ASAT(ALLEN Scholarship Cum Admission Test)

For

ENTHUSIAST COURSE(For XI to XII Moving Students)

SAMPLE TEST PAPER

INSTRUCTIONS

1. The booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seal of this booklet before being instructed to do so bythe invigilator.

2. Blank spaces and blank pages are provided in the question paper for your rough work. No additional sheets willbe provided for rough work.

3. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cameras, cellular phones, pagers and electronicgadgets are NOT allowed inside the examination hall.

4. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Optical response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.

5. On breaking the seal of the booklet check that it contains 19 pages and all the 100 questions.

6. A candidate has to write his/her answer in the ORS sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help ofBlack ball point pen as the correct answer of the question attempted.

7. Question Paper format :

The question paper consists of 2 part.

Part-I : IQ (Mental Ability) & Part-II : Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics & Biology.

Part-II, Section A and Section B are compulsory to attempt. You need to attempt any one of theSection C or D (Mathematics/Biology) & fill your response corresponding to Q. No. in ORS sheet.

8. Marking Scheme :

Part-I : For each question in Part-I, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to thecorrect answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. No negative marks will be awarded for incorrectanswers in this part.

Part-II : For each question of Part-II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding toonly the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. No negative marks will be awarded forincorrect answers in this part.

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

Time : 2 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 300

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER

1. A girl writes letter to her four friends and addresses the four envelops. If she inserts the letters at random,

each in a different envelop, what is the probability that exactly three letters will go into the right envelop.

(1) Zero (2) 12 (3)

13 (4) 1

2. JERRY is going to work his way through the sugar cubes shown below. He can enter any cube he chooses

on the bottom row. He eats his way to the middle of that cube and then turns 90o in any direction to leave

that cube and enter another cube. Where he repeats the process all over again. JERRY must enter each cube

through a face, not an edge. Remember, he eats in a straight line from the middle of one cube to the middle

of the next. When he begins from the outside, he enters straight into the middle of a face.

The shaded cubes are diagonal from each other.What is the least number of cubes JERRY has to eat through to move from one cube on the bottom tothat cube’s diagonal cube on top?(1) 3 cubes (2) 4 cubes (3) 5 cubes (4) 6 cubes

3.1 3 5 2n 1. . ..................2 4 6 2n

-. The given product of numbers will always be less than :-

(1) 1

2n 1+ (2)2n 12n 1

-+

(3) Both of these (4) None of the Above

4. Find the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock when the time is 4:35.

(1) o175

2(2) 85o (3)

o1722

(4) None of these

PART - II Q (MENTAL ABILITY)

This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) outof which ONLY ONE is correct.

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER

Direction for (Q.5 & Q.6) :- Find the missing term in the following questions ?

5. 0, 12, 72, 240, 600, ?

(1) 1260 (2) 260 (3) 6020 (4) 1321

6. 2, 6, 30, 260, ?

(1) 2650 (2) 3120 (3) 2660 (4) 3130

7. CDEF is a square & oA B 90Ð =Ð = .

Find AB.

12 5A

C D

F E

B 125

(1) 13 2 (2) 17 2 (3) 15 2 (4) 13 5

8. A is thrice as good a workman as B and therefore is able to finish a job in 60 days less than B. Workingtogether, they can do it in

(1) 20 days (2) 122 days2 (3) 25 days (4) 30 days

9. If 12 + 22 + 32 + ... + 20032 = (2003) (4007) (334)

and (1) (2003)+(2)(2002)+(3)(2001)+......+ (2003)(1) = (2003) (334) (x),

Find x

(1) 2005 (2) 2004 (3) 2003 (4) 2001

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER

10. A natural number x is chosen at random from the first one hundred natural number. The probability

that (x – 20)(x – 40) 0

x – 30< is

(1) 1/50 (2) 3/50 (3) 3/25 (4) 7/25

11. The given sequence n 2 3 n

1 1 1 1X ................5 1 5 1 5 1 5 1

= + + ++ + + +

is always less than k when

n ® ¥ . Find k.

