he find D. did he complete the task he had found

33. "It gets quite cold here in the winter." "Oh, dear. I was hoping ....................... buy a coat."

A. not having to B. I don't have to C. I wouldn't D. not to have to


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34. It is believed ................. causes insomnia.

(A) too much caffeine (B) that too much caffeine

(C) it is too much caffeine (D) too much caffeine that

35. When he heard the terrible noise he asked me what was ....................... on.

A. going B. being C. happening D. getting


36. The (A) top of the mountain (B) covered (C) with snow (D) during winter.

37. He (A) has been hoped for a rise for the (B) last four months, but his boss is reluctant (C) to give him (D) one.

38. (A) Mining over 2,000 years (B) ago, copper is one of (C) the earliest (D) known metals.

39. The (A) price of crude oil used to be a (B) great deal (C) lower than now, (D) wasn‟t it?

40. The duties of the secretary (A) are (B) to take the minutes, (C) mailing the correspondence, and calling the members

before the (D) meetings.


41. His handwriting is so small that I can hardly read it.

A. His handwriting is too bad to read. B. He is used to small writing so I can hardly read it

C. His handwriting is the smallest I have ever read. D. He has such small writing that I can hardly read it.

42. The only student who failed the exam was John.

A. Everyone passed the exam. B. Together with other students, John failed the exam.

C. Everyone, apart from John, failed the exam D. With the exception of John, everyone passed the exam.

43. “Why don‟t you get your hair cut, Gavin?” said Adam.

A. Adam advised Gavin to cut his hair B. Gavin was suggested to have a haircut.

C. It was suggested that Adam get Gavin‟s hair cut. D. Adam suggested that Gavin should have his hair cut

44. You are all welcome to take any food you like.

A. Any food welcomes to take if you like. B. It‟s my pleasure to take any food you like.

C. Please help yourselves to any food you like. D. You don‟t have to pay for any food that you like.

45. Without skillful surgery he would not have survived the operation.

A. With skillful surgery he would have survived the operation.

B. Had it not been for skillful surgery he would not have survived the operation.

C. But for skillful surgery he would not have survived the operation.

D. He wouldn‟t have survived the operation if he hadn‟t had skillful surgery.

46. What the politician was saying fell on deaf ears last night.

A. The politician fell deaf when he was speaking last night.

B. What the politician was saying deafened the listeners last night.

C. No one listened to what the politician was saying last night.

D. No one listened to what the politician was saying last night because they had deaf ears.

47. The Prime Minister is unlikely to call an early general election.

A. The likelihood is that the Prime Minister will call an early general election.

B. The likelihood is great that the Prime Minister will call an early general election.

C. It‟s likely that the Prime Minister will call an early general election.

D. There is little likelihood of the Prime Minister calling an early general election.

48. I travel by bus only when I have no alternative.

A. I travel by bus only as a last resort. B. It‟s my only alternative to travel by bus.

C. Travelling by bus is my only alternative. D.I resort to travel by bus only when I have no alternative.

49. Lin‟s success took us all by surprise.

A. We were taken aback by all of Lin‟s successes. B. Lin‟s success was surprised to all of us.

C. Lin was successful, which surprised all of us. D. We took all of Lin‟s successes surprisingly.

50. Fiona goes to the theater once in a blue moon.

A. Fiona goes to the theater when the moon is full. B. Fiona rarely goes to the theater.

C. Fiona goes to the theater only once a month. D. Fiona goes to the theater when the blue moon is on.


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In the United States and Canada, it is very important to (56)................................ a person directly in the eyes when

you are having a conversation (57)................................ him or her. If you look down or to the side when the

(58)................................ person is talking, that person will think that you are not interested in (59)................................ he

or she is saying. This, (60)................................, is not polite. If you look down or to the side when you are talking, it

might (61)................................ that you are not honest.

However, people who are speaking will sometimes look away for (62)................................ seconds when they are

thinking or (63)................................ to find the right word. But they always turn immediately (64)................................ to

look the listener directly in the eyes. These social "rules" are (65)................................ for two men, two women, a man

and a woman, or an adult and a child.

51. A. talk B. notice C. get D. look

52. A. with B. to C. for D. about

53. A. others B. another C. one D. other

54. A. which B. what C. that D. where

55. A. of course B. in addition C. yet D. although

56. A. become B. come C. seem D. turn

57. A. a little B. a few C. little D. few

58. A. trying B. looking C. achieving D. managing

59. A. up B. back C. down D. over

60. A. like B. such as C. likely D. the same


The issue of equality for women in British society first attracted national attention in the early 20th century, when the

suffragettes won for women the right to vote. In the 1960s feminism became the subject of intense debate when the

women‟s liberation movement encouraged women to reject their traditional supporting role and to demand equal status

and equal rights with men in areas such as employment and pay.

Since then, the gender gap between the sexes has been reduced. The Equal Pay Act of 1970, for instance, made it

illegal for women to be paid less than men for doing the same work, and in 1975 the Sex Discrimination Act aimed to

prevent either sex having an unfair advantage when applying for jobs. In the same year the Equal Opportunities Commission

was set up to help people claim their rights to equal treatment and to publish research and statistics to show where

improvements in opportunities for women need to be made. Women now have much better employment opportunities,

though they still tend to get less well-paid jobs than men, and very few are appointed to top jobs in industry.

In the US the movement that is often called the “first wave of feminism” began in the mid 1800s. Susan B. Anthony

worked for the right to vote, Margaret Sanger wanted to provide women with the means of contraception so that they could

decide whether or not to have children, and Elizabeth Blackwell, who had to fight for the chance to become a doctor, wanted

women to have greater opportunities to study. Many feminists were interested in other social issues.

The second wave of feminism began in the 1960s. Women like Betty Friedan and Gloria Steinem became

associated with the fight to get equal rights and opportunities for women under the law. An important issue was the Equal

Rights Amendment (ERA), which was intended to change the Constitution. Although the ERA was not passed, there was

progress in other areas. It became illegal for employers, schools, clubs, etc. to discriminate against women. But women

still find it hard to advance beyond a certain point in their careers, the so-called glass ceiling that prevents them from

having high-level jobs. Many women also face the problem of the second shift, i.e. the household chores.

In the 1980s, feminism became less popular in the US and there was less interest in solving the remaining

problems, such as the fact that most women still earn much less than men. Although there is still discrimination, the

principle that it should not exist is widely accepted.

61. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that in the 19th century,................................

A. British women did not complete their traditional supporting role

B. Most women did not wish to have equal status and equal rights

C. British women did not have the right to vote in political elections

D. suffragettes fought for the equal employment and equal pay


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62. The phrase “gender gap” in paragraph 2 refers to.................

A. the visible space between men and women B. the difference in status between men and women

C. the social distance between the two sexes D. the social relationship between the two sexes

63. Susan B. Anthony, Margaret Sanger, and Elizabeth Blackwell are mentioned as .................

A. American women with exceptional abilities B. American women who were more successful than men

C. pioneers in the fight for American women‟s rights D. American women who had greater opportunities

64. The Equal Rights Amendment (ERA).................

A. was not officially approved B. changed the US Constitution

C. was brought into force in the 1960s D. supported employers, schools and clubs

65. In the late 20th century, some information about feminism in Britain was issued by.................

A. the Equal Rights Amendment B. the Equal Pay Act of 1970

C. the Equal Opportunities Commission D. the Sex Discrimination Act

66. Which of the following is true according to the passage?

A. The movement of feminism began in the US earlier than in Britain.

B. The women‟s liberation movement in the world first began in Britain.

C. The US movement of feminism became the most popular in the late 20th century.

D. The British government passed laws to support women in the early 20th century.

67. The phrase “glass ceiling” in paragraph 4 mostly means.................................

A. an imaginary barrier B. an overlooked problem

C. a ceiling made of glass D. a transparent frame

68. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?

A. There is now no sex discrimination in Britain and in the US.

B. Many American women still face the problem of household chores.

C. An American woman once had to fight for the chance to become a doctor.

D. British women now have much better employment opportunities.

69. It can be inferred from the passage that.................................

A. the belief that sex discrimination should not exist is not popular in the US

B. women in Britain and the US still fight for their equal status and equal rights

C. the British government did not approve of the women‟s liberation movement

D. women do not have better employment opportunities despite their great efforts

70. Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?

A. Opportunities for Women Nowadays B. Women and the Right to Vote

C. The Suffragettes in British Society D. Feminism in Britain and the US


Very few people in the modern world obtain their food supply by hunting and gathering in the natural environment

surrounding their homes. This method of harvesting from nature‟s provision is the oldest known subsistence strategy and

has been practiced for at least the last two million years. It was, indeed, the only way to obtain food until rudimentary

farming and the domestication of wild animals were introduced about 10,000 years ago.

Because hunter-gatherers have fared poorly in comparison with their agricultural cousins, their numbers have

dwindled, and they have been forced to live in marginal environments, such as deserts and arctic wastelands. In higher

latitudes, the shorter growing seasons have restricted the availability of plant life. Such conditions have caused a greater

dependence on hunting, and on fishing along the coasts and waterways. The abundance of vegetation in the lower latitudes

of the tropics, on the other hand, has provided a greater opportunity for gathering a variety of plants. In short, the

environmental differences have restricted the diet and have limited possibilities for the development of subsistence societies.

Contemporary hunter-gatherers may help us understand our prehistoric ancestors. We know from the observation of

modern hunter-gatherers in both Africa and Alaska that a society based on hunting and gathering must be very mobile.

While the entire community camps in a central location, a smaller party harvests the food within a reasonable distance

from the camp. When the food in the area has become exhausted, the community moves on to exploit another site. We

also notice seasonal migration patterns evolving for most hunter-gatherers, along with a strict division of labor between

the sexes. These patterns of behavior may be similar to those practiced by mankind during the Paleolithic Period.


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71. The word “domestication” in the first paragraph mostly means .................................

A. adapting animals to suit a new working environment

B. making wild animals used to living with and working for humans

C. teaching animals to do a particular job or activity in the home

D. hatching and raising new species of wild animals in the home

72. According to the passage, subsistence societies depend mainly on .................................

A. nature‟s provision B. hunter-gatherers‟ tools

C. agricultural products D. farming methods

73. The word “marginal” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to “................................”.

A. suburban B. abandoned C. disadvantaged D. forgotten

74. In the lower latitudes of the tropics, hunter-gatherers .................................

A. have better food gathering from nature B. can free themselves from hunting

C. live along the coasts and waterways for fishing D. harvest shorter seasonal crops

75. According to the passage, studies of contemporary subsistence societies can provide a .................................

