AMPHIBIOUS OPERATIONS

1. What are amphibious operations designed to do?

a. Prosecute further combat operations

b. Obtain a site for advanced naval, land, or air base.

c. Deny use of an area or facilities to the enemy

d. Fix enemy forces and attention, providing opportunities for other combat operations

e. All of these

2. This principal type of amphibious operation involves establishing a force on a hostile or potentially hostile shore

a. Amphibious Withdrawal

b. Amphibious Assault

c. Amphibious Raid

d. Amphibious Demonstration

3. An operation involving the extraction of forces by sea in naval ships or craft from a hostile or potentially hostile shore.

a. Amphibious Withdrawal

b. Amphibious Demonstration

c. Amphibious Raid

d. Amphibious Assault

4. Amphibious operations involve high-risk, high-payoff efforts to accomplish critical missions.

a. True

b. False

5. During the highly vulnerable ship-to-shore movement phase what may success may hinge on?

a. The ability to get troops ashore quickly

b. The ability to get troops off the beach quickly

c. The ability to integrate both land-based and maritime air defense resources

d. None of these

6. The conduct of landings from beyond enemy visual and radar range is a technique that does NOT employ which of the following

maneuver warfare concepts?

a. Surprise,

b. Operational speed and flexibility

c. Tactical mobility

d. Risk to assault shipping

7. This is a designated area in on a hostile or potentially hostile shore which, when seized and held, ensures the continuous landing of

troops and materiel.

a. Beachhead

b. Landing Area

c. Airhead

d. Landing Zone

8. What types of craft are NOT used to get elements of MEUs Ashore?

a. LCAC

b. LPD

c. Helicopters

d. LCU

9. The United States maintains the second largest amphibious fleet in the world, second only to China.

a. True

b. False

10. How many amphibious ships participated in Operation Desert Storm?

a. 23

b. 33

c. 43

d. 53

11. In the three years following Desert Storm, how many times per year did the Marine Corps respond to crises in the world?

a. Six

b. Twelve

c. Fifteen

d. Twenty

12. The current modernization of the fleet will provide amphibious lift how many Marine Expeditionary Brigade (MEB) equivalents?

a. 2

b. 2.5

c. 3

d. 3.5

e. 5

13. The lift parameters for amphibious operations are: vehicle square foot stowage, cargo cubic capacity, troop capacity, vertical take off

and landing capacity, and LCAC capacity.

a. True

b. False

14. The original Marine Corps operating units were formed as security for embassies only.

a. True

b. False

15. The U.S. Navy published the first Manual concerning landing operations in what year?

a. 1886

b. 1918

c. 1933

d. 1950

16. 1st LT Gilman wrote The Naval Brigade and Operations Ashore?

a. True

b. False

17. What was the first manual to address doctrine for embarkation, ship-to-shore movement, naval gunfire, and air support and command

relationships?

a. The Naval Brigade and Operations Ashore

b. Tentative Landing Operations Manual

c. Landing Force and Small Arms Instruction Manual

d. Landing Party Manual.

18. The amphibious assaults at Iwo Jima and Saipan are examples of which purpose of amphibious operations?

a. Prosecute further combat operations.

b. Obtain a site for an advanced naval, land, or air base.

c. Deny the use of an area or facilities to the enemy.

d. Fix enemy forces and attention, providing opportunities for other combat operations.

19. The task organization formed for the purpose of conducting an amphibious operation is an Amphibious Task Force.

a. True

b. False

20. Which of these is NOT a limitation of the amphibious operation?

a. Initial zero combat power ashore.

b. Maintaining tactical integrity.

c. Forcible entry capabilities

d. Sensitivity to weather, seas, surf, and hydrographic conditions.

21. An amphibious operation involving swift incursion into or a temporary occupation of an objective followed by a planned withdrawal

is the definition of an.

a. Amphibious Assault

b. Amphibious Demonstration

c. Amphibious Raid

d. Amphibious Withdrawal

e. Nonconventional

22. Which phase of an Amphibious Operation includes the preparation of the objective area?

a. Planning

b. Embarkation

c. Rehearsal

d. Movement

e. Assault

23. In preassault operations, an operation conducted in the amphibious objective area before the assault phase begins for which of the

following purposes:

a. Isolate the objective area.

b. Gain information of the enemy and objective area.

c. Prepare the objective area.

d. Conduct tactical deception to confuse the enemy.

e. All of these

24. Basic decisions are those decisions that must be made at the highest level within the ATF before detailed planning for an amphibious

operation can proceed.

