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MAJOR TEST
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014
Path to Success
CAREER INSTITUTEKOTA (RAJASTHAN)
T M
FORM NUMBER
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME(ACADEMIC SESSION 2013-2014)
PAPER CODE 0 1 C M 4 1 3 0 9 2
Corporate Office
CAREER INSTITUTE
SANKALP, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
Trin : +91 - 744 - 2436001 Fax : +91-744-2435003
E-Mail: [email protected] Website: www.allen.ac.in
ENTHUSIAST, LEADER AND ACHIEVER COURSE
INSTRUCTIONS ()
1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be alloted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the
correct seat only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be
removed from the examination and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
2. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.
3. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.
4. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.
5. Each correct answer carries 1 marks, while one third mark will be deducted from the total of individual subject for each
incorrect answer.
1
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so /
Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to [email protected] within 2 days along with Your FormNo. & Complete Test Details.
Correction Form No. Test Details [email protected] mail
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014
FULL SYLLABUS
AIIMS # 01 DATE : 16 - 04 - 2014
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PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE
1. The value of the constant p such that the vectors
(2i j k), (i 2 j 3k) and (3i p j 5k) are
coplanar is:-(1) zero (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 22. A ball is thrown vertically upward with speed
10 m/sec and i t returns to ground withspeed of 8 m/sec. There exists a constant airresistance. The maximum height attained bythe ball will be :
(1) 4.1 m (2) 5.1 m (3) 6.1 m (4) 7.1 m
3. One end of a spring of force constant k is fixed
to a fixed vertical wall and the other to a block
of mass m resting on a smooth horizontal surface.
There is another wall at a distance x0 from the
block. The spring is then compressed by 2x0 and
released. The time taken to strike the wall is :-
m
2x0 x0
Fixed
(1) 1 k
6 m(2)
k
m
(3)2 m
3 k(4)
k
4 m
4. The switches in figure (a) and (b) are closed at
t = 0 and reopened after a long time at t = t0. :-
C
(a)
R
(b)
RL
+ +
(a) The charge on C just after t = 0 is C
(b) The charge on C long after t = 0 is C
(c) The current in L just before t = t0 is /R
(d) The current in L long after t = t0 is /R
(1) a & d (2) b & c
(3) b & d (4) a & c
1. (2i j k),( i 2 j 3k) (3i p j 5k)
'p' :-
(1) (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 2
2. 10 m/sec
8 m/sec
(1) 4.1 m (2) 5.1 m (3) 6.1 m (4) 7.1 m
3. k m x
0
2x0
:-
m
2x0 x0
Fixed
(1) 1 k
6 m(2)
k
m
(3)2 m
3 k(4)
k
4 m
4. (a) (b) t = 0 t = t
0 :-
C
(a)
R
(b)
RL
+ +
(a) C t = 0 C (b) C t = 0 C (c) L t = t
0 /R
(d) L t = t0 /R
(1) a d (2) b c(3) b d (4) a c
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS
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2/36 Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014 01CM413092
MAJOR TEST : AIIMS
5. An aeroplane is flying at a uniform speed
v m/s at a height h from the ground. If the angle
subtended at an observation point on the ground
by two positions of the aeroplane t second apart
is , the height h will be :-
(1) vt
tan2 2
(2) 2vt
tan
(3)
vt
tan2
(4)
vt
2 tan2
6. A fish rising vertically up towards the surface of
water with speed 3 ms1 observes a bird diving
vertically down towards it with speed 9 ms1. The
actual velocity of bird is
y'
y
(1) 4.5 ms1 (2) 5 ms1
(3) 3.0 ms1 (4) 3.4 ms1
7. The bob of a simple pendulum executes simple
harmonic motion in water with a period t, while
the period of oscillation of the bob is t0 in air.
Neglecting frictional force of water and given that
the density of the bob is (4/3) 1000 kg/m3. What
relationship between t and t0 is true :-
(1) t = t0
(2) t = t0/2
(3) t = 2t0
(4) t = 4 t0
8. An LR circuit with a battery is connected at
t = 0. Which of the following quantities is not zero
just after the connection ?
(1) Current in the circuit
(2) Magnetic field energy in the inductor
(3) Power delivered by the battery
(4) emf induced in the inductor
5. h
v /
t
h :-
(1) vt
tan2 2
(2) 2vt
tan
(3)
vt
tan2
(4)
vt
2 tan2
6. 3 ms1
9 ms1
y'
y
(1) 4.5 ms1 (2) 5 ms1
(3) 3.0 ms1 (4) 3.4 ms1
7. t
t0
(4/3) 1000 kg/m3
:-
(1) t = t0
(2) t = t0/2
(3) t = 2t0
(4) t = 4 t0
8. LR t = 0 ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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9. A coin placed on a rotating table just slips if it is
placed at a distance 4r from the centre. On
doubling the angular velocity of the table, the coin
will just slip when at a distance from the centre
equal to:-
(1) r
4(2)
r
2(3) r (4) 4r
10. A ray of light falls on the surface of a spherical
glass paper weight making an angle with the
normal and is refracted in the medium at an angle
. The angle of deviation of the emergent ray from
the direction of the incident ray
(1) ( ) (2) 2( )
(3) ( ) / 2 (4) ( )
11. Two waves
y1 = Acos(0.5 x 100 t) and
y2 = Acos(0.46 x 92 t)
are travelling in a pipe placed along x-axis. Find
the number of times intensity is maximum in time
interval of 1 sec:-
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 10
12. A ferromagnetic material is kept in a magnetic
field. The field is increased till the magnetization
becomes constant. If the temperature is now
decreased, the magnetization :-
(1) will increase
(2) decrease
(3) remain constant
(4) may increase or decrease
13. A cubical block of wood of side 10 cm floats at
the interface between oil and water as shown in
the figure with its lower face 2.0 cm below the
interface. The density of oil is 0.5 gm/cm3. The
mass of the block is:-
Oil
2.0 cm
Water
(1) 600 gm (2) 680 gm
(3) 420 gm (4) 210 gm
9. 4r
:-
(1) r
4(2)
r
2(3) r (4) 4r
10.
(1) ( ) (2) 2( )
(3) ( ) / 2 (4) ( )
11. x- y
1 = Acos(0.5 x 100 t)
y2 = Acos(0.46 x 92 t)
:-
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 10
12.
:-(1) (2) (3)
(4)
13. 10
2.0
0.5 /3 :-
Oil
2.0 cm
Water
(1) 600 (2) 680
(3) 420 (4) 210
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4/36 Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014 01CM413092
MAJOR TEST : AIIMS
14. A point source of light B is placed at a distance
L in front of the centre of a mirror of width d hung
vertically on a wall. A man walks in front of the
mirror along a line parallel to the mirror at a
distance 2L from it as shown. The greatest dis-
tance over which he can see the image of the light
source in the mirror is
d
L
B
2L
A
(1) d/2 (2) d (3) 2d (4) 3d
15. A wire of 9.8 103 kgm3 passes over a
frictionless light pulley fixed on the top of a
frictionless inclined plane which makes an angle
of 30 with the horizontal. Masses m and M are
tied at the two ends of wire such that m rests on
the plane and M hangs freely vertically
downwards. The entire system is in equilibrium
and a transverse wave propagates along the wire
with a velocity of 100 ms1. Choose the correct
option :-
mM
(1) m = 20 kg (2) m = 5 kg
(3) m = 2kg (4) m = 7 kg
16. A particle is projected in a plane perpendicular to
a uniform magnetic field. The area bounded by
the path described by the particle is proportional
to :-
(1) The velocity (2) The momentum
(3) The kinetic energy (4) None of these
17. Two capillary tubes of same length l and radii r
and 2r are fitted to the bottom of a vessel with
pressure head p in parallel with each other. What
should be the radius of the single tube of the
same length l that can replace the two so that the
rate of flow is not affected ?
