1

Which one of the following is a short acting glucocorticoid

Prednisolone Hydrocortisone Dexamethasone Betamethasone

Long-term use of combined oral contraceptive may lead to the following EXCEPT

Hyperuricaemia Hyperglycaemia Hypertension Venous thrombosis

Adverse effects of corticosteroid therapy are following EXCEPT

Hypotension Hyperglycaemia Peptic ulcer Muscle weakness

Long – term use of oral contraceptives produces following adverse reactions EXCEPT

Hypertension Osteoporosis Hyperglycaemia Venous thrombosis

Glibenclamide is used in treatment of diabetes mellitus because

It stimulates insulin release from beta cells

It is safe in the presence of liver damage

It has a very short duration of action

It is useful for juvenile diabetes

Which of the following drugs is used for treatment of thyroid crisis

Methimazole I131 Propylthiouracil Thiocyanates

Uses of mifepristone are following EXCEPT

Antiprogestin Contragestational agent

Gluocorticoid antagonist

Termination of pregnancy in 3rd trimester

Mode of action of acarbose in treatment of diabetes mellitus is

It stimulates insulin secretion

Increases insulin action in tissues

It inhibits intestinal alpha glucosidase

Increases peripheral utilization of glucose

Which of the following drugs is an antiprogestin

Misoprostol Mifepristone Gestodene Norgestrel

Following are side effects of combined oral contraceptive agents EXCEPT

Hypotension Weight gain Breast tenderness Increased incidence of venous thrombosis

Tamoxifen is used for treatment of carcinoma of breast because it is

An alkylating agent

An antimetabolite

A hormone antagonist

A radio – active isotope

Which of the following is used in treatment of endometriosis

Diethylstilbestrol

Danazol Clomiphene Mestranol

Which of the following corticosteroids is given by inhalation

Hydrocortisone Hemisuccinate

Fludrocortisones Betamethasone Dipropionate

Triamcinolone

Which of the following insulin

Lente insulin Regular insulin Ultralente insulin Protamine Zinc insulin

2

preparations is given intravenously Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding betamethasone

It is effective in small doses

It is a potent mineralocorticoid

Its ester can be used by inhalation

Its adverse effects are similar to those produced by hydrocortisone

Indications for the use of glucocorticoids include all the following except

Anaphylactic shock

Rheumatic carditis

Addisons disease Glaucoma

Which of the following is an action of sulphonylurea

Increases formation of insulin

Produces release of insulin

Effective in complete insulin deficiency

Blood sugar reduction occurs only in diabetics

Following are the effects of hormone replacement therapy EXCEPT

Reduced risk of coronary artery disease

Prevention of osteoporosis

Reduction of breast cancer incidence

Suppression of symptoms of menopause

With which of the insulin preparations soluble insulin can bind and SHOULD be mixed only with regular insulin

Semilente insulin

Protamine zinc insulin

Ultra lente insulin Lente insulin

Antabuse like reaction can occur with which of the following antidiabetic drugs

Metformin Chlorpropamide Insulin zinc suspension

Acarbose

Mode of action of sulphonyl ureas includes all the following except

Activating receptors on beta cells of pancreas to release insulin

Inhibiting gluconeogenesis in liver

Enhancing insulin mediated post receptors enzyme reaction

Decreasing Glucose absorption from the gut

Drugs causing hyperglycemia

β- blocker Glucocorticoids Acetylcholine α- blockers

Which of the following drugs is not hypoglycemic

Ethosuxinide Tolbutamide Glibenclamide Chlorpropamide

The various insulin preparations useful in the treatment of diabetes mellitus differ primarily in

Focus of action Onset and duration of action

Mode of biotransformation

None of the above

Steroids Steroids reduce the rate of repair of tissues thus delays the healing

Exacerbate the inflammatory response

Can be safely given to immunocompromised patients

Indicated in oral thrush

Penicillin is effective against

Neisseria meningitis

Neisseria gonorrhea

Treponema pallidum

All of the above

Which drug causes photosensitivity

Tetracycline Amino glycoside Penicillin Cephalosporin

3

Fluconazole is used for the treatment of

Pemphigus Herpes simplex Candidiasis Syphilis

A patients suffering from syphilis is given pencillin. He may develop

Cholestatic Jaundice

Grey syndrome Fanconi Syndrome Jarish – Herxheimer reaction

When broad – spectrum antibiotics are administered with coumarin anticoagulants, the anticoagulant action may be

