ACE Questions 15.07.2010

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ACE 1997

1. Granite is found in India ina) West Bengal b) Bihar c) Meghalaya d) Madhya Pradesh

2. Which of the following is correctly matched?

A) Igneous - Heat and PressureB) Metamorphic - Gradual

depositionC) Sedimentary - Molten MagmaD) Argillaceous - Kaolin

3. A small quantity of hydrated white lime in cement mortar increases a) Plasticity b) Workability c) Strength d) Appearance 4. Match correctly the terms in Group – B with the statements given in Group – A and select your answer according to the coding scheme given below:

Group - AGroup- B

a) The small pieces of stone broken off a larger block are termed as

(1) Spalls

b) A pier built in the wall to increase its stability is called

(2) Gable

c) A triangular shaped portion of masonry at the end of a sloped roof is known as

(3) Coping

d) A covering placed on the exposed top of an external wall is called

(4) Butress

Codes:a b c d

A) 1 2 3 4B) 1 4 2 3C) 4 1 3 2D) 1 4 3 2

5. The water absorption of a good brick after 24 hours of immersion should be less than a) 10% b) 15% c) 20% d) 25%

6. A block of stone placed on a wall or column to distribute the load to the masonry is calleda) Lintel b) Bearing c) Bed Block d) None of these

7. In Flemish bond a) all the bricks are laid as stretchers on the faces of walls b) there are alternate courses of headers and stretchersc) there are alternate headers and stretchers in each course d) all the bricks are laid as headers on the faces of walls.

8. Le Chatelier’s device is used for determining the a) setting time of cement b) soundness of cement c) tensile strength of cement d) compressive strength of cement

9. Initial setting time of ordinary cement is a) less than 20 minutes b) less than 30 minutes c) more than 20 minutes d) more than 30 minutes

10. A bond made up of alternative header and stretcher in the same course, is known asa) Stretcher Bond b) Header Bond c) English Bond d) Flemish Bond

11. Cornice is a) the covering on the exposed top of a wallb) the projected ornamental course near the top of a wallc) a horizontal member spanning a door and windowd) vertical side of the opening of a door.

12. Separation of water on the fresh concrete is calleda) segregation b) bleeding c) curing d) hydration

13. In the designation of a concrete mix, M15

the number refers to the specified characteristic compressive strength a) 15 cm cube at 14 daysb) 15 cm dia cylinder at 28 daysc) 15 cm cube at 28 daysd) 7.07 cube at 28 days.

14. Liquid medium used in enamel paint isa) Thinner b) Alcoholc) Turpentine d) Varnish

15. Lithophone isIII FLOOR, B&K COMPLEX, MAIN ROAD,SRI RAM NAGAR, KARAIKUDI. CONTACT 98426 66411, 94864 31610

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a) Lead paint b) Whit Zinc paintc) An oxide of iron used as a based) A vehicle for ordinary paints

16. If a material undergoes a considerably deformation without rupture, it is calleda) elastic b) Plastic c) ductile d) brittle.

17.When a rectangular bar of length l breadth b and depth d is subjected to an axial pull of P, then the linear strain is given by

a) b) c) d)

18. In a simply supported beam. irrespective of the type of loading, the maximum deflection will always occur at a point within the central portion of a) 5 Percent span length b)10 percent span length c) 15 percent span length d) 20 percent span length

19. The ratio between the maximum shear stress across a rectangular section and average shear stress is

a) b)

c) 1.5 d) 2.

20. The shear force diagram shown below

21. Match List I correctly with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.

List I List II a) Shear centre 1. Tension b) Principal plane 2. Slope c) Fixed end 3. Shear stress

d) Middle third rule 4. Twisting.codes:

a b c dA) 4 3 2 1B) 3 1 4 2C) 4 1 2 3D) 4 2 3 1.