(1) (17)1/4 r (2) 17r (3) 8.5 r (4) 17 r
14. d L B
2L
d
L
B
2L
A
(1) d/2 (2) d (3) 2d (4) 3d
15. 30
9.8 103 kgm3
m M
100 ms1
:-
mM
(1) m = 20 kg (2) m = 5 kg
(3) m = 2kg (4) m = 7 kg
16.
:-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
17. l r 2r
(pressure head)
l
?
(1) (17)1/4 r (2) 17r (3) 8.5 r (4) 17 r
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5/36Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 201401CM413092
MAJOR TEST : AIIMS
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE
18. A ray of light of intensity I is incident on a
parallel glass-slab at a point A as shown in fig.
It undergoes partial reflection and refraction. At
each reflection 25% of incident energy is reflected.
The rays AB and A'B' undergo interference. The
ratio Imax
/ I
min is
B B'I
A A'
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 8 : 1
(3) 7 : 1 (4) 49 : 1
19. An arc of radius r carries charge. The linear density
of charge is and the arc subtends an angle
3at the centre. What is electric potential at the centre
(1)012
(2) 06
(3) 0
(4) 03
20. Two parallel, long wires carry currents i1 and i
2
with i1 > i
2. When the currents are in the same
direction, the magnetic field at a point midway
between the wires is 10T. If the direction of i2
is reversed, the field becomes 30T. The ratio
i1/i
2 is :-
(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 1
21. The amount of work done in stretching a spring
from a stretched length of 10 cm to a stretched
length of 20 cm is-
(1) Equal to the work done in stretching it from
20 cm to 30 cm.
(2) Less than the work done in stretching it from
20 cm to 30 cm.
(3) More than the work done in stretching it from
20 cm to 30 cm.
(4) Equal to the work done in stretching it from 0
to 10 cm.
18. I
A
25% AB
A'B' Imax
/ I
min
B B'I
A A'
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 8 : 1
(3) 7 : 1 (4) 49 : 1
19. r (arc)
3
(1)012
(2) 06
(3) 0
(4) 03
20. i1 i
2 (i
1 > i
2)
10T i2
30T i1/i
2
:-(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 1
21. 10 20 (1) 20 30
(2) 20 30
(3) 20 30
(4) 0 10
Key Filling
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MAJOR TEST : AIIMS
22. A rod is placed along a line y = 2x with its centre
at origin. The moment of inertia of the rod is
maximum about
(1) x axis (2) y axis
(3) z axis (4) Data insufficient
23. Electric field at a distance x from origin is given
as E = 100
3x then potential difference between
points situated at x = 2 meter and x = 5 meter :-
(1) 10 V (2) 10.5V
(3) 5V (4) 2V
24. Energy equivalent to 10gm of U235 is:-
(1) 8 1011 J
(2) 9 1014 J
(3) 1017 J
(4) 11 1021 J
25. A locomotive of mass m starts moving so that its
velocity varies according to the law v k swhere k is constant and s is the distance covered.
Find the total work performed by all the forces
which are acting on the locomotive during the
first t seconds after the beginning of motion
(1) 4 21W mk t
8 (2)
2 4 21W m k t4
(3) 4 41W mk t
4 (4)
4 41W mk t8
26. One mole of an ideal gas follows the process
P= 02
0
P
V1
V
, P0 and V
0 are constants when the
volume of gas is changed from V0 to 2V
0, then
change in temperature will be :-
(1) 0 09P V
10R(2)
0 011P V
10R
(3) 0 07P V
10R(4)
0 013P V
10R
22. y = 2x
(1) x (2) y
(3) z (4)
23. 'x' E = 100
3x
x = 2 x = 5
:-
(1) 10 V (2) 10.5V
(3) 5V (4) 2V
24. 10gm of U235 :-
(1) 8 1011 J
(2) 9 1014 J
(3) 1017 J
(4) 11 1021 J
25. m
v k s k
s
t
-
(1) 4 21W mk t
8 (2) 2 4 2
1W m k t4
(3) 4 41W mk t
4 (4)
4 41W mk t8
26. P= 0 20
P
V1
V
P0 V
0 V
0 2V
0
:-
(1) 0 09P V
10R(2) 0 0
11P V
10R
(3) 0 07P V
10R(4) 0 0
13P V
10R
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7/36Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 201401CM413092
MAJOR TEST : AIIMS
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE
27. Effective resistance between point A and B for
following network is- (each branch of resistance is R)
A
B
(1) 5
R3
(2) 3
R5
(3) R (4) R
2
28. Hydrogen can't emit X-rays, because :-
(1) It has only one electron
(2) It is a gas
(3) Its atomic energy gap is very less
(4) All of the above
29. In the figure shown a ring of mass M and a block
of mass m are in equilibrium. The string is lightand pulley P does not offer any friction and
coefficient of friction between pole and M is .The frictional force offered by the pole on M is:-
m
PM
(1) Mg directed up
(2) mg directed up
(3) (M m) g directed down
(4) mg direction down
30. A furnace is at temperature of 2000 K. At what
wavelength does it emit most intensively.
(1) 14450 (2) 1450
(3) 145 (4) 14.5
31. Two particles of mass m1 and m2 are initially at
rest and infinitely separated from each other. Due
to mutual interaction they approach each other.
Their relative acceleration of approach at a
separation x between them is :-
(1) 1 2
2
G(m m )
x
(2)
1 22
1 2
Gm m
(m m )x
(3) 1 22
2G(m m )
x
(4) None of these
27. A B
R
A
B
(1) 5
R3
(2) 3
R5
(3) R (4) R
2
28. X- (1) (2) (3) (4)
29. Mm PM M
m
PM
(1) Mg
(2) mg
(3) (M m) g
(4) mg 30. 2000 K
:-(1) 14450 (2) 1450
(3) 145 (4) 14.5
31. m1 m2
x
:-
(1) 1 2
2
G(m m )
x
(2)
1 22
1 2
Gm m
(m m )x
(3) 1 22
2G(m m )
x
(4)
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8/36 Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014 01CM413092
MAJOR TEST : AIIMS
32. De Broglie wavelength of incident electrons at
metal Mo is 0.1. The minimum wavelength of
Xray produced from Mo is
(1) 0.1 (2) 50 (3) 0.89 (4) 165
33. A body of mass 10 kg is released from a Tower
of height 20m and body acquires a velocity of
10 ms1 after falling through the distance 20m.