Reduced because of enhanced hepatic drug metabolism

Reduced because of increased protein – binding

Increased because of reduction of vitamin ‘K’ source

Increased because of decreased renal excretion of the anticoagulant

The mechanism of action of chloramphenicol is inhibition of symthesis of

Cell wall Cell membrane Protein DNA

Prolonged administration of streptomycin may result in damage to the

Optic nerve Facial nerve Auditory nerve Trigeminal nerve

A distinct advantage that tetracyclines have over penicillins is that tetracyclines

Have not side effects

Do not cause superinfections

Are safer to use during pregnancy

Have a wider range of antibacterial activity

Antibiotic that interferes with DNA function is

Metronidazole Nystain Tetracycline Sulphonamides

The drug for choice for treatment of infection involving non-penicillinase producing staphylococcus is

Ampicillin Erythromycin Penicillin G Methicillin sodium

Stepwise mutation for drug resistance is seen with

Penicillin Streptomycin Garamycin Kanamycin

Optic neuritis is a side effect of

Rifampicin INH Pyrazinamide Ethambutol

Tetracycline is more preferred in periodontics because

It is broad spectrum antibiotic

It has anticollagenolytic effect

All of the above None of the above

First line of antitubercular drug is

Streptomycin INH Ethambutol Cephalosporins

All of the following are included in antitubercular therapy except

Isoniazid Rifampicin Pyridoxine Metoclopramide

Penicillinase resistant penicillin is

Methicillin Amoxycilin Carbenicillin Benzyl penicillin

All of the following Procarbazine Vincristine Mechlorethamine Methotrexate

4

drugs are components of the MOPP cancer Chemotherpay regimen EXCEPTAll of the following are bactericidal drugs against Mycobacterium tuberculosis EXCEPT

Rifampicin Isoniazid Pyrazinamide Tetracycline

One of the following is not penicillinase susceptible

Amoxicillin Penicillin G Piperacillin Cloxacillin

Nevirapine is a Protease inhibitor

Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

Non – nucleoside reverse transciptase inhibitor

Fusion inhibitor

Which of the following drug does not show renal toxicity

Gentamycin Streptomycin Methoxyprenaline Isoflurane

AIDS is a disease if the immune system primarily affecting

Granulocytes Immunoglobulins Opsonins T lymphocytes

All are macrolides antibiotics except

Erythromycin Roxithromycin Neomycin Calithromycin

The most preffered acute emetic for emesis induced by anticancer drug is

Ondensetron Metaclopromide Clofazimine Ehthmabutol

True about aminoglycoside is all except

Are bacterostatic

Distributed only extracellular

Excreted unchanged in urine

Teratogenic

Cotrimoxazole is a combination of Trimethoprim with following sulphonamide

Sulfamethoxazole

Sulfacetamide Sulfadiazine Sulfisoxazole

In infections caused by staphylococci which produce betalactamase, which Penicillin is not effective

Oxacillin Cloxacillin Phenoxy methyl Penicillin

Methicillin

Which of the following amino glycosides is used only as topical preparation

Amikacin Framycetin Tobramycin Gentamicin

Which of the following drugs is effective only in tuberculosis and is

Rifampicin Isoniazid Amikacin Ciprofloxacin

5

not effective against any other organism Which antibiotic group should be avoided to be used in children because of potential risk of arthropathy

Fluoroquinolones

Marcrolides Aminoglycosides Semisynthetic penicillins

Which of the following antimalarial drugs acid as an inhibitor of enzyme dihydrofolate reducatse

Chloroquine Quinine Pyrimethamine Mefloquine

In which of the following conditionsMetron- idazole given alone is NOT effective

Amoebic dysentery

Asymptomatic cyst passers

Amoebic liver abscess

Amoeboma

Which of the following is applicable to Amoxycillin

It has broad spectrum of activity

It is acid labile Does not produce hypersensitivity reaction

Has a very long half life

Which of the following statements is NOT APPLICABLE to penicillin G

Highly toxic antibiotic

Produce hypersensitivity reaction

Super infections are rare

Poor oral efficacy

Which one of the following extended spectrum penicillins is effective against pseudomonas

Ampicillin Amoxicillin Ticarcillin Cloxacillin

Which of the following drugs is a betalactamase inhibitor

Imipenem Mecillinam Clavulanic acid Aztreonam

Which of the following antibacterial drug inhibits heptic cytochrome P450 drug metabolizing enzyme system and leads to clinically significant drug interaction

Erythromycin Roxithromycin Clarithromycin Ampicillin

Which one of the following antiviral agents does not act as anti retroviral

Zidovudine Stavudine Amantadine Didanosine

Bacterial cell wall synthesis is inhibited

Penicillin Cephalosporins Vancomycin Doxycycline

6

by all the following antibiotics EXCEPTWhich of the following statement is APPLICABLE to trimethoprim

It is bactericidal when used alone

It is bactericidal when combined with sulphonamides

Not effective for treatment of Prostatitis

Has a very short half life

Which of the following drugs can be used for treatment of urinary tract infection during pregnancy

Co – trimoxazole Tetracyclines Nitrofurantoin Cephalosporins

Which of the following antitubercular drugs has poor penetration into macrophages

Isoniazid Pyrazinamide Thiacetazone Rifampicin

Metronidozole is NOT effective for treatment of

Intestinal amoebiasis

Extra – intestinal amoebiasis

Aerobic infections Trichomoniasis

Which of the following drugs is NOT effective in Leishmaniasis

Urea stibamine Allopurinol Pentamidine Suramine

For which of the following drugs peripheral neuritis is associated as adverse effect

Rifampicin Isoniazid Ethionamide Rifabutin

Which of the following quinolones has broader spectrum of activity against gram positive and gram negative organisms

Ciprofloxacin Sparfloxacin Nalidixic acid Pefloxacin

Which of the following antiamoebic drugs is also effective in anaerobic infection

Paromomycin Metronidazole Emetine Chloroquine

Artemether is administered in adults by following route and duration schedule

Intramuscular for three to five days

Oral for seven days

Subcutaneous for seven days

Intravenous for two days

Which of the following is a serious toxicity of cyclosporine

Agranuloytosis Thrombocytopenia

Hepatotoxicity Nephrotoxicity

Which of the following drugs can cause

Rifampicin Amikacin Isoniazid Ethambutol

7

hyperuricaemia as adverse effectInterference with cell wall synthesis of bacteria is the mode of action of all the following antimicrobial drugs EXCEPT

Bacitracin Vancomycin Cephalosporins Chloramphenicol

Which of the following antifungal agents is also effective in leishmaniasis

Nystatin Amphotericin B Hamycin Clotrimazole

Antibiotic combinations are indicated except

To produce synergistic effect

To decrease adverse reactions

To treat mixed infections

To reduce cost to the patient

Following antitubercular drugs are administered by oral route EXCEPT

Isoniazid Pyrazinamide Rifampicin Streptomycin

Mefloquine is indicated in

Cerebral malaria Chloroquine resistant P. falciparum

As a radical cure for P. vivax

Routine use for treatment of malaria

Which of the following Cephalosporins can be given orally

Cefoxitin Cefotaxime Ceftazidime Cefuroxime axetil

Which of the following Penicillins can cause bleeding as an adverse effect

Cloxacillin Carbenicillin Amoxicillin Methicillin

Zidovudine is used for treatment of HIV infection because

It can cure the infection

It inhibits viral reverse transcriptase

Resistance to the drug does not develop

It eradicates the infection when used singly

All of the following drugs are effective for hookworm infection EXCEPT

Bephenium carbamazine

Diethyl carbamazine

Albendazole Pyrantel Pamoate

The mechanism of action of sulfonamide is

Inhibition of synthesis of PABA

Inhibition of synthesis of cell membranes

Inhibition of protein synthesis

Interfering with ergosterol synthesis

Which of the following is NOT TRUE of gentamicin

It is given orally It has synergistic action with Penicillin but should not be combined in the same syringe

Used for topical application to skin

It is nephrotoxic

Jarisch – Herxheimer reaction is produced by

Tetracycline Erythromycin Penicillin Fluoroquinolones

Quinine is used for P. falciparum treatment

It has no adverse

Effective in multidrug

Toxicity is much less than chloroquine

Resistance to quinine is not

8

because cardiovascular effects

resistant strains known to occur

Which drug is effective for treatment of anaerobic infectious

Furazolidone Secnidazole Clotrmazole Econazole

Half – life of mefloquine is

2 – 4 hours 12 – 24 hours 3 – 6 days 2 – 3 weeks

Enzyme dihydrofolate reducatse is inhibited by

Sulfonamide Rifampicin Trimethoprim Para aminosalicylic acid

Which of the following penicillin derivatives is active against Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Methicilin Ampicillin Oxacillin Ticarcillin

Which of the following cephalosporins is active against Pseudomonas

Cefuroxime Cefaclor Ceftazidime Cefixime

Which of the following adverse effects is NOT observed with aminoglycoside antibiotics

Anaphylactic reaction

Renal toxicity Ototoxicity Curare like action

Which of the following antibiotics has a chelating property

Chloramphenicol

Penicillin Erythromycin Tetracycline

Pyridoxine is used for treatment of isoniazid induced

Neurotoxicity Hepatotoxicity Arthralgia Drug resistance

The phenomenon of antibiosis was demonstrated by

Chain and Florey Waksman L Pasteur Fleming

Which of the following drug(s) is/are bacteriostatic

Nalidixic acid Cotrimoxazole Ethambutol Penicillin

Drug (s) to be avoided in liver disease is/are

Erythromycin estolate

Nalidixic acid Tetracyclines All of the above

Which of the following drug combinations is most appropriate

Penicillin + streptomycin

Penicillin + tetracycline

Penicillin + sulfonamide

Streptomycin + chloramphenicol

Isoproteronol is Most potent sympathomimetic bronchodilator

Least potent sympathomimetic bronchodilator

Most potent sympathomimetic bronchoconstrictor

None of the above

9

Threshold value for fast channel action potential (AP) is

Lower than slow channel AP

Greater than level than slow channel AP

Less negative level than slow channel AP

Both B and C

Which of the following 5HT receptor antagonists increases appetite and causes weight gain

Ketanserin Cyproheptadine Methysergide Clozapine

Which of the following drugs is used in treatment of acute migraine

Buspirone Propranolol Sumatriptan Mianserin

CNS depressant drug which produces sleep but patient may be awakened by inducing pain. This type of drug is called

Antileptic Antisympathetic Sedative Hypnotic

Common side effect associated with all NSAID drugs is

Drowsiness Gastric irritation Xerostomia Constipation

Which of the following antihistaminies are effective in preventing motion sickness

Cetirizine Cyclizine Chlorpheniramine Astemizole

Mechanism of action of digitalis is/are

Inhibition of voltage gated calcium ion (Ca++) channel

Inhibition of Na+ K+ ATPase enzyme

Inhibition of Na+ K+ voltage gated channel

All of the above

Torsades De pontes is produced as adverse effect by

Cyclizine Terfenadine Pheniramine Promethazine

Drug of choice for congestive heart failure in emergency is

Digitoxin Digoxin Lanatoside – C Ouabain

Most of the drugs used for treatment of migraine act through

Adrenergic receptors

Dopaminergic receptors

5HT receptors GABA receptors

Antiseptic action of ethyl alcohol is maximum at which of the following concentration

20 to 70% 70 to 90% 90 to 100% 100%

Which of the following is only a venodilator

Hydralzine Glyceryl trinitrate

Minoxidil Nifedipine

Which of the following is short

Isosorbide mononitrate

Glyceryl trinitrate

Erythrityl tetranitrate

Penta erythritol tetranitrate

10

acting Which of the following drugs has highest polarity

Digitoxin Digoxin Lanatoside – C Ouabain

All are true of Benzodiazepines except

Diazepam is used in treatment of status epileptius

Benzodiazepam is in the long term treatment of psychic disorders

Clonazepam is used in the treatment of petitmal epilepsy

None of the above

Which of the following diuretics is used in treatment of Glaucoma

Furosemide Acetazolamide Spironolactone Hydrochlorothiazide

Quinidine is contraindicated with digoxin because

Combination causes hypokalemia

Quinidine increases plasma concentration of digoxin. Digoxin toxicity may be precipitated

Digoxin increases plasma concentration of quinidine. Quinidine toxicity may be precipitated

None of the above

First drug of choice for ventricular tachycardia is

Lidocaine Quinidine Verapamil Adenosine

Hypolipidemic drug acting by mechanism of bile acid binding is

Gemfibrozil Probucol Nicotinic acid Cholestyramine

Promethazine is an Antihistaminic Pre-anaesthetic medication

Antiemetic drug All of the above

Unfavourable effect on serum lipid profile is an adverse effect of which of the following drugs

Propranolol Nifedipine Enalapril Alpha methyl dopa

Which of the following benzodiazepines do not produce any active metabolite in the body

Diazepam and chlorodiazepoxide

Flurazepam and alprazolam

Oxazepam and lorazepam

All of the above

Which one of the following antiarrhythmic drugs in therapeutic doses does not cause ECG changes

Procainamide Lignocaine Quindine Flecainide

Diuretics are contraindicated with digitalis because of

Risk of hyperkalemia

Risk of hypokalemia

Risk of hypercalcaemia

Risk of hypocalcaemia

Which of the following is a centrally acting antihypertensive agent

Hexamethonium Alpha-methyl dopa

Diazoxide Sodium nitroprusside

Variant Prinzmetal’s Emotion Exercise Coitus None of the above

11

angina is usually provoked byOrganic nitrates in low doses cause

More vasodilatation than arterial dilatation

More arterial dilatation than venodilatation

Effect is equal on both types of blood vessels

The vasodilator effect on both types of blood vessels is not dose – dependant

Which of the following is an inducing agent used in general anaesthesia

Enflurane Nitrous oxide Methohexitone sodium

Ketamine

With which of the following drugs, abrupt withdrawal may result in rebound hypertension

Guanethidine Clonidine Nifedipine Atenolol

Methaemoglobinaemia after prolonged use of high doses can occur with which of the following antianginal drugs

Organic nitrates Diltiazem Nifedipine Propranolol

Chlorpromazine is a Barbiturate Tricylic anti depressant

MAO inhibitor Phenothiazine

Which of the following antihypertensive drugs has mechanism of action other than inhibition or Renin – Angiotensin system

Enalapril Saralasin Hydralazine Ramipril

Which of the following drugs is used for hypertension during pregnancy

ACE inhibitors Labetaolol Hydrochlorothiazide Alpha methyl dopa

Benzodiazepines have

High therapeutic index

Low therapeutic index

Either high or low therapeutic index

Unpredictable therapeutic index

Enalapril acts as an antihypertensive agent because

It is calcium channel blocker

It is ACE inhibitor It is an angiotensin receptor antagonist

It is an alpha blocker

Mechanism/s of action of GTN (glyceryl trinitrate) in variant angina is/are

Through dilator effect on larger coronary vessels

Through reduction of cardiac work

Both of the above Through unmasking of latent pacemakers

Which of the following methyl xanthenes is used in CNS stimulation

Caffeine Theophylline Theobromine All of the above

Which one of the Beta endorphin Enkephalins Dynorphins Interleukins

12

following is not an endogenous opioid peptideWhich of the following Benzodiazepines has longest elimination half-life

Flurazepam Midazolam Triazolam Diazepam

Mechanism of action of ‘sodium valproate’ is

Prolongation of sodium ion channel inactivation

Facilitation of GABA mediated chloride ion channel opening

Inhibition of ‘T’ type calcium ion current

All of the above

Mechanism of action of guanethidine as an antihypertensive drug is by

Displacing NA (noradrenaline) from storage granules stoichiometrically

Inhibiting nerve impulse coupled release of NA

Blocking the NA uptake mechanism at the axonal membrane

All of the above

Which of the following drugs is not useful for treatment of Parkinsonism

Amantadine Alpha methyl dopa

Benztropine Bromocriptine

Which of the following drugs are currently the mainstay of treatment of depressive psychosis

Second generation tricyclic antidepressents

MAO inhibitors Barbiturates Phenothiazenes

Sulfinpyrazone is used in treatment of Gout because of

Anti inflammatory activity

Inhibition of uric acid synthesis

Uricosuric action Analgesic activity

Inverse agonist for benzodiazepine receptor is

Barbiturate Beta – Carboline Picrotoxin Muscimol

Histamine receptor associated with acid secretion is

H1 H2 H3 None of the above

Termination of action of which barbiturate is brought about by redistribution

Phenobarbitone Thiopentone Secobarbitone Pentobarbitone

Which of the following NSAID should not be used in patients with G-6- PD deficiency

Aspirin Flurbiprofen Diclofenac Paracetamol

“Buspirone” is an Antianxiety drug Antidepressant drug

Antipsychotic drug Antimanic drug

Which of the following effects is not produced by ethyl alcohol

Diuresis Cutaneous vasodilation

Euphoria Potent analgesia

13

The following drugs are avoided with warfarin

Antacids Benzodiazepine NSAIDs like Aspirin Codeine, dihydrocodeine, paracetmol

The antidote for heparin is

Penicillinase Protamine sulphate

Pryosulphate Potassium sulphate

Agents/Drugs which help in rapid coagulation of Blood

Astringents Styptics Haemostatics All of the above

Warfarin therapy is prolonged by all except

Rifampicin Amoxicillin Erythromycin Tetracycline

Heparin, apart from releasing lipoprotein lipase in the blood exerts its anti – coagulant action by

Binding to calcium

Inhibiting fibrinogen synthesis

Inhibiting prothrombin synthesis

Inhibiting thrombin synthesis

Which of the following statements is not correct regarding warfarin

Transient hypercoagulability is seen

Better avoided during pregnancy as it may cause skeletal deformity of the foetus

In a racemic mixture the R from is four times more active than the S form

The anticoagulant effect is seen only after 72 hours of administration

Percentage of total body iron distributed to myoglobin is

66 % 25 % 3 % 6 %

The anticoagulant of choice during pregnancy is

Warfarin sodium Sodium oxalate Heparin Phenindone

Clopidogrel is an Anti hypertensive drug

Antidiabetic drug Antiplatelet drug Anticoagulant drug

A factor which a mucopolysaccaride, present in liver, participating in platelet aggregation is

Plasmin Acetylsalicylic acid

Heparin Prothrombin

Oral iron formulation is

Isosorbital citrate

Iron dextran Both A and B Ferrous sulfate

Oral anticoagulant is Low molecular weight heparin

Heparan sulfate Lepirudin Dicumarol

Which of the following is produced by recombinant DNA technology for clinical use

Folic acid Vitamin B12 Erythropoietin Vitamin B complex

The dose of aspirin for inhibition of platelet aggregation is

75mg 600mg 1gm 4gms

Vitamin K2 is specific antagonist for treatment of

Warfarin Heparin Dicoumarol Phenindione

14

overdose of all except Parenteral iron therapy is used

If oral is not tolerated

Only by I.V. route Because it is free from adverse drug reactions

Intravenously as a bolus

Which of the following is a specific chelator of iron

EDTA Desferrioxamine Penicillamine Dimercaprol

Following drugs inhibit platelet aggregation except

Ticlopidine Dipyridamole Therapeutic dose of Heparin

Aspirin

Which of the following agents increases oral iron absorption

Ascorbic acid Tetracycline Phytates Aluminium hydroxide

Iron preparation which can be administered by both I.M or I.V route is

Iron sorbitol citric acid

Iron choline citrate

Ferric ammonium citrate

Iron dextran

Which of the following fibrinolytics is not produced by recombinant DNA technology