A. deeper insight into the dry-land farming B. further understanding of modern subsistence societies

C. further understanding of prehistoric times D. broader vision of prehistoric natural environments

76. The word “conditions” in the second paragraph refers to .................................

A. the environments where it is not favorable for vegetation to grow

B. the situations in which hunter-gatherers can grow some crops

C. the situations in which hunter-gatherers hardly find anything to eat

D. the places where plenty of animals and fish can be found

77. A typical feature of both modern and prehistoric hunter-gatherers is that .................................

A. they don‟t have a strong sense of community B. they don‟t have a healthy and balanced diet

C. they often change their living places D. they live in the forests for all their life

78. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned?

A. The environmental differences produce no effect on subsistence societies.

B. Hunting or fishing develops where there are no or short growing seasons.

C. The number of hunter-gatherers decreases where farming is convenient.

D. Harvesting from the natural environment had existed long before farming was taken up.

79. According to the author, most contemporary and prehistoric hunter-gatherers share .................................

A. some patterns of behavior B. some restricted daily rules

C. only the way of duty division D. some methods of production

80. Which of the following would serve as the best title of the passage?

A. Evolution of Humans‟ Farming Methods B. A Brief History of Subsistence Farming

C. Hunter-gatherers: Always on the Move D. Hunter-gatherers and Subsistence Societies

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ĐỀ Ô 6


1. A. popularity B. conscientious C. apprenticeship D. personality

2. A. horizon B. ignorant C. determinedly D. librarian

3. A. consonant B. divisible C. significant D. mosquito

4. A. consignation B. abnormality C. supplementary D. dictionary

5. A. garment B. comment C. cement D. even


6. Let‟s do something to protect the environment, ........................we?

A. needn‟t B. must C. shall D. will

7. By 1820, there were over sixty steamboats on the Mississippi river, ........................ were quite luxurious.

A. which many B. many of them C. many of which D. many that


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8. P1: Do you like pop music or jazz?

P2: I don‟t like ........................of them. I prefer classical music.

A. any B. both C. either D. neither

9. ........................saying was so important that I asked everyone to stop talking and listen.

A. What the woman was B. That the woman was

C. The woman was D. What was the woman

10. If we leave now for our trip, we can drive half the distance before we stop ........................lunch.

A. for having B. having had C. having D. to have

11. Although he is my friend, I find it hard to ........................ his selfishness.

A. keep up with B. come down with C. put up with D. catch up with

12. P1: “Would you like another coffee?”

P2: “........................”.

A. Willingly B. It‟s a pleasure C. I‟d love one D. Very kind of your part

13. The discovery was a major ........................ for research workers.

A. break-in B. breakout C. breakthrough D. breakdown

14. P1: “Do you mind if I take a seat?”

P2: “.........................“

A. Yes, I don‟t mind B. No, do as you please C. No I mind D. Yes, do as you please

15. As the two teams left the football ground, the 100,000 ........................ gave them a standing ovation.

A. bystanders B. spectators C. viewers D. audiences

16. My parents lent me the money. ........................, I couldn‟t have afforded the trip.

A. However B. Therefore C. Only if D. Otherwise

17. It was Mr. Harding ........................ the bill to yesterday.

A. who sent my secretary B. to whom my secretary sent

C. that my secretary sent D. my secretary sent

18. P1: “How lovely your pets are!”

P2: “........................”.

A. I love them, too B. Thank you, it‟s nice of you to say so

C. Can you say that again D. Really? They are

19. It is essential that Alice ........................ Tom of the meeting tomorrow.

A. remind B. must remind C. reminds D. will remind

20. It is interesting to take ........................ a new hobby such as collecting stamps or going fishing.

A. over B. on C. in D. up

21. Jack made me ........................ him next week.

A. promise calling B. to promise calling C. to promise to call D. promise to call

22. ........................ down to dinner than the telephone rang.

A. No sooner had I sat B. Scarcely I sat C. Hardly had I sat D. No sooner I sat

23. P1: “I passed the TOEFL test, Mom.”

P2: “ ........................”

A. All right B. Thank you C. Well done D. Good luck

24. Parts of the country are suffering water ........................ after the unusually dry summer.

A. shortage B. supply C. thirst D. hunger

25. The bad weather caused serious damage to the crop. If only it ........................ warmer.

A. was B. were C. has been D. had been

26. My supervisor is angry with me. I didn‟t do all the work that I ........................ last week.

A. must have done B. can have done C. may have done D. should have done

27. Jogging every day will........................ you good.

A. do B. keep C. help D. make


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28. P1: “Don‟t fail to send your parents my regards”

P2: “.........................“

A. It‟s my pleasure B. Good idea, thanks C. You‟ve welcome D. Thanks, I will

29. ........................you, I‟d think twice about that decision. I could be a bad move.

A. Were I B. Should I be C. If I am D. If I had been

30. They are having their house ........................ by a construction company.

A. to paint B. being painted C. painted D. painting

31. Stay out of this problem and do not interfere, please! It‟s none of your ........................!

A. work B. job C. business D. action

32. Not only ........................ to speak to him but she also vowed never to see him again.

A. she refused B. did she refuse C. she did refuse D. when she refused

33. The judge ........................ the pedestrian for the accident.

A. accused B. charged C. sued D. blamed

34. She had to borrow her sister‟s car because hers was .........................

A. out of work B. out of order C. off chance D. off work

35. We should participate in the movement ........................ to conserve the natural environment.

A. to organize B. organizing C. which organized D. organized


36. National parks (A) including land for (B) animal grazing, as well as (C) wilderness areas (D) with scenic mountains

and lakes.

37. (A) Of all seashore plants, seaweeds are (B) best able to tolerate long periods out of water, followed (C) by long

periods (D) covering by water.

38. Because parents (A) did not satisfy with the explanation (B) given by the bus driver, they were (C) asking for an

official investigation (D) into the accident.

39. (A) Make sure that you have (B) the words spell correctly; (C) otherwise, your form (D) won't be accepted.

40. She (A) refused (B) to tell us (C) why (D) was she late.


41. The game will be held, rain or shine

A. The game is delayed because of the rain B. There will be no game if it rains

C. There will be a game regardless of the weather D. It rains every time there is a game.

42. If only I had not seen her.

A. I wish I had seen her B. I wish I had not seen her

C. I have not seen her for ages D. She wishes she had come to see me

43. I‟m sorry that he won‟t accept the job he‟s been offered.

A. I wish he has accepted the job he‟s been offered

B. I wish he would accept the job he‟s been offered

C. I wish he will accept the job he‟s been offered

D. I wish he would have accepted the job he‟s been offered

44. Despite the fact that it was snowing, I felt warm.

A. In spite of snowing, I felt warm B. In spite of feeling warm, it was snowing

C. Although it was snowing, I felt warm D. Although I felt warm, it was snowing

45. I often get up early.

A. I am used to get up early B. I can get up early

C. I like to get up early D. I am used to getting up early


46. Opinion / football match / fair

A. My opinion was fair about the football match. B. In my opinion, I think that the football match was fair.


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C. In my opinion, the football match was fair D. According to my opinion, the football match was fair.

47. I / have / air-conditioner / fix / tomorrow.

A. I will have an air-conditioner fixing tomorrow. B. I will have an air-conditioner fixed tomorrow.

C. I have an air-conditioner fixed tomorrow. D. I will have someone getting an air-conditioner fixed tomorrow.

48. Provide / your handwriting / legible / test scorer / accept / your answer.

A. Providing with your legible handwriting, every test scorer must accept your answer.

B. Providing your handwriting is legible; the test scorer does not accept your answer.

C. Provided for your legible handwriting, the test scorer has to accept your answer.

D. Provided that your handwriting is legible, your answer will be accepted by any test scorer.

49. The patient / recover / more / rapidly / expected.

A. The patient recovered rapidly he expected more than.

B. The patient has recovered more rapidly he expected.

C. The patient recovered more rapidly than expected.

D. The patient rapidly recovered than he more expected.

50. I‟d / play football / rather / watch / it / T.V

A. I‟d prefer to play football rather than watching it on T.V.

B. I‟d prefer playing football than watching it on T.V.

C. I‟d prefer to play football rather than watch it on T.V.

D. I‟d prefer rather play football rather than watch it on T.V.


Mobile phones emit microwave radio emissions. Researchers are questioning whether exposure to these radio waves

might (51)....................... to brain cancer. So far, the data are not conclusive. The scientific evidence does not

(52)....................... us to say with certainly that mobile phones are categorically (53)....................... On the other hand,

current research has not yet (54)....................... clear adverse effect associated with the prolonged use of mobile phones.

Numerous studies are now going (55)....................... in various countries. Some of the results are contradictory but

others have shown an association between mobile phone use and cancer. (56)......................., these studies are preliminary

and the issue needs further, long - term investigation.

(57)....................... the scientific data is more definite, it is prudent for people to try not to use mobile phone for long

(58)....................... of time. Don't think that hands free phones are any safer either. At the moment, research is in fact

showing the (59)....................... and they may be just as dangerous. It is also thought that young people

(60)....................... bodies are still growing may be at particular risk.

51. A. cause B. bring C. produce D. lead

52. A. make B. let C. able D. enable

53. A. risky B. secure C. safe D. unhealthy

54. A. proved B. created C. demonstrated D. caused

55. A. about B. on C. through D. by

56. A. While B. Though C. Additionally D. However

57. A. Until B. When C. Provide D. As

58. A. quantities B. periods C. amounts D. intervals

59. A. way B. truth C. opposite D. fact

60. A. whose B. that C. with D. as


Today we take electricity for granted and perhaps we do not realize just how useful this discovery has been. Steam

was the first invention that replaced wind power. It was used to drive engines and was passed through pipes and radiators

to warm rooms. Petrol mixed with air was the next invention that provided power. Exploded in a cylinder, it drove a

motor engine. Beyond these simple and direct uses, those forms have not much adaptability.

On the other hand, we make use of electricity in thousands of ways. From the powerful voltages that drive our

electric trains to the tiny current needed to work a simple calculator, and from the huge electric magnet in steel works

that can lift 10 tons to the tiny electric magnet in a doorbell, all are powered by electricity. An electric current can be


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made with equal ease to heat a huge mass of molten metal in a furnace, or to boil a jug for a cup of coffee.