Calculate work done by the push of the air on the
body ? (Take g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 500 J (2) + 500 J
(3) 1500 J (4) + 1500 J
34. One mole of monoatomic gas is taken round the
cyclic process. Heat absorbed by gas in process
AB is :-
B
A C
3P0
P0
V0 V0V
P
(1) 2.5 P0V
0(2) 3P
0V
0
(3) 3.5 P0V
0(4) 4.5 P
0V
0
35. For the circuit shown in fig. Calculate the charge
on 8F capacitor30 8F
1V
13F
4V
10
(1) 20 c (2) 10 c
(3) 4 c (4) 2 c
36. Two identical capacitors A and B are charged to
the same potential V and are connected in two
circuits and t = 0 as shown in figure. The charges
on the capacitors at a time t = CR are,
respectively :-
+
C
A
R
+
C
B
R
(a) (b)
(1) VC, VC (2) VC/e, VC
(3) VC, VC/e (4) VC/e, VC/e
32. Mo 0.1 Mo
X-
(1) 0.1 (2) 50 (3) 0.89 (4) 165
33. 10 kg 20m
20m 10ms1
(g = 10 m/s2 )
(1) 500 J (2) + 500 J
(3) 1500 J (4) + 1500 J
34. AB :-
B
A C
3P0
P0
V0 V0V
P
(1) 2.5 P0V
0(2) 3P
0V
0
(3) 3.5 P0V
0(4) 4.5 P
0V
0
35. 8F
30 8F
1V
13F
4V
10
(1) 20 c (2) 10 c
(3) 4 c (4) 2 c
36. A B V
t = 0
t = CR :-
+
C
A
R
+
C
B
R
(a) (b)
(1) VC, VC (2) VC/e, VC
(3) VC, VC/e (4) VC/e, VC/e
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16042014
9/36Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 201401CM413092
MAJOR TEST : AIIMS
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE
37. Three objects A, B and C are kept in a straight
line on a smooth horizontal surface as shown in
figure. The object A is given velocity V0 towards
B. The head on clastic collision takes place
between A and B and then B makes completely
inelastic collision with C. All motions occur on
the same straight line. The final speed of C will
be :
m
A
V0
B C
2m 3m
(1) 0V
15(2)
02V
15
(3) 03V
15(4)
04V
15
38. An amount Q of heat is added to a monoatomic
ideal gas in thermodynamic process. In the process
gas expands and does Q/2 Work. Molar specific
heat of the gas is :-
(1) R (2) 2R
(3) 3R (4) 4R
39. The charge on A and B will be :-
C 2C
E, r
4r
3rA B
(1) CE, CE
2(2)
CE
2, CE
(3) CE
2,
CE
2(4) CE, CE
40. Diffusion current in a p-n junction is greater than
the drift current in magnitude :-
(1) If the junction is forward-biased
(2) If the junction is reverse-biased
(3) If the junction is unbiased
(4) In no case
37. A, B C
A
B V0 A B
B C
C
m
A
V0
B C
2m 3m
(1) 0V
15(2)
02V
15
(3) 03V
15(4)
04V
15
38. Q
Q/2
:-
(1) R (2) 2R
(3) 3R (4) 4R
39. A B C 2C
E, r
4r
3rA B
(1)CE, CE
2(2)
CE
2, CE
(3) CE
2,
CE
2(4) CE, CE
40. p-n :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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MAJOR TEST : AIIMS
41. The density of a liquid is 1.2 g/mL. There are 35
drops in 2 mL. The number of molecules in 1 drop
is : (molecular weight of liquid = 70)
(1) 1.2
35NA (2)
21
35
NA
(3) 21.2
(35) NA (4) 1.2 NA
42. What is pH of the solution when 100 ml of 0.1M
HCl is mixed with 100 ml of 0.1M CH3COOH.
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 1.3 (4) 2.3
43. Which of the following halides cannot be
hydrolysed :-
(I) TeF6 (II) SF6 (III) NCl3 (IV) NF3Choose the correct code :
(1) III and IV (2) I, II and III
(3) I, II and IV (4) II and IV
44. A current of 2.0 ampere passed for 5 hours
through a molten tin salt deposits 22.2 gm of
metal. The oxidation number of metal would be :
(Sn = 118) :-
(1) + 2 (2) + 4
(3) + 3 (4) + 1
45. In the reaction, 4A + 2B + 3C A4B2C3, what
will be the number of moles of product formed,
starting from 1 mol of A, 0.6 mol of B and
0.72 mol of C ?
(1) 0.25 (2) 0.3
(3) 0.24 (4) 2.32
46. The vapour pressure of a given liquid will decrease if.
(1) Surface area of liquid is decreased
(2) The volume of liquid in the container is decreased
(3) The volume of the vapour phase is increased.
(4) The temperature is decreased
47. IUPAC name of the given compound is :-
NH H
O
(1) N-Formyl ethenamine
(2) N-Formyl amino ethene
(3) Ethenamide
(4) N-Ethenylmethanamide
41. 1.2 g/mL. 2 mL 35
(= 70)
(1) 1.2
35N
A(2)
21
35
NA
(3) 21.2
(35) NA (4) 1.2 NA
42. 0.1 M HCl, 100 ml 0.1 M, 100 ml
CH3COOH pH
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 1.3 (4) 2.3
43. :-
(I) TeF6
(II) SF6
(III) NCl3
(IV) NF3
(1) III and IV (2) I, II and III
(3) I, II and IV (4) II and IV
44. 2 5 22.2 (Sn = 118) :-
(1) + 2 (2) + 4
(3) + 3 (4) + 1
45. 4A + 2B + 3C A4B2C3
A 1 B
0.6 C 0.72 ?(1) 0.25 (2) 0.3
(3) 0.24 (4) 2.32
46. :-
(1) (2) (3) (4)
47. IUPAC :-
NH H
O
(1) N-Formyl ethenamine
(2) N-Formyl amino ethene
(3) Ethenamide
(4) N-Ethenylmethanamide
Take it Easy and Make it Easy
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11/36Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 201401CM413092
MAJOR TEST : AIIMS
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE
48. At 370 K a gaseous reaction X 2Y + Z is
found to be first order. Starting the reaction from
pure X the total pressure is observed 156 mm Hg
after 15 minutes. After long time pressure is
observed 240 mm Hg when X is completely
dissociated. What will be the pressure of X after
15 minutes ?
(1) 42 mm Hg (2) 54 mm Hg
(3) 36 mm Hg (4) 80 mm Hg
49. 1 mol of an ideal gas at 27C is compressed
reverssibly from 20 L to 2L. Find out S :-
(1) 4.606 cal / k (2) 4.606 cal / k
(3) 19.147 J / k (4) Both (2) & (3)
50. A complex is represented as CoCl3.xNH3. It's
0.1 molal solution in water shows depression in
freezing point 0.558 K,Kf for H2O is
1.86 K kg mol1. Assuming 100% ionisation of
complex and co-ordination number of Co is six,
calculate formula of complex :-
(1) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3(2) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2(3) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl
(4) None of these
51. + CH3Cl 3AlCl X 2 2
2
(1) CrO Cl
(2) H O Y
50%KOH
P + Q
Correct statement is :-
(1) Formation of X is Friedel craft reaction
(2) Formation of Y is Etard reaction
(3) Formation of P & Q is Cannizzaro's reaction
(4) All
52. Complex ion [A2BC]-2 does not confirm the
following oxidation number of A,B,C :-
(1) +6, 4, 2 (2) +2, 4, 2
(3) +3, 6, 2 (4) +3, 7, 1
53. At 0C and 1 atm ice melt into water then the heat
capacity of system is :-
(1) Increasing (2) Decreasing
(3) Infinity (4) Zero
54. The order of ionisation potential between He+ ion
and H-atom (both species are in gaseous state) is :-
(1) I.P. (He+) = I.P. (H)
(2) I.P. (He+) < I.P. (H)
(3) I.P. (He+) > I.P. (H)
(4) Cannot be compared
48. 370 K X 2Y + Z
X
15 156 mm Hg
X
240 mm Hg 15 X
(1) 42 mm Hg (2) 54 mm Hg
(3) 36 mm Hg (4) 80 mm Hg
49. 1 mol 27C 20 L 2LS :-(1) 4.606 cal / k (2) 4.606 cal / k
(3) 19.147 J / k (4) Both (2) & (3)
50. CoCl3.xNH30.1 0.558 K H2O Kf = 1.86 K kg mol
1
100% :-(1) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3(2) [Co(NH
3)5Cl]Cl
2
(3) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl
(4)
51. + CH3Cl 3
AlCl X 2 22
(1) CrO Cl
(2) H O Y
50%KOH
P + Q
:-(1) X (2) Y (3) P Q (4)
52. [A2BC]-2A,B,C
:-(1) +6, 4, 2 (2) +2, 4, 2
(3) +3, 6, 2 (4) +3, 7, 1
53. 0C 1 :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
54. He+ H- IP :-
(1) I.P. (He+) = I.P. (H)
(2) I.P. (He+) < I.P. (H)
(3) I.P. (He+) > I.P. (H)
(4)
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55. Which of the following is most stable free
radical:-
(1) HH
(2) MePh
(3) PhPh
(4) MeMe
56. Butter is an example of :-
(1) Water in oil emulsion
(2) Oil in water emulsion
(3) Solid sol
(4) None of these
57. Assuming that monsieur de-Broglie weighing
70 kg was jogging at 15 km/hr. Calculate the
wavelength at which he was jogging :-
(1) 4.166 m (2) 2.27 10-36 cm
(3) 2.27 10-36 m (4) None of these
58. Which is the correct order of ionization energies :-
(1) F > F > Cl > Cl (2) F > Cl > Cl > F
(3) F > Cl > Cl > F (4) F > Cl > F > Cl
59. Optically active compound is :-
(1) Isobutyl alcohol (2) Sec. butyl chloride
(3) t-Butylamine (4) Butan-2-one
60. When copper pyrities is roasted in excess of air, a
mixture of CuO and FeO formed. FeO is present as
impurities. This can be removed by slag during
reduction of CuO. The flux added to form slag is :-
(1) Silica which is an acidic flux.