a. True

b. False

25. Psychological warfare is possibility be part of the supporting operations of an amphibious operation.

a. True

b. False

26. The commander of the ATF is the senior Marine officer in the Task force.

a. True

b. False

27. Who selects what course of action that the ATF should take?

a. CATF

b. CLF

c. Neither A nor B

d. Both A and B

28. The CATF selects the helicopter landing zones during the planning of the amphibious operation?

a. True

b. False

29. Which of the following officers direct amphibious operations?

a. Combatant commander

b. Subunified commander,

c. JTF commander

d. All of these

e. None of these

30. These are primary landing ships, resembling small aircraft carriers, designed to put troops on hostile shores.

a. LPD

b. LHA

c. LHD

d. None of these

31. Which of the following is not strength of an amphibious operation?

a. Strategic mobility and flexibility.

b. Forcible entry capabilities.

c. Projection of naval power ashore.

d. All of these are strengths.

32. How many conditions should be met before an amphibious operation is terminated?

a. 3

b. 5

c. 7

d. 9

e. 11

33. Landing areas include which of the following?

a. Landing Beach

b. Helo LZ’s

c. Drop Zones

d. All of these

e. A and C only

34. Where was the USS Iowa built?

a. Norfolk Naval Shipyards

b. New York Naval Shipyards

c. Philadelphia Naval Shipyard

d. Charleston Naval Shipyard

e. None of these

35. Which of the following weapons systems are carried on the BB/BBG?

a. MK 7 16”/50 cal. Naval Gun

b. MK 12 5”/38 cal. Naval Gun

c. Tomahawk cruise missiles

d. SLAMM-ER missiles

e. All of these.

36. When was the USS Iowa originally deployed?

a. 1 December 1942

b. 22 February 1943

c. 25 August 1944

d. 24 April 1939

e. None of these

37. Primary landing ships, resembling small aircraft carriers, designed to put troops on hostile shores.

a. LHA

b. LPD

c. LST

d. None of these

38. What is the designation for the USS San Antonio?

a. LPD 17

b. LPD 18

c. LPD 19

d. LPD 20

39. The primary mission of these vessels is coastal patrol and interdiction surveillance.

a. PC

b. Mark V

c. HSB

d. RIB

40. Known as building 20 by some sailors, this LCC is home ported at Norfolk Naval Station.

a. USS Blue Ridge

b. USS Mount Whitney

c. USS Austin

d. None of these

41. This landing craft has both bow and stern ramps for on/offload at either end.

a. LCAC

b. LCM

c. LCU

d. AAV

42. This landing craft is capable of 40+ knots and is used for high speed, over the beach amphibious landings.

a. LCAC

b. LCM

c. LCU

d. AAV

43. These craft are assigned to Special Boat Units and have the primary responsibility of delivery and retrieval of Special Warfare troops.

a. Mark V

b. 11 Meter RIB

c. Neither A nor B

d. Both A and B

44. Which craft can operate in seas with winds as high as 45 knots?

a. Mark V

b. 11 Meter RIB

c. Neither A nor B

d. Both A and B

45. What is the combat radius of an AV-8B on a close air support mission?

a. 2100 nautical miles

b. 163 nautical miles

c. 454 nautical miles

d. None of these

46. Which of the AAVs listed below is designed to provide basic maintenance and recovery to smaller vehicles?

a. AAVP7A1

b. AAVC7A1

c. AAVR7A1

d. AAAV

47. Specific tasks of the AV-8B HARRIER II include

a. Conduct close air support using conventional and specific weapons.

b. Conduct deep air support, to include armed reconnaissance and air interdiction.

c. Conduct offensive and defensive antiair warfare

d. Be able to operate and deliver ordnance at night and to operate under instrument flight conditions

e. All of these.

48. What was the total number of AV-8B’s operated during Operation Desert Storm?

a. 60

b. 66

c. 86

d. None of these

49. Boeing Aircraft Corporation builds the AV8-B.

a. True

b. False

50. In what year was the CH-46 first produced for service with the Marine Corps?

a. 1964

b. 1974

c. 1984

d. 1994

51. Which service uses the HH-60 Jayhawk?

a. US. Navy

b. U.S. Coast Guard

c. U.S. Marine Corps

d. U.S. Army

e. U.S. Air Force

52. Which aircraft is scheduled to be replaced by the V-22 Osprey?

a. CH-53D

b. CH-46E

c. Both A and B

d. Neither A nor B

53. Which of the rounds does the MK7 Naval gun not fire?

a. MK 7 AP Round

b. MK 13 HC Round

c. DX-149 RAP

d. HEAT Round

e. DSR/RAP

54. The MK 12 gun uses a semi fixed round with a 64-pound warhead and a 28-pound shell case, which includes 15 pounds of powder.

a. True

b. False

55. What contracter builds the MK-7?

a. General Electric

b. New York Ordnance

c. Boeing

d. American Arms

e. None of these

56. The SLAMM-ER has which navigation system?

a. Inertial Navigation system

b. GPS

c. Infrared

d. Automatic Target Acquisition

e. All of these

57. The RAM uses components from which missiles?

a. Sparrow and Stinger

b. Sparrow and Sidewinder

c. Stinger and Sidewinder

d. Maverick and Stinger

58. This weapon system was originally used on Air Force fighters during the Vietnam era.

a. Rolling Airframe Missile

b. Sea Sparrow

c. Phalanx CIWS

d. Mark 38 ~ 25MM Machine Gun System

e. None of these

59. Which platforms do not carry a derivative of the Evolved Sea Sparrow or Sparrow missile?

a. Aircraft Carriers

b. Amphibious Assault Ships

c. F-14

d. B-2

e. F/A – 18

60. This weapon system provides ships with a “last chance” defense against anti-ship missiles and other threats that have penetrated other

fleet defenses.

a. Rolling Airframe Missile

b. Sparrow Missile

c. Phalanx Close-In Weapons System

d. Mark 38 ~ 25MM Machine Gun

61. This automatic weapon engages point targets out to 800 meters, firing the improved NATO standard 5.56mm cartridge.

a. M240G

b. M60E3

c. MK19

d. M249

62. The MK-19 was designed and procured as a replacement to the M-79 grenade launcher that was used in Vietnam.

a. True

b. False

63. Which weapon system has a maximum effective range of 800 meters on an area target and 550 meters on a point target?

a. M14

b. M16A2

c. MP-5N

d. M9

64. What element is not part of the Command Task Group?

a. Flagship for CATF and CLF

b. Tactical Air Control Unit.

c. Special Warfare Unit.

d. Naval Beach Party Unit.

e. All of these are part of the Command Task Group

65. This group is activated to support assault landings and operations ashore.

a. Screening Protection Group

b. Mine Warfare Group

c. Naval Gunfire Support Group

d. Ship to Shore Control Group

66. Which officer on the ATF staff is responsible for intelligence?

a. N-1

b. N-2

c. N-3

d. N-4

e. N-5

67. The designation N-6 is for which ATF staff officer?

a. Combat Cargo Officer

b. Combat Logistics/Material Officer

c. Plans/Policies/Exercises Officer

d. Tactical Air Officer

e. None of these

68. Which MAGTAF staff officer is responsible for supply, maintenance, transportation and medical and dental?

a. G/S-1

b. G/S-2

c. G/S-3

d. G/S-4

69. Which of the following areas is NOT defined as a strategic chokepoint?

a. Straits of Gibraltar

b. Panama Canal

c. GIUK Gap

d. Gulf of Mexico

70. . "The Marine Corps...shall be organized as to include not less than 3 combat divisions and 3 aircraft wings,” is a quote from which

piece of legislation?

a. The National Security Act of 1947

b. The Patriot Act of 1991

c. The Navy Act of 1794

d. None of these

71. Which of these are commands provides trained and qualified units and individuals to be available for active duty in time of war or

national emergency?

a. MARFORLANT

b. MARFORPAC

c. HQMC

d. MARRES

e. None of these

72. The SPMAGTF is largest and most capable MAGTF.

a. True

b. False

73. The I MEF is headquartered at

a. Camp Pendleton, California

b. Camp Le Jeune, North Carolina

c. III MEF - Okinawa, Japan

d. None of these

74. This unit is the largest permanent organization of ground combat power in the Fleet Marine Force

a. MARDIV

b. MAW

c. MEF

d. MEU

75. In what year did the Secretary of Defense task military services to review their existing special operations capabilities and develop a

plan for achieving a new level of special operations capability ?

a. 1981

b. 1983

c. 1991

d. 1993

76. Which of these elements is normally composed of assets from the Battalion Landing Team (BLT) STA platoon (sniper support) and

coupled with elements of the RADBN Det, COMM Det, MLG Det, and CI/ITT assets from the MEU CE?

a. Strike Element

b. Covering Element

c. Reconnaissance and Surveillance Element

d. None of these

77. How many AAVs are in an Amphibious Assault Vehicle Platoon?

a. 4

b. 10

c. 12

d. 15

78. What types of aircraft does the ACE not utilize?

a. AV-8B

b. KC-130

c. F/A-18

d. CH-53

e. AH-1W

79. Which of the following operations is the MEU (SOC) capable of carrying out?

a. Amphibious Operations

b. Direct Action Operations

c. MOOTW

d. Supporting Operations

e. All of these

80. Which of the following is not something to do when talking on a radiotelephone?

a. Listen before transmitting

b. Speak clearly and distinctly.

c. Use standard pronunciation

d. Get very close to the microphone

81. The number “zero” should be written with a slant bar through it so that it is not confused with the letter “O”.

a. True

b. False

82. The proper way to end a transmission on a radio is OVER and OUT.

a. True

b. False

83. The letter “O” is spoken as “Oh” in the phonetic alphabet.

a. True

b. False

84. What is the proword meaning “I must pause for a few seconds”?

a. Standby

b. Wait

c. Hold on

d. Wait out

85. Which of the following is a proword for an answer in the positive.

a. Affirmative

b. Roger

c. Over

d. Yes

86. Raising the fist to the shoulder and thrusting it up and down several times is the signal for

a. Rally

b. Stop

c. Double Time

d. None of these

87. Drawing the hand across the neck in a cutting motion from left to right is the hand signal for

a. Freeze

b. Map Check

c. Danger Area

d. None of these

88. Which of these is not a patrolling formation with a hand signal illustrated in the workup book?

a. Wedge

b. Line

c. Column

d. Echelon

89. What is a rapid, reflexive response executed by a small unit.

a. Patrols

b. Drills

c. Skirmishes

d. None of these

90. Marlinspike seamanship is the art of handling and working with all kinds of line or rope.

a. True

b. False

91. Yarns are twisted together to form line.

a. True

b. False

92. Bitter End This is the running or free end of a line. It is the end of the line that is worked with.

a. Bitter End

b. Standing Part

c. Bight

d. Turn

93. Formed by crossing the bitter end over the standing part.

a. Underhand Loop

b. Overhand Loop

c. Bight

d. Round Turn

94. If the line is encircling or wrapped about an object is a round turn.

a. True

b. False

95. Used to form eyes or secure a cord or line around an object such as a package.

a. Knots

b. Bends

c. Hitches.

96. What is considered the most useful of knots?

a. Bowline

b. Square knot

c. Clove Hitch

d. Becket Bend

97. Used to secure lines together.

a. Hitches

b. Knots

c. Bends

d. None of these

98. This knot is also called the reef knot.

a. Square Knot

b. Bowline

c. Beckett Bend

d. Cove Hitch

99. Overhand knots can be used to secure two lines of different sizes together.

a. True

b. False

100. Figure eight knots are examples of stopper knots.

a. True

b. False

UNITED STATES NAVAL

SEA CADET CORPS AMPHIBIOUS OPERATIONS

Workup Course Answer Sheet

1 A B C D 26 A B C D 51 A B C D 76 A B C D 2 A B C D 27 A B C D 52 A B C D 77 A B C D 3 A B C D 28 A B C D 53 A B C D 78 A B C D 4 A B C D 29 A B C D 54 A B C D 79 A B C D 5 A B C D 30 A B C D 55 A B C D 80 A B C D 6 A B C D 31 A B C D 56 A B C D 81 A B C D 7 A B C D 32 A B C D 57 A B C D 82 A B C D 8 A B C D 33 A B C D 58 A B C D 83 A B C D 9 A B C D 34 A B C D 59 A B C D 84 A B C D 10 A B C D 35 A B C D 60 A B C D 85 A B C D 11 A B C D 36 A B C D 61 A B C D 86 A B C D 12 A B C D 37 A B C D 62 A B C D 87 A B C D 13 A B C D 38 A B C D 63 A B C D 88 A B C D 14 A B C D 39 A B C D 64 A B C D 89 A B C D 15 A B C D 40 A B C D 65 A B C D 90 A B C D 16 A B C D 41 A B C D 66 A B C D 91 A B C D 17 A B C D 42 A B C D 67 A B C D 92 A B C D 18 A B C D 43 A B C D 68 A B C D 93 A B C D 19 A B C D 44 A B C D 69 A B C D 94 A B C D 20 A B C D 45 A B C D 70 A B C D 95 A B C D 21 A B C D 46 A B C D 71 A B C D 96 A B C D 22 A B C D 47 A B C D 72 A B C D 97 A B C D 23 A B C D 48 A B C D 73 A B C D 98 A B C D 24 A B C D 49 A B C D 74 A B C D 99 A B C D 25 A B C D 50 A B C D 75 A B C D 100 A B C D