A genius 20 - CATJEE

Genius 20 / December 2018 / Class-11 Bio 1

20 genius A

Space for rough work

PHYSICS .

1. If 109 electrons move out of a body to another body every second, how much time is required to get a total charge of 1 C on the other body?

(A) 96.25 10 hours× (B) 196.25 10 Seconds× (C) × 96.25 10 seconds (D) 96.25 10 Minutes×

2. Imagine a conductor in the shape of a cylinder kept near a magnetic compass needle, now two thin circular discs of dielectric (insulator) with charge +Q & –Q are suddenly attached to two opposite ends of the cylinder. We observe:

(A) no deflection in needle because discs are made up of dielectric.

(B) permanent deflection in needle due to permanent current in the cylinder.

(C) a momentary deflection in needle due to a momentary current in the cylinder.

(D) needle will oscillate back & forth due to oscillation of current.

3. Assuming potential difference across the resistor R to be 1V and point B at the midpoint of resistor

0R , which of the following expression gives correct relation between, V, 1V , R and 0R ?

(A) 1

0

2VRV

R 4R=

+ (B) 1

0

2VRV

R 4R=

+ (C) 1 0

0

2VRV

R 4R=

+ (D) 0

10

2VRV

R 4R=

+

4. Aluminium wires are preferred over the copper wires for long suspension power cables, because:

(A) Resistivity of Cu is less than resistivity of Al (B) Density of Cu is greater than density of Al

(C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of the above

5. Statement I: Both resistivity and resistance of a material depends on the shape of its sample.

Statement II: Both resistivity and resistance of a material depends on the temperature of its sample.

(A) I is correct, II is incorrect (B) I is incorrect, II is correct

(C) Both I and II are correct (D) Both I and II are incorrect

6. A steady current flows in a metallic conductor of non-uniform cross-section. Which of these quantities is constant along the conductor:

(A) Current (B) Current per unit area of cross-section

V

R

• •

BA C

0R


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(C) Average speed of electrons in the conductor (D) All of these

7. A straight wire of mass 200 g and length 1.5 m carries a current of 2A. It is suspended in mid-air by a uniform magnetic field of magnitude: (Neglect Earth’s magnetic field)

(A) 0.65 T in horizontal direction (B) 0.65 T in vertical direction (C) 1.3 T in horizontal direction (D) 1.3 T in vertical direction

8. Which of the following statement about magnetic field due to infinitely long current carrying wire is incorrect:

(A) If wire is placed along any of the three axes mutually perpendicular to each other then the field everywhere around the wire depends on the co-ordinates of remaining two axes.

(B) If wire is placed along any of the three axes mutually perpendicular to each other then the field everywhere around the wire depends on the co-ordinates of all the three axes always.

(C) Even though the wire is infinite, the field due to it at a non-zero distance is not infinite. (D) As we move away from wire, magnetic field decreases.

9. A circular loop of current carrying wire is located in a non-zero external magnetic field. In which of the following cases, the loop will not rotate?

(A) If plane of the loop is perpendicular to magnetic field. (B) If external magnetic field is parallel to plane of the loop. (C) If external magnetic field makes an angle 45o with plane of the loop. (D) The loop will always rotate.

10. (I) → One element (small part) of a straight current carrying wire exert a force on other element of the same wire.

(II) → There is no force on an element of current carrying wire due to the magnetic field produced by same element.

(A) (I) is correct (II) is wrong.

(B) (I) is wrong (II) is correct.

(C) Both are correct

(D) Both are wrong.

11. Power P is to be delivered to a device of resistance R via transmission cables having resistance cR . If V

is the voltage across the device and I the current through it, the power wasted through the transmission cables is:


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(A) given by = ×

2

c c

VP R

R (B) given by =

2

c

VP

R

(C) given by = ×

2

cC

VP R

R (D) given by =

2

cc

VP

R

12. Figure shows an apparatus to measure emf of a cell (V2). Potential difference is established between two ends A and B of the wire using battery (V1). A part of potential difference in wire AB matches with emf V2 when the pointer J is kept at a specific position called balance point. At this position, galvanometer shows zero deflection.

In the given circuit diagram AB is a resistance wire of uniform cross-section and J is the point at which galvanometer (G) gives no deflection. If the value of R is increased, the balance point J shift:

G

R V1

J

A B

V2

V1 >V2

(A) Towards B (B) Towards A

(C) Position of J remain unchanged (D) Depends on the material of wire AB

13. Let there be n resistors 1 2 nR , R , ....., R out of which maxR & minR are of maximum & minimum resistance

respectively. If pR and sR represents the equivalent resistance of parallel and series combination of n

resistors respectively then

(A) p minR R< & s maxR R> (B) min min min

1 2 n

R R R... 1

R R R+ + + >

(C) Both (A) & (B) are true (D) None of (A) & (B)

14. In the given circuit diagram, R and R1 are the two resistors connected along with a battery:


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If the resistance R continuously increases, the potential difference across R1 :

(A) Increases (B) Decreases

(C) Remains constant (D) First increases then decreases

15. In the given circuit diagram if the reading of voltmeter (V) is zero, then:

(A) 1 2R R R= + (B) 1 2R R R= − (C) = +1 2R 2R R (D) = −1 2R 2R R

16. Two conductors are made of the same material and have the same length. Conductor A is a solid wire of diameter 1 mm. Conductor B is a hollow tube of outer diameter 2 mm and inner diameter 1 mm. If the resistance for the charge to flow parallel to the axis of the cylinders are RA and RB for conductors A

and B respectively, the ratio A

B

R

R is

(A) 31 (B)

13 (C)

75 (D)

57

17. A room has AC run for 5 hours a day at a voltage of 220V. The wiring of the room consists of Cu of 1

mm radius and a length of 10 m. Power consumption per day is 10 commercial units. The fraction of it

goes in the joule heating in wires is: [ −ρ = × Ω8cu 1.7 10 m]

(A) 0.52% (B) 0.2% (C) 2% (D) 3.2%

V

1R

R

1V

2R

1V

1R1V

R


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18. Two long wires carrying current 1I and 2I are arranged as shown in the figure. The one carrying

current 1I is along is the x-axis. The other carrying current 2I is along a line parallel to the y-axis given

by x = 0 and z = d. If a small part of wire is considered at O2, the force on this part due to entire wire along x-axis is:

(A) Cannot be determined (B) Infinite

(C) Zero (D) Equal to weight of wire at 2O

19. A charged particle of charge e and mass m is moving in an electric field Er and magnetic field B

r. In

the given situation the quantities whose unit is second is:

(A) meE

(B) meB

(C) eBm

(D) None of the above

20. Refractive indices of glass for different colours of light are different. For red colour, the index is minimum while for voilet colour it is maximum. A short pulse of white light is incident from air to a glass slab at normal incidence. After travelling through the slab, the first colour out of following to emerge is: (A) Blue (B) Red (C) Violet (D) All colours come together

21. You are given four sources of light each one providing a light of a single colour – red, blue, green and yellow. Suppose the angle of refraction for a beam of yellow light corresponding to a particular angle of incidence at the interface of two media is 90o. Which of the following statements is correct if the source of yellow light is replaced with that of other lights without changing the angle of incidence? (A) The beam of red light would undergo total internal reflection. (B) The beam of red light would bend towards normal while it gets refracted through the second

medium. (C) The beam of blue light would undergo total internal reflection. (D) The beam of green light would bend away from the normal as it gets refracted through the

second medium.

z

y1O

1I

2I

x

d

2O


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22. The radius of curvature of the curved surface of a plano-convex lens is 20 cm. If the refractive index of the material of the lens be 1.5, it will

(A) act as a convex lens only for the objects that lie on its curved side. (B) act as a concave lens for the objects that lie on its curved side. (C) act as a convex lens irrespective of the side on which the object lies. (D) act as a concave lens irrespective of the side on which the object lies.

23. A wire in the form of a tightly wound solenoid is connected to a DC source, and carries a current. If the coil is stretched so that there are gaps between successive elements of the spiral coil, the current in the coil will:

(A) Decrease (B) Increase (C) Remain same (D) Become zero

24. A jar of height h is filled with a transparent liquid of refractive index µ (shown in the figure). At the centre of the jar on the bottom surface is a dot, the minimum diameter (d) of a disc, such that when placed on the top surface symmetrically about the centre, the dot is invisible, is given by:

(A) =µh

d (B) =µ −2h

d1 (C)

2

2hd

1=

µ − (D)

2

hd

2 1=

µ −

25. A myopic adult has a far point at 0.1 m. The power of lenses required to see distant object, taking the image distance from lens of eye to the retina to be 2 cm is:

(A) 50 D (B) 60 D (C) 10 (D) –10 D

26. For sustained fission reaction:

Statement (I): Slow neutrons are much more likely to cause fission than fast neutrons.

Statements (II): Fast neutrons liberated in fission would escape instead of causing another fission reaction.

(A) (I) is correct, (II) is incorrect (B) (I) and (II) both are correct

(C) (I) and (II) both are incorrect (D) (II) is correct, (I) is incorrect

27. To raise temperature in a hydrogen bomb

d← →

i ih

O•


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(A) Fusion reaction is conducted

(B) Fission reaction is conducted

(C) Both fusion & fission is conducted

(D) Any one of fusion or fission can be conducted

28. Statement (I): Bio mass is a renewable source of energy.

Statement (II): hydro power is a renewable source of energy.

(A) (I) is true, (II) is false (B) (II) is true, (I) is false

(C) (I) and (II) both are true (D) (I) and (II) both are false

29. Statement (I): The colour of a scattered light depends on the size of the scattering particles.

Statement (II): It is easier for blue colour to get scattered as compared to red colour.

(A) (I) is correct, (II) is incorrect (B) (I) is incorrect, (II) is correct

(C) (I) and (II) both are correct (D) (I) and (II) both are incorrect

30. In an electrical circuit three incandescent bulbs A, B and C of rating 40 W, 60 W and 100 W respectively and rated voltage 220V each are connected in parallel to an electric source. Which of the following is likely to happen regarding their brightness?

(A) Brightness of all the bulbs will be the same

(B) Brightness of bulbs A will be the maximum

(C) Brightness of bulbs B will be more than that of A

(D) Brightness of bulbs C will be less than that of B

CHEMISTRY .

31. X and Y are two elements having similar properties which obey Newlands’ Law of Octaves. The

minimum and the maximum number of elements in between X and Y respectively are:

(A) 6 and 8 (B) 7 and 15 (C) 8 and 14 (D) 6 and 13

32. Match the following


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Compound formula Class of the compound

a) 2 4C H i) Alkane

b) 7 12C H ii) Alkene

c) 13 28C H iii) Alkyne

d) 5 10C H iv) Possible cyclo alkane

(A) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv (B) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv (C) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (D) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i

33. When a sample of copper (II) carbonate was heated in a hard glass test tube, a gas ‘A’ was evolved

(which turned lime water milky) and a black residue ‘B’ was left in the test tube. When ‘B’ was

dissolved in warm aqueous sulphuric acid, a blue solution ‘C’ was obtained. The correct identification

of A, B and C is given by:

(A) 2 4A CO , B CuO, C CuSO= = = (B)

2 4A CO , B Cu O , C CuSO= = =

(C) 2 2 2A CO , B CuO , C Cu(OH)= = = (D)

2A CO , B CuO , C Cu O= = =

34. When chlorine gas is passed through an aqueous solution of KBr, the solution turns orange brown

due to the formation of:

(A) KCl (B) HCl (C) HBr (D) 2Br

35. Which of the following is(are) endothermic process(s)?

(i) Dilution of sulphuric acid (ii) Sublimation of dry ice

(iii) Condensation of water vapours (iv) Evaporation of water

(A) (i) and (iii) (B) (ii) only (C) (iii) only (D) (ii) and (iv)

36. The gas responsible for under water corrosion of iron and the product of corrosion, respectively, are –

(A) Dissolved oxygen and 2 3 2Fe O H O⋅ x (B) Dissolved hydrogen and

2 3 2Fe O H O⋅ x (C) Dissolved oxygen and

3Fe(OH) (D) Dissolved nitrogen and 3Fe(OH)

37. A redox reaction among the following is:

(A) 2 2CaC l 2KOH Ca(OH ) 2KC l+ → + (B)

2 2 4 4BaCl K SO BaSO 2KCl+ → +

(C) 3 2CaCO CaO CO∆→ + (D)

22Ca O 2CaO+ →

38. 3 2 2 2 3aMg N bH O cMg(OH) dNH+ → +

When the equation is balanced, the coefficients a, b, c, d are related as:


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(A) ac = bd (B) ab = cd (C) a + b = c + d (D) a – b = c – d

39. Observe the following chemical equation and the related analogy. The correct alternative that suits

the analogy is

H2S + Cl2 → S + 2HCI

[Substance reduced]: [oxidising agent]: : [ __________]: [CI2]

(A) HCI (B) H2S (C) S (D) CI2

40. Choose the correct sets which represent the oxides as acidic : basic : neutral : amphoteric respectively.

(i) 2 2CO : M gO : N O : B eO

(ii)

2 2 3SO : N O : CO : A l O

(iii) 2 5 2 3P O : ZnO : NO : Al O (iv)

3 2SO : CaO : N O : PbO

(A) i and ii (B) ii and iii (C) iii and iv (D) iv and i

41. A region of one square meter area was given to each Ansh, Krishna, Prakhar and Prince in a garden.

The daffodil plants grow best in the soil having a pH range of 6.0 to 6.5. The soil available has a pH 4.5,

to grow daffodils.

Ansh added common salt, Krishna added sodium phosphate, Prakhar added aluminium sulphate and

Prince added ammonium chloride in their allotted area. Who was successful in growing daffodil?

(A) Ansh (B) Krishna (C) Prakhar (D) Prince

42. Give the corresponding functional isomer of the product formed when ethanol is treated with ethanoic acid.

(A) Ethyl ethanoate (B) Propanoic acid (C) Butanoic acid (D) Butanone

43. Among HCl, HBr, HF and HI the weakest acid in water is-

(A) HCl (B) HF (C) HBr (D) HI

44. An aqueous solution of HCl has a pH of 2.0. When water is added to increase the pH to 5.0, the

hydrogen ion concentration:

(A) remains the same (B) decreases three – fold

(C) increases three – fold (D) decreases thousand – fold

45. Reaction of NaCl with conc. 2 4H S O liberates a gas X that turns moist blue litmus paper red. When

gas X is passed into a test tube containing egg shell powder suspended in water, another gas Y is

generated which turns lime water milky. The gases X and Y respectively, are–

(A) HCl and 2CO (B)

2C l and 2CO (C)

2SO and 2CO (D)

2S O and HCl


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46. Among K, Mg, Au and Cu, the one which is extracted by heating its ore in air is

(A) K (B) Mg (C) Au (D) Cu

47. Roasting of sulphide ore gives the gas X as a by-product. This is a colorless gas which produces choking smell of burnt sulphur, and causes great damage to respiratory organs as a result of acid formation. Its aqueous solution is acidic and acts as a reducing agent. The gas X is

(A) 2SO (B)

2CO (C) 3SO (D)

2H S

48. Match the following choosing one item from Column I and the appropriate item from Column II.

Column I Column II

(a) Al p. Calamine

(b) Cu q. Bauxite

(c) Mg r. Malachite

(d) Zn s. Carnallite

(A) a→q; b→r; c→s; d→p (B) a→q; b→p; c→r; d→s

(C) a→q; b→s; c→r; d→p (D) a→q; b→r; c→p; d→s

49. 2 3Al O reacts with

(A) only water (B) only acids

(C) only alkalis (D) both acids and alkalis

50. Which of the following element corrodes most rapidly?

(A) Pb (B) Cu (C) Zn (D) Ag

51. A concentrated solution of lead nitrate in water can be stored in-

(A) an iron vessel (B) a copper vessel (C) a zinc vessel (D) a magnesium vessel

52. Reaction of ethanol with concentrated sulphuric acid at 170°C produced a gas which is then treated with bromine in carbon tetrachloride. The major product obtained in this reaction is:

(A) bromoethane (B) ethyl sulphate

(C) ethylene glycol (D) 1, 2-dibromoethane

53. The oxidation number of S in 8 2 2 2S , S F , H S respectively, are:

(A) 0, +1 and –2 (B) +2, +1 and –2 (C) 0, +1 and +2 (D) –2, +1 and –2

54. The IUPAC name for the hydrocarbon represented by the bond line formula is –


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(A) neononane (B) tetraethylcarbon

(C) 2 – ethylpentane (D) 3, 3 – diethylpentane

55. In hexa-1, 3 – dien – 5 – yne, the number of C – C σ bonds, C – C π bonds and C – H σ bonds respectively are

(A) 5, 4 and 6 (B) 5, 3 and 6 (C) 6, 3 and 5 (D) 6, 4 and 5

56. In the reaction.

4Hot alkalineKMnOyeastGlucose X Y→ →

the products X and Y, respectively, are -

(A) 2 5 3C H OH , CH COOH (B)

3CH OH , HCOOH

(C) 2 5 3C H O H , CH CHO (D)

2 5 2 2C H OH , HOCH CH OH

57. The temporary hardness in water is due to which of the following calcium and magnesium compound?

(A) Hydrogen Carbonate (B) Carbonates (C) Chlorides (D) Sulphates

58. Ionization energy is defined as ‘the energy required for removing the most loosely bonded electron from an isolated gaseous atom or ion’.

A(g) A (g) e+ −→ + 1st ionization energy

2A (g) A (g) e+ + −→ + 2nd ionization energy

2 3A (g) A (g) e+ + −→ + 3rd ionization energy

and so on …………………….

Molar Ionisation Energy for Element ‘A’ 1st 2nd 3rd 4th

(kJ/mol) 580 1800 2700 11,600

Identify element A

(A) Nitrogen (B) Oxygen (C) Aluminium (D) Silicon

59. The ratio of the difference between number of hydrogen atoms present in pentene and acetylene to

the difference between number of hydrogen atoms present in ethane and ethylene is:

(A) 3 : 2 (B) 4 : 1 (C) 5 : 4 (D) 4 : 3

60. The elements present in d – block are

(A) metals and non – metals (B) only metals


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(C) only non – metals (D) metals, metalloids and non – metals

BIOLOGY .

61. In the cardiac cycle, diastole is:

(A) The number of heart beats per minute.

(B) The relaxation period after contraction of the heart.

(C) The forceful pumping action of the heart.

(D) The contraction period after relaxation of the heart.

62. Two systems which exert opposite influence on the same organs or set of organs are-

(A) endocrine and exocrine gland system (B) muscular and nervous system

(C) endocrine and nervous system (D) sympathetic and parasympathetic system

63. Syngamy refers to-

(A) fusion of one of the male gamete with the secondary nucleus.

(B) fusion of one of the male gamete with the egg cell.

(C) fusion of one of the male gamete with the egg cell and other with the secondary nucleus.

(D) fusion of one of the male gamete with synergids.

64. Pick the odd one out from each series given below and select the correct option:

(i) Scrotum, testis, fallopian tube, vasdeferens

(ii) Ovary, uterus, vagina, ejaculatory duct

(iii) Acrosome, graffian follicle, corpus luteum, cervix

(iv) Prostate, testis, seminal vesicles, cowper’s gland

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)


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(A) Vasdeferens Vagina Cervix Cowper’s gland

(B) Testis Ovary Graffian follicle Prostate

(C) Scrotum Uterus Corpus luteum Seminal vesicles

(D) Fallopian tube Ejaculatory duct Acrosome Testis

65. Observe the flow chart given below and choose the correct combination of labeling of hormonal control in females.

Hypothalamus

Pituitary

Ovary

1

2

3

4

Negative

feedback

Positive

feedback

(1) (2) (3) (4)

(A) GnRH TSH LTH Uterus

(B) GnRH STH Estrogen and progesterone Uterus

(C) GnRH LH/FSH Estrogen and progesterone Uterus

(D) GnRH ACTH LH Uterus 66. The given flow chart shows the fate of carbohydrate during digestion in the human alimentary canal.

Identify the enzymes acting at stages (1), (2), (3) and (4) and select the correct option.


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Starch

1

Maltose

3

Glucose

Sucrose

4

Fructose

Lactose

2

Galactose

(1) (2) (3) (4) (A) Amylase Maltase Lactase Invertase (B) Amylase Maltase Invertase Lactase (C) Amylase Invertase Maltase Lactase (D) Amylase Lactase Maltase Invertase

67. What is the nature of blood passing through blood vessels (1), (2), (3) and (4).

1 2

3 4

(1) (2) (3) (4)

(A) Deoxygenated blood Oxygenated blood Deoxygenated blood Deoxygenated blood

(B) Oxygenated blood Deoxygenated blood Deoxygenated blood Oxygenated blood

(C) Deoxygenated blood Deoxygenated blood Oxygenated blood Oxygenated blood

(D) Deoxygenated blood Oxygenated blood Deoxygenated blood Oxygenated blood

68. Match the following and choose the correct pairing sequence out of the following provided:


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Column – I Column – II

(i) Loop of Henle (a) Carries blood in to the kidney

(ii) Renal artery (b) Take information from sensory receptors to central nervous system

(iii) Sensory neuron (c) Transmit information from brain to the effector organ

(iv) Glomerulus (d) Ultra filtration of blood

(v) Motor neuron (e) Reabsorption of water

(A) i → e, ii → a, iii → b, iv → d, v → c (B) i → e, ii → a, iii → b, iv → c, v → d

(C) i → a, ii → e, iii → c, iv → d, v → b (D) i → a, ii → b, iii → c, iv → d, v → e

69. In humans, both air and food go through the pharynx, food does not normally enter the wind pipe

because during swallowing of food–

(A) the circular muscles at the front end of trachea contract and closes its opening.

(B) the gullet is covered by epigullet.

(C) the glottis covers the epiglottis.

(D) the epiglottis covers the glottis.

70. Ileum is the–

(A) first part of the small intestine (B) middle part of the small intestine

(C) last part of the small intestine (D) first part of large intestine

71. Hiccup is caused due to –

(A) uncontrolled contraction in intercostal muscles.

(B) uncontrolled contraction in the diaphragm.

(C) uncontrolled contraction in the stomach.

(D) uncontrolled contraction in the kidneys.

72. When diaphragm of man is completely dome – shaped it shows-

(A) begining of expiration and end of inspiration.

(B) end of expiration and begining of inspiration.

(C) increased rate of breathing.

(D) decreased rate of breathing.

73. The first heart sound is–

(A) ‘lub’ sound produced by the closing of AV valves.


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(B) ‘lub’ sound produced by the opening of AV valves.

(C) ‘dub’ sound produced by the closing of semilunar valves.

(D) ‘dub’ sound produced by the opening of semilunar valves.

74. Choose the schematic diagram which properly represents pulmonary circulation in humans.

(A) Left atrium Oxygenated Deoxygenated

blood bloodLungs Right ventricle→ →

(B) Left atrium Deoxygenated Oxygenated

blood bloodLungs Right ventricle→ →

(C) Right ventricle Deoxygenated Oxygenated

blood bloodLungs Left atrium→ →

(D) Right ventricle Oxygenated Deoxygenated

blood bloodLungs Left atrium→ →

75. The given diagram shows axon terminal and synapse. Here (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) respectively

represent what?

1

2

3

4

5

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

(A) Axon terminal Synaptic cleft Synaptic vesicles Neurotransmitters Receptors

(B) Axon terminal Synaptic vesicles Synaptic cleft Receptors Neurotransmi

tters

(C) Synaptic cleft Synaptic vesicles Axon terminal Neurotransmitters Receptors

(D) Synaptic cleft Axon terminal Synaptic vesicles Neurotransmitters Receptors

76. Column–I lists the parts of human brain and column–II lists the function. Match the two columns and

identify the correct choice from those given below.


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Column–I Column–II

(a) Cerebrum (i) Controls the pituitary

(b) Cerebellum (ii) Controls the reflexes of eyes (pupil size)

(c) Hypothalamus (iii) Maintains body posture

(d) Midbrain (iv) Seat of intelligence

(A) a → iv, b → iii, c → i, d → ii (B) a → i, b → ii, c → iii, d → iv

(C) a → iv, b → iii, c → ii, d → i (D) a → iv, b → i, c → iii, d → ii

77. Glucagon and Insulin are –

(A) secreted by same cells and perform similar functions.

(B) secreted by same cells and perform no functions.

(C) secreted by different cells of pancreas and perform antagonistic functions.

(D) secreted by same cells of pancreas and performs antagonistic functions.

78. A person passes much urine and drinks much water but his blood glucose level is normal. The

condition may be result of –

(A) reduction in insulin secretion from pancreas.

(B) reduction in vasopressin secretion from pituitary.

(C) fall in the glucose concentration in urine.

(D) increase in secretion of glucagon.

79. Which among the following statement is correct for parathormone?

(A) It increases blood calcium level and decreases calcium store of the bone.

(B) It decreases blood calcium level and increases calcium store of the bone.

(C) It increases blood glucose level and decreases calcium store of the bone.

(D) It decreases blood glucose level and increases calcium store of the bone.

80. Offspring of which of the following crosses are all phenotypically alike?

(A) Dd × Dd (B) Dd × dd (C) DD × Dd (D) All of these


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81. In a dihybrid F2 progeny from the cross AABB × aabb, the genotypes AABB, AABb, AaBB, aabb will be found in the ratio of –

(A) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (B) 3 : 3 : 1 : 1 (C) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (D) 1 : 2 : 2 : 1

82. A human female with blood group ‘A’ has –

(A) antibody – anti – B on the red blood cells and antigen A in the plasma.

(B) antigen A on the red blood cells and antibody – anti – A in the plasma.

(C) antigen B on the red blood cells and antibody – anti – B in the plasma.

(D) antigen A on the red blood cells and antibody – anti – B in the plasma.

83. Complete the given table showing different possibilities of genotypes and their corresponding blood

group, by selecting the correct option.

Genotype Blood group

IA IA, (i) A

IB IB, (ii) B

(iii) AB

(iv) O

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(A) A AI I B BI I A BI I o oI I

(B) A AI I B BI I A BI I A oI I

(C) A oI I B oI I A BI I B oI I

(D) A oI I B oI I A BI I o oI I

84. In an experiment, A. Weismann cut off tails of new – born mice generation after generation. At the

end of experiment, tails of mice neither disappeared nor shortened. This experiment –

(A) supports Darwin’s theory of natural selection.


20 genius A


(B) proves that tail is an essential organ of vertebrates.

(C) disproves de Vries mutation theory.

(D) disproves Lamarck concept of inheritance of all acquired characters.

85. Fossil ‘X’ is older than fossil ‘Y’. Most evident reason is that:

(A) Fossil ‘Y’ has got some of the vestigial organs which are functional in ‘X’.

(B) Fossil ‘Y’ has got homologous and analogous organs of fossil ‘X’.

(C) Fossil ‘X’ is found in deeper sediment than ‘Y’.

(D) Fossil ‘Y’ was not found in better state than that of ‘X’.

86. Match the following columns and select the correct option:

Column–I Column–II

(P) Grass (i) Primary carnivore

(Q) Grasshopper (ii) Secondary carnivore

(R) Frog (iii) Producer

(S) Hawk (iv) Primary consumer

(A) P → (iii), Q → (ii), R → (i), S → (iv) (B) P → (iii), Q → (i), R → (ii), S → (iv)

(C) P → (iii), Q → (iv), R → (ii), S → (i) (D) P → (iii), Q → (iv), R → (i), S → (ii)

87. What happens in biological magnification?

(A) There is a progressive increase in the number of organisms through trophic levels.

(B) There is a progressive increase in the body weight through trophic levels.

(C) There is a progressive increase in the level of harmful chemical substances through trophic levels.

(D) There is a progressive increase in biological activities through trophic levels.

88. Water harvesting is an age–old concept in India. Column–I represents the different states and

Column–II represents the water harvesting structures. Match the column–I and column–II and choose

the correct option.

Column – I Column – II

(P) Rajasthan (i) Surangams


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(Q) Maharashtra (ii) Kattas

(R) Madhya Pradesh (iii) Eris

(S) Tamil Nadu (iv) Khadins

(T) Kerala (v) Bundhis

(U) Karnataka (vi) Bandharas

(P) (Q) (R) (S) (T) (U)

(A) (iv) (vi) (v) (iii) (i) (ii)

(B) (iv) (vi) (v) (i) (ii) (iii)

(C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi)

(D) (vi) (iv) (iii) (v) (ii) (i)

89. This question contains three statements which may or may not be correct. Read the following

statements carefully and choose the correct option out of the following provided:

Statement (1) : Desert plants take up carbon dioxide at night and prepare an intermediate which is

acted upon by the energy absorbed by the chlorophyll during the day.

Statement (2) : Exchange of gases occurs across the surface of stems and roots apart from the

leaves.

Statement (3) : The guard cells swell when water flows into them, causing the stomatal pore to

open. Similarly the pore closes if the guard cells shrink.

(A) Statements (1), (2) and (3) all are correct.

(B) Statements (1) and (3) are correct while statement (2) is incorrect.

(C) Statements (1) and (2) are incorrect while statement (3) is correct.

(D) Statements (2) and (3) are correct while statement (1) is incorrect.

90. Choose the event that does not occur in photosynthesis.

(A) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll.

(B) Conversion of light energy to chemical energy.

(C) Oxidation of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates.


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(D) Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates.

ENGLISH .

91. Which of the following sentences is WRONG?

(A) She worked in this office from 2003 to 2008.

(B) They came here one month ago

(C) I often went for a morning walk.

(D) He had sent a message yesterday.

92. Which of the following sentences is CORRECT?

(A) I have qualified as a judo instructor in the year 2004.

(B) These grapes are tasting sour.

(C) We had gone to the zoo on Sunday.

(D) None of these

93. You …………… respect your elders.

(A) have to (B) can (C) may (D) ought to

94. When my uncle was young, he …………….. lift upto 25kg weight.

(A) could (B) should (C) might (D) All of these

95. All my furniture ……….. imported.

(A) is (B) are (C) have been (D) None of these

96. Hari or his friends ……………… to be given the responsibility.

(A) do (B) is (C) are (D) None of these

97. Which of the following is CORRECT?

(A) What are you afraid of?

(B) What are you afraid from?

(C) What are you afraid with?


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(D) What are you afraid at?

98. He fell ………… the chair.

(A) from (B) off (C) over (D) down

99. He threw a stone ………….. the dog in order to hit and frighten it away.

(A) at (B) to (C) for (D) towards

100. Which of the following is an odd man out?

(A) Inertia (B) Stagnation (C) Sloth (D) Alignment

A genius 20 - CATJEE

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