(2) Lime stone which is a basic flux.
(3) SiO2 which is a basic flux.
(4) CaO which is basic flux.
61. The uncertainty in position and velocity of a
particle are 10-10 m and 5.27 10-24 ms-1
respectively. Calculate the mass of the particle in
terms of kg. :-
(1) 99 kg (2) 9.9 kg
(3) 0.99 kg (4) 0.099 kg
62. The second electron gain enthalpies (in kJ mol-1 )
of oxygen and sulphur respectively are :-
(1) 780, + 590 (2) 590, + 780
(3) +590, + 780 (4) +780, + 590
63. CH CH CH= 3 3
2
(1) O
(2) Zn / H O X + Y
X and Y can not be distinguished by :-
(1) NaOI (2) Fehling's solution
(3) NaHSO3 (4) None
55. :-
(1) HH
(2) MePh
(3) PhPh
(4) MeMe
56. (Butter) :-(1) ()(2) ()(3) (4)
57. 70 kg 15 / :-(1) 4.166 m (2) 2.27 10-36 cm
(3) 2.27 10-36 m (4) 58. IP :-
(1) F > F > Cl > Cl (2) F > Cl > Cl > F
(3) F > Cl > Cl > F (4) F > Cl > F > Cl
59. :-(1) Isobutyl alcohol (2) Sec. butyl chloride
(3) t-Butylamine (4) Butan-2-one
60. CuO FeO FeO CuO :-(1) (2) (3) SiO2 (4) CaO
61. 10-10 5.27 10-24 - 1 kg(h = 6.625 1034 Js) :-
(1) 99 kg (2) 9.9 kg
(3) 0.99 kg (4) 0.099 kg
62. Oxygen sulphur (in kJ mol-1 ) :-(1) 780, + 590 (2) 590, + 780
(3) +590, + 780 (4) +780, + 590
63. CH CH CH= 3 3
2
(1) O
(2) Zn / H O X + Y
X Y :-(1) NaOI (2) (3) NaHSO3 (4)
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64. The phenomenon of optical activity will be shown
by :-
(1) M
A
AB
BB
B(2)
M
A
AB
Ben
(3) M
A
A
enen(4)
M
B
B
65. At high pressure, the compressibility factor (Z)
is equal to :-
(1) 1 (2) 1 Pb
RT
(3) 1 + Pb
RT(4) Zero
66. A molecule XY2 contains two , two -bonds and
one lone pair of electron in the valence shell of
X. The arrangement of lone pair as well as bond
pairs is :-
(1) Square pyramidal
(2) linear
(3) Trigonal planar
(4) Unpredictable
67. Which of the following is most acidic :-
(1)
COOH
NO2
(2)
COOH
OCH3
(3)
COOH
NO2
(4)
COOH
OCH3
68. In [Cu(NH3)4]2+ ion the unpaired electron is
present is :-
(1) 2p subshell
(2) 4p subshell
(3) 3d subshell
(4) 4s subshell
64. :-
(1) M
A
AB
BB
B(2)
M
A
AB
Ben
(3) M
A
A
enen(4)
M
B
B
65. (Z) :-
(1) 1 (2) 1 Pb
RT
(3) 1 + Pb
RT(4)
66. XY2 ,
lp bp
:-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
67. :-
(1)
COOH
NO2
(2)
COOH
OCH3
(3)
COOH
NO2
(4)
COOH
OCH3
68. [Cu(NH3)4]2+ e- :-
(1) 2p
(2) 4p
(3) 3d
(4) 4s
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69. Hydrolysis of sucrose gives :-
Sucrose + H2O Glucose + Fructose
Equilibrium constant KC for the reaction is
2 1013 at 300k. Calculate G at 300k.
(1) 7.64 104 J mol1
(2) 4.67 104 J mol1
(3) 8.94 105 J mol1
(4) 2.39 105 J mol1
70. FAsF bond angle in AsF3Cl2 molecule is :-
(1) 90 and 180 (2) 120
(3) 90 (4) 180
71. CH C Cl3
O 2
Pd H X Cu300 C
Y
6 5
2
(1) C H MgBr
(2) H O Z
Which is incorrect :-
(1) X = CH3CH2OH
(2) Y = CH3COOH
(3) Z = CH CH C H3 6 5
OH
(4) None
72. Glucose and Fructose are :-
(1) Chain isomers
(2) Position isomers
(3) Functional isomers
(4) Metamers
73. NH4HS(S) NH3(g) + H2S(g)
The equilibrium pressure at 25C is 0.660 atm.
What is KP for the reaction.
(1) 0.109 (2) 0.218
(3) 1.89 (4) 2.18
74. Bond length of SO bond is maximum in :-
(1) SOCl2
(2) SOBr2
(3) SOF2
(4) All have same
75. Which is most reactive for sodalime
decarboxylation ?
(1) Me
COOH(2)
Et
COOH
(3) F
COOH(4)
Cl
COOH
69. :-
Sucrose + H2O Glucose + Fructose
300k 2 1013 300kG
(1) 7.64 104 J mol1
(2) 4.67 104 J mol1
(3) 8.94 105 J mol1
(4) 2.39 105 J mol1
70. AsF3Cl
2 FAsF :-
(1) 90 and 180 (2) 120
(3) 90 (4) 180
71. CH C Cl3
O 2
Pd H X Cu300 C
Y
6 5
2
(1) C H MgBr
(2) H O Z
:-(1) X = CH
3CH2OH
(2) Y = CH3COOH
(3) Z = CH CH C H3 6 5
OH
(4) 72. :-
(1) (2) (3) (4)
73. NH4HS(S) NH3(g) + H2S(g)
25C 0.660 atm KP
(1) 0.109 (2) 0.218
(3) 1.89 (4) 2.18
74. SO :-
(1) SOCl2 (2) SOBr2
(3) SOF2
(4) All have same
75. :
(1) Me
COOH(2)
Et
COOH
(3) F
COOH(4)
Cl
COOH
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76. Which is monomer of Polystyrene ?
(1) Cl
(2) CH=CH2
(3) C CH
(4) CH OH2
77. Which of the following buffers have a pH greater
than 7 ?
(a) AgOH + AgBr
(b) CH3COOH + CH3COONa
(c) Mg(OH)2 + Mg(OH)Cl
(d) NH3 + (NH4)2SO4(1) a, b (2) Only b
(3) a, b, c (4) a, c, d
78. A + H2O B + HCl
B + H2O C + HCl
Compound (A) , (B) and (C) will be respectively :-
(1) PCl5,POCl3, H3PO3
(2) PCl5,POCl3,H3PO4(3) SOCl
2 , POCl
3 , H
3PO
3
(4) PCl3, POCl
3 , H
3PO
4
79. CH CH C NH3 2 2
O
2( aq .)
Br
KOH P 3
CHCl
KOH Q
3H O
R + S; R & S are :-
(1) CH CH C OH3 2
O
& NH3
(2) CH3CH
2NH
2 & HCOOH
(3) CH C OH3
O
& NH3
(4) CH3CH
2CH
2NH
2 & HCOOH
80. Which of following statements is false :-
(1) Amino acids are negatively charged in basic
medium
(2) Nylon-6 is condensation homopolymer
(3) Polythene and polystyrene both are fibre
polymer
(4) All sulpha drug act as bacteriostatic
76. :-
(1) Cl
(2) CH=CH2
(3) C CH
(4) CH OH2
77. pH, 7 ?(a) AgOH + AgBr
(b) CH3COOH + CH3COONa
(c) Mg(OH)2 + Mg(OH)Cl
(d) NH3 + (NH4)2SO4(1) a, b (2) Only b
(3) a, b, c (4) a, c, d
78. A + H2O B + HCl
B + H2O C + HCl
(A) , (B), (C) :-
(1) PCl5,POCl
3, H
3PO
3
(2) PCl5,POCl
3,H
3PO
4
(3) SOCl2
, POCl3
, H3PO
3
(4) PCl3, POCl
3 , H
3PO
4
79. CH CH C NH3 2 2
O
2( aq .)