Other than atomic energy, which has not as yet been harnessed to the full, electricity is the greatest power in the

world. It is flexible, and so adaptable for any task for which it is wanted. It travels so easily and with incredible speed

along wires or conductors that it can be supplied instantly over vast distances.

To generate electricity, huge turbines or generators must be turned. In Australia they use coal or water to drive this

machinery. When dams are built, falling water is used to drive the turbines without polluting the atmosphere with smoke

from coal. Atomic power is used in several countries but there is always the fear of an accident. A tragedy once occurred

at Chernobyl, in Ukraine, at an atomic power plant used to make electricity. The reactor leaked, which caused many

deaths through radiation.

Now scientists are examining new ways of creating electricity without harmful effects to the environment. They may

harness the tides as they flow in and out of bays. Most importantly, they hope to trap sunlight more efficiently. We do use

solar heaters for swimming pools but as yet improvement in the capacity of the solar cells to create more current is

necessary. When this happens, electric cars will be viable and the world will rid itself of the toxic gases given off by

trucks and cars that burn fossil fuels.

81. The author mentions the sources of energy such as wind, steam, petrol in the first paragraph to ............

A. suggest that electricity should be alternated with safer sources of energy

B. emphasize the usefulness and adaptability of electricity

C. imply that electricity is not the only useful source of energy

D. discuss which source of energy can be a suitable alternative to electricity

82. Before electricity, what was sometimes passed through pipes to heat rooms?

A. Gas. B. Petrol. C. Steam. D. Hot wind.

83. What does the author mean by saying that electricity is flexible?

A. It is cheap and easy to use. B. It is used to drive motor engines.

C. It can be adapted to various uses. D. It can be made with ease.

84. What do we call machines that make electricity?

A. Voltages. B. Electric magnets. C. Generators or turbines. D. Pipes and radiators.

85. The main forms of power used to generate electricity in Australia are .................................

A. atomic power and water B. water and coal

C. sunlight and wind power D. wind and gas

86. The word "they" in the last paragraph refers to .................................

A. harmful effects B. the tides C. scientists D. new ways

87. Electric magnets are used in steel works to .................................

A. lift heavy weights up to ten tons B. test the steel for strength

C. heat the molten steel D. boil a jug of water

88. The advantage of harnessing the power of the tides and of sunlight to generate electricity is that they .................

A. do not pollute the environment B. are more reliable

C. are more adaptable D. do not require attention

89. Which of the following power sources causes pollution by emitting harmful gases?

A. Sunlight. B. Petrol. C. Water. D. Wind.

90. The best title for this passage could be .................................

A. “Types of Power Plants” B. “Electricity: Harmful Effects on Our Life”

C. “How to Produce Electricity” D. “Why Electricity Is So Remarkable”


Culture is a word in common use with complex meanings, and is derived, like the term broadcasting, from the

treatment and care of the soil and of what grows on it. It is directly related to cultivation and the adjectives cultural and

cultured are part of the same verbal complex. A person of culture has identifiable attributes, among them a knowledge of

and interest in the arts, literature, and music. Yet the word culture does not refer solely to such knowledge and interest nor,

indeed, to education. At least from the 19th century onwards, under the influence of anthropologists and sociologists, the

word culture has come to be used generally both in the singular and the plural (cultures) to refer to a whole way of life of

people, including their customs, laws, conventions, and values.


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Distinctions have consequently been drawn between primitive and advanced culture and cultures, between elite and

popular culture, between popular and mass culture, and most recently between national and global cultures. Distinctions

have been drawn too between culture and civilization; the latter is a word derived not, like culture or agriculture, from the

soil, but from the city. The two words are sometimes treated as synonymous. Yet this is misleading. While civilization

and barbarism are pitted against each other in what seems to be a perpetual behavioral pattern, the use of the word culture

has been strongly influenced by conceptions of evolution in the 19th century and of development in the 20th century.

Cultures evolve or develop. They are not static. They have twists and turns. Styles change. So do fashions. There are

cultural processes. What, for example, the word cultured means has changed substantially since the study of classical

(that is, Greek and Roman) literature, philosophy, and history ceased in the 20th century to be central to school and

university education. No single alternative focus emerged, although with computers has come electronic culture,

affecting kinds of study, and most recently digital culture. As cultures express themselves in new forms not everything

gets better or more civilized.

The multiplicity of meanings attached to the word made and will make it difficult to define. There is no single,

unproblematic definition, although many attempts have been made to establish one. The only non-problematic definitions

go back to agricultural meaning (for example, cereal culture or strawberry culture) and medical meaning (for example,

bacterial culture or penicillin culture). Since in anthropology and sociology we also acknowledge culture clashes, culture

shock, and counter-culture, the range of reference is extremely wide.

71. According to the passage, the word culture.................

A. comes from a source that has not been identified B. is related to the preparation and use of land for farming

C. derives from the same root as civilization does D. develops from Greek and Roman literature and history

72. It is stated in paragraph 1 that a cultured person.................

A. has a job related to cultivation B. takes care of the soil and what grows on it

C. has knowledge of arts, literature, and music D. does a job relevant to education

73. The author remarks that culture and civilization are the two words that.................

A. share the same word formation pattern B. are both related to agriculture and cultivation

C. have nearly the same meaning D. do not develop from the same meaning

74. It can be inferred from the passage that since the 20th century.................................

A. schools and universities have not taught classical literature, philosophy, and history

B. classical literature, philosophy, and history have been considered as core subjects

C. classical literature, philosophy, and history have not been taught as compulsory subjects

D. all schools and universities have taught classical literature, philosophy, and history

75. The word “attributes” in paragraph 1 most likely means.................................

A. aspects B. fields C. qualities D. skills

76. The word “static” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by “................”.

A. regular B. balanced C. unchanged D. dense

77. Which of the following is NOT stated in the passage?

A. Anthropology and sociology have tried to limit the references to culture.

B. Distinctions have been drawn between culture and civilization.

C. The word culture can be used to refer to a whole way of life of people.

D. The use of the word culture has been changed since the 19th century.

78. It is difficult to give the definitions of the word culture EXCEPT for its.................................

A. agricultural and medical meanings B. historical and figurative meanings

C. philosophical and historical meanings D. sociological and anthropological meanings

79. Which of the following is NOT true about the word culture?

A. It is a word that cannot be defined. B. Its use has been considerably changed.

C. It differs from the word civilization. D. It evolves from agriculture.

80. The passage mainly discusses.................................

A. the distinction between culture and civilization B. the figurative meanings of the word culture

C. the derivatives of the word culture D. the multiplicity of meanings of the word culture

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1. A. myth B. breath C. tooth D. with

2. A. biscuits B. magazines C. newspapers D. vegetables

3. A. packed B. punched C. pleased D. pushed

4. A. call B. cup C. coat D. ceiling

5. A. month B. boss C. shop D. got


6. British literature is my ................................ subject at school.

A. favorite B. popular C. liking D. wanted

7. "Would you like to join our volunteer group this summer?"

- "................................"

A. Do you think I would? B. I wouldn't. Thank you.

C. Yes, you're a good friend. D. Yes, I'd love to. Thanks.

8. "Wow! What a nice coat you are wearing!"

- "................................"

A. Certainly. Do you like it, too? B. I like you to say that.

C. Yes, of course. It's expensive. D. Thanks. My mother bought it for me.

9. My supervisor is angry with me. I didn't do all the work I ................................ last week.

A. should have done B. may have done C. need to have done D. must have done

10. He runs a business, ................................ he proves to have managerial skills.

A. however B. otherwise C. and D. despite

11. Whenever he had an important decision to make, he ................................ a cigar to calm his nerves.

A. would light B. would be lighting C. would have lit D. had lit

12. Preparing for a job interview can be very .................................

A. stress B. stressful C. stressed D. stressing

13. My brother left his job last week because he did not have any ................................ to travel.

A. position B. chance C. ability D. location

14. Not until the end of the 19th century ................................ become a scientific discipline.

A. plant breeding has B. did plant breeding C. plant breeding had D. has plant breeding

15. "How can you live in this messy room? Go and ................................ it up at once."

A. dust B. sweep C. tidy D. do

16. - "I can't speak English well enough to apply for that post."

- "................................."

A. Me neither B. Me too C. Me either D. Me also

17. Tears contain an antiseptic ................................ helps protect our eyes from infection.

A. that B. what C. how D. where

18. She is very absent-minded: she ................................ her cellphone three times!

A. has lost B. loses C. was losing D. had lost

19. - "Which hat do you like better?"

- "................................"

A. Yes, I like it best. B. The one I tried on first.

C. Which one do you like? D. No, I haven't tried any.

20. He always ................................ the crossword in the newspaper before breakfast.

A. writes B. makes C. works D. does

21. It is hard to get ................................ him; he is such an aggressive man.

A. by B. on with C. into D. over to

22. The new director of the company seems to be an intelligent and ................................ man.

A. well-educated B. well-educate C. well-educational D. well-education


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23. The movie is ................................ Shakespeare‟s Hamlet in a number of ways.

A. like to B. alike with C. similar to D. same as

24. Although the exam was difficult, ................................ the students passed it.

A. most of B. none of C. a few D. a lot

25. "Our team has just won the last football match." - "................................"

A. Good idea. Thanks for the news. B. Yes. I guess it's very good.

C. Well, that's very surprising! D. Yes, it's our pleasure.

26. Vietnam's rice export this year will decrease ....................... about 10%, compared with that of last year.

A. with B. at C. by D. on

27. By ................................ the housework done, my mother has more time to pursue her career.

A. ordering B. taking C. having D. making

28. The youths nowadays have many things to do in their ................................ time.

A. leisure B. entertainment C. fun D. amusement

29. Mary is unhappy that she hasn't ................................ for the next round in the tennis tournament.

A. qualified B. quality C. qualification D. qualifying

30. Working hours will fall to under 35 hours a week, ................................?

A. will they B. won't they C. won't it D. will it

31. This factory produced ................................ motorbikes in 2008 as in the year 2006.

A. twice as many B. as twice as many C. as twice many D. as many as twice

32. In many big cities, people have to ................................ up with noise, overcrowding and bad air.

A. keep B. catch C. face D. put

33. Had she worked harder last summer, she .................................

A. wouldn't have been sacked B. wouldn't have sacked

C. wouldn't sack D. wouldn't be sacked

34. Listening is the most difficult language ................................ for me to master.

A. one B. way C. skill D. job

35. In the modern world, women's ................................ roles have been changing.

A. natured B. naturally C. nature D. natural


36. (A) Even though the (B) extremely bad weather in the mountains, the climbers decided (C) not to cancel their (D) climb.