(1) 1/5 (2) 1/6 (3) 1/4 (4) None of these

12. Four friends Manoj, Happy, Pradeep & Raju want to cross a bridge. Manoj takes 1 minute to cross the

bridge, whereas Happy takes 3 minutes, Pradeep takes 7 minutes and Raju takes 10 minutes to cross

the bridge. However it's late at night and they can't cross the bridge without a flashlight. They only

have one flashlight and the bridge is strong enough to support the weight of only two persons at once.

When two friends cross the bridge they walk at the slower person's rate. How quickly the four can

cross the bridge?

(1) 20 minutes (2) 22 minutes

(3) 24 minutes (4) 28 minutes

Direction for (Q. 13 & Q.14) :- Read the follwoing information carefully and answer the questions that follow:

A+B means A is the son of B ; A–B means A is the wife of B : A × B means A is the brother of B ; A ¸ B Means

A is the mother of B and A = B means A is the sister of B.

13. What does P = R + Q mean ?

(1) P is the aunt of Q (2) P is the daughter of Q

(3) P is the niece of Q (4) P is the sister of Q

14. What does P = R ¸ Q means ?

(1) P is the aunt of Q (2) P is the sister of Q

(3) P is the niece of Q (4) P is the daughter of Q

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SAMPLE TEST PAPERDirection for (Q.15 to Q.17) :- Refer to the following bar diagram showing the sales (in ` Crores) of topmarket brands among pain killers in India and answer the questions

0

5

10

15

20

25

Vove

ran

Cal

pol

Nis

e

Com

bifla

m

Dol

onex

Sum

o

Volin

i

Moo

v

Nim

ulid

2005

2006

15. What is the difference between the sales of Voveran in 2006 and those of Calpol in 2005 (in ` lacs)?

(1) 1000 (2) 50 (3) 100 (4) 500

16. Percentage of increase in sales from 2005 to 2006 is the highest for which brand of a pain killer ?

(1) Voveran (2) Volini (3) Dolonex (4) Sumo

17. What is the approximate percentage of increase in the sales of Voveran from 2005 to 2006 ?

(1) 35% (2) 40% (3) 45% (4) 50%

18. If 'a' implies '+', 'b' implies '–', 'c' implies '×' and d implise '¸', insert proper letter between the figures

in the following equation

40__20__30__6 = 55

(1) a, b, c (2) b, c, d (3) a, b, d (4) d, b, a

19. In the air talent show in the eve of independence day 90 aircraft (only Sukhoi and Mig-21) participated.

It is known that for every one hour flight a Sukhoi and a Mig-21 consume 2 litres and 3 litres of fuel

respectively. The price of fuel for Sukhoi si $ 10 per litre and price for the fuel of Mig-21 is $ 15 per

litre. Thus all the aircrafts accounted $3050 for the fuel in one hour show. The number of Sukhoi

planes is :

(1) 20 (2) 30 (3) 40 (4) 50

20. ABCD is a parallelogram and BD is a diagonal. ÐBAD = 65° and ÐDBC = 45°, then m ÐBDC is :-

(1) 65° (2) 70° (3) 20° (4) None of these

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER

21. A disc is rolling on a fix rough horizontal surface with constant angular velocity the direction ofacceleration of bottom most point of disc is(1) Upward (2) Zero (3) Inclined (4) Horizontal

22. A disc and a ring of same mass starts sliping on a same inclined plane (friction is not sufficient forrolling). Work done by friction(1) In case of disc is more than ring (2) In case of disc is less than ring(3) In case of disc is same as ring (4) Can't say anything

23. A spring mass system is executing SHM (vertical) with amplitude Mgk

, where M is the mass of the

block and k is the spring constant. When it is at its lowest extreme suddenly force of gravity disappears.The new energy of SHM will be(1) Become 4 times (2) Become 2 times (3) Remain same (4) Zero

24. A liquid of density r = 1000 kg/m3 and and a body of volume 1m3 and flat area at base is 1/5 m2

place on the base such that there is no fluid under flat surface if mass of body is M Kg find normalbetween surface and body neglect atm pressure.