Alteplase Reteplase Streptokinase Tenecteplase

Menadione is a synthetic form of

Vit A Vit D Vit E Vit K

Drugs which reduce the action of oral anticoagulants are

Barbiturates and oral contraceptives

Broad spectrum antibiotics

Chloramphenicol and erythromycin

Phenytoin and phenylbutazone

Ticlopidine is an Anti-inflammatory drug

Antibiotic Anti-arthritic drug Antiplatelet drug

Which of the following is used in monitoring the dose of oral anticoagulants

Prothrombin time

Bleeding time Clotting time Plasma thromboplastin time

Which of the following is administered for urgent reversal of warfarin therapy

Cryoprecipitate Platelet concentration

Fresh frozen plasma Packed red blood cells

BAL is Penicillamine Disodium edentate

Dimercaprol Desferroxamine

Chelating agent used in arsenic poisoning is

Dimercaprol Penicillamine Calcium disodium edentate

Desferrioxamine

In a patient of megaloblastic anemia, the preferred line of therapy is

Vit B12 alone Folic acid alone Vit B12 + folic acid Iron supplements

Facial vein in Superficial to Deep to Pierces mylohyoid None of the above

15

digastric triangle lies mylohyoid mylohyoidJugular venous arch is formed by

Internal jugular veins

External jugular veins

Anterior jugular veins

All of the above

Lymphatics of orbit train into

Sub mandibular lymphnodes

Post auricular parotid lymphnodes

Pre auricular parotid lymphnodes

Cervical lymphnodes

Which of the following is assumed to have similar function as carotid body

Tympanic body Carotid sinus Glomus jugulare A and C

Epicranius consists of Occipitofrontalis Parieto temporalis

Both of the above None of the above

Bony labyrinth of internal ear consists of

Cochlea Endolymph Perilymph B and C

Submandibular gland is divided into 2 parts by

Hyoglossus Geniohyoid Mylohyoid Stylohyoid

Submandibular duct is wound around by

Hypoglossal nerve

Lingual nerve Facial artery Lingual artery

Lateral surface of superficial part of submandibular salivary gland is related to the following except

Lateral pterygoid muscle

Medial pterygoid muscle

Facial artery loop Submandibular fossa of mandible

Secretomotor fibres to lacrimal gland pass through ______ nerve

Chordatympanic Nervus intermedius

Auriculo temporal None of the above

The smell of rancid butter is due to

Butyric acid Palmitic acid Oleic acid Linoleic acid

Multienzyme complex in humans is

Fatty acid synthetase

Malonyl CoA carboxylase

Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase

Adenosine phosphoribosyl transferase

The rancidity of oils can be prevented by

Tocopherol Copper Vitamin C All of the above

Butter fat is unique in its content of

Saturated fatty acids

Unsaturated fatty acids

Higher chain fatty acids

Lower chain fatty acids

Which ketone body does not possess a keto group

Acetone Acetoacetic acid β – hydroxybutyric acid

None of the above

The ketosis is due to absence of ________ enzyme in the liver

Thiolase Deacylase Thiophorase None of the above

The whole cholesterol molecule is completely synthesized from

Glycerol Fatty acid Glucose Acetyl CoA

The rate limiting step in cholesterol

HMG CoA Synthase

HMG CoA reductase

Mevalonate kinase All of the above

16

biosynthesis isHypercholesterolemia is not found in

Hyperthyroidism Nephritic syndrome

Hypothyroidism Obstructive jaundice

Which of the following is not a disease of cholesterol deposition

Xanthomatosis Fatty infiltration of liver

Atherosclerosis Cholelithiasis