22. By definition, the cylinder is thin, if the ration of wall thickness to internal diameter is equal to or less than

a) b) c) d)

23. The stress in the wall of a cylinder in a direction normal to its longitudinal axis and acting along the circumference is known asa) yield stress b) longitudinal stressc) hoop stress d) circumferential stress

24. Moment of inertia of a thin ring (external diameter D, internal diameter d) about and axis perpendicular to the plane of the ring, is

a) b)

c) d)

25. Force in the member U2,L2 of the truss shown in fig. is

a) 10 t Tension b) 10 t Compressionc) 0 d) 15 t Compression

26. For a stable frame structure, number of members required isa) three times the number of joints minus three.b) twice the number of joints minus three.c) twice the number of joints minus two.d) twice the number of joints minus one.

27. The strain energy of a structure due to bending is given by

a) b)

c) D)

28. A two hinged semicircular arch of radius R carries a point load eccentrically on the span at

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a section whose radius vector is at ‘’ with the horizontal. The horizontal thrust at each support is.

a) b) c) d)

29. The number of degrees of freedom for a point in space isa) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6

30. The total degree of static indeterminacy of a two storey two bay framed structure having all column ends fixed at the ground is.

a) 6 b) 8 c) 9 d) 12

31. Consider the following definintions:

1. 2.

3. 4.

Of the definitions, those which relate to ‘margin of safety’ would includea) 1 and 3 b) 1 alone c) 2 and 4 d) 3 alone

32. Consider the following statements:Assertion (A) : The behavior of an over-reinforced beam is more ductile than that of an under-reinforced beam.Reason (R) : Over-reinforced beam contains more steel and steel is more ductile than concrete.a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)c) (A) is true, but (R) is falsed) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

33. The grade of any reinforcing steel is designated by itsa) Breaking strength

b)UltimateTensilestrengthc) working tensile strength d) Yield strength

34. In case of singly reinforced beam, the steel reaches its maximum allowable stress earlier than concrete. Such a section is known asa) UR section b) OR section

c) Balanced section d) Economic section

35. Pick up the incorrect statement:Bars of tensile reinforcement of a rectangular beama) are curtailed where they are not required to resist the bending moment.b) are bent up at a suitable places to serve as shear reinforcementc) are bent up at suitable places to serve as shear reinforcementd) are maintained in the bottom to provide at least the local bond stress.

36. Match List I with List II correctly.LIST I LIST IIA) Minimum % of tension reinforcement

1. 4

B) Minimum % of shear reinforcement 2.

C) Maximum allowable % tension reinforcement 3.

D) Maximum allowable % compression reinforcement

4. 4

a) A-3 B-1 C-2 D-4b) A-2 B-3 C-1 D-4c) A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1d) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4

37. The maximum area of tension reinforcement in beams shall not exceeda) 0.004 bD b) 0.04 bD c) 0.4 bD d) 4 bD

38. The maximum compressive strain permitted in concrete at the ultimate moment capacity of R.C.C. beam isa) 0.005 b) 0.0020 c) 0.0025 d) 0.0035

39. As per IS code, maximum percentage of steel permitted in an R.C.C. column isa) 0.8 % b) 4 c) 6 d) 8

40. bc is the permissible compressive stress in concrete, the modular ratio may be calculated as under:

a) b) a) a)

41. A column is having heavy floor beams at top end and gusseted base at the bottom. If height of column is ‘L’, its effective length is


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a) 0.65 L b) 0.75 L c) 0.85 L d) 1.00 L

42. The effective depth of ‘T’ beam for heavy loads is taken asa) 1/10 of the span b) 1/12 of the spanc) 1/15 of the span d) 1/18 of the span

43. The amount of reinforcement forming the main bars in a slab is based upon.a) minimum bending momentb) maximum bending momentc) maximum shear force d) minimum shear force

44. The limiting value of span to depth ratio will be least in case ofa) simply supported slabs spanning in one direction b) simply supported slabs spanning in two direction c) continuous slab spanning in one directiond) cantilever slabs.