5 m

(1) Less than Mg (2) Greater than Mg (3) Equal to Mg (4) Data is insufficient

25. A particle is projected at an angle q = 30º with the horizontal. Which of the following curves best

represents the variation of KE and potential energy as a function of time? [Take the point of projection

as the reference level for the gravitational potential energy.

(1)

KE/PE

KE

PE

t

(2)

KE/PE

KE

PE

t

(3)

KE/PE

KE

PE

t

(4)

KE/PE

KE

PE

t

PART - IISECTION-A : PHYSICS

This section contains 15 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) outof which ONLY ONE is correct.

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SAMPLE TEST PAPERDirection for (Q. 26 & Q. 27) :- If a block of mass 2 kg is moving with velocity of 1 m/s towards east on arough surface,If we observe it from a frame 2 moving with 1 m/s toward east,26. According to passage.

(1) In 2nd frame, force of friction was opposite to displacement.(2) In 2nd frame, force of friction was in same direction as displacement.(3) In ground frame, force of friction is in same direction as the displacement.(4) None of these

27. Choose correct statement.(1) In ground frame, work done by friction on ground is positive.(2) In ground frame, work done by friction on ground is negative.(3) In frame 2, work done by friction on ground is negative.(4) In frame 2, work done by friction on ground is positive.

28. A point mass m moves horizontally with a velocity 0Rg

v2

= from the peak of a smooth hemispherical

surface of radius R.m

v0

qR

The angle q0 at which the mass m leaves the spherical surface is-

(1) 1 2cos

3- æ öç ÷è ø

(2) 1 2sin

3- æ öç ÷è ø

(3) 1 5

cos6

- æ öç ÷è ø (4)

1 5sin

6- æ öç ÷è ø

29. Two blocks of masses 2 kg and 3 kg are placed in a lift which moves up with an upward accelerationof a = 2 m/s2 as shown in figure. If an external force of 15 N is acting on 2 kg block, find thenet force on 3 Kg block

2kg

3kg

15N

a=2m/s2

(1) 4N (2) 6N (3) 8N (4) 10N

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER30. A pulley mass system is shown below. The pulley and the strings are massless, then

2kg3kg

10kg

Massless panForce applied by 3 kg block on 2 kg block is(1) 8g/3 N (2) 5g/3 N (3) 20g/3 N (4) 10g/3 N

31. Ring of mass m is rolling on a horizontal rough surface with cofficient of friction m and horizontalforce F applied at the top of ring as shown in figure. Value of friction force is

F

(1) m mg (2) 2m

mg (3) F3

(4) None of these

32. A rod of mass m length L is hinged from the top a horizontal force F is applied at the bottom for very

short time of interval t then the momentum change due to this is

(1) Greater than Ft (2) less than Ft (3) equal to Ft (4) can't say

33. If 20 g of ice at 0°C is mixed with 20 g of water at 40°C, the final mass of water in the mixture is

(1) 10 g (2) 30 g (3) 18 g (4) 20 g

34. In given diagram which of the following action reaction pair

T3

T4

T2

T1

N

mg

(1) T1 & T2

(2) T3 & T4

(3) N & mg

(4) none of these

35. Which of the following quantity is frame independent(1) velocity (2) acceleration(3) force (4) work done by kinetic friction on the system

Enthusiast Course

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER

SECTION-B : CHEMISTRYThis section contains 15 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) outof which ONLY ONE is correct.

36. If there are only two H-atoms, each is in 3rd excited state return to ground state,(1) maximum number of different photons emitted is 4.(2) maximum number of different photons emitted is 3.(3) minimum number of different photons emitted is 4.(4) minimum number of different photons emitted is 2.