Br
KOH P 3
CHCl
KOH Q
3H O
R + S; R S :-
(1) CH CH C OH3 2
O
& NH3
(2) CH3CH2NH2 & HCOOH
(3) CH C OH3
O
& NH3
(4) CH3CH2CH2NH2 & HCOOH
80. :-(1)
(2) -6
(3)
(4)
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81. :-(1)
(2) DNA
DNA
(3)
(4)
82. :-
(1)
(2)
(3) RNA
(4)
83. (AD)
?
(C)
(B)
(A)
(D)
(1) A -
B -
(2) B -
C -
(3) C - ATP
D - A-
(4) A - ATP
D -
81. Choose the incorrect statement of the following:-
(1) Compared to many other organisms, bacteria
as a group show the most extensive metabolic
diversity.
(2) Many bacteria have small circular DNA inside
the genomic DNA
(3) Mesosomes are infloldings of cell membrane
(4) Bacteria have thin filamentous extensions
from their cell wall.
82. The spherical structure(s) present in the
nucleoplasm:-
(1) Has contents continuous with rest of the
nucleoplasm
(2) Is a membrane bound structure
(3) Is a site of active messenger RNA synthesis
(4) Are smaller and more numerous in cells
actively carrying out protein synthesis
83. Consider the following diagram showing four
stages (AD) of muscle contraction and select the
option with incorrect information regarding these
stages ?
(C)
(B)
(A)
(D)
(1) A - Myosin head not attached with actin due
to masking of active sites.
B - Binding of energized myosin heads to the
exposed active sites on actin filaments
(2) B - Formation of cross bridges
C - Rotation of myosin heads and sliding of
actin filaments over myosin.
(3) C - Utilising the energy by myosin heads from
ATP hydrolysis
D - Sliding of actin filaments towards the
centre of the A-bond
(4) A - Utilising the energy by myosin heads from
ATP hydrolysis
D - Breaking of cross-bridges
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84. Most recently formed biosphere Reserve of India
is :-
(1) Cold desert (H.P.)
(2) Sundarbans (W.B.)
(3) Panna (M.P.)
(4) Seshachalam (A.P.)
85. Which is a correct statement ?
(1) Perithecium is a closed fruiting body.
(2) Sexual reproduction in Albugo is oogamous.
(3) Ascomycetes is known as club fungi.
(4) Sexual reproduction in Helminthosporium is
oogamous.
86. Consider the following four statements (I-IV)
related to cell cycle, and select the correct option
stating them as true [T] and false [F]
I. Cell growth (in terms of cytoplasmic increase)
is a continuous process
II. Interphase is the phase of actual cell division
III. The number of chromosomes doubles in
S-phase.
IV The cells that do not divide further exit
G1- phase to enter an inactive stage
Options :
I II III IV
(1) T F F F
(2) F T T T
(3) F F T T
(4) T F F T
87. Select the correct option regarding the following
structures, their location and functions.
(1) Schwann cells : Absent in CNS but forms
myelin sheath throughout the PNS including
autonomic and somatic neural systems.
(2) Electrical synapses : Specialised for rapid
impulse transmission and are found in CNS,
cardiac muscles and some smooth muscles.
(3) Corpus callosum : Tract of nerve fibres
present in cerebral cortex (grey matter) and
interconnects both the cerebral hemispheres
in mammals.
(4) Vestibular apparatus : Located above the
cochlea and contains specific receptors for
body balance, body posture and hearing
84. (1) (H.P.)(2) (W.B.)(3) (M.P.)(4) (A.P.)
85. ?
(1)
(2)
(3) (club)
(4)
86. (I-IV) [T] [F] I.
II.
III. S-IV G1-
:
I II III IV
(1) T F F F
(2) F T T T
(3) F F T T
(4) T F F T
87.
(1) : CNS
PNS
(2) :
CNS,
(3) :
()
(4) :
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88. One of the most poisonous chemical produced by
burning of plastics containing chlorine. e.g. (PVC),
is:-
(1) Ozone
(2) Dioxin
(3) 3-4 Benzopyrine
(4) Hydrocarbon
89. Choose the wrong pair :-
Column - I Column - II
(A)Phytopthora
infestans(E) Tikka
(B)Ustilago
maydis(F) Covered smut
(C)Cercospora
personata(G) Wilt
(D) Fusarium (H) Late blight
(1) A = H (2) B = E
(3) C = E (4) D = G
90. Mark the option which truly represent the event
of cell division stage in given diagram :-
(1) Spindle fibers attach to kinetochores of
chromosomes
(2) Splitting of centromere
(3) Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform
(4) More than one option is correct
91. How many hormones from the below list interact
with intracellular receptors and regulate
chromosome function and gene expression.
GH, Oxytocin, ADH, ANF, Aldosterone, Cortisol,
Thyroxin, Epinephrine, Estradiol, GnRH,
Progesterone
(1) Four (2) Five
(3) Six (4) Seven
88.
(PVC) :-
(1)
(2)
(3) 3-4
(4) 89. :-
LrEHk - I LrEHk - II
(A) (E)
(B) (F)
(C) (G)
(D) (H)
(1) A = H (2) B = E
(3) C = E (4) D = G
90. :-
(1)
(2)
(3) ER
(4)
91.
GHADH, ANF, ,
, , , GnRH,
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
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92. Match the column-I with column-II
Column-I Column-II
(A) Choanocytes (i) Bombyx
(B) Comb Plates (ii) Echinus
(C) Mantle andRadula
(iii) Ctenoplana
(D) Jointedappendages
(iv) Spongilla
(E) Water vascularsystem
(v) Pila
(1) A (i), B (ii), C (iii), D (iv), E (v)
(2) A (iii), B (iv), C (v), D (i), E (ii)
(3) A (iv), B (iii), C (v), D (i), E (ii)
(4) A (iv), B (iii), C (ii), D (i), E (v)
93. Neophron & Pavo are included in the same
taxonomic group as :-
(1) Hyla & Corvus
(2) Psitticulla & Struthio
(3) Bufo & Pristis
(4) Pteropus & Columba
94. Independent assortment can not be observedwhen :-(1) Characters are located on different
chromosome
(2) Characters are distantly located on samechromosome
(3) Characters are closely located on samechromosome
(4) 7 characters located on 7 chromosomes
95. Find an incorrect statement with respect to
findings of HGP ?
(1) Dystrophin protein gene, is the largest gene
of human genome.
(2) Chromosome Y has fewest, 231 genes
(3) SNPs are identified at about 2.4 million
locations.
(4) The functions are unknown for over 50% of
discovered genes.
92. -I -II
dkWye-I dkWye-II
(A) (i)
(B) (ii)
(C) (iii)
(D) (iv)
(E) (v)
(1) A (i), B (ii), C (iii), D (iv), E (v)
(2) A (iii), B (iv), C (v), D (i), E (ii)
(3) A (iv), B (iii), C (v), D (i), E (ii)
(4) A (iv), B (iii), C (ii), D (i), E (v)
93. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
94. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 7 7
95. HGP
:-
(1) Dystrophin
(2) Y , 231
(3) SNPs 2.4
(4) 50%
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96. Which one of the following can generate the
maximum number of action potentials
(1) S.A. node
(2) A.V. node
(3) Bundle of HIS
(4) Purkinje fibres
97. Urochordates have notochord only in the larval
tail. They are basically :-
(a) Marine
(b) Have unpaired appendages
(c) Tunicates
(d) Protochordate
How many points are correct
(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 1
98. In phloem the transport of sugar is bidirectional
because :-
(1) the leaves and roots both are photosynthetic
in plants
(2) the source-sink relationship for phloem is
variable
(3) the location of the phloem in plant body can
be changed according to the season
(4) the phloem in plants is open at both ends
99. Find out the correct statements from the
followings :-
(a) In lac-operon, polycistronic structural gene is
regulated by a common promoter and
regulatory gene
(b) In lac-operon one regulatory gene (the i gene)
is present, here the term i refers to the inducer
(c) Lactose is the substrate for the enzyme
betagalactosidase and it regulates switching
on and off of the operon.