45. When reinforcement rods of two different diameters d1 and d2 (where d1 > d2) are used in a reinforced concrete beam, the minimum spacing between the horizontal parallel bars would be

a) d1 b) d2 c) d) d1 +d2

46. The permissible stresses in concrete in members of water retaining structures (members in contact with water) are less than that of concrete for normal use, because the members must bea) less stiff and imperviousb) less strong and imperviousc) more stiff and imperviousd) more strong and impervious

47. The permissible tensile stress in bending in Grade I steel in R.C. water tank walls of thickness less than 225 mm isa) 140 N/mm2 b) 125 N/mm2 on water facesc) 100 N/mm2 on water facesd) 100 N/mm2 on both faces

48. When the top of earth retained is horizontal, is the angle of repose then the coefficient of pressure Cp is given by

a) b)

c) d)

49. What is the distance of the section from the face of R.C.C. footing where check for one-way shear is to be carried out?a) One fourth of effective depthb) One half of effective depthc) Three fourth of effective depthd) Effective depth

50.With increase in percentage of carbon in steel.a) Strength of steel decreasesb) Hardness of steel decreasesc) Brittleness of steel decreasesd) Ductility of steel decreases

51. Throat in a fillet weld isa) Smaller side of the triangle of the fillet.b) Larger side of the triangle of the filletc) Hypotenuse of the triangle of the fillet.d) Perpendicular distance from the root to hypotenuse.

52. Permissible axial tensile stress on the throat section of butt weld isa)140 Mpa b)150 Mpa c)160 Mpa d)180 Mpa

53. The channel sections are subjected to twisting because of absence of symmetry of the section with regard to the axisa) Parallel to the flange b) Parallel to the webc) Perpendicular to the web d) None of these.

54. The maximum permissible bending stress in tension or compression in steel members shall not exceed,a) 0.40 fy b) 0.60 fy c) 0.66 fy d) 0.75 fy

55. Intermediate vertical stiffeners are used in a plate girdera) To reduce the compressive stressb) To reduce the shear stressc) To take the bearing stressd) To avoid bulking of web plate

56. The Euler load for a column fixed at both ends is given by

a) b)


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c) d)

57. The permissible stress in bending for rolled steel beam isa)150 Mpa b)155 Mpa c)160 Mpa d)165 Mpa

58. The effective length of a steel compression member which is held in position and restrained against rotation at one end but not held in position and not restrained against rotation at the other end is,a) 0.65 L b) 0.80 L c) 1.00 L d) 2.00 L

59. Loss of pre-stress due to friction occursa) Only in pre-tensioned beamsb) Only in post-tensioned beamsc) In both post-tensioned beams and pre-tensioned beamsd) None of the above

60. Fully pre-stressed concrete beamsa) Resists the full live load by pre-stressb) Resists all the working loads by pre-stressc) Resists a part of the load of pre-stressd) Resists only the dead loads.

61.Textural classification of soils are merely based on

a) Grain size b) Consistency limitc) Grain size and consistency limit d) PI

62.A pycnometer is used to determinea) void ratio b) dry densityc) water content d) density index

63.According to I.S. Specifications, the gravity is the ratio of unit weight of soil solids to that of water at a temperature of

a) 27° C b) 23° C c) 17° C d) 37° C

64.Approximate void ratio in sandy soil isa) 0.2 b) 0.6 c) 0.8 d) 1.2

65.A soil having uniformity coefficient more than 10 is called

a) uniform soil b) poor soilc) coarse soil d) well graded soil

66. Gravel and sand is a cohesive coarse grained soilcohesive fine grained soilnon-cohesive coarse grained soilnon-cohesive fine grained soil

67.The force of attraction between the individual particles of soil which keeps the soil particles bound together is known as a) adhesion b) cohesion c) elastic compaction force d) internal friction

68.The difference between liquid limit and plastic limit of soil is called a) flow index b) plasticity index

c) toughness index d) liquidity index

69.The ratio of weight of water to the weight of solids in a given mass of soil is known as

a) porosity b) water contentc) void ratio d) specific gravity

70.The fundamental equation of specific gravity of soil (G), its dry density , unit weight of water and void ratio (e) is

a) b)

c) d)