37. In the following reaction 2MnO4– + 5H2O2

18 + 6H+ ® 2Mn2+ + 8H2O + 5O2

The radioactive oxygen will appear in :(1) H2O (2) O2

(3) both (4) above reaction does not take place38. Dichloroacetic acid (CHCl2COOH) is oxidised to CO2, H2O and Cl2 by 600 milliequivalents of an

oxidising agent. Same amount of acid can neutralize how many moles of ammonia to form ammoniumdichloroacetate?(1) 0.0167 (2) 0.1 (3) 0.3 (4) 0.6

39. How many moles of KMnO4 are needed to oxidise 1 mole of Fe0.93O in acidic medium.(1) 0.79 mole (2) 0.158 mole (3) 0.263 mole (4) 0.14 mole

40. For 10 minute each, at 27ºC, from two identical holes nitrogen and an unknown gas are leaked into acommon vessel of 6 litre capacity. The resulting pressure is 2.5 atm and the mixture

contains 0.4 mole of nitrogen. What is the molar mass (in gram) of unknown gas? (Take R = 1

12Ltr.

atm mol–1 K–1)(1) 120 g mol–1 (2) 121 g mol–1 (3) 112 g mol–1 (4) 40 g mol–1

41. A tube closed at one end is dipped in mercury such that the closed surface coincides with themercury level in the container. By how much length of the tube should be extended such that thelevel of Hg in the tube is 5 cm below the mercury level inside the container. (assume temperatureremains constant)

20 cm

Patm = 70 cm of Hg

(1) 18 cm (2) 19 cm (3) 24 cm (4) 30 cm

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER42. If the critical constants for a hypothetical gas are VC = 150 cm3 mol–1. PC = 50 atm and TC = 300 K.

Then the approximate radius of the molecule is : [Take R = 1

12Ltr atm mol–1 K–1]

(1)

1/3

A

752 N

æ öç ÷pè ø

(2)

1/ 3

A

758 N

æ öç ÷pè ø

(3)

1/3

A

3N

æ öç ÷pè ø

(4)

1/ 3

A

3256 N

æ öç ÷pè ø

43. Some quantity of water is contained in a container and 2 moles of neon gas above it as shown inFig. 1. If piston is stationary 1 mole of neon (not vapour) is removed from this system at constantpressure, the amount of liquid water in the vessel

water

fig. 1

2 moles of neon + vapour

Free moving piston

(1) increases (2) decreases (3) remains same (4) changes unpredictably

44. 2CaSO4(s) 2CaO(s) + 2SO2(g) + O2(g), DH > 0

Above equilibrium is established by taking some amount of CaSO4(s) in a closed container at 1600 K.Then which of the following may be incorrect option.(1) moles of CaO(s) will increase with the increase in temperature

(2) If the volume of the container is doubled at equilibrium then partial pressure of SO2(g) will changeat new equilibrium.

(3) If the volume of the container is halved partial pressure of O2(g) at new equilibrium will remain same(4) If two moles of the He gas is added at constant pressure then the moles of CaO(s) will increase.

45. A liquid which is confined inside an adiabatic piston is suddenly taken from state 1 to state 2 byexpanding it against constant external pressure of P0. If the piston comes to rest at point 2 as shown.Thenthe enthalpy change for the process will be :

(1) DH = 0 02 P V1

gg - (2) DH =

0 03 P V1

gg - (3) DH = –P0 V0 (4) None of these

Enthusiast Course

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER46. The magnitudes of enthalpy changes for irreversible adiabatic expansion of a gas from 1L to 2L is

DH1 and for reversible adiabatic expansion for the same expansion is DH2. Then(1) DH1 > DH2

(2) DH1 < DH2

(3) DH1 = DH2, enthalpy being a state function(4) DH1 = DE1 & DH2 = DE2 where DE1 & DE2 are magnitudes of change in internal energy of gas in

these expansions respectively.47. At what molar concentration of HCl will its aqueous solution have an [H+] to which equal contributions

come from HCl and H2O.

(1) 60 × 10–7 M (2) 50 × 10–8 M (3) 40 × 10–9 M (4) 30 × 10–8

48. Concentration of CO2 in atmosphere is 100 ppm. If CO2 present in 106 litres of air is dissolved in 1 dm3

water then calculate the approximate pH of the solution at 27°C. Consider 106 litre air registers 1 atm

pressure. (Given 1aK = 10–7 , 2aK = 10–12 for H2CO3 , log2 = 0.3, R = 1

12Ltr. atm mol–1 K–1)

(1) 6 (2) 5.6 (3) 3.2 (4) 4.8

49. When weak base solution (50 ml of 0.1 N NH4OH) is titrated

with strong acid 0.1 N HCl, the pH of solution initially decreasesfast and then decreases slowly till near equivalence point (as

shown) in the figure. Which of the following is incorrect.(1) The slow decrease of pH is due to formation of an acidic

buffer solution after addition of some HCl

(2) The slope of shown pH graph will be minimum when 25ml of 0.1 N HCl is added

(3) The slow decrease of pH is due to formation of a basicbuffer solution

(4) The initial fast decrement in pH is due to fast consumption

of free OH¯ ions by HCl.

50. An aqueous solution (2 litre volume) is C molar with respect to weak acid H2A (overall acid dissocia-

tion constant = Ka) and 2C molar with respect to H2SO4 then :

(1) [A2–] = aK4C

and [H2A] + [A2–] = C (2) [A2–] = aK16C

and 2

]OH[]H[ -+ - = 2C + [A2–]

(3) [A2–] » aK16C

and 2

]OH[]H[ -+ - = C + [A2–] (4) [OH¯] » aK

4C and [H2A] + 2[A2–] = C

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER

SECTION-C : MATHEMATICSThis section contains 25 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) outof which ONLY ONE is correct.51. In a DABC the maximum value of acos(B – q) + bcos(A + q), q Î R is

(1) a (2) b (3) c (4) None

52. In a triangle ABC, cosA = 78 , cosB =

1116 . Then cosC is equal to

(1) 14 (2)

12

- (3) 14

- (4) none of these

53. The remainder obtained when 1! + 2! + 3! + 4! ... + 101! is divided by 10 is(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5

54. Value of nC1 + 22 nC2 + 24 nC3 + 26 nC4 + …….. + nCn 22n–2 is (n Î N)

(1) n5 14-

(2) n2 14-

(3) n5 14+

(4) n5

455. In a triangle, the lengths of the two larger sides are 10 and 9 respectively. If the angles are in A.P.,

then the length of third side can be

(1) 5 6- (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 3 3

56. The largest positive term of the H.P. whose first two terms are 2/5 and 1223 is

(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) none of these57. If any three consecutive terms of a G.P. are such that they form an A.P. on doubling the middle term

then number of such G.P.'s with first term unity is(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3

58. The vertices of a triangle divide the circum circle into three arcs of lengths 1, 2 and 3 units. Then thearea of triangle is

(1) 2

9 3p

(2) 2

9 32p

(3) 2

3p

(4) None of these

59. The number of ordered pairs (a, b) such that the roots of the equations x2 + ax + b = 0 are a and b is(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

Attempt any one of the section C or D

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER60. The number of ways of selecting two non-empty subsets from the set {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} such that they

have no common element is(1) 90 (2) 243 (3) 241 (4) 122

61. A is any point on the circle x2 + y2 + 4x – 6y + 12 = 0 and B is any point on the circlex2 + y2 – 6x – 12y + 41 = 0 let P be any point on the line y = x then the minimum value of PA + PB isdivisible by(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5

62. The curve represented by the equation 2 2x y 1

cos 2 cos 3 sin 2 sin 3+ =

- - is

(1) An ellipse with foci on the x-axis (2) A hyperbola with foci on the x-axis(3) An ellipse with foci on the y-axis (4) A hyperbola with the foci on the y-axis

63. The correct statement is(1) sin1 < sin2 < sin3 (2) sin1 > sin2 > sin3 (3) tan1 < tan4 < tan7 (4) tan1 > tan4 > tan7

64. If the hyperbola xy = 1 and the circle x2 + y2 – 2x – 4y – 100 = 0 interset in points A, B C and D suchthat line joining A and B passes through (0, 0) than line joining C and D passes through?(1) (1, 1) (2) (– 1, – 1) (3) (0, 0) (4) (1, 2)

65. The number of integral values of a for which the distance of the chord of the parabola y2 = 4x bisected

at (a, 1) from origin is 5 is

(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 366. I. In an A.P. where common difference is not equal to zero the product of two terms equidistant

from extreme terms decreases as these terms move away from the middle term

II.1 1 1 1......... (n N)

n 1 n 2 2n 2+ > Î

+ +(1) Both I and II are true (2) I is true and II is false

(3) I is false and II is true (4) I is true and II is false

67. The number of ordered pairs of integers (x, y) sastisfying y – |x2 – 2x| + 1 02> and y + |x – 1| < 2 is

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 468. If a, b, c are in A.P. such that a + b + c = 0, then roots of the equation px2 + qx + b = 0

(pq ¹ 0 & p, q are real) are (1) real and identical (2) real and distinct (3) Imaginary (4) None of these

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER69. Find number of real roots of the equation sin x = x2 + x + 1 :-

(1) zero (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) Infinite70. The equation of tangent to an ellipse is 3x + 4y – 2 = 0 whose point of tangency is (a, b) and

the foci are (1, 6) and (3, 1) then |9a + 12b| is equal to(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 6

71. If the sum of the divisors of a number N be S and the number of divisors is P then the harmonic meanof the divisors of the number N is

(1) PNS (2)

PSN (3) PSN (4) None of these

72. The value of 1 1 1 1cos9 cos 27 cos81 cos 2432 2 2 2

æ ö æ ö æ ö æ ö+ ° + ° + ° + °ç ÷ ç ÷ ç ÷ ç ÷è ø è ø è ø è ø is

(1) 12 (2)

14 (3)

116 (4)

132

73. If box A contain 3 White and 2 Black balls and Box B contain 2 White and 3 Black balls. (All balls are

different except clours). If one ball is transfered from Bag A to Bag B then one ball is selected from

bag B then find the probability that it is white Ball ?

(1) 3

30 (2) 1130 (3)

1325 (4)

1330

74. Box A contains black balls and box B contains white balls. Take a certain number of balls from A and

place them in B, then take same number of balls from B and place them in A. The probability that

number of white balls in A is equal to number of black balls in B is

(1) 12 (2)

14 (3)

13 (4) 1

75. If log2(a + 2b) + log2(a – 2b) = 2, then the minimum value of |a| – |b| is

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 5

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER

SECTION-D : BIOLOGYThis section contains 25 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) outof which ONLY ONE is correct.

76. In blood group detection, 3 antiserums are used as Antiserum A, Antiserum B, Antiserum D. If followingsamples are taken with these antiserum and all the conditions are shown find out the correct optionof right blood-groups.

(A)

AntiserumA

Antiserum AntiserumB D

(B)

(C) (D)

Sample A B C D

(1) Blood Group A+ B+ O– AB+

(2) Blood Group B+ A+ O– AB+

(3) Blood Group A+ AB+ B+ O+

(4) Blood Group A+ B+ AB+ O–

77. Observe the diagram given below :-

The correct names of A, B and C are IVC

(B)

(C)Liver

Intestine

Heart

(A)(1) A-Left atrium, B-Portal vein, C-Hepatic vein

(2) A-Left ventricle, B-Hepatic vein, C-Hepatic artery

(3) A-Right ventricle, B-Hepatic artery, C-Portal vein

(4) A-Left atrium, B-Hepatic vein, C-Hepatic artery

78. Consider the following statements :

A. Marine fishes drink water to solve the problem of dehydration.

B. The glomeruli of marine fishes are well vascularized.

C. In marine fishes, the loss of salt is kept at minimum level by active re-absorption in the proximalsegment of the renal tubule.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(1) A only (2) A & B only (3) B & C only (4) A, B & C only

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SAMPLE TEST PAPER79. Which of these is the least likely to affect information transfer from STM (Short Term Memory) to

LTM (Long Term Memory)?

(1) Emotional state (2) Repetition or rehearsal

(3) Auditory association cortex (4) Cerebral nuclei

80. Which of the following hormone is proteinaceous in nature and is secreted by steroid-producing organunder special physiological state?

(1) Epinephrine (2) Testosterone (3) Thyroxine (4) Relaxin

81. When a surgeon makes an incision in the small intestine, in what order would the physician encounterthese structures :

A. Epithelium B. Submucosa C. Serosa D. Muscularis

E. Lamina propria

(1) C, D, A, E, B (2) D, C, B, A, E (3) C, D, B, E, A (4) A, C, D, B, E

82. The ampulla of Lorenzini is the organ which is :-

(1) Present on dorsal and ventral surfaces of the head of sharks, embedded in the skin and acts asthermoreceptor organ

(2) Present on the ventral surface of the body of sharks, embedded in the skin and acts as lubricating organ

(3) Present in the membranous labyrinth of sharks and acts as balancing organ

(4) Present in the water vascular system of starfishes and acts as locomotory organ

83. If haemoglobin instead of staying within the corpuscles remains free in the plasma then :-

a. The viscocity of blood will rise

b. It will cause acidosis

c. Oxygen carrying capacity of blood will be reduced

(1) a only (2) a and b only (3) c only (4) a, b and c

84. The infective juvenile of Ascaris moults for the third time to form the fourth larva. Where does it takeplace among the following?

(1) In the soil outside the host body

(2) In the intestine of the host

(3) In the alveoli of lungs of the host

(4) In the right side of heart of the host

85. If core body temperature rises above normal which of the following would occur to cool the body.

A. Dilation of vessels in the skin B. Increased metabolic rate

C. Evaporation of perspiration D. Increased secretion of adrenaline

(1) A & B (2) A & C (3) A & D (4) A, B, C & D

Enthusiast Course

16/19

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

SAMPLE TEST PAPER86. Examine the figures given below and identify the option which represents correct option of the labelled

figures A, B, C and D.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) A and B - Internal segmented body

(2) B and C - Open blood vascular system

(3) C and D - Internal fertilisation

(4) B and D - Dorsal notochord87. What is correct sequence of formation of hormone receptor complex in insulin, cortisol, thyroxine?

(1) Nucleus, Membrane, Cytoplasm (2) Membrane, Nucleus, Cytoplasm

(3) Membrane, Cytoplasm, Nucleus (4) Cytoplasm, Membrane, Nucleus

88. Which of the following is/are not correct ?

i- Scotopic vision - Function of Rods

ii- Daylight vision - Function of Rods

iii- Colour vision - Function of Cones

iv- Twilight vision - Function of Cones

(1) i and ii (2) ii and iv (3) i and iv (4) ii and iii

89. When a short day plant (SD) and a long day plant (LD), both kept under favourable conditions forflowering are exposed to a short flash of red light the middle of the dark period:

(1) Both SD and LD plants will flower

(2) Both SD and LD plants will remain vegetative

(3) Both SD will remain vegetative and LD plant will flower

(4) SD plant will flower and LD plant will remain vegetative

17/19

Enthusiast Course

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

SAMPLE TEST PAPER90. An agar block containing 5 m g of IAA was placed on a decapitated coleopitile stump, as shown in

the given figure. After sometime an angle of curature, a was measured. If this agar block was replacedby another one containing 8 m g of IAA, then:

a

(1) Angle a will become narrower (2) Angle a will widen

(3) Angle a will remain the same as before (4) The coleoptile will shrink

91. A competitive enzyme inhibitor:

(1) Alters the Vmax but does not alter the Km of the enzyme

(2) Alters the Km but does not alter the Vmax of the enzyme

(3) Alters both Km and Vmax of the enzyme

(4) Does not alter either the Km or Vmax of the enzyme

92. Consider the following statements:

(I) the genetic material of virus consists of DNA or RNA, but never both

(II) Viruses can be cultured on any synthetic medium.

(III) Viruses lack enzymes neccessary for the generation of energy

(IV) Viruses are transmitted from one organism to another by biological vectors only.

(V) Viruses are obligate parasites

Which of these statements are correct

(1) I ,II,III, and IV (2) II, III and V (3) II, IV, and V (4) I, III and V

Enthusiast Course

18/19

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

SAMPLE TEST PAPER93. Consider the following statements :

(I) Pairing of chromosomes that are genetically and structurally identical is known as homologouspairing.

(II) The nuclear envelope is perforated by nuclear that serve as pathways between the nucleoplasmand cytoplasm

(III) Structurally, the endoplasmic reticulum is made up of a stack of flattened saccules, vacuoles anda number of small vesicles

(IV) Sometimes, a number of ribosomes associate themselves with a messenger RNA to formpolysomes.

(1) I and III are correct

(2) II and IV are correct

(3) I and IV are correct

(4) II and III are correct

94. A plant shows thallus level of orgnization. It shows rhizoids and is haploid. It needs water to completeits life cycle because the male gametes are motile. Identify the group to which it belongs to -:

(1) Pteridophytes (2) Gymnosperms

(3) Monocots (4) Bryophytes

95. With respect to fungal sexual cycle, choose the correct sequence of events:

(1) Karyogamy, Plasmogamy and Meiosis

(2) Meiosis, Plasmogamy and Karyogamy

(3) Plasmogamy , Karyogamy and Meiosis

(4) Meiosis, Karyogamy and Plasmogamy

96. What is the fate of primary xylem in a dicot showing extensive secondary growth?

(1) It is retained in the centre of the axis

(2) It gets crushed

(3) May or may not get crushed

(4) It gets surrounded by primary phloem

19/19

Enthusiast Course

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

SAMPLE TEST PAPER97. Match List-I & List-II the elements with its associated functions/roles and choose the correct option

among given below.

List-I List-II

A. Boron i. Splitting of H2O to liberate O2 during photosynthesis

B. Manganese ii. Needed for synthesis of auxins

C. Molybdenum iii. Component of nitrogenase

D. Zinc iv. Pollen germination

E. Iron v. Component of ferredoxin

Option

(1) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-v, E-ii (2) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii, E-v

(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-v, E-i (4) A-ii, B-iii, C-v, D-i, E-iv

98. In the given List how many plants have actinomorphic condition of flower-:

Aloe, Chilli, Sesbania, Dathura, Colchicum, Trifolium, Solanum, Mulaithi, Mustard, Neel, Alium,Crotalaria, Atropa, Withania, Soyabean, Sweet Pea, Petunia, Lupin

(1) Eleven (2) Ten (3) Fifteen (4) Nine

99. Find the incorrect statement :-

(1)Peribacteroid membrane is derived from plasma membrane of diploid root hair cells

(2) Nodules are pink in colour

(3) Nodule formation is restricted to legumes

(4) Leghaemoglobin has high affinity for oxygen

100. Which of the following is not cited, as the criteria to know the essentiality of an element?

(1) It is indispensable for the growth of plants

(2) The element is directly involved in the metabolism of plants

(3) The element cannot be replaced by any other element

(4) The element must have physiological role, but not structural role

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