37. Bill was (A) about average in performance (B) in comparison (C) with other students in (D) his class.

38. (A) Although smokers (B) are aware that smoking is harmful (C) to their health, they can‟t (D) get rid it.

39. (A) Found in the 12th century, Oxford University (B) ranks (C) among the world‟s oldest (D) universities.

40. The media (A) have produced live (B) covering of Michael Jackson‟s (C) fans around the world (D) mourning for him.


41. “Why don‟t you reply to the President‟s offer right now?” said Mary to her husband.

A. Mary wondered why her husband didn‟t reply to the President‟s offer then.

B. Mary ordered her husband to reply to the President‟s offer right now.

C. Mary suggested that her husband should reply to the President‟s offer without delay.

D. Mary told her husband why he didn‟t reply to the President‟s offer then.

42. The film didn‟t come up to my expectations.

A. The film was as good as I expected. B. I expected the film to end more abruptly.

C. I expected the film to be more boring. D. The film fell short of my expectations.

43. There‟s no point in persuading Jane to change her mind.

A. It‟s possible for us to persuade Jane to change her mind.

B. No one wants Jane to change her mind because it‟s pointless.

C. Jane will change her mind though she doesn‟t want to.

D. It‟s useless to persuade Jane to change her mind.

44. It doesn‟t matter to them which film they go to.

A. They don‟t mind which film they go to. B. Whatever films are shown, they never see.


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C. Which film they go to matters more than the cost. D. They don‟t care about the cost of the films they see.

45. “Please don‟t drive so fast, Tom,” said Lisa.

A. Lisa grumbled to Tom about driving slowly. B. Lisa complained about Tom‟s driving too fast.

C. Lisa insisted on Tom‟s driving on. D. Lisa pleaded with Tom not to drive too fast.

46. He survived the operation thanks to the skillful surgeon.

A. Though the surgeon was skillful, he couldn‟t survive the operation.

B. He survived because he was a skillful surgeon.

C. There was no skillful surgeon, so he died.

D. He wouldn‟t have survived the operation without the skillful surgeon.

47. James was the last to know about the change of schedule.

A. The last thing James knew was the change of schedule.

B. Everyone had heard about the change of schedule before James did.

C. At last James was able to know about the change of schedule.

D. Among the last people informed of the change of schedule was James.

48. He talked about nothing except the weather.

A. He said that he had no interest in the weather. B. His sole topic of conversation was the weather.

C. He had nothing to say about the weather. D. He talked about everything including the weather.

49. Peter had very little money but managed to make ends meet.

A. Peter got by on very little money. B. Peter found it hard to live on very little money.

C. Peter could hardly live on little money. D. Having little money, Peter couldn‟t make ends meet.

50. She said, “John, I‟ll show you round my city when you‟re here.”

A. She planned to show John round her city. B. She organized a trip round her city for John.

C. She made a trip round her city with John. D. She promised to show John round her city.


Parrots and macaws have become so (51) ……………. that special varieties of these birds are (52) ……………. up

to £9,000 each on the black market in Britain. Macaws from Brazil cost from £1,000 and parrots from Australia can cost

£7,500 a pair. The demand for parrots, cockatoos and macaws has led to a (52) ……………. increase in thefts from zoos,

wildlife parks and pet shops. London and Whipsnade zoos are among the many places from which parrots have been

stolen. Some thefts have not been (54) ……………. in an effort to prevent further (55) …………….Parrot rustling, as it

is known among bird fanciers, has increased rapidly in Britain since 1976 when imports and exports of (56)

…………….birds became (67) ……………. controlled.

Quarantine controls, (58) …………….with the scarcity of many types of parrots in the wild in Africa, Australia,

Indonesia, and South America, have caused a shortage of birds which can be sold legally under (59) ……………. This

has sent prices to (60) ……………. levels. Working at night and equipped with wire-cutters, nets and substances to dope

the birds, the rustlers are prepared to (61) ……………. serious risks to capture the parrots they want. At Birdworld, a

specialist zoo, thieves (62) ……………. two parrots after picking their (63) ……………. through an enclosure

containing cassowaries. The cassowary is a large flightless bird, related to the emu, which can be extremely (64)

……………., and has been (65) ……………. to kill humans with blows from its powerful legs.

51. A. costly B. extinct C. outlandish D. rare

52. A. raising B. reaching C. lifting D. fetching

53. A. acute B. peak C. sharp D. high

54. A. published B. publicized C. advertised D. told

55. A. happenings B. incidents C. acts D. activities

56. A. unusual B. uncommon C. exotic D. strange

57. A. tightly B. hardly C. toughly D. grimly

58. A. coupled B. doubled C. attached D. accompanied

59. A. warranty B. guarantee C. license D. law

60. A. unknown B. unheard C. record D. highest

61. A. sustain B. assume C. take D. make

62. A. thieved B. robbed C. misappropriated D. stole


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63. A. way B. road C. path D. lane

64. A. aggressive B. fighting C. bad-tempered D. rough

65. A. heard B. known C. considered D. able


Sometimes you know things about people the first time you see them, for example, that you want to be friends

with them or that you don't trust them. But perhaps this kind of intuition isn't as hard to explain as it may seem. For

instance, people give out body language signals all the time. The way you hold your body, head and arms tells people

about your mood. If you hold your arms tightly at your sides, or fold them across your chest, people will generally feel

that you are being defensive. Holding your head to one side shows interest in the other, while an easy, open posture

indicates that you are self-confident. All this affects the way you feel about someone.

Also, a stranger may remind you of a meeting with someone. This may be because of something as simple as the

fact that he or she is physically similar to someone who treated you well or badly. Your feelings about a stranger could be

influenced by a smell in the air that brings to mind a place where you were happy as a child. Since even a single word

can bring back a memory such as that, you may never realize it is happening.

66. What does the word "open" in the passage most closely mean?

A. Unrestrained. B. Relaxed. C. Confined. D. Unlimited.

67. What influences your impression of a person you meet the first time?

A. Intuition. B. Familiarity. C. Knowledge. D. Feeling.

68. What one feels about a stranger may be influenced by something that .................................

A. strengthens one's past behaviors B. reminds one of one's past treatment

C. revives one's past memories D. points to one's childhood

69. What does the second paragraph discuss?

A. How people usually behave to a stranger. B. Meanings of signals one implies towards a stranger.

B. Factors that cause people to act differently. D. Factors that may influence one's feelings about a stranger.

70. Intuition described in the passage can be explained by means of .................................................

A. styles B. languages C. patterns D. behaviors


A pilot cannot fly a plane by sight alone. In many conditions, such as flying at night and landing in dense fog, a pilot

must use radar, an alternative way of navigating. Since human eyes are not very good at determining speeds of

approaching objects, radar can show a pilot how fast nearby planes are moving.

The basic principle of radar is exemplified by what happens when one shouts in a cave. The echo of the sounds

against the walls helps a person determine the size of the cave. With radar, however, the waves are radio waves instead

of sound waves. Radio waves travel at the speed of light, about 300,000 kilometers in one second. A radar set sends out

a short burst of radiation waves. Then it receives the echoes produced when the waves bounce off objects. By

determining the time it takes for the echoes to return to the radar set, a trained technician can determine the distance

between the radar set and other objects. The word "radar", in fact, gets its name from the term "radio detection and

ranging". "Ranging" is the term for detection of the distance between an object and the radar set. Besides being of

critical importance to pilots, radar is essential for air traffic control, tracking ships at sea, and for tracking weather

systems and storms.

71. What is the main topic of this passage?

A. the nature of radar B. types of ranging C. alternatives to radar D. history of radar

72. According to the passage, what can radar detect besides location of objects?

A. size B. weight C. speed D. shape

73. Which of the following words best describes the tone of this passage?

A. argumentative B. imaginative C. explanatory D. humorous

74. The phrase "a burst" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning in which of the following?

A. an attachment B. a discharge C. a stream D. a ray


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75. The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to which of the following?

A. a radar set B. a short burst C. a radiation wave D. light

76. Which of the following could best replace the word "bounce"?

A. overturn B. groove C. extend D. rebound

77. Which type of waves does radar use?

A. sound B. heat C. radio D. light

78. The word "tracking" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to which of the following?

A. repairing B. searching for C. glancing at D. fighting

79. Which of the following would most likely be the topic of the next paragraph?

A. other uses of radar B. uses of sonar technology

C. other technology used by pilots D. a history of flying

80. What might be inferred about radar?

A. It takes the place of a radio. B. It gave birth to the invention of the airplane.

C. It developed from a study of sound waves. D. It has improved navigational safety.

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1. A. become B. between C. improve D. forward

2. A. assistant B. holiday C. colony D. possible

3. A. extremely B. sincerely C. completely D. faithfully

4. A. figure B. ever C. apply D. happy

5. A. salary B. essential C. industry D. interview


6. Not until 1856 .................................. across the Mississippi River

A. the first bridge was built B. was the first bridge built

C. the first building a bridge D. the bridge building was

7. The cost of living has ............................... over 10 percent in the past years.

A. raised B. raise C. risen D. rising

8. Now men and women remain single longer than they once .........................

A. do B. did C. doing D. were done

9. Two thousand miles ............................. a long distance.

A. are B. make C. have D. is

10. When it began to rain, they ................................... in the yard

A. played B. were playing C. have played D. had played

11. He ....................... on his English study all yesterday evening

A. used to work B. had worked C. was working D. working

12. These chairs are ............................... better than the others.

A. as B. very C. much D. either

13. Why did Berth ask you ........................... a bicycle?

A. that if you had B. do you have C. that you had D. if you had

14. Malaria is a disease ...................................... by the anopheles

A. transmit B. transmitting C. is transmitted D. transmitted

15. Ceylon is ........................... the South of India.

A. to B. in C. at D. below

16. Is swimming under water very difficult?

No, it‟s just a matter ............................... able to control your breathing

A. to be B. of being C. that you are D. being


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17. Come with me. I‟m seeing “The killer” tomorrow. .................................

A. Are you? B. Do you? C. Will you? D. Shall you?

18. My sister was born ...............................

A. at 1975, in April B. On April, 1975 C. 1975, at April D. in April, 1975

19. When .............................? In 1928

A. penicillin was discovered B. did penicillin discovered

C. was penicillin discovered D. did penicillin discover

20. No one has ever asked me that question before.

In the passive voice:

A. I have not ever been asked that question before B. That question has ever been asked me by no one before.

C. I have never been asked that question before D. That question has never been asked me before by anyone

21. He‟d prefer ............................. chicken soup rather than ..................... milk

A. having / having B. to have / drink C. have / drink D. had / drank

22. Our teacher said “The Second World War broke out in 1939”.

Indirect speech: ..............................

A. Our teacher told us that the Second World War had broken out in 1939

B. Our teacher told that the Second world had broken out in 1939

C. Our teacher said that the Second World War broke out in 1939

D. Our teacher said us that the Second World War had broken out in 1939

23. What‟s it ................................? A flute.

A. told B. called C. said D. spoken

24. The girls and flowers ........................... he painted were vivid.

A. who B. which C. whose D. that

25. ……………. that I tore up the letter.

A. So was I annoyed B. I was such an annoyed

C. I was so annoying D. Such was my annoyance

26. The team threw on all their substitutes in the last five minutes, all to no ……………. as they lost the game narrowly

by three points.

A. avail B. gain C. use D. benefit

27. Are you thinking of flying business class?" "……………."

A. No, economy. B. I'm flying there to attend a party.

C. No, I'd like an aisle seat. D. No, I'm just on business.

28. We took Bill ……………. for a couple of months after the fire at his home. It was no trouble as we have the extra

bedroom up in the converted loft.

A. up B. off C. out D. in

29. The ……………. horse began to run as fast as he could.

A. frighten B. frightened C. frightful D. frightening

30. They can‟t work. They are too tired

A. When they are too tired, they can work B. Because they can‟t work, they‟re too tired

C. They are too tired that they can‟t work D. They are too tired to work

31. All night long people dance and sing. They do it .........................................

A. in the whole night B. in all the night C. the night long D. during the whole night

32. After he ................................. work, he went straight home

A. had finished B. had been finishing C. has finished D. would finish

33. What did you think of the book? ..................................... the books I‟ve read. It was the most interesting

A. From all B. All C. All of D. Of all

34. I can‟t see the stage very well from here. “.................................”

A. Neither can‟t I B. Neither I can C. I can‟t neither D. Neither can I

35. I applied for the job that I saw .................................... in the paper.

A. advertising B. advertised C. be advertised D. being advertising


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36. A galaxy, (A) where may include billions (B) of stars, (C) is held (D) together by gravitation attraction.

37. The tongue is the (A) principle organ (B) of taste, and (C) is crucial for chewing, (D) swallowed, and speaking.

38. If Monique (A) had not attended the party, she (B) never would meet her old friend Dan, (C) whom she (D) had not

seen in years.

39. (A) A smaller percentage of British students (B) go on to (C) farther or higher education than (D) any other European

country.

40. The proposal (A) has repealed after a (B) thirty-minutes discussion and (C) a number of objections to its (D) failure to

include our district.


41. "Cigarette?" he asked. "No, thanks." I said.

A. He asked for a cigarette, and I immediately refused.

B. He mentioned a cigarette, so I thanked him.

C. He offered me a cigarette, but I promptly declined.

D. He asked if I was smoking, and I denied at once.

42. The doctor said, "You really ought to rest for a few days, Jasmine."

A. Jasmine's doctor insisted that she should rest for a few days.

B. The doctor suggested that Jasmine should take a short rest.

C. It is the doctor's recommendation that Jasmine rested shortly.

D. The doctor strongly advised Jasmine to take a few days' rest.

43. "I will pay back the money, Gloria." said Ivan.

A. Ivan apologized to Gloria for borrowing her money.

B. Ivan offered to pay Gloria the money back.

C. Ivan promised to pay back Gloria's money.

D. Ivan suggested paying back the money to Gloria.

44. The children couldn't go swimming because the sea was too rough.

A. The children were not calm enough to swim in the sea.

B. The sea was rough enough for the children to swim in.

C. The sea was too rough for the children to go swimming.

D. The sea was too rough to the children's swimming.

45. "Would you like to come to my birthday party, Sarah?" asked Frederic.

A. Frederic invited Sarah to his birthday party.

B. Frederic asked if Sarah was able to come to his birthday party.

C. Frederic asked Sarah if she liked his birthday party or not.

D. Frederic reminded Sarah of his coming birthday party.

46-50. Choose the best answer to completes each of the following sentence.

46. My English is progressing.........................

A. odds and ends B. leaps and bounds C. bounds and leaps D. ends and odds

47. Many of the current international problems we are now facing........................

A. linguistic incompetency‟s B. are the result of misunderstandings

C. are the result of not understanding themselves D. lack of the intelligent capabilities of understanding each other

48. We got on well when we shared a flat,........................

A. in spite of the different in our old B. although the difference in our age

C. despite her being much older than me D. in spite that fact that I was much older than her

49. Having been selected to present the Association of American Engineers at the International Convention, ..................

A. the members applauded him B. a speech had to be given by him

C. the members congratulated him D. he gave a short acceptance speech

50. When you do something, you should .........................

A. get through to B. turn over a new leaf C. go down well with D. weigh up the pros and cons


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People in many countries grow fresh water fish from eggs. They move the small fish into lakes and rivers. The fish

live and (51) .................. there. People go (52) ................. in these lakes and rivers. They enjoy catching fish because fish

is also good food. Now the Japanese grow salt water fish. Most of them are yellow tail fish. Workers grow the fish from

eggs. Every time they feed the fish, they play (53) .................... of piano music.

The fish (54) ................... that piano music means food. When the fish are small, the Japanese put them into the

ocean near the land. The fish find some of their (55) .................. food. Workers also feed them. They play the same piano

music. The fish (56) .................... know the music. They swim toward it and (57) .................... the food. In (58)

.................. months the fish are large. The Japanese play the same music. The fish swim toward it and the workers (59)

................... them. The Japanese get about 15 percent of their seafood (60) ................. farms in the ocean.

51. A. bread B. born C. grow D. develop

52. A. enjoying B. fishing C. shopping D. catching

53. A. songs B. films C. tapes D. lot

54. A. think B. recognize C. realize D. learn

55. A. own B. own‟s C. self D. self‟s

56. A. recently B. mostly C. nearly D. already

57. A. see B. find C. bite D. hold

58. A. few B. many C. couple D. a few

59. A. grasp B. catch C. seize D. hold

60. A. on B. of C. from D. in


Carbohydrates, which are sugars, are an essential part of a healthy diet. They provide the main source of energy for

the body and they also function to flavor and sweeten foods. Carbohydrates range from simple sugars like glucose to

complex sugars such as amylase and amylopectin. Nutritionists estimate that carbohydrates should make up about one

fourth of a person's diet. This translates to 75-100 grams of carbohydrates per day.

A diet which is deficient in carbohydrates can have an adverse effect on a person's health. When the body lacks a

sufficient amount of carbohydrates, it must then use its protein supplies for energy, a process called gluconeogenesis.

This, however, results in a lack of necessary protein, and further health difficulties may occur. A lack of carbohydrates

can also lead to ketosis, a build-up of ketones in the body that causes fatigue, lethargy, and bad breath.

61. What is the main idea of this passage?

A. Carbohydrates are needed for good health. B. Carbohydrates prevent a build-up of proteins.

C. Carbohydrates can lead to ketosis. D. Carbohydrates are an expendable part of a good diet.

62. The word "function" in the first paragraph refers to which of the following?

A. neglect B. serve C. dissolve D. profess

63. The word "range" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to which of the following?

A. probe B. proceed C. hail D. extend

64. According to the passage, what do most nutritionists suggest?

A. Sufficient carbohydrates will prevent gluconeogenesis.

B. Carbohydrates are simple sugars called glucose.

C. Carbohydrates should make up about a quarter of a person's daily diet.

D. Carbohydrates should be eaten in very small quantities

65. Which of the following do carbohydrates NOT do?

A. prevent ketosis B. cause gluconeogenesis

C. provide energy for the body D. flavor and sweeten food

66. Which of the following words could best replace "deficient" in paragraph 2?

A. outstanding B. abundant C. insufficient D. unequal

67. What does the word "This" in the second paragraph refer to?

A. using protein supply for energy B. converting carbohydrates to energy


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C. having a deficiency in carbohydrates D. having an insufficient amount of protein

68. According to the passage, which of the following does NOT describe carbohydrates?

A. a protein supply B. a necessity C. a range of sugars D. an energy source

69. Which of the following best describes the author's tone?

A. sensitive B. emotional C. informative D. regretful

70. Which of the following best describe the organization of this passage?

A. cause and result B. comparison and contrast

C. specific to general D. definition and example


Are organically grown foods the best choices? The advantages claimed for such foods over conventionally grown

and marketed food products are now being debated. Advocates of organic foods – a term whose meaning varies greatly –

frequently proclaim that such products are safer and more nutritious than others.

The growing interest of consumers in the safety and more nutritional quality of the typical North American diet is a

welcome development. However, much of this interest has been sparked by sweeping claims that the food supply is

unsafe or inadequate in meeting nutritional needs. Although most of these claims are not supported by scientific

evidence, the preponderance of written material advancing such claims makes it difficult for the general public to

separate fact from fiction. As a result, claims that eating a diet consisting entirely of organically grown foods prevents or

cures disease or provides other benefits to health have become widely publicized and form the basis for folklore.

Almost daily the public is besieged by claims for “no-aging” diets, new vitamins, and other wonder foods. There are

numerous unsubstantiated reports that natural vitamins are superior to synthetic ones, that fertilized eggs are nutritionally

superior to fertilized eggs, that untreated grains are better than fumigated grains and the like. One thing that most

organically grown food products seem to have in common is that they cost more than conventionally grown foods. But in

many cases consumers are misled if they believe organic foods can maintain health and provide better nutritional quality

than conventionally grown foods. So there is real cause for concern if consumers, particularly those with limited

incomes, distrust the regular food and buy only expensive organic foods instead

71. The word “Advocates” is closest in meaning to which of the following?

A. Proponents B. Inspectors C. Consumers D. Merchants

72. In the first paragraph, the word “other” refers to .................

A. advocates B. products C. advantages D. organic foods

73. The “welcome development” mentioned is an increase in.................

A. the amount of health food grown in North American

B. interest in food safety and nutritional quality of the typical North American diet

C. the number of consumers in North American

D. the nutritional quality of the typical North American diet

74. According to the first paragraph, which of the following is true about the terms “organic foods”?

A. It has been used only in recent years. B. It is seldom used by consumers.

C. It has no fixed meaning. D. It is accepted by most nutritionists.

75. The word “unsubstantiated” is closest in meaning to .................

A. uncontested B. unbelievable C. unverified D. unpopular

76. The word “maintain” is closest in meaning to .................

A. preserve B. retire C. improve D. monitor

77. Who does the author think should NOT buy organic foods?

A. Advocated of organic food B. Wealthy people

C. Concerned consumers D. Low income consumers

78. The author implies that there is cause for concern if consumers with limited incomes buy organic foods instead of

conventionally grown foods because .................

A. too many farmers will stop using conventional method to grow food crops

B. many organic foods are actually less nutritious than similar conventionally grown foods

C. conventionally grown foods are more readily available than organic foods

D. organic foods can be more expensive but are often no better than conventionally grown foods


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79. According to the last paragraph, consumers who believe that organic foods are better than conventionally grown

foods are often .................

A. wealthy B. mistaken C. thrifty D. careless

80. What is the author‟s attitude toward the claims made by advocates of health foods?

A. Very enthusiastic B. Neutral C. Skeptical D. Somewhat favorable

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1-2. Choose the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic part in each of the following sentences.

1. Henry has found a temporary job in a factory.

A. eternal B. genuine C. permanent D. satisfactory

2. Mr. Smith‟s new neighbors appear to be very friendly.

A. hostile B. inapplicable C. amicable D. futile

3-5. Choose the word or phrase that is closest in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

3. We have lived there for years and grown fond of the surroundings. That is why we do not want to leave.

A. planted many trees in the surroundings B. haunted by the surroundings

C. loved the surroundings D. possessed by the surroundings

4. His new work has enjoyed a very good review from critics and readers.

A. viewing B. regard C. look D. opinion

5. Such problems as haste and inexperience are a universal feature of youth.

A. marked B. shared C. hidden D. separated


6. Now I am unemployed, I have too much time ……………. and don't know what to do with myself.

A. in my hands B. to hand C. on my hands D. in hand

7. For lunch, I always have something quick and easy: a sandwich, a salad, toast and the …………….

A. similar B. same C. rest D. like

8. The police spokesman said he was ……………. to believe that the arrested man was the serial killer they had been

looking for.

A. suspected B. inclined C. seemed D. supposed

9. …………….Nam Cao is a realistic writer, but he still used a lot of romance in his stories.

A. On my part B. On the other hand C. On the whole D. On the contrary

10. ……………., the invention was perfect, but it didn‟t sell very well.

A. Practically B. Technologically C. Technically D. Politically

11. Something tells me that you …………….to a single word I ……………. in the past ten minutes.

A. haven‟t listened / was saying B. haven‟t been listening / have said

C. didn‟t listen / said D. haven‟t listened / said

12. I don't think anyone understood what I was saying at the meeting, did they? I totally failed to get my point ……….

A. around B. along C. across D. about

13. I'm ……………. my brother is.

A. nowhere near as ambitious as B. nothing near as ambitious as

C. nothing as ambitious as D. nowhere like so ambitious as

14. We don't seem to have any more of that book, Sir. It is out of ……………. but we are getting a new delivery next

Thursday if you would like to pop back then.

A. order B. shop C. print D. stock

15. P1: “…………….” P2: “Not really.”

A. I don't like that new movie. B. Would you recommend the new movie at the Odeon?

C. How often do you go to the movies? D. Would you like to watch a cartoon or a documentary?


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16. Cable TV revolutionized communications; ………., the very existence of that service is now threatened by satellites.

A. consequently B. nevertheless C. moreover D. for example

17. To decorate my room, I …………….the help of my roommate.

A. engaged B. enlisted C. drafted D. recruited

18. P1: "Do you mind if I use your phone?"

P2: "……………."

A. Sorry. I have no idea B. Not at all. Help yourself

C. You can say that again D. Yes, certainly

19. I tried to talk to her, but she was as high as a …………….

A. house B. sky C. wall D. kite

20. There is no chance of you getting the promotion after only two months working here ……………. the great work you

have done.

A. presuming B. regardless C. nevertheless D. notwithstanding

21. P1: "What do you think of football?"

P2: "……………."

A. It's none of my business. B. I am crazy about it.

C. Of course, football players are excellent D. Well, it's beyond my expectation

22. To solve this problem, it is advisable ........................

A. a drastic measure to be adopted B. that to adopt a drastic measure

C. that a drastic measure be adopted D. that a drastic measure is adopted

23. John: "Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our environment?"

Laura. " ........................"

A. Yes, it‟s an absurd idea B. There‟s no doubt about it

C. Of course not. You bet D. Well, that‟s very surprising

24. On the second thought, I believe I will go with you to the theater.

A. On reflection B. For this time only

C. After discussing with my wife D. For the second time

25. On ………………… he had won, he jumped for joy.

A. he was told B. having told C. being told D. telling

26. I must take this watch to be repaired; it …………… over 20 minutes a day.

A. gains B. accelerates C. increases D. progresses

27. When a fire broke out in the Louvre, at least twenty …………… paintings were destroyed, including two by Picasso.

A. worthless B. priceless C. valueless D. worthy

28. His brother refuses to even listen to anyone else‟s point of view. He is very ……………

A. open-minded B. kind-hearted C. narrow-minded D. absent-minded

29. The story he invented was completely ……………. I don‟t believe it.

A. true B. truth C. truthful D. untrue

30. What chemical is this? It‟s …………… a horrible smell.

A. giving over B. giving off C. giving down D. giving up

31. In many ways, she …………… me of someone I knew at school.

A. remembers B. reminds C. recalls D. resembles

32. Learning English isn‟t so difficult once you ……………

A. get down to it B. get off it C. get on it D. get down with it

33. George wouldn‟t have met Mary ........................ to his brother‟s graduation party.

A. had he gone B. hadn‟t he gone C. if he had not gone D. if he shouldn‟t have gone

34. The policeman …………….. him to appear as a witness.

A. let B. discouraged C. made D. compelled

35. His new yacht is certainly an ostentatious display of his wealth.

A. showy B. expensive C. large D. ossified


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36. (A) The reason he wants to take a (B) leaving of absence is (C) that he needs a (D) complete rest.

37. (A) His boss (B) has asked him (C) to respond (D) immediately this fax.

38. It is (A) the writing English (B) that causes (C) difficulties to (D) foreigners.

39. (A) The diameter of the Sun is (B) more than one hundred (C) times (D) greater than the Earth.

40. Foreign students who (A) are doing a decision (B) about which school (C) to attend may not know exactly where (D)

the choices are located.


41. In spite of having a broken leg, he managed to get out of the car.

A. In spite of the fact that his leg was broken, he managed to get out of the car.

B. In spite of having broken legs he managed to get out of the car.

C. Despite of the fact that his leg was broken, he managed to get out of the car.

D. Although his leg was broken but he managed to get out of the car.

42. Maria says she‟d like to have been put in a higher class.

A. Maria wishes she will be put in a. higher class.

B. Maria wishes she is put in a higher class.

C. Maria wishes she were put in a higher class.

D. Maria wishes that she had been put in a higher class.

43. “Please could you wake me up at 7 o‟clock tomorrow morning?” I asked the doorman.

A. I asked the doorman if he wakes me at 7 o‟clock in the following morning.

B. I asked the doorman if he wake me at 7 o‟clock in the following morning.

C. I asked the doorman whether he wakes me at 7 o‟clock in the following morning or not.

D. I asked the doorman to wake me up 7 o‟clock in the following morning.

44. “I‟m sorry, I was rude to you yesterday.” I said to Tom.

A. I apologize of being rude to you yesterday. B. I apologized Tom for having been rude to him the day before.

C. I apologized for my rude to you yesterday. D. I apologized Tom to be so rude the day before.

45. The Prime Minister set up a committee of financial experts. They were to help him discuss and formulate new policies.

A. The Prime Minister, who is a financial expert, set up a committee to discuss and formulate new policies.

B. A committee consisting of financial experts was set up by the Prime Minister to help him discuss and

formulate new policies.

C. The Prime Minister, who was helped by financial experts, set up a committee to discuss and formulate new

policies.

D. A committee consisting of financial experts who were helped by the Prime Minister discussed and

formulated new policies.


46. /anxious / find / good school / my wife / children / attend.

A. To be anxious about good school my wife‟s children find to attend.

B. My wife finds good school to attend for anxious children.

C. Anxious children find to attend good school of my wife.

D. My wife is anxious to find a good school for our children to attend.

47. / I / look forward / start / work / you.

A. I look forward to starting to work for you. B. I look forward to start to work for you.

C. I‟m looking forward to start working for you. D. I look forward to start working to you.

48. / actually / Jim / rather / not / go / class / yesterday / today.

A. Actually, Jim would rather not have gone to class yesterday than today.

B. Actually, Jim would rather not to have gone to class yesterday than today.

C. Actually, Jim would rather not to go to class yesterday than today.

D. Actually, Jim would rather not going to class yesterday than today.


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49. / feel / like / go out / this evening / ? /

A. Are you feel like going out this evening? B. Do you feel like going out this evening?

C. Do you feel like to go out this evening? D. Do you feel to like going out this evening?

50. / you / attend / work / stop / day-dream?

A. Would you attend your work and stop day-dreaming?

B. Would you please attend to your work and stop day-dream?

C. Do you attend to your work and stop day-dreaming?

D. Would you please attend to your work and stop day-dreaming?


The PBT is a pencil and (51) …………. test that is offered for two purposes. One purpose of the PBT is for (52)

…………. and process evaluation. Colleges or other institutions use the PBT to test their students. The scores are not

valid outside of the place where they are (53) …………., but the college or institution accepts the PBT that they

administered as an official score. This PBT is also (54) …………. an Institution TOEFL. The (55) …………. purpose of

the PBT is (56) ………….the official Computer-Based TOEFL in areas where computer-based testing is not possible.

The scores are usually valid outside of the place where they are administered. This PBT is also called a Supplement

TOEFL. The Paper-Based TOEFL has three parts: Listening Comprehension, Structure and Written Expression, and

Reading. (57) …………., the TEST of Written English (TWE) is an essay that is required to provide a (58) ………….

score. The PBT is a (59) …………. test, which means that everyone who takes the TOEFL during the same

administration will see and answer the same questions. The (60) …………. score is based on a scale of 310-677.

51. A. note-paper B. letter C. draft D. paper

52. A. place B. placing C. placement D. placeability

53. A. administered B. managed C. controlled D. protected

54. A. called B. seemed C. considered D. appeared

55. A. some B. other C. another D. main

56. A. supplement B. to supplement C. supplementing D. supplemented

57. A. In other words B. On the other hand C. Besides D. In addition

58. A. reading B. speaking C. listening D. writing

59. A. style B. form C. standard D. linear

60. A. total B. final C. whole D. all


The modern comic strip started out as ammunition in a newspaper war between giants of the American press in the

late nineteenth century. The first full-color comic strip appeared in January 1894 in the New York World, owned by

Joseph Pulitzer. The first regular weekly full-color comic supplement, similar to today‟s Sunday funnies, appeared two

years later, in William Randolph Hearst‟s rival New York paper, the Morning Journal.

Both were immensely popular and publishers realized that supplementing the news with comic relief boosted the sale

of papers. The Morning Journal started another feature in 1896, the “Yellow Kid”, the first continuous comic character

in the United States, whose creator, Richard Outhaul, had been lured away from the World by the ambitious Hearst. The

“Yellow Kid” was in many ways a pioneer. Its comic dialogue was the strictly urban farce that came to characterize later

strips, and it introduced the speech balloon inside the strip, usually placed above the characters‟ heads.

The first strip to incorporate all the elements of later comics was Rudolph Dirks‟s “Katzenjammer Kids”, based on

Wilhelm Busch‟s Max and Moritz, a European satire of the nineteenth century. The “Kids” strip, first published in 1897,

served as the prototype for future American strips. It contained not only speech balloons, but a continuous cast of

characters, and was divided into small regular panels that did away with the larger panoramic scenes of earlier comics.

Newspaper syndication played a major role in spreading the popularity of comic strips throughout the country.

Though weekly colored comics came first, daily black-and-white strips were not far behind. The first appeared in the

Chicago American in 1904. It was followed by many imitators, and by 1915 black-and-white comic strips had become a

staple of daily newspapers around the country.


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61. In what order does the author discuss various comic strips in the passage?

A. In the order in which they were created. B. From most popular to least popular.

C. In alphabetical order by title. D. According to the newspaper in which they appeared.

62. According to the passage, the “Yellow Kid” was the first comic strip to do all of the following EXCEPT............ .

A. feature the same character in each episode B. include dialogue inside a balloon

C. appear in a Chicago newspaper D. characterize city life in a humorous way

63. The word “prototype” is closest in meaning to .......................

A. model B. story C. humor D. drawing

64. The word “staple” is closest in meaning to .......................

A. new version B. huge success C. regular feature D. popular edition

65. The word “incorporate” is closest in meaning to .......................

A. combine B. mention C. create D. affect

66. Why does the author mention Joseph Pulitzer and William Randolph Hearst?

A. Their comic strips are still published today. B. They owned major competitive newspapers.

C. They established New York‟s first newspaper. D. They published comic strips about the newspaper war.

67. The word “it” refers to .......................

A. balloon B. farce C. dialogue D. the “Yellow Kid”

68. The passage suggests that comic strips were popular for which of the following reasons?

A. Readers enjoyed the unusual drawings. B. They were about real-life situations.

C. Readers could identify with the characters. D. They provided a break from serious news stories.

69. To say that Richard Outhaul had been “lured away from” the World by Hearst means which of the following?

A. Hearst warned Outhaul not to leave the World. B. Hearst convinced Outhaul to leave the World.

C. Hearst fired Outhaul from the World. D. Hearst wanted Outhaul to work for the World.


A. The effects of newspapers on comic strip stories. B. Features of early comic strips in the United States.

C. A comparison of two popular comic strips. D. The differences between early and modern comic strips.


If parents bring up a child with the sole aim of turning the child into a genius, they will cause a disaster.

According to several leading educational psychologists, this is one of the biggest mistakes which ambitious parents

make. Generally, the child will be only too aware of what his parents expect, and will fail. Unrealistic parental

expectations can cause great damage to children.

However, if parents are not too unrealistic about what they expect their children to do, but are ambitious in a

sensible way, the child may succeed in doing very well – especially if the parents are very supportive of their child.

Michael Collins is very lucky. He is crazy about music, and his parents help him a lot by taking him to concerts

and arranging private piano and violin lessons for him. They even drive him 50 kilometers twice a week for violin

lessons. Michael‟s mother knows very little about music, but his father plays the trumpet in a large orchestra. However,

he never makes Michael enter music competitions if he is unwilling.

Winston Smith, Michael‟s friend, however, is not so lucky. Both his parents are successful musicians, and they set

too high a standard for Winston. They want their son to be as successful as they are and so they enter him for every piano

competition held. They are very unhappy when he does not win. Winston is always afraid that he will disappoint his

parents and now he always seems quiet and unhappy.

71. One of the serious mistakes parents can make is to .................................

A. push their child into trying too much B. help their child to become a genius

C. make their child become a musician D. neglect their child‟s education

72. Parents‟ ambition for their children is not wrong if they .................................

A. force their children into achieving success B. themselves have been very successful

C. understand and help their children sensibly D. arrange private lessons for their children

73. Who have criticized the methods of some ambitious parents?

A. Successful musicians. B. Unrealistic parents. C. Their children. D. Educational psychologists.


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74. Michael Collins is fortunate in that .................................

A. his father is a musician B. his parents are quite rich

C. his mother knows little about music D. his parents help him in a sensible way

75. The phrase "crazy about" in the passage mostly means .................................

A. "surprised at" B. "extremely interested in"

C. "completely unaware of" D. "confused about"

76. Winston‟s parents push their son so much and he .................................

A. has won a lot of piano competitions B. cannot learn much music from them

C. has become a good musician D. is afraid to disappoint them

77. The word "They" in the passage refers to .................................

A. concerts B. violin lessons C. parents in general D. Michael‟s parents

78. All of the following people are musical EXCEPT .................

A. Winston‟s father B. Winston‟s mother C. Michael‟s father D. Michael‟s mother

79. The word "unwilling" in the passage mostly means .................................

A. "getting ready to do something" B. "eager to do something"

C. "not objecting to doing anything" D. "not wanting to do something"

80. The two examples given in the passage illustrate the principle that .................................

A. successful parents always have intelligent children

B. successful parents often have unsuccessful children

C. parents should let the child develop in the way he wants

D. parents should spend more money on the child‟s education

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ĐỀ Ô 10


1. A. question B. presentation C. industrialization D. modernization

2. A. accompany B. application C. apologize D. admire

3. A. theme B. ethnic C. honey-mouthed D. thunder

4. A. will B. we‟ll C. weal D. wheel

5. A. I‟d B. AIDS C. played D. paid


6. “What a new nice style of hair you have it cut!” “ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ ”

A. Yes, please B. It‟s from Italy C. Thank you D. No, I think it‟s suitable for me

7. “You‟d better help your mother do the household chores.” “ _ _ _ _ _ __ ”

A. I‟d love to B. I have no clue C. It‟s rubbish D. Thank for your advice

8. “Could you tell me how to get to the nearest post office?” “ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ ”

A. Sorry, for this inconvenience B. I have no clue

C. Not at all D. Sorry, I‟m the new comer here.

9. “More coffee, Sir?” “ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ ”

A. No, thanks B. Yes, do it yourself C. All right, self-service D. Make yourself at home

10. “May I come in?” “_______”

A. Yes, no problem B. Feel free C. You‟re welcome D. Sorry, let‟s wait.

11. Tom “Sorry, I don‟t know where the nearest post office is.”

Stranger: “_ _ _ __ _ _”

A. Thank you B. Thank you anyway C. Not at all D. Don‟t mention it

12. “What do you think of this shirt?” “ _ _ _ _ _ _ _”

A. It fits you B. Nonsense C. It‟s up to you D. No money

13. “What do you want me to cook for your dinner? “ __ _ _ __ _ ”

A. Yes, give up B. Yeah, your meal is great C. It‟s up to you D. Let me go


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14. "I am sorry. I broke the vase". "........................".

A. OK. Go ahead B. Yes, certainly C. I‟d rather not. D. Don‟t worry. Things break

15. ........................, he felt so unhappy and lonely.

A. Despite his wealthy B. Rich as was he C. Rich as he was D. In spite of his being wealth

16. There is …………… in my bedroom.

A. a square wooden old table B. an old square wooden table

C. a wooden old square table D. an old wooden square table

17. The sheep were huddled into a …………… to protect them from overnight frosts.

A. cage B. pen C. kennel D. hutch

18. There seems to be a large ........................ between the number of people employed in service industries and those

employed in the primary sectors.

A. discrepancy B. discretion C. discriminate D. distinguish

19. Tom: "I‟m sorry. I won‟t be able to come."

Mary. "……………………."

A. great B. Oh, that‟s annoying C. Well, never mind D. Sounds like fun

20. "I understand you don‟t like opera. ……………, I go at least once a month.”

A. In contrast B. On contrast C. In the contrast D. On the contrast

21. If you had taken my advice, you …………… in such difficulties now.

A. wouldn‟t have been B. hadn‟t been C. wouldn‟t be D. won‟t be

22. One‟s fingerprints are ……………… other person.

A. different from B. different from any C. differ from any D. different from those of any

23. Marianne seemed to take ........................ at my comments on her work.

A. annoyance B. insult C. offence D. indignation

24. ........................, we tried our best to complete it.

A. Difficult as the homework was B. Thanks to the difficult homework

C. As though the homework was difficult D. Despite the homework was difficult

25. To the best of my ................................., he married an Irish girl.

A. recollection B. recall C. memory D. retention

26. Every Sunday we ..................................... go walking in the park.

A. seldom B. usually C. rarely D. never

27. We‟ll play tennis and ................................. we‟ll have lunch.

A. so B. after C. immediately D. then

28. I feel terrible, I didn‟t sleep ............................. last night.

A. an eye B. a wink C. a jot D. an inch

29. This is the most expensive car I have ........................... driven.

A. ever B. always C. often D. sometimes

30. The ............................... at the football match because violent when their team lost.

A. customers B. groups C. observers D. spectators

31. He felt ................................ when he failed the exams the second time.

A. discouraged B. annoyed C. undecided D. determined

32. I have bought a present for my mother, and now I need some .................................

A. paper wrapper B. wrap paper C. wrapped paper D. wrapping paper

33. Computer is one of the most important ................................ of the 20th century.

A. inventings B. inventories C. inventions D. inventors

34. If they are not careful with their accounts, their business will go ................................

A. poor B. bankrupt C. penniless D. broken

35. It was really kind ................................ you to help those poor people.

A. by B. of C. at D. to


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36. If you need (A) to keep fit, then why (B) not take (C) on (D) a sport such as badminton or tennis?

37. When her dog (A) died, she (B) cried very (C) hardly for (D) half an hour.

38. Modern transportation can speed a doctor (A) to the side of a (B) sick person, (C) even if the patient lives on an (D)

isolating farm.

39. Tom's very good (A) at science (B) when his brother (C) is (D) absolutely hopeless.

40. Daisy has (A) such many things (B) to do that she (C) has no time (D) to go out.


41. The noise next door did not stop until after midnight.

A. It was not until after midnight that the noise next door stopped.

B. It was midnight and the noise next door stopped.

C. The noise next door stopped at midnight

D. Not until after midnight the noise next door stopped.

42. Their dog was so fierce that nobody would visit them.

A. They had a so fierce dog that nobody would visit them.

B. Their dog was too fierce to visit.

C. They had a such fierce dog that nobody would visit them.

D. They had so fierce a dog that nobody would visit them.

43. If you want to be kept informed about current affairs, you should listen to the radio.

A. Listening to the radio and you will be kept informed about current affairs.

B. A good way of keeping yourself informed about current affairs is listen to the radio.

C. Listening to the radio is a good way of keeping yourself informed about current affairs.

D. Only by listening to the radio, you can keep yourself informed about current affairs.

44. Calling Jim is pointless because his phone is out of order.

A. It‟s worth not calling Jim because his phone is out of order.

B. It‟s no use to call Jim because his phone is out of order.

C. It‟s useless calling Jim because his phone is out of order.

D. There‟s no point calling Jim because his phone is out of order.

45. You are in this mess right now because you didn‟t listen to me in the first place.

A. If you listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn‟t be in this mess right now.

B. If you had listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn‟t be in this mess right now.

C. If you listen to my advice in the first place, you will not be in this mess right now.

D. If you had listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn‟t have been in this mess right now.

46-50. Choose the correct sentence among A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences

46. ................................, he felt so unhappy and lonely.

A. Despite of his wealth B. Rich as was he

C. Rich as he was D. Despite he was so rich

47. Peter asked me .................................

A. what time does the film start B. what time the film starts

C. what time the film started D. what time did the film start

48. She will be ill .................................

A. unless she takes a few days‟ rest B. provided she takes a few days‟ rest

C. in case she takes a few days‟ rest D. if she takes a few days‟ rest

49. ................................ as taste is really a composite sense made up of both taste and smell.

A. That we refer to it B. What we refer to C. To which we refer D. What do we refer to

50. Never before ................................ as accelerated as they are now during the technological age.

A. have historical changes been B. have been historical changes

C. historical changes have been D. historical have changes been


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The well-being of America‟s rural people and places depends upon many things – the availability of good-paying jobs;

(9)................................ to critical services such as education, health care, and communication; strong communities; and a

healthy natural environment. And, (10) ................................ urban America is equally dependent upon these things, the

challenges to well-being look very different in rural areas than in urban areas. Small-scale, low-density settlement (11)

................................ make it more costly for communities and businesses to provide critical services.

Declining jobs and income in the natural resource-based industries that many rural areas depend on (12)

................................ workers in those industries to find new ways to make a living. Low-skill, low-wage rural manufacturing

industries must find new ways to challenge the increasing number of (13) ................................ competitors. Distance and

remoteness impede many rural areas from being connected to the urban centers of economic activity. Finally, changes in the

availability and use of natural resources located in rural areas (14) ................................ the people who earn a living from

those resources and those who (15) ................................ recreational and other benefits from them.

Some rural areas have met these challenges successfully, achieved some level of prosperity, and are ready (16)

................................ the challenges of the future. Others have neither met the current challenges nor positioned

themselves for the future. Thus, concern for rural America is real. And, while rural America is a producer of critical

goods and services, the (17) ................................ goes beyond economics. Rural America is also home to a fifth of the

Nation‟s people, keeper of natural amenities and national treasures, and safeguard of a/an (18) ................................ part

of American culture, tradition, and history.

51. A. challenge B. key C. access D. advantage

52. A. because B. while C. when D. since

53. A. styles B. tools C. means D. patterns

54. A. offer B. turn C. force D. make

55. A. foreign B. abroad C. lateral D. rural

56. A. effect B. encourage C. stimulate D. affect

57. A. involve B. evolve C. bring D. derive

58. A. in B. of C. with D. for

59. A. research B. impatience C. concern D. stimulus

60. A. abnormal B. simple C. incredible D. unique


Probably the most famous film commenting on the twentieth-century technology is Modern Times, made in 1936.

Charlie Chaplin was motivated to make the film by a reporter who, while interviewing him, happened to describe the

working conditions in industrial Detroit. Chaplin was told that healthy young farm boys were lured to the city to work on

automotive assembly lines. Within four or five years, these young men‟s health was destroyed by the stress of work in

the factories. The film opens with a shot of a mass of sheep making their way down a crowded ramp. Abruptly, the film

shifts to a scene of factory workers jostling one another on their way to a factory. However, the rather bitter note of

criticism in the implied comparison is not sustained. It is replaced by a gentle note of satire. Chaplin prefers to entertain

rather than lecture.

Scenes of factory interiors account for only about one-third of Modern Times, but they contain some of the most

pointed social commentary as well as the most comic situations. No one who has seen the film can ever forget Chaplin

vainly trying to keep pace with the fast-moving conveyor belt, almost losing his mind in the process. Another popular

scene involves an automatic feeding machine brought to the assembly line so that workers need not interrupt their labor

to eat. The feeding machine malfunctions, hurling food at Chaplin, who is strapped in his position on the assembly line

and cannot escape. This serves to illustrate people‟s utter helplessness in the face of machines that are meant to serve

their basic needs. Clearly, Modern Times has its faults, but it remains the best film treating technology within a social

context. It does not offer a radical social message, but it does accurately reflect the sentiment of many who feel they are

victims of an over-mechanized world.

61. According to the passage, Chaplin got the idea for Modern Times from .................................

A. a newspaper B. a conversation C. fieldwork D. a movie

62. The young farm boys went to the city because they were .................................

A. driven out of their sheep farm B. attracted by the prospect of a better life


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C. promised better accommodation D. forced to leave their sheep farm

63. The phrase “jostling one another” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to “................................”.

A. jogging side by side B. pushing one another C. hurrying up together D. running against each other

64. According to the passage, the opening scene of the film is intended .................................

A. to reveal the situation of the factory workers B. to give the setting for the entire plot later

C. to produce a tacit association D. to introduce the main characters of the film

65. The word “vainly” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to “................................”.

A. effortlessly B. hopelessly C. carelessly D. recklessly

66. The word “This” in the fourth paragraph refers to .................................

A. the scene of an assembly line in operation B. the scene of the malfunction of the feeding machine

C. the situation of young workers in a factory D. the malfunction of the twentieth-century technology

67. According to the author, about two-thirds of Modern Times .................................

A. was shot outside a factory B. entertains the audience most

C. is rather discouraging D. is more critical than the rest

68. The author refers to all of the following notions to describe Modern Times EXCEPT “................................”.

A. satire B. criticism C. entertainment D. revolution

69. Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage?

A. The author does not consider Modern Times as a perfect film.

B. In Modern Times, the factory workers‟ basic needs are well met.

C. Modern Times depicts the over-mechanized world from a social viewpoint.

D. The working conditions in the car factories of the 1930s were very stressful.

70. The passage was written to .................................

A. discuss the disadvantages of technology B. explain Chaplin‟s style of acting

C. review one of Chaplin‟s popular films D. criticize the factory system of the 1930s


Even before the turn of the century, movies began to develop in two major directions: the realistic and the

formalistic. Realism and formalism are merely general, rather than absolute, terms. When used to suggest a tendency

toward either polarity, such labels can be helpful, but in the end they are still just labels. Few films are exclusively

formalist in style, and fewer yet are completely realist. There is also an important difference between realism and reality,

although this distinction is often forgotten. Realism is a particular style, whereas physical reality is the source of all the

raw materials of film, both realistic and formalistic. Virtually all movie directors go to the photographable world for their

subject matter, but what they do with this material - how they shape and manipulate it - determines their stylistic

emphasis.

Generally speaking, realistic films attempt to reproduce the surface of concrete reality with a minimum of distortion.

In photographing objects and events, the filmmaker tries to suggest the copiousness of life itself. Both realist and

formalist film directors must select (and hence emphasize) certain details from the chaotic sprawl of reality. But the

element of selectivity in realistic films is less obvious. Realists, in short, try to preserve the illusion that their film world

is unmanipulated, an objective mirror of the actual world. Formalists, on the other hand, make no such pretense. They

deliberately stylize and distort their raw materials so that only the very naive would mistake a manipulated image of an

object or event for the real thing.

We rarely notice the style in a realistic movie; the artist tends to be self-effacing. Some filmmakers are more

concerned with what is being shown than how it is manipulated. The camera is used conservatively. It is essentially a

recording mechanism that reproduces the surface of tangible objects with as little commentary as possible. A high

premium is placed on simplicity, spontaneity, and directness. This is not to suggest that these movies lack artistry,

however, for at its best the realistic cinema specializes in art that conceals art.


A. Acting styles B. Film plots C. Styles of filmmaking D. Filmmaking 100 years ago

72. With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree?

A. Realism and formalism are outdated terms.

B. Most films are neither exclusively realistic nor formalistic.


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C. Realistic films are more popular than formalistic ones.

D. Formalistic films are less artistic than realistic ones.

73. Whom does the author say is primarily responsible for the style of a film?

A. The director B. The actors C. The producer D. The camera operator

74. The word "shape" in line 8 is closest in meaning to

A. specify B. form C. understand D. achieve

75. How can one recognize the formalist style?

A. It uses familiar images. B. It is very impersonal.

C. It obviously manipulates images. D. It mirrors the actual world.

76. The word "preserve" in line 14 is closest in meaning to

A. encourage B. maintain C. reflect D. attain

77. The word “They” in line 16 refers to

A. films B. realists C. formalists D. raw materials

78. The word "tangible" in line 20 is closest in meaning to

A. concrete B. complex C. various D. comprehensible

79. Which of the following terms is NOT used to describe realism in filmmaking?

A. Simple B. Spontaneous C. Self-effacing D. Exaggerated

80. Which of the following films would most likely use a realist style?

A. A travel documentary B. A science fiction film

C. A musical drama D. An animated cartoon

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Anhvan thay hai trung tam luyen thi dai hoc qsc-45 - de cuong on thi tsdh-cd - 2013 (sau tet - cap...

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