71.The maximum dry density to which a soil may be compacted depends on the a) process of compaction b) void ratio c) density of the soil d) soil-water content

72.For finding the shearing strength of saturated clay, the recommended test isa) direct shear b) unconfined compression testc) triaxial shear test d) vane shear test

73.The shearing strength of sand depends upon

a) loading rate b) dry density c) confining pressure d) void ration

74.Backfill with a sloping surface exerts a total active pressure on the wall of height H and acts at

a) above base, parallel to base

b) above base, parallel to backfill

surface

c) above base, parallel to base


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d) above base, parallel to backfill

surface

75.Failure wedge develops when a retaining wall

sinks downwardsstresses equally by vertical and horizontal forcesmoves towards the backfillmoves away from the backfill

76.Shear test for saturated clay isa) direct shear test b) triaxial shear testc)vane shear test d) unconfined compression

77.The earth pressure at rest is calculated by using

a) Euler’s theory b) Rankine’s theoryc) Theory of elasticity d) bending theory

78.In an earth dam, a phreatic line isa line below which there are positive hydrostatic pressures in the daman imaginary line joining the centres of gravity of various sections.line of metacentres at various sections.An equipotential line.

79.The assumption of the Rankine’s theory of active earth pressure, is

Soil mass is homogeneous, dry and cohesionlessGround surface is a plane which may be horizontal or inclinedBack of the wall is vertical and smoothall the above.

80.The Terzaghi’s general bearing capacity equation for a continuous footing is given by

where are bearing capacity factors.

81. Hiley’s formula is used for finding the resistance of the following: a) Machine Foundation b) Caisson Foundation c) Spread Footing d) Pile

82. The weight of the hammer used in the standard penetration test is

a) 320 Newton b)500 Newtonc)640 Newton d) 1000 Newton

83. The ultimate bearing capacity of frictionless soil in terms of cohesion value ‘C’ is

a) C to 2C b) 2.5 C to 4.0 Cc) 4.5 C to 6 C d) 6.5 C to 7.5 C

84. The minimum depth for all foundations below ground level is a) 100 cm b) 25 cm c) 50 cm d) 80 cm

85.Load test on piles in clays are not carried out immediately, but sufficient time is allowed for the soil to

a)come in contact with the pile surfaceb)develop skin frictionc)regain its thixotropic strengthd)redistribute the initial weight of pile.

Questions 86-99 are excluded due to out of syllabus

100. Interception losses are due toi) Evoportationii) Transpirationiii) Stream flowThe correct answer isa) Only (i) b) (i) and (ii)c) (ii) and (iii) d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

101. For the maturity of rice crop, 90 cm depth of water is required. If the base period is 110 days, the duty of water isa)1056 acres/cusec b)1056 acres/cumecc)1056 hectares/cumec d)1056 hectares/cusec

102. Irrigation canals are generally aligned along

a) contour line b) water shedc) straight line d) valley line

103. The relation between duty, delta ( ) and base period is

a) b)

c) d)

B = base period in days = delta


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D = duty in hect. / cumec.

104. For predicting floods of a given frequency, the best reliable method isa) Unit hydrograph methodb) Gumbel’s analytical methodc) California method d) None of these

105. The probability that a T-year flood occurs in any year is

a) b) c) d) log

106. The proportion of silt in water is calleda) silt density b) silt factorc) silt ratio d) silt charge

107. The mass curve of rainfall of a storm is a plot ofa) accumulated rainfall intensity Vs timeb) rainfall intensity Vs time in chronological orderc) accumulated precipitation Vs time in chronological orderd) rainfall depths for various equal durations plotted in decreasing order

108. Hydraulic mean depth isa) the total depth of a fluid stream in a riverb) the effective average depth of a fluid stream in a channelc) the mean depth of a hydrantd) the mean depth of a channel

109. Match List I with List II and give the correct answer using the codes given below :

List – I List – IIa) Cross drainage work

carrying canal over the drainage

(1) Super-passage and canal siphon

b) Cross drainage work carrying drainage over the canal

(2) Aqueduct and syphon aqueduct

c) Cross drainage work admitting the drainage water into the canal

(3) Level crossing

d) In cross drainage work when the beds of the canal and drainage are practically at the same level.

(4) Level crossing, inlets and outlets

Codes:a b c d

A) 1 2 3 4B) 1 3 2 4C) 2 1 3 4D) 2 1 4 3

110. The relation between velocity V, discharge Q and Lacey’s silt factor f is given by

a) b)

c) d)

111. Talus is a different name fora) groyne b) spurc) launching apron d) all of these

112. When a canal is carried over a natural drainage, the structure provided is known as

a) syphon b) aqueductc) super-passage d) syphon aqueduct

113. An aquifer confined at the bottom and not at the top is called

a) leaky aquifer b) unconfined aquiferc) confined aquifer d) perched aquifer

114. A wall built across a small channel and provided with a regulating arrangement to head up water on the upstream side is known asa) Regulating wall b) Head wallc) Spillway wall d) Barrage

115. Identify the incorrect statement :The objective of a divide wall in the canal head work isa) to provide a comparatively quiet pocket in front of the canal head regulatorb) to concentrate the scouring action of the scouring sluicesc) to separate the under sluices portion from the rest of the structured) to prevent the flood water from entering into the canal116. Which of the following is not a waterborne disease? a) Dysentery b) cholera c) Typhoid d) Malaria

117. Kidney damage may be caused by water due to the excess concentration ofa) fluorides b) nitrates c) chlorides d. nitrites


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118. Turbidity of water is expressed a) in ppm b) in numbers in an arbitrary scale c) by pH value d) by colour code

119. Disinfection of drinking water is done to removea) turbidity b) odour c) colour d) bacteria

120.The permissible turbidity in domestic water is a) 2 to 5 ppm b) 5 to 10 ppmc) 10 to 15 ppm d) 15 to 20 ppm

121.The main disadvantage of hard water isa) high density b) more turbidity c) bad taste d) increased soap consumption

122. B.O.D. of treated water should be (in mg/litre]a) 2 b) 15 c) 10 d) Nil

123. If pump efficiency is 80% and motor efficiency is 90%, the combined efficiency is a) 72% b) 90% c) 80% d) 85%

124.An advantage of ozone over chlorine for disinfection is that it a) gives good taste to water b) is easy to apply c) leaves sufficient chemical to guard against post- contamination d) is cheaper than chlorine.

125.The tolerance limit of fluorides in inland surface water to be used for Public Water Supply, as specified in IS 2296, 1974, in mg/litre a) 0.5 b) 1.0 c) 1.5 d) 2.0

126. Waste water from bathrooms, lavatory basins, kitchen etc. is calleda) Night soil b) sludge c) sullage d) waste soil

127. A sewer which gets discharge from two or more main sewers is called a) trunk sewer b) leading sewerc) intercepting sewer d) main sewer

128. Combined sewerage system is adopted because

a) Climate is hot b) rainfall is heavy c) Economical d) more hygienic

129. For 150 mm diameter sewer, the gradient required for self-cleansing velocity isa) 1 in 150 b) 1 in 120 c) 1 in 60 d) 1 in 100

130. The drop junction manholes are generally provided in sewers in a) industrial area b) large townships c) hilly townships d) cities in plains

131.Chlorine is used in the treatment of sewage to a)aid coagulationb)increase the BODc) cause bulking of activated sludged) help grease separation

132.The rate of filtration in case of slow-sand ranges from [in litres per hour per sq.m]a) 500 to 1000 b) 300 to 500 c) 100 to 200 d) 50 to 100

133. The factor governing the detention period in a grit chamber isa) size of gritb) specific gravity of gritc) horizontal velocity of flowd) settling velocity

134. The secondary treatment of sewage is carried by the use of a) screens b) grit chambersc) sedimentation tank d) trickling filters

135. Hole in ozone layer is due toa) chlorofluorocarbon b) carbon monoxide c) sulphur trioxide d) sulphur dioxide

136. The self cleansing velocity for all sewers in India is usually a) less than 1.0 m/sec. b) 1.0 to 1.2 m/sec.c) 1.5. to 2.0 m/sec. d) 3.0. to 3.5 m/sec.

137. Activated sludge process is a biological process involving a) aerobic +anaerobic bacteria


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b) aerobic bacteria + protozoa + algae c) anaerobic bacteria + fungi d) facultative bacteria + algae

138.The human excreta is diluted with water at a rate of 135 litre per head per day. What is the solid content in the sewage?a) 100 mg/litre to 200 mg/litre b) 800 mg/litre to 1,000 mg/litrec) 2,000 mg/litre to 3,000 mg/litre d) 3,000 mg/litre to 4,000 mg/litre

139. A natural method of disposal of sewage is a) sewage irrigation b) septic tank treatment c) composting d) aerated lagooning

140. Ecological Niche is a) habitat of an organism b) community and environment of an organismc) organism’s profession (position and status) d) confinement of a species to a specific region

141. In India the modes of transportation, in the order of their importance are,a) Airways, Waterways, Highways, Railwaysb) Waterways, Highways, Railways, Airwaysc) Highways, Railways, Airways, Waterwaysd) Railways, Highways, Waterways, Airways

142. A mixture of Bitumen,fine aggregate, and a filler in a suitable proportion, heated to about 2000C in a special cooker and laid is calleda) Surface dressing b) Mastic asphaltc) Asphaltic concrete d) Bitumen carpet

143. The inward tilt given to cross-section of a carriage way on a horizontal curve to reduce the effects of centrifugal force as a moving vehicle isa) Central elevation b) Camberc) Super elevation d) Transverse gradient

144. If ‘S’ is the speed of vehicle and ‘R’ is the radius of curves, the equilibrium super elevation required to counteract centrifugal force is given by

a) b) c) d)

145. A pavement is classified as flexible pavement or rigid pavement based on its,a) Wearing course b) Base coursec) Sub-base d) Sub-grade

146. Covering of road surface to take care of bleeding is known asa) Surfacing b) Blottingc) Priming d) Blending

147. The bitumen grade 80/100 indicatesa) Dynamic viscosity b) Kinematic viscosityc) Specific gravity d) Penetration

148. The ruling gradient for hill roads as recommended by IRC is a) 1 in 20 b) 1 in 15 c) 1 in 12 d) 1 in 10

149. The convexity provided to the carriageway between the crown and edge of the pavement, is known asa) Super elevation b) Mediansc) Camber d) Shoulders.

150. If ‘V’ is the design speed in km/hour and ‘R’ is the radius of the curve of a hill road, then the super elevation is given by

a) b) c) d)

151. Set-back distance is the distance betweena) Road land boundary and building lineb) Road land boundary and control linec) Building line and control lined) Road land boundary and control line

152. The advantage of a rotary isa) Traffic is in continuous motionb) Non-waiting by trafficc) Vehicles move in the same directiond) Left turn is relatively easy

153. In a crossing when a left hand rail of one track crosses a right hand rail of another track or vice versa, such a crossing is known asa) Acute angle crossing b) Obtuse angle crossingc) Diamond crossing d) Square crossing

154. A warner signal, which is first seen by the driver is known asa) Disc signal b) Home signalc) Routing signal d) Outer signal

155. A block is the zone betweena) Outer signal to outer signal between two neighbouring block stations


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b) Advance starter to advance starter of two neighbouring block stationsc) Outer signal to advance starter signald) Advance starter and outer signal

156. Road markers along roads from the edge of a kerb should not be less thana) 40 cm b) 45 cm c) 50 cm d) 60 cm

157. Rail section is generally designated by itsa) Total weight b) Total lengthc) Area of its cross-section d) Weight per metre length

158. For points and crossings, maximum size of ballast isa) 50 mm b) 40 mm c) 30 mm d) 25 mm

159. The yards meant to isolate goods wagons received from various centers in the order of station at which they are to be sent are known a) Passenger yards b) Goods yardsc) Marshalling yards d)Locomotive yards