(d) The y-gene of lacoperon codes for
transacetylase
(e) The z-gene codes for beta-galactosidase
(1) a and c (2) a, b and e
(3) a, c and e (4) a, c, d and e
100. Papaya is a :-
(1) Dioecious plant
(2) Monoecious plant
(3) Bisexual plant
(4) None of the above
96. (1) S.A. node
(2) A.V. node
(3) Bundle of HIS
(4) Purkinje fibres
97. :-(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 1
98. :-
(1)
(2) -
(3)
(4)
99.
(a)
(b) (i ) i
(c) (on) (off)
(d) y-
(e) z-(1) a c (2) a, b e(3) a, c e (4) a, c, d e
100. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
Time Management is Life Management
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101. If the margins of sepals and petals overlap one
another but not in any particular direction, the
aestivation is called :-
(1) Valvate (2) Twisted
(3) Imbricate (4) Vexillary
102. Enzyme, which can catalyse both carboxylation
and oxygenation of RuBP in the chloroplast, is
not found in which of the following cells ?
(1) Mesophyll cells of C4 plants
(2) Mesophyll cells of C3 plants
(3) Mesophyll cells of CAM plants
(4) Bundle sheath cells of C4 plants
103. Read the following statements :-
(a) It produces disorder in females more often than
in males
(b) All female offsprings will exhibit disorder, if
father possesses the same
(c) Do not transmitted to son if mother does not
exhibit disorder.
Which of the following gene will have the above
stated features?
(1) Sex-linked recessive gene
(2) Sex-linked dominant gene
(3) Autosomal dominant gene
(4) Autosomal recessive gene
104. Fats and oils are glycerides, in which fatty acids
are esterified with :-
(1) Glycerol (2) Amino acid
(3) Fatty acid (4) Sugar
105. A primarily are involved in defence mechanisms
of the body and the B help in osmotic balance :-
(1) A serum, B = Fibrinogen
(2) A Albumin, B = Plasma Proteins
(3) A Globulins, B = Albumins
(4) A = Platelets, B = Plasma
106. How many water molecules are produced in
mitochondria with the help of ETS during
complete oxidation of one pyruvic acid ?
(1) Six (2) Twelve
(3) Two (4) Five
101.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
102. , RuBP
?(1) C4 (2) C3
(3) CAM
(4) C4
103. :-
(a)
(b)
(c)
(1) -
(2) -
(3)
(4)
104.
:-
(1) (2)
(3) (4) 105. A B
:-
(1) A , B =
(2) A , B =
(3) A , B =
(4) A = , B = 106.
ETS ?(1) (2) (3) (4)
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107. ?(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
108. ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4) 109.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
110. ?2,4-(1) (2) (3) (4)
111. (a)
(b) CFC CH
4
(c) O
3
(d) (1) a, b (2) d(3) c, d (4) a, b, c
107. Which one of the following is not correctly
described ?
(1) Anabaena
Can fix atmospheric nitrogen in free form.
(2) Saccharum barberi
Tropical cane grown in South India had
thicker stems and higher sugar content.
(3) Micropropagation
Method of producing thousands of plants
through tissue culture.
(4) Cytoskeleton
An elaborate network of filamentous
proteinaceous structures present in the
cytoplasm.
108. In a polysaccharide chain the individual
monosaccharides are linked by which bond ?
(1) Peptide bond (2) Glycosidic bond
(3) Ester bond (4) Hydrogen bond
109. The first sign of growing foetus may be noticed
by
(1) Movement of limbs
(2) Listening to the heart sound
(3) Observing the head size
(4) Formation of genital organ
110. How many plant growth regulators, in the list
given below, are not naturally found in plants ?
2,4-Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid,
Indole butyric acid,
Zeatin,
Naphthalene acetic acid,
Kinetin,
Indole acetic acid
(1) Three (2) Five (3) Four (4) Two
111. How many statements are correct ?
(a) Biomagnification is natural aging of a lake by
nutrient enrichment of its water
(b) After CFC, methane is major cause of green
house effect
(c) Ozone is secondary pollutant in troposphere
(d) Thickness of ozone is measured in Dobson
unit
(1) a, b (2) only d
(3) c, d (4) a, b, c
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112. Secondary metabolites are produced by :-
(1) Plants
(2) Fungi
(3) Microbial cells
(4) All of the above
113. Read the following statements
(a) The embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres is called
a blastula
(b) The blastomeres in the blastocyst are arranged
into an inner layer called trophoblast
(c) Blastocyst becomes embedded in the
endometrium of the uterus
How many of the above statements are correct
(1) Two (2) One
(3) Zero (4) Three
114. How many enzymes in the list given below are
diasaccharidase ?
Enterokinase, Chymotrypsin, Aminopeptidase,
Pepsin, Lactase, Rennin, Carboxypeptidase,
Nuclease, Nucleotidase, Maltase, Sucrase
(1) Six (2) Three
(3) Five (4) Four
115. How many statements are incorrect ?
(a) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted
(b) Pyramid of energy is never inverted
(c) In terrestrial ecosystem, a much larger fraction
of energy flows through detritus food chain
(d) Humus is highly resistant to microbial action
and undergoes decomposition at an extremely
slow rate
(1) One (2) Two
(3) All of these (4) None
116. Bacteriophages are one of the most commonly
used vectors because of :-
(1) High copy number
(2) Small sized genome
(3) High carrying capacity
(4) All the above
112. :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
113.
(a) 8 16
(b)
(c)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
114. ? (1) (2)
(3) (4)
115. ?(a)
(b) (c)
(d)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
116.
?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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MAJOR TEST : AIIMS
117. Identify the cell organelles labelled as A, B, C and
D. Mark the correct option with respect to
organelle and its function :-
A
B
CD
(1) A- Major site for synthesis of glycolipid.
(2) B- Performs the function of packaging of
materials to be delivered to only intracellular
targets.
(3) C- Sites of anaerobic respiration
(4) D - Main arena of cellular activities
118. Find out the incorrect statement :-
(1) An increase in body fluid volume, stimulate
the ADH release.
(2) Vasopressin, being a powerful vasodialator,
decreases the glomerular blood pressure.
(3) Decrease in blood flow to the atria of the heart
can cause the release of atrial natriuretic
factor(ANF)
(4) All of the above
119. If a new habitat is just being colonised, _____
may contribute more significantly to population
growth than ______ :-
(1) Birth rate, death rate
(2) Immigration, emigration
(3) Immigration, birth rate
(4) Emigration, death rate
120. How many of the following are breeds of
buffalo ?
Pashmina, Gir, Sahiwal, Mehsana, Surti
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Five
117. A, B, C D :-
A
B
CD
(1) A-
(2) B- (targets)
(3) C-
(4) D -
118. :-
(1) ADH
(2) ,
(3) (ANF)
(4)
119. _____
______
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
120. ?
, , ,,
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
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DIRECTIONS FOR Q. NO. 121 TO 180
These questions consist of two statements
each, printed as Assertion and Reason.
While answering these Questions you are
required to choose any one of the
following four responses.
A. If both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
B. If both Assertion & Reason are True but
Reason. is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
C. If Assertion is True but the Reason is False
D. If both Assertion & Reason are false.
121. Assertion : The stream of water flowing at high
speed from a garden hose pipe tends to spread like
a fountain when held vertically up, but tends to
narrow down when held vertically down.
Reason : In any steady flow of an incompressible
fluid, the volume flow rate of fluid remains
constant.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
122. Assertion : Where two vibrating tuning forks
having frequencies 256 Hz and 512 Hz are held
near each other, beats cannot be heard.
Reason : The principle of superposition is valid
only if the frequencies of the oscillators are nearly
equal.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
123. Assertion : There is a critical temperature for
each liquid at which its surface tension reduces
to zero.
Reason : At the critical temperature
intermolecular forces for liquids and gases
becomes equal and liquid expands like gases.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
124. Assertion : Resonance is special case of forced
vibration in which the natural frequency of
vibration of the body is the same as the impressed
frequency of external periodic force and the
amplitude of forced vibration is maximum.
Reason : The amplitude of forced vibrations of
a body increases with an increase in the frequency
of the externally impressed periodic force.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
121 180
A.
B.
C.
D.
121. : : (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
122. : 256 Hz 512 Hz
:
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
123. :
:
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
124. :
:
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
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125. Assertion : With increase of temperature elastic
property of a substance decreases.
Reason : Elasticity is due to intermolecular
forces which decreases with increase of
intermolecular distance.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
126. Assertion : Electric field inside a current carrying
wire is zero.
Reason : Total charge present in current carrying
wire is zero.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
127. Assertion : When the direction of motion of a
particle moving in a circular path is reversed the
direction of radial acceleration still remains the
same (at the given point).
Reason : Particle revolves on circular path in any
direction such as clockwise or anticlockwise the
direction of radial acceleration is always towards
the centre of the circular path.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
128. Assertion : Gauss theorem is valid in
gravitation also.
Reason : Gravitation is a conservative field
obeys inverse square law.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
129. Assertion : In Karate a brick is broken with a
bare hand.
Reason : In this process the impulse is sharp.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
130. Assertion : A domestic electrical appliance
working on a three pin, will continue working
even if the top pin is removed
Reason : The third pin is used only as a safety
device
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
131. Assertion : In Young's double slit experiment,
the fringes become indistinct if one of the slits is
covered with cellophane paper.
Reason : The cellophane paper decrease the
wavelength of light.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
125. :
:
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
126. :
: (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
127. :
:
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
128. : : (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
129. : :
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
130. : 3-
:
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
131. :
: (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
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132. Assertion : The gravitational field of moon is
much less than that of earth.
Reason : Gravitational field of a given mass (M)
depends upon M/r2, which is much smaller for
moon.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
133. Assertion : The cloud in sky generally appear
to be whitish.
Reason : Diffraction due to clouds is efficient
in equal measure at all wavelengths.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
134. Assertion : Electric field is conservative.
Reason : Changing magnetic field produces
electric field.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
135. Assertion : The earth without atmosphere would
be inhospitably cold.
Reason : All heat would escape in the absence
of atmosphere.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
136. Assertion : We do not accelerate electron is
cyclotron.
Reason : Electron is negatively charged
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
137. Assertion :- The ratio P
V
C
C for a diatomic gas is
less than that for monoatomic gas.
Reason :- The molecules of a monoatomic gas
have more degrees of freedom than those of a
diatomic gas.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
138. Assertion : Cloud appear white is the sky.
Reason : Scattering due to water droplet is
proportional to 41
.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
139. Assertion :- Internal energy of an ideal gas
depends only on temperature and not on volume.
Reason :- Temperature is more important than
volume
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
132. :
: (M)
M/r2
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
133. :
: (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
134. : : (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
135. :
: (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
136. : : (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
137. :- PV
C
C
:- (1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
138. :
: 41
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
139. :-
:-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
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140. Assertion : In electron capturing event, nucleus
emits X-rays.
Reason : Energy of X-rays is of the order of order
of MeV.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
141. Assertion :- Glucose (C6H
12O
6) and acetic acid
(CH3COOH) have same percentage composition.
Reason :- Empirical formula of glucose and acetic
acid are same.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
142. Assertion :- Melting point of Mn is more than thatof Fe.
Reason :- Mn has higher number of unpaired e
than Fe in atomic state.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
143. Assertion :- A process is called adiabatic if the
system does not exchange heat with the
surroundings :-
Reason :- It does not involve increase or decrease
in temperature of the system :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
144. Assertion :- Ethylamine and Dimethylamine can be
distinguished by hofmann's carbylamine reaction.
Reason :- Dimethylamine is more basic than
Ethylamine.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
145. Assertion :- 3s-orbital have two spherical node :-
Reason :- The number of spherical node is
s-orbital is given by (n-1), where n is principle
quantum number :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
146. Assertion :- Acidic dehydration of butan-2-ol
completes with faster rate than that of Butan-1-ol.
Reason :- Acidic dehydration of Butan-2-ol
mainly gives But-2-ene while But-1-ene is mainly
formed from Butan-1-ol.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
147. Assertion :- Introduction of inert gas to a gaseous
reaction at equilibrium. Keeping pressure constant
shifts the equilibrium in a direction.
Reason :- Due to introduction of inert gas the
partial pressures of various reactants and products
are decreases.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
140. :
X-
: X- MeV
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
141. :- (C6H
12O
6) acetic acid
(CH3COOH)
:- acetic acid (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
142. :- Mn Fe
:- Mn Fe
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
143. :-
:-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
144. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
145. :- 3s-
:- s (n-1) n
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
146. :- -1- -2- :- -2--2--1--1-(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
147. :-
:-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
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148. :- N.B.S. 3- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
149. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
150. :-
Cl
+ Cl2 3AlCl
Cl
Cl(Major)
:- I +M (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
151. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
152. :- Zn Fe CuHg
:-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
153. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
154. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
155. :- dx2y2
py z
:- z-(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
148. Assertion :- Propene reacts with N.B.S. to mainly
give 3-Bromopropene.
Reason :- Reaction follows free radical
substitution mechanism.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
149. Assertion :- In crystal lattice, the size of the cation
is larger in a tetrahedral hole than in an octahedral
hole.
Reason :- The cations occupy more space than
atoms in crystal packing.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
150. Assertion :-
Cl
+ Cl2 3AlCl
Cl
Cl(Major)
Reason :- I-effect of chlorine dominates over it
+M-effect so it is meta directing.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
151. Assertion :- Isotonic solutions must have same
molar concentration.
Reason :- Solutions which have same
concentration are known as isotonic solution.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
152. Assertion :- Zn and Fe decomposes steam while
Cu and Hg does not.
Reason :- A metal can displace H2 from water
only if its reduction potential is less than that of
hydrogen.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
153. Assertion :- First electron gain enthalpy of all
elements is positive.
Reason :- Successive electron gain enthalpy of all
elements is negative.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
154. Assertion :- On increasing temperature
concentration of activated molecules increases.
Reason :- Activation energy increases with the
rise in temperature.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
155. Assertion :- If dx2y2
and py
orbitals come close
together along z-axis, they can form -bond by
sideways overlapping.
Reason :- Both orbitals do not have electron
density along z-axis.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
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156. Assertion :- Number of unpaired electrons in[Fe(Co)5] is fourReason :- CO is strong field ligand(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
157. Assertion :- H2S is more acidic, then H
2O.
Reason :- HS bond is weaker than OH
bond.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
158. Assertion :- Glucose gives a reddish-brown
precipitate with Fehling's solution.
Reason :- Reaction of glucose with Fehling's
solution gives CuO and gluconic acid.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
159. Assertion :- Red phosphorus is less volatile than
white phosphorus.
Reason :- Red phosphorus has a discrete
tetrahedral structure.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
160. Assertion :- Bakelite is thermosetting polymer.
Reason :- Because it is condensation copolymer
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
161. Assertion :- Viruses did not find a place in any
classification.
Reason :- Virus contain genetic material that
could be RNA or DNA.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
162. Assertion :- The descending limb of loop of Henle
is permeable to water but almost impermeable to
electrolytes.