160. The height of the Pilot’s eye above the runway surface is assumeda) 1 m b) 3 m c) 4 m d) 5 m

161. What is the equatorial radius of earth?a) 1,739 km b) 6,357 kmc) 6,378 km d) 6,960 km

162. The effect of curvature of earth is to make the objects appeara) shifted towards left b) shifted towards rightc) higher than, really they ared) lower than, really they are

163. Contour interval isa) inversely proportional to the scale of the map.b) directly proportional to the flatness of groundc) larger for accurate worksd) larger if the time available is more

164. The instrument which is used in plane tabling for obtaining horizontal and vertical distances directly without resorting to chaining is known asa) plane alidade b) telescopic alidadec) clinometer d) tacheometer

165. Reciprocal ranging is adopted when the following is encountered:a) a dense forestb) a hillockc) a river d) a tall building

166. When the position of a point is to be located accurately by a perpendicular offset, the direction of perpendicular is set out by means ofa) theodolite b) dumpy levelc) optical square d) planimeter

167. The line joining the points of equal elevation is known asa) horizontal lines b) level linec) contour line d) plane line

168.Match List I with List II correctly.List I

List IIA) Adjustment of surveying instruments

1. Bringing the various fixed parts of the instrument into proper relation with one another

B) Bowditch rule 2. solution of 3 point problem

C) Triangulation 3. Measure of all the angles and the base line

D) Bessel’s method 4. Balancing the latitudes and departures

a) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 4b) A – 2, B – 1, C – 4, D – 3c) A – 1, B – 4, C – 3, D – 2d) A – 3, B – 2, C – 1, D – 4

169. The following bearings were observed while traversing with a compass:

LINE F.B. B.B.AB 1020 30’ 1820 30’BC 450 30’ 2270 0’CD 2450 30’ 670 30’DA 1700 30’ 3510 30’Which stations are affected by local attraction?a) Stations A and B b) Stations C and Dc) Stations B and C d) Stations A and D

170. When the bubble of the level tube of a level remains central.a) a line or sight is horizontalb) axis of telescope is horizontalc) line of collimation is horizontald) geometrical axis of the telescope is horizontal.

171. The bearing of a line AB is 1500 and the angle ABC measured clockwise is 1200. The bearing of BC isa) 2700 b) 900 c) 300 d) 2400

172. If the R.L. of a bench mark is 100.000 m, the back sight is 1.215 m and fore sight is 1.870 m, then the R.L. of the forward station isa) 99.345 m b) 100.345 m


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c) 100.655 m d) 101.870 m

173. A staff reading taken on a point whose elevation is to be determined as on a change point is calleda) fore sight reading b) back sight readingc) intermediate sight d) none of the above.

174. Pick up the odd instrument.a) Prismatic compass b) Theodolitec) Box sextant d) Dumpy level.

175. The entries in a level book are as follows:B.S. I.S. F.S. Ht. Of

CollimR.L.

Remarks

1.985 - - - - BM 1- 2.085 - - - BM 2- - 1.345 - 100.640 CPThe reduced level of BM 2 isa) 97.9 b) 98.9 c) 99.9 d) 109.9

176. A plumb line isa) a vertical lineb) a line parallel to a vertical linec) a line perpendicular to level line.d) a line perpendicular to the horizontal line.

177. In a theodolite, the line of collimation isa) parallel to the axis of plate levels.b) parallel to the vertical axisc) perpendicular to the trunnion axisd) parallel to the horizontal axis

178. In a theodolite, the upper clamping screw is tight and the lower clamping screw is slack, In this position, if the telescope is turned in horizontal plane, it willa) Move the vernier plate relative to the lower parallel plate on which graduations are markedb) Move the upper and lower parallel plates together relative to the leveling headc) Move the lower parallel plate only relative to vernier plated) Move the telescope, changing the reading of the instrument.

179. Rankine’s method of curve setting usesa) Ordinates from the long chordb) Deflection anglesc) Offsets from tangentsd) Offsets from the chords produced.

180. A 20 curve will have a radius ofa) 57.3 feet b) 573 feetc) 1146 feet d) 2865 feet

181. The officer responsible for the preparation and revision of ‘schedule of Rates’ in P.W.D is thea) Chief Engineer b) Superintending Engineerc) Executive Engineer d) Assistant Engineer

182. Gantt chart indicatea) Comparison of actual progress with scheduled progressb) Balance of work to be completedc) Efficiency of the project workd) Inventory cost.

183. On a bar chart the various activities of a project are shown bya) Shaded area b) Dot marksc) Cross marks d) Horizontal marks

184. In PERT Analysis, the time estimates of activities and probability of their occurrence followa) Normal distribution curveb) Poisson’s distribution curvec) - distribution curved) binomial distribution curve

185. PERT stands fora) Program Estimation and Reporting Techniqueb) Process Estimation and Review Techniquec) Program Evaluation and Review Techniqued) Planning Estimation and Resulting Technique.

186. The tail of an arrow in a network representsa) The beginning of the activityb) The end of the activityc) The beginning of the eventd) The end of the event

187. If A is the optimistic time, B is the pessimistic time and M is the most likely time of an activity, the expected time of the activity is

a) a)

a) a)

188. In CPM activity times are


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a) Probabilistic b) Non-deterministicc) Deterministic d) Non-probabilistic

189. Free float is equal toa) Latest allowable event occurrence time + Early finish timeb) Earliest event occurrence time + Early finish timec) Latest allowable event occurrence time – Early finish timed) Earliest event activity leads back into itself, the resulting error in the network

190. If the path of an activity leads back into itself, the resulting error in the network is known asa) Looping b) Danglingc) Interfacing d) Splicing

191. Pick up the correct sequence of development of the following computers:a) PC, PCAT / XT, Pentium, Multimediab) PC, Pentium, PCAT / XT, Multimediac) PC, Multimedia, PCAT / XT, Pentiumd) PC, PCAT / XT, Multimedia, Pentium

192. Which of the following is wrongly matched?a) Hybrid computers

Accept data both analog and digital form

b) Boot virus 2. C Brainc) Algorithm 3. Translate assembly

language program to a machine language program

d) Compiler WATFOR

193. Cache memory isa) part of Secondary Memory storageb) part of Main Memory storage for temporary storage.c) part of Main Memory storage for increasing speed of operationd) part of Secondary Memory storage for virtual memory expansion

194. Translator of a high level language into the object code is calleda) Interpreter b) Compilerc) Application program d) Assembler

195. A program that is used to help solve a data processing problem isa) Utilities b) Software tool

c) System software d) Applications problems

196. The formula. is used to find M.I.

of a rectangular section, then the FORTRAN statements is.a) I = B * D ** (3/12) b) X1 = 0.083 * B ** 3c) I = 0.0083 * B * D ** 3 d) X1 = 1B * D ** (3/12)

197. FORTRAN expressions of the following

algebraic expression.

a) R = (-b + (b ** 2 – 4 * a * c)** 0.5 ) / (2 * a)b) R = -b +SQRT (b ** 2 – 4 * a * c) / 2 * ac) R = -b +SQRT (b ** 2 – 4 * a * c) / (2 * a)d) R = (-b + SQRT (b ** 2 – 4 * a * c) ) / (2 * a)

198. Choose the FORTRAN statement from the following:a) DO 15, I = 1, 12b) GO TO (0, 10, 20), Ic) IF (X.GT.Y) GO TO Nd) COMMON (a, b, c).

199. The FORTRAN expression for the algebraic equation ax2 + bx + c isa) A * X ** 2.0 + B * X + Cb) AX ** 2 + B * X + Cc) A * X * 2 + BX + Cd) A * X ** 2 + B * X + C

200. In the Arithmetic statement X = (A/J) + C * D – B ** J, A = 5.6; B = 2.0; C= 3.0; D = 1.8 and J = 4. The value of X as given by the computer isa) – 9.2 b) + 9.2 c) – 9.6 d) + 9.6


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ACE Questions 15.07.2010

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