Reason :- Henle's loop plays a significant role in
the maintenance of high osmolarity of medullary
interstitial fluid.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
163. Assertion :- Gymnosperm exhibit xerophytic
characters.
Reason :- They have loosely arranged tissues less
developed xylem and more living tissue in their
plant bodies.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
164. Assertion :- Erythropoeitin, thyroxin and cortisol
supports production of RBCs in bone marrow.
Reason :- They all interacts with intracellular
receptors and alters transcription and translation
process in their target cells in bone marrow.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
156. :- [Fe(Co)5] 4 :- CO (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
157. :- H2S, H
2O
:- HS HO
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
158. :- :- CuO (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
159. :-
:-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
160. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
161. :- :- ,RNADNA(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
162. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
163. :- :- (1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
164. :-
:- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
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165. Assertion :- Circulatory system is open in
Molluscs.
Reason :- In Molluscs, blood flows in haemocoel
instead of blood vessel.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
166. Assertion :- The Probability of DNA
polymorphism would be higher in non coding
DNA sequences.
Reason :- Mutations in these sequences have
immediate effect on an individuals reproductive
ability.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
167. Assertion :- The veins vary in thickness in the
reticulate venation of the dicot leaves.
Reason :- The size of vascular bundles are not
dependent on the size of the veins.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
168. Assertion :- Scientifically it is correct to say that
the sex of the baby is determined by the father and
not by the mother.
Reason :- The presence of X or Y chromosome
in the sperm determines the sex of the baby.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
169. Assertion :- Oogenesis is a highly wasteful
process.
Reason :- A number of follicles of ovary undergo
atresia and the Oogonium forms only one ovum.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
170. Assertion :- Exsitu(off site) conservation is thedesirable approach.
Reason :- When there are situations where ananimal or plant is endangered or threatened andneeds urgent measure to save it from extinction.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
171. Assertion :- S-phase marks the phase of DNA
replication
Reason :- S-Phase marks the phase of
chromosome duplication
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
172. Assertion :- Excessive irrigation without proper
drainage of water leads to salinity in the soil.
Reason :- Waterlogging draws salt to the surface
of the soil.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
165. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
166. :- DNA DNA
:- DNA
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
167. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
168. :-
:- X Y (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
169. :-
:-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
170. :- :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
171. :- S- DNA
:-S-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
172. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
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173. Assertion :- ER contains cisternae and tubules
Reason :- The grana, in the plastid is the site of
light reaction
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
174. Assertion :- The amount of CO2 that can diffuse
through the diffusion membrane per unit
difference in partial pressure is much higher
compared to that of O2.
Reason :- The solubility of CO2 is 20 25 times
higher than that of O2.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
175. Assertion :- Phenylketonuria is an inborn error
of metobolism and inheritated as autosomal
recessive trait.
Reason :- Phenylketonuria is formed due to
mutation in gene located on X-chromosome.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
176. Assertion :- An ovule generally has a single
embryosac.
Reason :- The process of formation of embryosac
is called megasporogenesis.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
177. Assertion :- Certain prokaryotic
micro-organisms are capable of fixing
atmospheric nitrogen.
Reason :- Only certain prokaryotic species are
found in the atmosphere i.e. in the direct contact
of nitrogen (N2).
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
178. Assertion :- RNA is more stable as compare of
DNA.
Reason :- RNA is preferred for transfer of genetic
information.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
179. Assertion :- Process of competitive inhibition of
enzyme is often used in the control of bacterial
pathogens.
Reason :- Malonate, which closely resembles the
succinate in structure, inhibit the succinic
dehydrogenase enzyme
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
173. :-ER :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
174. :-
CO2 , O
2
:- CO2 , O
2
20 25
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
175. :-
:- X-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
176. :-
:-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
177. :-
:-
(N2)
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
178. :- DNA RNA
:- RNA
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
179. :-
:-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
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180. Assertion :- Bt cotton is one of important
transgenic crop from agricultural enhancement
point of view.
Reason :- Bt cotton is one of the pesticide resistant
plant so it minimise the use of chemical pesticides.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
181. Which site in India is included in the World
Heritage list in 2013 ?
(1) Western Ghats
(2) Elephanta cave
(3) Jantar Mantar, Jaipur
(4) Hill forts, Rajasthan
182. For which book Eleanor Catton wins the Man
Booker Prize 2013 ?
(1) The Luminaries
(2) Inferno
(3) Dead Ever After
(4) The Madness Underneath
183. 'Unbreakable' is the autobiography of which one ?
(1) Saina Nehwal (2) Mary Kom
(3) Sushil Kumar (4) Gagan Narang
184. Which President of India was associated with the
Trade Union Movement ?
(1) Rajendra Prasad
(2) V.V. Giri
(3) Zakir Husain
(4) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
185. In the Gupta age, who wrote the famous book
'Brihat Samhita' ?
(1) Varahamihira (2) Kalidasa
(3) Banabhatta (4) Vishakhadutta
186. Who among the following said "my boy, no, you
are an Indian first and then a Muslim" ?
(1) Jawaharlal Nehru
(2) Mohammad Iqbal
(3) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(4) Syed Ahmad Khan
187. Who among the following was regarded as
'Zinda Pir' ?
(1) Babar (2) Akbar
(3) Jahangir (4) Aurangzeb
180. :- Bt :- Bt (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
181. 2013 (1) (2) (3) (4)
182. 2013 (1) (2) (3) (4)
183. '' (1) (2) (3) (4)
184. (1) (2) (3) (4)
185. ''
(1) (2) (3) (4)
186. " " ?(1) (2) (3) (4)
187. ''
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
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188. Which of the following seas has the highest
salinity ?
(1) Dead sea (2) Red sea
(3) Mediterranean sea (4) Caspian sea
189. Among the following, who was a member of
Rajya Sabha while becoming Prime Minister ?
(1) Morarji Desai (2) Charan Singh
(3) V. P. Singh (4) Indira Gandhi
190. With which neighbouring country, India has a
dispute over the water division of Teesta River ?
(1) Bangladesh (2) Pakistan
(3) Nepal (4) Bhutan
191. Which of the following domestic animals was not
known to the Indus Valley people ?
(1) Cow (2) Bull
(3) Buffalo (4) Horse
192. To which Fundamental Right, Reservation in
Government jobs is related ?
(1) Right to Freedom
(2) Right to Equality
(3) Right against Exploitation
(4) Right to Constitutional Remedies
193. After Independence, the first Indian State
constituted on linguistic basis is ?
(1) Punjab (2) Andhra Pradesh
(3) Kerala (4) Gujarat
194. Out of the following which one is not accepted
as Varna ?
(1) Brahmana (2) Vaishya
(3) Rajput (4) Shudra
195. Which tool is used to find out exact location on
the earth ?
(1) GPS (2) GIS
(3) PSLV (4) GSLV
196. In India, the highest contribution to GDP i.e. Gross
Domestic Product is from ?
(1) Primary sector
(2) Secondary sector
(3) Tertiary sector
(4) Exclusively agriculture sector
188.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
189.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
190.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
191.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
192.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
193.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
194.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
195.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
196. (GDP)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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35/36Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 201401CM413092
MAJOR TEST : AIIMS
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE
197. Recently scientists have discovered Higgs-Boson
particle. It is also known as ?
(1) Quantum particle (2) God particle
(3) High mass particle (4) Classical particle
198. The most populated desert in the world is
(1) Sahara (2) Kalahari
(3) Gobi (4) Thar
199. What was the slogan of world environment day
in the year 2013 ?
(1) Think, eat and save
(2) Save water
(3) Save Biodiversity
(4) Save the earth
200. The only Annual Session of Indian National
Congress in 1924 Presided by Mahatma Gandhi
was held at ?
(1) Kakinada (2) Ahmedabad
(3) Vardha (4) Belgaum
197. (1) (2) (3) (4)
198. (1) (2) (3) (4)
199. 2013 (1) (2) (3) (4)
200.
1924
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Your moral duty
is to prove that is
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MAJOR TEST : AIIMS
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /