220-601 Test[1]

Which new technology protects a CPU from heat damage by slowing the clock rate on the CPU?

Explanation: The CPU throttle technology protects a CPU from heat damage by slowing the clock rate on the CPU. CPU throttling is a feature that protects a CPU from heat damage. When a CPU is not cooled properly and the temperature of the CPU becomes high, the CPU throttle technology slows the clock rate on the CPU to prevent further overheating and damage. When the clock rate of a CPU is reduced, it requires very little power to operate, and thus the heat generation is also reduced. The CPU throttling technology also causes the system to operate at a lower speed. For example, if the actual speed of the CPU is 1 GHz, after throttling down the clock rate, the CPU might show only 500 MHz.

MMX technology was introduced in the fifth-generation Pentium processors to improve video compression/decompression, image manipulation, encryption, and I/O processing. MMX technology does not protect a CPU from heat damage by slowing the clock rate. HT technology allows a single processor to handle two independent sets of instructions at the same time. HT technology converts a single physical processor into two virtual processors. HT technology was introduced by Intel in its line of Xeon processors for servers in March 2002. HT technology does not protect a CPU from heat damage by slowing down the clock rate.

The superscalar execution technology enables a processor to execute multiple instructions at the same time. The superscalar execution technology provides additional performance; it is featured in the fifth-generation Pentium and newer processors. The superscalar execution technology does not protect a CPU from heat damage by slowing down the clock rate.

Laptops and Portable Devices

Item: 16 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.4.3)

nmlkj CPU throttle technology

nmlkj MMX technology

nmlkj Hyper-threading (HT) technology

nmlkj Superscalar execution technology

Answer:

CPU throttle technology

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Copyright © 2009 Transcender LLC, a Kaplan Professional Company. All Rights Reserved.

A user, named George, reports that his portable computer overheats frequently. You inspect George's computer and discover that the air vents are open. What is the MOST likely cause of this problem?

Explanation: The most likely cause is accumulated dust on the heatsink fins. Heatsinks are used to draw the heat away from the chip. Almost all modern computers use heatsinks that have incorporated fans so they do not have to rely on the airflow within the system. Heatsinks with fans are referred to as active heatsinks. Heatsinks become less effective over time due to accumulated dust on the fins. The dust reduces the ability of a heatsink to transfer heat to the ambient air. Sometimes the dust also causes the fan to make noise. Usually, fans on portable computers make some noise at the time of booting. But if the noise has increased, you should clean the heatsink fins by using canned air. If all fan noise suddenly quits, chances are that the fan has stopped completely and the machine should be serviced immediately.

A faulty fan would not be the most likely cause of the problem in this scenario because the user is able to use his computer. To prevent damage to the hardware, most modern computers are designed to shut down if their temperature has reached beyond its core temperature. Therefore, if the fan is not working, the user will not be able to operate his computer.

A faulty battery or faulty AC adapter would not be the most likely cause of the problem in this scenario. A faulty battery and a faulty AC adapter will prevent the portable computer from booting up. A faulty battery or a faulty AC adapter does not cause a portable computer to overheat.

Item: 19 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.3.2)

nmlkj dust has accumulated on the heatsink fins

nmlkj the fan is not working

nmlkj the battery has become faulty

nmlkj the AC adapter is not working

Answer:

dust has accumulated on the heatsink fins

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What should be your first step when calibrating the battery of a portable computer running Windows XP?

Explanation: You should first disable the Windows Power Management when calibrating the battery of a portable computer. The cells of a battery gradually suffer irreversible capacity loss over time. The battery's state-of-charge is not fully synchronized with the battery's fuel gauge by short discharges and recharges. This can cause the battery meter to display an inaccurate charge or reduce the amount of power available in one cycle. To avoid these problems, you should regularly calibrate the battery of your portable computer. It is recommended that you calibrate the batteries at least once every three months under normal usage. To calibrate the battery on your portable computer, you should perform the following steps:

1. Disable the Windows Power Management by configuring the Always On power scheme and selecting the Never option for each of the drop-down list on the Power Options Properties dialog box.

2. Fully charge the battery by connecting the AC adapter to the portable computer until the Windows battery meter displays 100%.

3. Fully discharge the battery by removing the AC adapter and keeping the computer on until the battery has completely drained and the computer automatically turns off.

4. Fully charge the battery by connecting the AC adapter to the portable computer and enable the Windows Power Management by selecting the Portable/Laptop power scheme.

Your first step should not be to fully charge the battery, fully discharge the battery, or unplug the AC adapter. To calibrate the battery of a portable computer running Windows XP, you should first disable the Windows Power Management.

Item: 20 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.3.7)

nmlkj Fully charge the battery.

nmlkj Disable the Windows Power Management.

nmlkj Fully discharge the battery.

nmlkj Unplug the AC adapter.

Answer:

Disable the Windows Power Management.

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You need to configure a portable computer to ensure that the computer stores all unsaved data in memory on the hard disk before shutting down.

How should you configure the Power Options Properties dialog box?

Explanation: You should select the Enable hibernation check box on the Hibernate tab of the Power Options Properties dialog box. Windows XP provides two basic options, Standby or Hibernate, for putting a portable computer to sleep when it is not used actively. When your portable computer hibernates, it saves an image of your desktop with all open files and documents to the hard disk before completely powering down. When you turn on the power, the files and documents are restored on the desktop. You can use the following two methods to enable hibernation on a portable computer running Windows XP:

� Start > Control Panel > Power Options > Hibernate > Enable hibernation

� Right-click on the desktop > Properties > Screen Saver > Power > Hibernate > Enable hibernation

You should not select the Stand by option in the When I press the power button on my computer list on the Advanced tab of the Power Options Properties dialog box. Standby mode causes the entire computer to switch to a low-power state, reducing the power consumption of the portable computer by cutting power to hardware components that are not in use. The Standby mode does not completely shut down a computer; instead, it maintains power to the computer's memory to ensure that you do not lose your work. The Standby mode does not store whatever it has in memory on the hard disk.

You should not select the Hibernate option in the When I close the lid of my portable computer list on the Advanced tab of the Power Options Properties dialog box. This option causes a portable computer to either hibernate or stand by when you close the lid of that computer. However, you must first enable the hibernation on a computer to successfully hibernate the computer.

You should not select the Stand by option in the When I press the sleep button on my computer list on the Advanced tab of the Power Options Properties dialog box. The Standby mode does not completely shut down a computer; instead, it maintains power to the computer's memory to ensure that you do not lose your work. The Stand by mode does not store unsaved data in memory on the hard disk.

Item: 23 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.2.4)

nmlkj Select the Enable hibernation check box on the Hibernate tab.

nmlkj Select the Stand by option in the When I press the power button on my computer list on the Advanced tab.

nmlkj Select the Hibernate option in the When I close the lid of my portable computer list on the Advanced tab.

nmlkj Select the Stand by option in the When I press the sleep button on my computer list on the Advanced tab.

Answer:

Select the Enable hibernation check box on the Hibernate tab.

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How should you configure a portable computer to ensure that the computer stores data in memory on the hard disk before it shuts down when you press the power button?

Explanation:

You should select the Hibernate option in the When I press the power button on my computer list on the Advanced tab of the Power Options Properties dialog box. You can configure three different settings under the Power buttons heading on the Advanced tab of the Power Options Properties dialog box on a Windows XP computer. You can configure the computer to either hibernate, stand by, or shut down when you close the lid of a portable computer, press the power button, or press the sleep button on the computer. To ensure that the computer stores whatever it has in memory on the hard disk before it shuts down when you press the power button, you should select the Hibernate option in the When I press the power button on my computer list. When you hibernate your laptop, an image of your desktop with all open files and documents is saved to the hard disk and then the system is powered down completely. When you turn on the power, the files and documents are opened on the desktop exactly as they were left. To be able to hibernate a computer, you should first enable hibernation on that computer. You should select the Enable hibernation check box on the Hibernate tab of the Power Options Properties dialog box to enable hibernation. You can use the following two methods to enable hibernation on a portable computer running Windows XP:

� Start > Control Panel > Power Options > Hibernate > Enable hibernation

� Right-click the desktop > Properties > Screen Saver > Power > Hibernate > Enable hibernation

You should not select the Standby option in the When I press the power button on my computer list on the Advanced tab of the Power Options Properties dialog box. This causes the computer to go in Standby mode each time you press the power button on the computer. The Standby mode does not completely shut down a computer and maintains power to the computer's memory to ensure that you don't lose your work. The Standby mode does not store whatever it has in memory on the hard disk.

You should not select the Standby option in the When I press the sleep button on my computer list on the Advanced tab of the Power Options Properties dialog box. Selecting this causes the computer to go in Standby mode each time the sleep button is pressed. In this scenario, you want to ensure that the computer stores whatever it has in memory on the hard disk before it shuts down when you press the power button. Therefore, you should select the Hibernate option in the When I press the power button on my computer list.

You should not select the Hibernate option in the When I press the sleep button on my computer list on the Advanced tab of the Power Options Properties dialog box. Selecting the Hibernate option in the When I press the sleep button on my computer list causes the computer to hibernate each time the sleep button is pressed. In this scenario, you want to configure the computer to hibernate each time the power button is pressed. Therefore, you should select the Hibernate option in the When I press the power button on my computer list.

Item: 24 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.2.3)

nmlkj Select the Standby option in the When I press the power button on my computer list on the Advanced tab of the Power Options Properties dialog box.

nmlkj Select the Hibernate option in the When I press the power button on my computer list on the Advanced tab of the Power Options Properties dialog box.

nmlkj Select the Standby option in the When I press the sleep button on my computer list on the Advanced tab of the Power Options Properties dialog box.

nmlkj Select the Hibernate option in the When I press the sleep button on my computer list on the Advanced tab of the Power Options Properties dialog box.

Answer:

Select the Hibernate option in the When I press the power button on my computer list on the Advanced tab of the Power Options Properties dialog box.

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What should you do to configure the Dualview feature on a portable computer running Windows XP? (Choose two.)

Explanation: To configure the Dualview feature on a portable computer, you should plug a second monitor into the video port, select the second monitor on the Settings tab of the Display Properties dialog box, and select the Extend my Windows desktop onto this monitor check box. Dualview is a feature in Windows XP that allows you to work on multiple monitors. Portable computers usually include a port to which you can connect a separate monitor. Dualview allows you to expand the display across both monitors. Similar to Dualview, the multiple monitors feature of Windows XP allows you to choose a monitor that will function as the primary monitor. The primary monitor is one on which you log in and start your programs. When you use Dualview on a portable computer, the primary display must always be the portable computer's LCD screen.

You should not install a new video adapter and appropriate drivers for the adapter because most portable computers include a port to which you can connect a second monitor. Installing a new video adapter and appropriate drivers for the adapter would be required while configuring the multiple monitors feature on a Windows XP desktop computer.

You should not select the second monitor on the Settings tab of the Display Properties dialog box, and select the Use this device as the primary monitor check box. The Use this device as the primary monitor check box allows you specify a monitor that will function as primary monitor. When you use Dualview on a portable computer, the primary display must always be the portable computer's LCD screen.

Item: 33 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.1.1)

gfedc Install a new video adapter and the appropriate drivers for the adapter.

gfedc Plug a second monitor into the video port on the portable computer.

gfedc Select the second monitor, and select the Extend my Windows desktop onto this monitor check box.

gfedc Select the second monitor, and select the Use this device as the primary monitor check box.

Answer:

Plug a second monitor into the video port on the portable computer.

Select the second monitor, and select the Extend my Windows desktop onto this monitor check box.

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You frequently operate your Windows 2000 Professional portable computer on battery power when you are traveling. When you use battery power, your Windows 2000 Professional computer is configured to enter standby mode after 15 minutes of inactivity. Which components are turned off in this mode? (Choose two.)

Explanation: In standby mode, your Windows 2000 Professional portable computer will turn off the hard disk and the LCD screen. The CPU will reduce its power consumption in standby mode, but the CPU and keyboard will not be turned off completely. You can wake a computer from standby mode by pressing a key on the keyboard, pressing a mouse button, or moving the mouse. Standby mode is useful for saving battery power on a portable computer.

The hibernate mode offers further savings in battery power. In hibernate mode, the contents of RAM are written to a hard disk, and the computer powers down completely. In hibernate mode, a computer's CPU, hard disk, keyboard, and LCD screen are turned off. You can wake a computer from hibernate mode by pressing the power button, which powers up the computer, and transfers the saved contents of memory from the hard disk back to RAM. You can configure power settings on your Windows 2000 Professional computer by using the Power Options Properties dialog box. You can view the Power Options Properties dialog box by double-clicking the Power Options icon in Control Panel.

Item: 39 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.1.10)

gfedc the CPU

gfedc the monitor

gfedc the keyboard

gfedc the hard disk

Answer:

the monitor

the hard disk

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Which of the following images represents a PS/2 mouse connector?

Explanation: The following image is a PS/2 mouse connector:

The PS/2 mouse connector has 6 pins and is usually green in color. The PS/2 mouse connector is also known as mini-DIN 6 connector. The following image is a serial connector:

A serial port is also known as a DB-9 male connector or RS-232 connector. This port has 9 pins. The following image is an AT keyboard connector:

Item: 46 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.1.17)

nmlkj

nmlkj

nmlkj

nmlkj

Answer:

of 396


An AT keyboard connector is also known as a DIN-5 connector on the motherboard The following image is a PS/2 keyboard connector:

A PS/2 keyboard connector has 6 pins. A PS/2 keyboard connector is also known as a mini-DIN 6 connector. A PS/2 keyboard connector is usually purple in color.

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What is a new type of biodegradable cleaner that is more effective and more economical for cleaning circuit board and contacts than traditional cleaners?

Explanation: Citrus-based cleaners are a new type of biodegradable cleaner that are more effective and more economical for cleaning circuit board and contacts. The two commonly known citrus-based cleaners are d-limonene and a-pinene. The d-limonene citrus terpenes are derived from orange peels and a-pinene is derived from pine trees. However, you must take precautions while using these cleaners because they can cause swelling of some plastics, especially silicon rubber and PVC.

A mixture of isopropyl alcohol and water is not a new type of biodegradable cleaners used to clean circuit boards and contacts. Isopropyl alcohol and water is the most appropriate solution to clean a portable computer's LCD screen. You should use a lint-free and dust-free cloth to clean a LCD screen. While cleaning an LCD screen, you should always spray the liquid on the cleaning cloth and then gently wipe the LCD screen in a consistent motion. You should never spray the solution directly on the LCD screen.

Trichloroethane is not a new type of biodegradable cleaner. Trichloroethane is an effective cleaner that was at one time used to clean components, electrical connectors, and contacts because it does not damage plastic and board materials. However, trichloroethane is not a biodegradable cleaner and is now being regulated as a chlorinated solvent.

Ammonia-based solvents are not a new type of biodegradable cleaner and are not used to clean components, electrical connectors, and contacts.

Item: 55 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.4.5)

nmlkj Mixture of isopropyl alcohol and water

nmlkj Trichloroethane

nmlkj Ammonia-based solvents

nmlkj Citrus-based cleaners

Answer:

Citrus-based cleaners

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Which statements are true concerning the FAT32 file system? (Choose two.)

Explanation: The File Allocation Table 32 (FAT32) file system uses smaller cluster sizes than FAT16, and it supports shared-folder security. Microsoft developed the FAT32 file system, which was first supported by Windows 95 OEM Service Release 2 (OSR2) as an answer to growing hard disk capacities. FAT16 is limited to 2 GB partitions; in contrast, FAT32 supports a theoretical upper limit of 8 terabytes (TB) maximum partition size. FAT32 stores data more efficiently than does FAT16. FAT32 does this by storing data in much smaller clusters, thereby minimizing disk slack space. Slack space is the space left unused when a large cluster stores a small file. While folders can be shared on FAT16, FAT32, or NTFS disk partitions file-level security is a feature that is supported only with the NTFS file system.

In Windows 98 and Windows Me systems, a FAT16 file system can be converted to a FAT32 file system in either of two ways: by using the Drive Converter (FAT32) tool that is located in System Tools, or by running the CVT.EXE command-line application. To convert Windows 95 OSR2 file systems from FAT16 to FAT32, the command-line method must be used. Note that FDISK can also be used to create FAT32 file systems.

Item: 61 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.1.12)

gfedc FAT32 supports file-level security.

gfedc FAT32 supports shared-folder security.

gfedc FAT32 uses smaller cluster sizes than FAT16.

gfedc FAT32 supports a maximum partition size of 2 GB.

gfedc FAT32 is supported by Windows 95 versions prior to OSR2.

Answer:

FAT32 supports shared-folder security.

FAT32 uses smaller cluster sizes than FAT16.

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Which power mode should you use on a portable computer running Windows XP to reduce the power consumption by cutting power to hardware components, except the computer's memory, with minimum administrative effort?

Explanation: You should use the Standby mode on the portable computer. Windows XP provides two basic options, Standby or Hibernate, for putting a computer to sleep when it is not used actively. The Standby mode reduces the power consumption by cutting power to hardware components that are not in use. The Standby mode maintains power to the computer's memory to ensure that you do not lose your work.

You should not use the Hibernate mode. When your portable computer hibernates, it saves an image of your desktop with all open files and documents to the hard disk before completely powering down. When you turn on the power, the files and documents are restored on the desktop. In this scenario, you do not want to cut power to the computer's memory. You should use hibernation mode when you want to save the maximum amount of battery power while preserving an open session.

Sleep mode is incorrect because this mode in not available when running Windows XP.

You should not use the shutdown mode because when you shut down a computer, the system is powered down completely. In this scenario, you do not want to cut power to the computer's memory.

Item: 73 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.2.5)

nmlkj Standby

nmlkj Hibernate

nmlkj Sleep

nmlkj Shutdown

Answer:

Standby

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You upgrade memory on a portable computer, but the new memory is not recognized by the computer. What should you do FIRST while troubleshooting this problem?

Explanation: You should first ensure that the memory is seated properly while troubleshooting the problem. If a portable computer does not recognize newly installed memory, you should first ensure that the memory is properly seated in the socket. You should place the module in the socket at a 45 degree angle, slide it into the socket, then press the module down towards the system board until the side clamps latch into place. Most modern portable computers are designed to have a separate memory compartment on the underside. If there is no separate memory compartment, you must ensure that all connectors which were removed to replace the memory chip, such as the touchpad connector or keyboard connector, are properly connected.

You should not ensure that the system board is not faulty. In this scenario, the computer is able to boot but is unable to recognize the new memory. Therefore, the system board is not faulty.

You should not first upgrade the system BIOS. Upgrading the system BIOS is useful when the system recognizes only a part of the new memory. In this scenario, the new memory is not at all recognized by the computer. Therefore, you should first ensure that the memory is properly seated in the socket.

You should not first purchase new memory. When the system does not recognize a new memory, the most likely cause is the memory is not seated properly. You should first ensure that the new memory is seated properly in the socket. Purchasing new memory should be the last option if no other option works.

Item: 74 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.3.8)

nmlkj Ensure that the system board is not faulty.

nmlkj Ensure that the memory is seated properly.

nmlkj Upgrade the system BIOS.

nmlkj Purchase new memory.

Answer:

Ensure that the memory is seated properly.

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Which Windows XP portable computer power scheme minimizes the use of power to conserve the battery, but adjusts to the processing needs without sacrificing the system speed?

Explanation: You should select the Portable/Laptop power scheme on the portable computer computer. A power scheme is a predefined collection of power settings that let you use your portable computer to enhance battery life, power consumption, or performance in different scenarios. The Portable/Laptop power scheme works well in most situations that require mobile computing. It minimizes the use of power to conserve the battery, but meets most of your processing needs without sacrificing system performance.

Another method to save the maximum amount of battery power while preserving your open session is to place your portable computer in hibernation mode. When your computer hibernates, it saves an image of your desktop with all open files and documents to the hard disk before completely powering down. When you turn on the power, the files and documents are restored the desktop.

You should not select the Home/Office Desk power scheme. This scheme does not conserve the battery by implementing power-saving options, and is best suited when running a portable computer while plugged into an AC outlet.

You should not select the Presentation power scheme. The Presentation power scheme is used to give a presentation or in other situations when the computer screen must remain active, even if the portable computer is running on battery power. The Presentation power scheme does not turn off the monitor, even if the computer is running on battery power, and does not maximize battery use.

You should not select the Max Battery power scheme. The Max Battery power scheme makes conserving the battery power the highest priority, but the settings under the Max Battery power scheme do not adjust according the processing demands. Therefore, the Max Battery power settings affect the computer's processing speeds.

Item: 78 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.2.6)

nmlkj Home/Office Desk

nmlkj Portable/Laptop

nmlkj Presentation

nmlkj Max Battery

Answer:

Portable/Laptop

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Which option should you use to configure a removable storage device so that the device can be removed without using the Safely Remove Hardware application?

Explanation: When you remove a hot-pluggable device from a running computer without using the Safely Remove Hardware application, it is referred to as a surprise removal because the operating system is not notified of the removal in advance. You should not remove external storage devices on which write caching is enabled because it might cause data loss or corruption. To prevent data loss or corruption while removing an external storage device from a computer, you should configure the Optimize for quick removal option for the storage device. This option disables write caching on the storage device and in Windows. To configure this option, open Device Manager and click the Policies tab on the property sheet for the removable storage device. Selecting this option allows you to remove the device without using the Safely Remove Hardware application.

Windows XP disables write caching by default for removable storage devices that can be removed while the system is running. The Safely Remove Hardware application allows you to safely unplug or eject a hot-pluggable device from a computer. You should use the Safely Remove Hardware application to ensure a safe remove of hardware from the system. The Safely Remove Hardware application informs Windows that the user intends to remove a device so that Windows can halt data transfer to the device and unloads device drivers to prevent data loss or corruption.

You should not configure the Enable write caching on the disk option. This setting enables write caching to improve disk performance; this option is not available for a removable storage device.

You should not configure the Optimize for performance option. This option enables write caching to improve disk performance. When you select this option, you should click the Safely Remove Hardware icon in the taskbar notification area to safely remove the external storage device to prevent data loss or corruption.

You should not select the Adjust for best performance option. Windows XP provides several options to set the visual effects on a computer. The Adjust for best performance setting turns off all the options for visual effects and adjust the settings for best performance. This option cannot be used to disable write caching for an external storage device to ensure that the device can be removed without using the Safely Remove Hardware application.

Item: 84 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.2.1)

nmlkj Enable write caching on the disk

nmlkj Optimize for quick removal

nmlkj Optimize for performance

nmlkj Adjust for best performance

Answer:

Optimize for quick removal

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Which key should you press along with the F7 key to switch the display to an external monitor from a portable computer?

Explanation: You should press F7 in combination with the Fn key to switch the display from the portable computer to an external monitor. You should not press the Num Lock key to switch the display to an external monitor. When pressed on a portable computer, the Num Lock key allows you to use the letter keys to display numbers. For example, after enabling Num Lock, the number 4 will be displayed when you press the U key. The Scroll Lock key can modify the behavior of the arrow keys. When the Scroll Lock key is activated, the arrow keys will scroll the contents of a text window instead of moving the cursor as usual. The F2 key will have different functions depending upon the software. For example, you can use F2 key to rename a file or folder in Windows.

Item: 87 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.3.10)

nmlkj Fn

nmlkj Num lock

nmlkj Scroll lock

nmlkj F2

Answer:

Fn

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Which characteristic is associated with a Type III PC Card hard disk drive?

Explanation: Type III PC Card Hard disk drives designed for PC Card slots in notebook computers can be used in a single Type III slot or in two Type II slots. Notebook computers usually have two Type II PC Card slots, one on top of the other. The two slots do not have a divider between them, so a Type III PC Card hard disk drive can be inserted into the two slots. Although the Type III PC Card occupies the entire space of the two slots, it only uses one the 68-pin socket. The other socket, though unused, is blocked from use by the Type III card and is, therefore unavailable. A Type III slot can accommodate any of type other types. In that case the smaller types will simply occupy less of the space allowed for the Type III card. PC Cards are devices, such as modems and network interface cards, that are engineered for notebook or laptop computers. The PC Card interface standard specifies three different slot sizes, often referred to as form factor sizes. Type I cards are 3.3 millimeters (mm) thick, Type II cards are 5 mm thick, and Type III cards are 10.5 mm thick. The Personal Computer Memory Card International Association (PCMCIA) created the standards for PC Card slots. The original design goal for the Type III slot was that it should support hard disk drives, but recent advances in technology have made it possible for hard drive assemblies to fit into Type II slots as well. Devices designed for a particular slot are compatible with larger slots; for example, a Type I device can operate in a Type II or Type III slot.

Item: 96 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.2.8)

nmlkj uses two 68-pin sockets

nmlkj only fits in Type III PC Card slots

nmlkj fits in one Type III PC Card slot or in two Type II PC Card slots

nmlkj fits in one Type III PC Card slot or in two Type II PC Card slots or in three Type I PC Card slots

Answer:

fits in one Type III PC Card slot or in two Type II PC Card slots

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What can you use to quickly cool a suspected failing component in a computer?

Explanation: You can use chemical-freeze sprays to quickly cool a suspected failing component in a computer. The chemical-freeze sprays are closely related to compressed air products. The chemical-freeze sprays are not used to repair a device, but to verify that you have found a failed device. Usually a component fails due to excessive heat, and cooling the component temporarily restores it to normal operation. If a circuit begins to function normally after you cool a component, then the component you are cooling is the suspect component.

You cannot use compressed air to quickly cool a suspected failing component in a computer. Compressed air is primarily used for system cleaning. Compressed air is used as a blower to remove dust and debris from a system or a component.

You cannot use a solution of isopropyl alcohol and water to quickly cool a suspected failing component in a computer. Isopropyl alcohol and water is the most appropriate solution to clean a portable computer's LCD screen. You should use a lint-free and dust-free cloth to clean an LCD screen. While cleaning an LCD screen, you should always spray the liquid on the cleaning cloth and then gently wipe the screen.

You cannot use citrus-based solvents to quickly cool a suspected failing component in a computer. Citrus-based cleaners are the new type of biodegradable cleaners that are more effective and more economical for cleaning circuit board and contacts.

Item: 102 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.4.4)

nmlkj Compressed air

nmlkj Chemical-freeze spray

nmlkj Solution of isopropyl alcohol and water

nmlkj Citrus-based solvent

Answer:

Chemical-freeze spray

of 396


Which processor technology contains two processor cores in a single processor package and provides all of the advantages of a multi-processor computer?

Explanation:

Dual-core technology contains two processor cores in a single processor package and provides virtually of all the advantages of a multi-processor computer. The dual-core technology was introduced by both AMD and Intel in 2005.

The dual-core technology is different from Hyper-threading (HT) technology because HT technology does not contain two processor cores in a single processor package. The HT technology allows a single processor to handle two independent sets of instructions at the same time. HT technology converts a single physical processor into two virtual processors. HT technology was introduced by Intel in its line of Xeon processors for servers in March 2002.

CPU throttling is a feature that protects a CPU from heat damage. When a CPU is not cooled properly and the temperature of the CPU becomes very high, the CPU throttle technology slows down the clock rate on the CPU to prevent further overheating and damage. The CPU throttling technology also causes the system to operate at a lower speed. For example, if the actual speed of the CPU is 1 GHz, after throttling down the clock rate, the CPU might show only 500 MHz. CPU throttling does not contain two processor cores in a single processor package.

MMX technology was introduced in the later fifth-generation Pentium processors to improve video compression/decompression, image manipulation, encryption, and I/O processing. MMX technology does not contain two processor cores in a single processor package.

Item: 104 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.4.1)

nmlkj Hyper-threading technology


nmlkj Dual-core technology

nmlkj MMX technology

Answer:

Dual-core technology

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A file named Myfile.txt is located on the desktop of your Windows XP computer. You want to permanently delete the file, and you want to bypass the Recycle Bin. Which procedures could you use to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

Explanation: You can use either the erase command or the del command, at the command prompt, to delete the Myfile.txt file completely from your computer. These commands bypass the Recycle Bin and delete files permanently. An alternative method to delete a file permanently is to select the file from within Windows Explorer and then hold the SHIFT key while simultaneously pressing the DELETE key. This key combination also bypasses the Recycle Bin.

If you want to move the Myfile.txt file to the Recycle Bin, then you can use the Delete option on the File menu in Windows Explorer, right-click Myfile.txt and select Delete from the context menu, or use My Computer to move Myfile.txt to the Recycle Bin. The Recycle Bin is a safeguard against permanently deleting files from your computer. You should check the Recycle Bin before you empty it to ensure that you have not moved important files to the Recycle Bin. After you empty the Recycle Bin, Windows XP is unable to recover files that were stored in it.

Item: 115 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.1.11)

gfedc Use the del command in a Command Prompt window.

gfedc Use the erase command in a Command Prompt window.

gfedc Use the Delete option on the File menu in Windows Explorer.

gfedc Right-click the Myfile.txt file, and select Delete from the Context menu.

Answer:

Use the del command in a Command Prompt window.

Use the erase command in a Command Prompt window.

of 396


Which type of mouse usually comes built in with a portable computer?

Explanation: A touchpad mouse usually comes built in with a portable computer. The surface of a touchpad is used to maneuver the mouse pointer. A trackball mouse is usually available as a separate device. A trackball mouse is an opto-mechanical mouse with a rolling ball under your palm. To use the trackball mouse, you only need to move the track ball on the mouse. A drawing tablet is an input device that allows you to draw images on a flat surface using a tablet pen. This technology is generally used with a tablet PC or for graphic design with a desktop computer. An optical mouse can sense movements with a light-emitting diode (LED) on the underside. Though an optical mouse can be used with a portable computer, it does not come built into it.

Item: 122 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.1.16)

nmlkj Touchpad

nmlkj Trackball

nmlkj Drawing tablet

nmlkj Optical mouse

Answer:

Touchpad

of 396


What should you do to check a portable computer's battery if the battery does not power the computer or hold a charge?

Explanation:

You should charge the battery for 15 to 20 minutes, unplug the AC adapter, and press the Power button to check battery behavior in a portable computer. A portable computer that does not charge may be the result of a faulty AC adapter, a faulty system board, or a faulty battery. When you determine that the computer is functioning properly when connected to the AC adapter but the battery is not functioning properly, you should check the battery to diagnose the problem. To check a battery, you should perform the following steps:

1. Allow the battery to charge for at least 15 to 20 minutes.

2. Unplug the AC adapter cord from the portable computer.

3. Press the Power button to start the computer by using only the battery as the power source.

If the portable computer does not power on, it means the battery is not functioning properly and needs to be replaced. If the portable computer does power on, it means the battery is functioning properly.

You should not plug in the AC adapter and check the battery meter. Checking the battery meter while the system is running on AC power will not allow you to check whether the battery is functioning or not. To check the battery, you should shut down the computer, unplug the AC power adapter, and press the power button to start the computer by using only the battery as the power source.

You should not open the battery and check each cell individually. Opening the battery and checking each cell individually is not recommended as this can cause the battery to become unusable, or may damage the system.

Item: 123 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.3.5)

nmlkj Unplug the AC adapter while the laptop is running.

nmlkj Charge the battery for 15 to 20 minutes, unplug the AC adapter, and press the Power button.

nmlkj Plug the AC adapter and check the battery meter.

nmlkj Open the battery and check each cell individually.

Answer:

Charge the battery for 15 to 20 minutes, unplug the AC adapter, and press the Power button.

of 396


What steps should you follow to manually check the health of a portable computer's battery? (Choose three.)

Explanation: The manual health checking method tests the battery by completely charging the battery and then determining how long it takes to discharge the battery. To perform the check, you should connect the AC adapter and fully charge the battery, start the computer in Safe Mode, record the current time with a fully charged battery, and unplug the AC adapter and allow the battery to discharge completely until the computer automatically turns off. You should also record the time when the battery discharged completely. Then you should calculate the elapsed time by subtracting the discharged time from the start time. This figure should be used as a benchmark for future comparisons or provided to a vendor technician as a part of the troubleshooting process. In general, the time required for a battery to fully recharge will decline as the health and capacity of the battery declines. The manual battery health check is performed while the computer is operating in Safe Mode and not being used for any other action. The computer cannot be used during this test, so the condition of the battery is measured accurately.

You should not connect the AC adapter, and charge the battery for 15 to 30 minutes. To perform the manual battery health check, you should fully charge the battery to accurately measure the condition of the battery. To check a battery of a laptop if the battery does not power the comput or hold a charge, you should charge the battery for 15 to 20 minutes, unplug the AC adapter, and press the Power button. Portable computers can be powered either by the AC adapter or by the built-in battery.

You should not start the computer in normal mode with a fully charged battery and record the start time. The manual battery health check is performed while the computer is operating in the Safe Mode and not being used for any other action.

You should not open the battery and check each cell individually. Opening the battery and checking each cell individually is not recommended as this can cause the battery to become unusable, or may damage the system.

Item: 131 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.3.1)

gfedc Connect the AC adapter, and fully charge the battery.

gfedc Connect the AC adapter, and charge the battery for 15 to 30 minutes.

gfedc Start the computer in Safe Mode with a fully charged battery, and record the start time.

gfedc Start the computer in normal mode with a fully charged battery, and record the start time.

gfedc Unplug the AC adapter and allow the battery to discharge completely until the computer automatically turns off.

gfedc Open the battery and check each cell individually.

Answer:

Connect the AC adapter, and fully charge the battery.

Start the computer in Safe Mode with a fully charged battery, and record the start time.

Unplug the AC adapter and allow the battery to discharge completely until the computer automatically turns off.

of 396


What can you do to reduce the operating temperature of a portable computer to ensure that the computer does not heat up and shut down?

Explanation: You should use the portable computer on a hard surface to reduce its operating temperature. Overheating is a common problem with portable computers. To prevent overheating, you should use portable computers on a surface that does not block the airflow of the machine. Most portable computers have two or three air vents at the bottom, sides, or back. These air vents maintain a proper airflow to ensure that the portable computer is not overheated. To enable these air vents to maintain the airflow, you should use the portable computer on a hard surface.

You should not place a portable computer in its carrying case while it is turned on. Placing the computer in a carrying case while it is turned on can cause the computer to overheat and may also damage the screen.

Using a portable computer in a cold room is not necessary. Portable computers have two or three air vents that maintain proper airflow to help prevent overheating.

You should not use a portable computer on a soft surface. When you place a portable computer on a soft surface, such as a bed or a sofa, the air vents are blocked, which may cause the portable computer to overheat. To prevent a portable computer from overheating, you should always use it on a hard surface.

Item: 133 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.3.4)

nmlkj Place the computer in its carrying case while it is turned on.

nmlkj Use the computer in a cold room.

nmlkj Use the computer on a soft surface.

nmlkj Use the computer on a hard surface.

Answer:

Use the computer on a hard surface.

of 396


Which technology allows a single processor to handle two independent sets of instructions at the same time?

Explanation: Hyper-threading (HT) technology allows a single processor to handle two independent sets of instructions at the same time. HT technology converts a single physical processor into two virtual processors. HT technology was introduced by Intel in its line of Xeon processors for servers in March 2002.

The CPU throttle technology does not allow a single processor to handle two independent sets of instructions at the same time. CPU throttling is a feature that protects a CPU from heat damage. When a CPU is not cooled properly and the temperature of the CPU becomes very high, the CPU throttle technology slows down the clock rate on the CPU to prevent further overheating and damage. When the clock rate of a CPU is reduced, it requires very little power to operate, thus the heat generation is also reduced. The CPU throttling technology also causes the system to operate at a lower speed. For example, if the actual speed of the CPU is 1 GHz, after throttling down the clock rate, the CPU might show only 500 MHz.

Dual-core technology does not allow a single processor to handle two independent sets of instructions at the same time. A dual-core processor contains two processor cores in a single processor package. The dual-core technology is different from HT technology because HT technology only simulates two processors in a single physical unit, whereas dual-core processor actually contains two processor cores in a single processor package.

The Dual Independent Bus (DIB) architecture was created to improve processor bus bandwidth and performance. Dual independent data I/O buses enable the processor to access data from either of its buses simultaneously and in parallel, rather than in a singular sequential manner. The DIB architecture does not allow a single processor to handle two independent sets of instructions at the same time.

Item: 136 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.4.2)


nmlkj Dual-core technology

nmlkj Dual Independent Bus (DIB)

nmlkj Hyper-threading (HT) technology

Answer:

Hyper-threading (HT) technology

of 396


Which option is the MOST appropriate solution to clean a portable computer's LCD screen?

Explanation: Isopropyl alcohol and water is the most appropriate solution to clean a portable computer's LCD screen. The Liquid Crystal Display (LCD) screens are fragile and are not meant to be touched. You must handle the LCD screen carefully to prevent damage, and you should use the correct cleaning solution. You should only use a commercial LCD screen cleaner, or isopropyl alcohol and distilled water to clean an LCD screen. While cleaning an LCD screen, you should always spray the liquid on the cleaning cloth and then gently wipe the LCD screen in a consistent motion. You should never spray the solution directly on the LCD screen. You should not use trichloroethane to clean an LCD screen. Trichloroethane is used to clean components, electrical connectors, and contacts on a motherboard. You should not use an ammonia-based solvent to clean an LCD screen. You should never use any product that contains ammonia or ethanol to clean an LCD screen as this will degrade or damage the screen. You should not use citrus-based solvent to clean an LCD screen. New biodegradable cleaners are referred to as citrus-based cleaners. Citrus-based cleaners are used to clean circuit board and contacts on a motherboard. Using citrus-based cleaners to clean an LCD screen may damage the screen.

Item: 141 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.4.6)

nmlkj Trichloroethane

nmlkj Ammonia-based solvent

nmlkj Citrus-based solvent

nmlkj Isopropyl alcohol and water

Answer:

Isopropyl alcohol and water

of 396


Which component should you use to ensure that Windows halts data transfer and unloads device drivers for an external device when you intend to remove the drive from a computer running Windows XP?

Explanation: You should use the Safely Remove Hardware component. Some buses, such as USB and IEEE 1394, allow devices to be connected or removed while a system is running. When a device supports hot-plugging, the Safely Remove Hardware icon appears in the notification area. The Safely Remove Hardware application informs Windows that the user intends to remove a device so that Windows can halt data transfer to the device and unload device drivers to prevent data loss or corruption.

You should not use the Add Hardware Wizard. The Add Hardware Wizard enables you to add new hardware or troubleshoot any hardware-related problems. You cannot use the Add Hardware Wizard to ensure that Windows halts data transfer and unload device drivers for an external device when you intend to remove the drive from a computer running Windows XP.

You should not use Add/Remove Windows Components. When you click Add/Remove Windows Components, it runs the Windows Components Wizard, which can be used to install and configure Windows components. The Add/Remove Windows Components feature cannot be used to connect or remove hardware devices from a computer.

You should not use Device Manager. Device Manager contains information about how the hardware on a computer is installed and configured, and how the hardware interacts with the computer's programs. You can use Device Manager to update the device drivers for hardware installed on a computer, modify hardware settings, and troubleshoot problems.

Item: 148 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.2.2)

nmlkj Add Hardware Wizard

nmlkj Add/Remove Windows Components

nmlkj Safely Remove Hardware

nmlkj Device Manager

Answer:

Safely Remove Hardware

of 396


You have connected a Universal Serial Bus (USB) scanner to a USB hub shown in the following image:

The USB hub is connected to your computer. Device Manager does not show the USB scanner. What should you do?

Explanation: You should connect the USB scanner to a power outlet. A USB scanner or a USB printer requires more power than can be supplied from an unpowered USB hub as shown in the exhibit. Therefore, to resolve the problem in this scenario, you should connect the USB scanner to a power outlet. Alternatively, you could purchase a powered hub, which could serve as the power source to the devices connected to it. You should not install the driver for the USB scanner. You can install the driver software for a device only after it is detected by Windows. You should not connect the USB hub to a different port on the computer. This procedure will not help because the USB hub will still not supply enough power to operate the USB scanner. You should not connect the USB scanner on a different port on the USB hub. This procedure will not help because the USB hub will still not supply enough power to operate the USB scanner.

Item: 149 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.3.11)

nmlkj Install the driver for the USB scanner.

nmlkj Connect the USB hub to a different port on the computer.

nmlkj Connect the USB scanner on a different port on the USB hub.

nmlkj Connect the USB scanner to the power outlet.

Answer:

Connect the USB scanner to the power outlet.

of 396


Which random access memory (RAM) technology fetches 4 bits of data per clock cycle and uses 1.8 V to operate?

Explanation: DDR2 SDRAM is a faster version of conventional DDR SDRAM memory. DDR2 SDRAM uses differential pairs of signal wires to allow faster signaling without noise and interference problems to achieve higher throughput. DDR2 SDRAM uses 1.8 V to operate and fetches 4 bits of data per clock cycle instead of 2 as with DDR SDRAM. DDR2 chips typically use Fine-pitch Ball Grid Array (FBGA) packaging rather than the Thin Small Outline Package (TSOP) chip packaging used by most DDR and conventional SDRAM chips. The Synchronous DRAM (SDRAM) is a type of DRAM that is designed to run in synchronization with the memory bus. A high-speed clocked interface is used by SDRAM to deliver information in very high-speed bursts. SDRAM is used primarily in older AGP 2x/4x low-end video cards and chipsets. SDRAM does not transfer 4 bits of data per clock cycle and uses 1.8 V to operate. The Synchronous Graphics RAM (SGRAM) is similar to SDRAM in its capability to be synchronized to high-speed buses up to 200 MHz. SGRAM differs from SDRAM by including circuitry to perform block writes to increase the speed of graphics fill or 3D Z-buffer operations. SGRAM does not transfer 4 bits of data per clock cycle and uses 1.8 V to operate. The Double Data Rate SDRAM (DDR SDRAM) is a RAM standard created by JEDEC. DDR SDRAM is the most common video RAM technology found on recent video cards. DDR SDRAM is designed to transfer data at speeds twice that of conventional SDRAM by transferring 2 bits of data per clock cycle, once at the falling edge and once at the rising edge of the cycle. DDR uses 2.5 V to operate.

Item: 153 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.1.5)

nmlkj SDRAM

nmlkj SGRAM

nmlkj DDR SDRAM

nmlkj DDR2 SDRAM

Answer:

DDR2 SDRAM

of 396


A user has indicated that he wants to connect multiple monitors to his Windows XP computer. What is the maximum number of monitors that he can connect using the multiple monitors feature?

Explanation: Using the multiple monitor feature, the maximum number of monitors he can connect is 10. Windows XP provides two features for display spanning, namely Dualview for laptops and the multiple monitors feature for desktop. These features can be used to display numerous programs or windows at a time on more than one monitor. Portable computers usually include a port to which you can connect a second monitor. Dualview allows you to expand the display across both monitors. When you use Dualview on a portable computer, the primary display must always be the portable computer's LCD screen. When you use the multiple monitors feature on a desktop, you can choose a monitor that will function as primary monitor. The primary monitor is one on which you log in and start your programs.

To configure the Dualview feature on a portable computer, you should plug a second monitor into the video port on the computer, select the second monitor on the Settings tab of the Display Properties dialog box, and select the Extend my Windows desktop onto this monitor check box. When you plug the second monitor into the video port and turn on the machine, the portable computer should recognize the second monitor. If the second monitor is not displayed on the Settings tab, you might need to update the display driver.

To configure the multiple monitors feature on a Windows XP-based computer, you should install a new video adapter for each monitor that will be connected to the computer. You should select the Extend my Windows desktop onto this monitor check box for each monitor on the Settings tab on the Display Properties dialog box. To specify which monitor will function as the primary monitor, you should select the monitor, and select the Use this device as the primary monitor check box. This step is not required for a portable computer.

The options stating 2, 5, and 20 are incorrect because you can connect a maximum of 10 monitors to a computer running Windows XP using the multiple monitors feature.

Item: 157 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.1.4)

nmlkj 2

nmlkj 5

nmlkj 10

nmlkj 20

Answer:

10

of 396


What was the first processor created by using a dual-plane or split-plane power design to ensure that mobile processors consume less power than desktop processors?

Explanation: The Mobile Pentium processor was created by using dual-plane or split-plane power design. The two primary differences between portable and desktop computers are heat production and clock speed. The mobile chips are designed to use less power than desktop computers, including lower voltages, because portable computers must sometimes run on battery power. This property enables the mobile processors to have the lower clock speeds in comparison to the desktop processors. By consuming low voltage and having lower clock speeds, mobile processors produce less heat than desktop processors. The dual-plane or split-plane power design was developed by Intel while the company was designing a version of the Pentium processor for portable computers. In dual-plane design, the processor core runs at a lower voltage while the I/O circuits remain at 3.3 Volts. This design was originally named Voltage Reduction Technology (VRT) and first introduced in the Mobile Pentium processors, released in 1996.

The Pentium OverDrive processors were repackaged versions of the standard processors including necessary voltage regulators and fans. Pentium OverDrive was not the first processor created by using dual-plane or split-plane power design.

Pentium Pro is the successor of the Pentium processor. The Pentium Pro was the first microchip in the P6 or sixth-generation processor family. It was introduced in November 1995. Pentium Pro was not the first processor created by using dual-plane or split-plane power design.

The Pentium-MMX is a third-generation Pentium processor that was released in January 1997. The MMX processors have many features, such as superscalar architecture, multiprocessor support, and power-management features, that are common to other second-generation Pentium processors. The new features that were incorporated in the MMX processor are pipelined MMX unit, 16 KB code, write-back cache, and 4.5 million transistors. The dual-plane power design also appeared in desktop and Mobile Pentium-MMX processors, which used 2.8 V to power the core and 3.3 V for the I/O circuits, but it appeared first in the Mobile Pentium processor.

Item: 166 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.1.9)

nmlkj Pentium OverDrive processor

nmlkj Mobile Pentium processor

nmlkj Pentium Pro processor

nmlkj Mobile Pentium-MMX processor

Answer:

Mobile Pentium processor

of 396


Which video RAM technology transfers data on both the rising and falling parts of the processing clock cycle?

Explanation: The Double Data Rate SDRAM (DDR SDRAM) is a RAM standard created by JEDEC. DDR SDRAM is the most common video RAM technology found on recent video cards. DDR SDRAM is designed to transfer data at speeds twice that of conventional SDRAM by transferring data on both the rising and falling parts of the processing clock cycle. DDR initially found support in the graphics card market and then became the mainstream PC memory standard.

Synchronous DRAM (SDRAM) is a type of DRAM that is designed to run in synchronization with the memory bus. A high-speed clocked interface is used by SDRAM to deliver information in very high-speed bursts. SDRAM is used primarily in older AGP 2x/4x low-end video cards and chipsets. SDRAM does not transfer data on both the rising and falling parts of the processing clock cycle.

Synchronous Graphics RAM (SGRAM) is similar to SDRAM in its capability to be synchronized to high-speed buses up to 200 MHz. SGRAM differs from SDRAM by including circuitry to perform block writes to increase the speed of graphics fill or 3D Z-buffer operations. SGRAM does not transfer data on both the rising and falling parts of the processing clock cycle.

Extended Data Out RAM (EDO RAM) was invented by Micron Technology and became available for Pentium systems. EDO memory consists of specially manufactured chips that allow a timing overlap between successive accesses. EDO RAM allows for burst mode cycling of 5-2-2-2, which means EDO RAM would require 11 total system cycles to perform four memory transfers. Therefore, EDO RAM does not transfer data on both the rising and falling parts of the processing clock cycle.

Item: 168 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.1.6)

nmlkj SDRAM

nmlkj SGRAM

nmlkj DDR SDRAM

nmlkj EDO RAM

Answer:

DDR SDRAM

of 396


Which type of battery has the highest energy density and lowest self-discharge rate?

Explanation: A Li-Ion battery type provides the highest energy density while maintaining the lowest self-discharge rate. This implies that Li-Ion batteries will retain their power for a longer time compared to any other type of battery. A NiCD battery type has moderate energy density and self-discharge rate. Additionally this type of battery has the shortest battery life because the NiCD cell provides 1.2 volts of voltage. A NiMH battery type provides the highest energy density but it does not provide lowest self-discharge rate. This type of battery has a high self-discharge rate instead. A lead acid battery type has moderate energy density and self-discharge rate.

Item: 171 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.1.15)

nmlkj Nickel cadmium (NiCD)

nmlkj Lithium-ion (Li-Ion)

nmlkj Nickel metal-hydride (NiMH)

nmlkj Lead acid

Answer:

Lithium-ion (Li-Ion)

of 396


Which display device uses TFT technology?

Explanation: An active-matrix monitor is a type of liquid-crystal display (LCD) that often uses thin-film transistor (TFT) technology. Commonly found in portable computers, TFT LCDs provide faster refresh rates, more vivid color and better contrast than other, older LCD technologies, such as the passive-matrix LCD.

The heart of an active-matrix monitor is a flat panel that contains a series of layers. At the front is a polarizer filter. Under the filter, a double layer of special glass sandwiches a thin amount of the liquid crystal (LC) material, with the TFTs arranged in a regular grid, or matrix, on the back of the lower layer; other electronics are associated with the TFTs. A light source, such as a Cold Cathode Fluorescent Lamp (CCFL), provides white light from behind the panel. Each TFT controls the degree of polarization of LC material to orient the CCFL light at a particular angle relative to the polarizer filter. A 90 degree orientation will block the light completely, and a 0 degree orientation will allow all the light to shine through; other orientations will allow more or less light to be transmitted. A monochrome display requires only one TFT per pixel; a color display requires three TFTs per pixel, one for each color. The panel contains a red filter, a green filter and a blue filter arranged in front of the appropriate TFTs.

The LCD panel receives a data signal, a horizontal sweep signal, and a vertical sweep signal. The electronic control circuitry ensures that the horizontal and vertical sweeps are synchronized properly so that each data signal is sent to the appropriate TFT. All three signals are low-voltage alternating current (AC). The horizontal synchronization frequency has a typical range of 25 kilohertz (KHz) to 60 KHz, and the vertical synchronization frequency is typically about 60 Hz. Thus, each TFT receives a data signal every 1/60 of a second. For an 800 x 600 color display, which has 1,440,000 TFTs, the data signal frequency is about 86,400,000 Hz, or about 86 MHz. The electronic circuitry must be carefully designed to prevent any direct current (DC) from being applied to the LC, or rapid deterioration of image quality will result.

A cathode ray tube (CRT) is a large, vacuum-sealed electronic tube used in standard monitors. CRTs use electron guns to activate phosphors that are coated on the display side of the tube.

A passive-matrix display is a less expensive type of LCD monitor that relies on reflected light to produce images; some passive-matrix displays are also known as dual-scan displays. Neither CRTs nor passive-matrix LCDs use TFT technology.

Item: 172 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.1.14)

nmlkj A cathode ray tube (CRT)

nmlkj dual-scan

nmlkj active-matrix

nmlkj passive-matrix

Answer:

active-matrix

of 396


Which component is supported by PC Card Socket Services?

Explanation: PC Card Socket Services allows PC cards to be plugged in and used while a notebook computer is running. This ability to exchange PC cards while a notebook computer is running is known as hot-swapping. Besides the physical bus architecture of the notebook computer, the operating system software must also support socket services in order to hot-swap PC card devices, such as network interface cards (NICs) and modems. For example, Windows XP Plug-and-Play supports the socket services architecture.

However, Universal Plug-and-Play, which allows non-traditional devices, such as lighting systems and electrical appliances to be controlled through a computer, is not related to PC card socket services.

Likewise, neither removable SCSI media nor the Advanced Power Management (APM) interface is related to PC card socket services.

Item: 183 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.1.13)

nmlkj APM

nmlkj removable SCSI media

nmlkj hot-swappable PC cards

nmlkj Universal Plug-and-Play

Answer:

hot-swappable PC cards

of 396


Which property of mobile processors enables them to have lower clock speed in comparison to desktop processors?

Explanation: The low power consumption is the property that enables mobile processors to have lower clock speeds than desktop processors. Mobile processors differ from desktop processors in many ways, but the two primary differences are heat production and clock speed. Since portable computers use a battery for its power requirements, the mobile chips are designed to use less power than desktop computers. The low power consumption enables the clock rates of processors to go higher, because the lower the voltage, the shorter the time needed to change a signal from low to high. By consuming low voltage and having lower clock speeds, mobile processors produce less heat compared to desktop processors.

The address bus is the set of wires that carries the addressing information that is used to describe the memory location to which the data is being sent or from which the data is being retrieved. The size of the address bus specifies the maximum amount of RAM a chip can address. The address bus does not enable the mobile processor to have lower clock speed.

The L1 cache is always built into the processor die, and it runs internally at the processor's full-core speed rather than the external motherboard's speed. The L1 cache is an area of fast memory built into the processor that is used to hold some of the current working set of code and data. Since system RAM is slower than CPU, the cache memory reduces system bottleneck. The L1 cache improves the performance of CPU. It does not enable the mobile processor to have lower clock speed.

The data bus width determines how many bits move in and out of the chip in one cycle. It does not enable the mobile processor to have lower clock speed.

Item: 185 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.1.8)

nmlkj low power consumption

nmlkj address bus

nmlkj level 1 (L1) cache

nmlkj data bus width

Answer:

low power consumption

of 396


Which type of internal hard disk interface uses the 8B/10B encoding scheme to encode and decode data sent along the cable?

Explanation: The Serial ATA hard disk interface uses the 8B/10B encoding scheme to encode and decode data sent along the cable. Serial ATA is a computer bus technology that is designed for transferring data to and from a hard disk. Serial ATA is a replacement for the Parallel ATA physical storage interface. The 8B/10B transmission code was originally developed by IBM for use in high-speed communications. The 8B/10B encoding scheme ensures that there are never more than four 0s or 1s transmitted consecutively, and that there are never more than six or fewer than four 0s or 1s in a single encoded 10-bit character.

The Parallel ATA hard disk interface does not use the 8B/10B encoding scheme to encode and decode data sent along the cable. The AT Attachment (ATA) technology was renamed Parallel ATA to distinguish it from Serial ATA. Both PATA and SATA drives are Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) drives. Parallel ATA is the primary connection method used for internal hard drive in a laptop.

The SCSI hard disk interface does not use the 8B/10B encoding scheme to encode and decode data sent along the cable. SCSI is a parallel interface standard used for attaching peripheral and internal devices to a computer. The SCSI interface provides faster data transmission rates than standard serial and parallel ports. You can attach several devices to a single SCSI port.

The USB interface does not use the 8B/10B encoding scheme to encode and decode data sent along the cable. The USB interface is not used to connect an internal hard drive on a computer. The USB interface can be used to connect only external hard disk drives.

Item: 187 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.1.2)

nmlkj Parallel ATA (PATA)

nmlkj Serial ATA (SATA)

nmlkj Small Computer System Interface (SCSI)

nmlkj Universal Serial Bus (USB)

Answer:

Serial ATA (SATA)

of 396


Which connectors are used by Parallel ATA (PATA) cables with 40 conductors and 80 conductors?

Explanation: 40-pin connectors are used by PATA cables with 40 conductors and 80 conductors. The signals between the bus adapter and the drive controller are carried by the 40-conductor ribbon cable. It is recommended that the cable be no longer than 18" to maximize signal integrity and eliminate potential timing and noise problems. However, the 80-conductor cables can be used reliably up to 27" in length. There are two primary variations of PATA cables, one with 40 conductors and one with 80 conductors. Both type of cables use 40-pin connectors. The additional wires in the 80-pin connector version are simply wired to ground. Parallel ATA is the primary connection method used for internal hard drive in a portable computer.

The options stating 80-pin connectors, 20-pin connectors, and 50-pin connectors are incorrect because both the 40 conductors and 80 conductors PATA cable use 40-pin connectors. The 50-pin header connector is typically used for the 2 1/2" drives found in laptop computers.

Item: 190 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.1.3)

nmlkj 40-pin connectors




Answer:

40-pin connectors

of 396


Which component of a processor is always built into the processor and prevents the processor from having to wait for code and data from the main memory?

Explanation: The Level 1 (L1) cache is always built into the processor and prevents the processor from having to wait for code and data from the main memory. The modern PC processors use two levels of memory caches, named L1 and Level 2 (L2). L1 is a high-speed cache that runs at the same speed as the core. The L1 cache is an area of very fast memory built into the processor, which is used to hold some of the current working set of code and data. Since system RAM is slower than CPU, the cache memory reduces system bottleneck. The L1 cache improves the performance of CPU by determining the data required by the processor and constantly retrieving that data from the main memory and fetching the data to the CPU so that the CPU does not have to wait.

L2 cache is a memory between the main memory and the CPU. L2 cache is used when an L1 cache miss occurs. L2 is not built into the processor chip except for some modern processors. The purpose of the L2 cache is to constantly read in slightly larger quantities of data from RAM, so that these are available to the L1 cache.

The address bus is the set of wires that carries the addressing information that is used to describe the memory location to which the data is being sent or from which the data is being retrieved. The size of the address bus specifies the maximum amount of RAM a chip can address. The address bus does not prevent the processor from having to wait for code and data from the main memory.

The front-side bus is also referred to as the processor bus, and is the pathway between the CPU and motherboard chipset. The front-side bus transfers data between the CPU and L2 memory cache. The front-side bus does not prevent the processor from having to wait for code and data from the main memory. Processors can be divided in two categories, namely mobile processors and desktop processors. Mobile processors differ from desktop processors in many ways, but the two primary differences are heat production and clock speed. Since laptops use a battery for its power requirements, the mobile chips are designed to use less power than desktop computers. The low power consumption enables the clock rates of processors to go higher because the lower the voltage, the shorter the time needed to change a signal from low to high. This property enables the mobile processors to have the lower clock speeds and front-side bus speeds in comparison to the desktop processors. By consuming low voltage and having lower clock speeds, mobile processors produce less heat than desktop processors.

Item: 191 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.1.7)

nmlkj Level 1 (L1) cache

nmlkj Level 2 (L2) cache

nmlkj Address bus

nmlkj Front-side bus

Answer:

Level 1 (L1) cache

of 396


You have a portable computer that runs Windows XP. You suspect that the battery meter is displaying an inaccurate estimate of the remaining power. Which action should you perform first?

Explanation: You should first calibrate the battery. The battery's state-of-charge is not fully synchronized with the battery's fuel gauge by short discharges and recharges. This can cause the battery meter to display an inaccurate charge or the amount of power available in one cycle as less than expected. To avoid these problems, you should regularly calibrate the battery. It is recommended that you calibrate the batteries on portable computers at least once every three months under normal use.

You should not click the Refresh button on the dialog box that displays information about the battery. You can click on the battery icon on the Power Meter dialog box to view detailed information about the battery. The Detailed Information dialog box contains information such as battery name, unique ID, chemistry, power state, and manufacturer. Clicking the Refresh button only refreshes the information displayed on the Detailed Information dialog box. Clicking the Refresh button will not cause the battery meter to display an accurate estimate of the remaining power.

You should not replace the battery because the problem in this scenario can be resolved by calibrating the battery. When the battery meter displays an inaccurate estimate of remaining power, the problem is that the battery is not calibrated.

You should not replace the AC adapter. This would be beneficial if you confirm that the battery is not charging fully. The problem when a battery meter displays inaccurate remaining power occurs when the battery is not calibrated. Therefore, replacing the AC adapter will not be useful in this scenario.

Item: 202 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.3.6)

nmlkj Replace the battery.

nmlkj Calibrate the battery.

nmlkj Click the Refresh button on the dialog box that displays information about the battery.

nmlkj Replace the AC adapter.

Answer:

Calibrate the battery.

of 396


What is the normal operating temperature range in most portable computers?

Explanation: The normal operating temperature for portable computers should range between 35 degrees Celsius to 40 degrees Celsius. If the temperature reaches higher than 40 degrees Celsius then it might damage the hardware components in the computer. Usually, 55 degrees Celsius is the problem point and can damage the hardware components. To prevent a portable computer from overheating, you should use the portable computer on a surface that does not block the airflow of the machine. Most portable computers have two or three air vents at the bottom or on the sides or back. These air vents maintain proper airflow to prevent the computer from overheating. To ensure that these air vents can maintain the airflow, you should use a portable computer on a hard surface. The options stating 20-25 degrees Celsius, 50-55 degrees Celsius, and 55-60 degrees Celsius are incorrect because the normal operating temperature for portable computers should range between 35 degrees Celsius to 40 degrees Celsius.

Item: 208 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.3.3)

nmlkj 20-25 degrees Celsius




Answer:

35-40 degrees Celsius

of 396


Your portable computer contains one Type II slot. Which PC card configurations are valid for your computer? (Choose two.)

Explanation:

A portable computer with only one Type II PC card slot can accommodate only one PC card. That card can be either a Type I or a Type II PC card, because Type II slots are backward-compatible with Type I cards. A Type III card is too thick to fit into a single Type II slot, although it can be used in two Type II slots that are stacked one on top of the other.

Type I PC cards are 3.3-mm thick and are usually used for memory expansion. Type II PC cards are 5-mm thick and are typically used as modems or network adapters. Type III PC cards are 10.5-mm thick and are generally used as removable hard drives. All three PC card types conform to a form factor of 2.12 inches by 3.37 inches.

Item: 215 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.2.7)

gfedc one Type I PC card

gfedc one Type II PC card

gfedc two Type I PC cards

gfedc one Type III PC card

Answer:

one Type I PC card

one Type II PC card

of 396


Which type of memory module is designed for use primarily in portable computers?

Explanation: The Small Outline Dual Inline Memory Module (SODIMM) is an industry-standard 144-pin or 200-pin memory module that is designed for use primarily in portable computers. A SODIMM is 64 bits wide. While upgrading or replacing the memory in your portable computer, you must ensure that the memory meets SODIMM standards. You should also follow the correct procedure before you start upgrading memory. You should first disconnect the power adapter and ensure that the computer is turned off. After replacing the memory chip, you must ensure that memory is seated properly. Most modern laptops are designed to have a separate memory compartment on the underside of the laptop. If there is no separate memory compartment, you must ensure that all connectors that were removed to replace the memory chip, such as the touchpad connector or keyboard connector, are properly connected.

The Single Inline Memory Module (SIMM), Dual Inline Memory Module (DIMM), and Rambus Inline Memory Module (RIMM) are used in desktop computers.

Item: 235 (Ref:Cert-220-601.2.3.9)

nmlkj SIMM

nmlkj DIMM

nmlkj RIMM

nmlkj SODIMM

Answer:

SODIMM

of 396


Which hardware device operates at the data-link layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model and ensures that data is delivered only to the destination port?

Explanation: A switch operates at the data-link layer (Layer 2) of the OSI model and provides network connectivity to computers connected to the switch. A switch enhances the network connectivity and performance to reduce the network traffic by forwarding the data packets only to the destination port. A hub is a hardware device that operates at the physical layer (Layer 1) of the OSI model and provides network connectivity to computers connected to a hub. A bridge is a hardware device that connects two portions of a network or two similar networks. A bridge also operates at the data-link layer (Layer 2) of the OSI model, but it broadcasts data packets to all the possible destinations within a particular segment. A router is a hardware device that transmits data among computers in different networks. A router operates at the network layer (Layer 3) of the OSI model.

Networks

Item: 7 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.3.12)

nmlkj switch

nmlkj hub

nmlkj bridge

nmlkj router

Answer:

switch

of 396


Which tools can you use to measure the length of a cable based on the time required for an energy pulse to travel down the cable and return to the tool?

Explanation: You can use a time-domain reflectometer (TDR) to measure the length of the cable based on the time required for an energy pulse to travel down the cable and return to the TDR. If the cable length indicated by a TDR is less than expected, then you can determine that a cable problem exists at the position indicated by the TDR. For example, you use a TDR on a cable that you expect to be 100 meters (m) in length. The TDR indicates, however, that the cable is 80 m in length. You can thus determine that a problem, such as a break in the cable, exists 80 meters down the cable from your present location.

You can use a crimper to attach a connector to each end of a cable and create a patch cable. For example, you can use an RJ-45 crimper to attach RJ-45 connectors to the ends of Category 5 unshielded twisted-pair (CAT5 UTP) cable to create a patch cable for a 100BaseTX Ethernet network.

A crossover cable is a network cable that directly connects the sending pins on one network interface card (NIC) or hub with the receiving pins on another NIC or hub. You can use a crossover cable to connect two hubs, or you can use a crossover cable to directly connect two computers from one NIC to the other NIC.

A hardware loopback directly connects the sending and receiving pins on the same NIC. You can use a hardware loopback and a NIC's diagnostic utility to determine whether a NIC is correctly sending and receiving data.

Item: 11 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.3.10)

nmlkj a crimper

nmlkj a crossover cable

nmlkj a hardware loopback

nmlkj a time-domain reflectometer (TDR)

Answer:

a time-domain reflectometer (TDR)

of 396


Which information must be provided to a wireless device to enable it to connect to a wireless network?

Explanation: You must provide the Service Set Identifier (SSID) to a wireless device to enable it to connect to a wireless network. The SSID in a wireless network is the name of the network to which a wireless device connects. When a wireless device sends data packets over a wireless network, each data packet contains a 32-character identifier that is used to identify the wireless network. The 32-character identifier is the SSID of the wireless network. Wireless networks are differentiated by SSID.

The AP information does not need to be provided to a wireless device to enable the device to connect to a wireless network. An AP acts as a hub between the wireless devices and the local area network (LAN), which is typically a wired network. In most cases, a wireless device automatically detects an AP and connects to the AP and subsequently, to the wired network.

The Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) information does not need to be provided to a wireless device for connecting to a wireless network. WEP is a protocol used for encrypting the data packets being transmitted over the wireless network. WEP would need to be configured if a connection is being made to a secured WEP wireless network. If the wrong WEP key is entered, the network connection will fail.

The WPA information does not need to be provided to a wireless device to enable the device to connect to a wireless network. The WPA protocol offers enhanced data encryption and user authentication. A number of weaknsses in WEP, such as user authentication, were addressed by WPA. WPA would need to be configured if a connection is being made to a secured WPA wireless network.

Item: 12 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.2.10)

nmlkj Access Point (AP)

nmlkj Service Set Identifier (SSID)

nmlkj Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)

nmlkj Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA)

Answer:

Service Set Identifier (SSID)

of 396


Which IEEE wireless specifications use Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing (OFDM) encoding? (Choose three.)

Explanation: The 802.11g, 802.11a, and 802.16a wireless specifications use OFDM encoding that enables the transmission of a large amount of data over radio waves. The OFDM encoding breaks large radio signals into smaller radio signals and transmits these smaller radio signals using different frequencies. A receiver, typically a wireless antenna, receives smaller radio signals from different frequencies.

Although both 802.11a and 802.16a use OFDM, there are significant differences between the two wireless networks. An 802.11a wireless network operates with up to 54 Mbps speed using a 5 GHz frequency. An 802.16a wireless network operates with up to 70 Mbps speed using a frequency between 2 - 11 GHz.

The 802.11g wireless specification provides data throughput of 54 Mbps using 2.4 GHz frequency. The 802.11g network uses either DSSS or OFDM encoding.

The 802.11 and 802.11b wireless specifications do not use OFDM. An 802.11 network provides data throughput of 2 Mbps using the 2.4 GHz frequency. The 802.11 network uses frequency hopping spread spectrum (FHSS) or direct sequence spread spectrum (DSSS).

An 802.11b network provides data throughput of 11 Mbps using 2.4 GHz frequency. The 802.11b network uses DSSS.

All 802.11 implementations use Carrier Sense Multiple Access/ Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA).

Item: 13 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.1.2)

gfedc 802.11

gfedc 802.16a

gfedc 802.11b

gfedc 802.11g

gfedc 802.11a

Answer:

802.16a

802.11g

802.11a

of 396


You are unable to access your company's Web site using its fully qualified domain name (FQDN). However if you use the IP address of the Web site, you can access the home page. What may be the cause of the problem?

Explanation: If you are unable to access a Web site using its FQDN but you can browse the same Web site using its IP address, then the Domain Name System (DNS) server for the Web site is down. A DNS server provides name resolution and allows you to use an FQDN instead of an IP address. The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server is responsible for assigning IP addresses to DHCP clients. It does not allow you to access a Web site using its FQDN. A DHCP scope allows the DHCP server to assign IP addresses to clients. It also enables you to balance the server loads between multiple DHCP servers. The DHCP scope does not determine whether you can acces a Web site using its FQDN or IP address. If the company's Web site had been down, it would not have been accessible using either its FQDN or its IP address.

Item: 14 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.3.13)

nmlkj The DHCP server is down.

nmlkj The DHCP scope is configured incorrectly

nmlkj The Domain Name System (DNS) server is down.

nmlkj The company's Web site is down.

Answer:

The Domain Name System (DNS) server is down.

of 396


Which hardware device supports protocol translation between dissimilar systems at different Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) layers?

Explanation: A gateway supports protocol translation between dissimilar networks at different OSI layers. For example, a gateway would be used to connect an Ethernet network with an IBM network. Though a router can also connect dissimilar networks, it works only at one layer of the OSI model. You can use a hub to connect multiple computers in a network. Hubs operate strictly at Layer 1 (the physical layer) of the OSI model. A switch connects multiple computers in a network.

Item: 21 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.1.18)

nmlkj gateway

nmlkj router

nmlkj hub

nmlkj switch

Answer:

gateway

of 396


Which unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cable supports data transfer up to 100 Mbps or 100 Mbps speed?

Explanation: CAT5 UTP cable supports a data transfer rate of up to 100 Mbps. The CAT5e and CAT6 UTP standards support up to 1000 Mbps. CAT4 UTP cable supports a data transfer rate of only 20 Mbps. CAT3 UTP cable supports a data transfer rate of only 10 Mbps. CAT2 UTP cable supports a data transfer rate of only 4 Mbps.

Item: 27 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.1.20)

nmlkj CAT5

nmlkj CAT4

nmlkj CAT3

nmlkj CAT2

Answer:

CAT5

of 396


You are the desktop engineer for your company. A user named John reports that he cannot connect his computer to the office Ethernet local area network (LAN). To troubleshoot the problem, you check to confirm that the network cable is attached properly from both port end and computer end. The network cable is connected properly.

What should you do next?

Explanation: Before performing any of the other given troubleshooting steps, you must check whether the link light on the network interface card (NIC) is on. If the link light is on, it indicates that the connection between the NIC and the network exists. If the link light is off, it indicates that there is a problem with either the cable or the NIC.

After checking the link light status, you can perform other troubleshooting steps, such as checking whether the NIC is seated on the motherboard slot properly or whether the NIC is compatible with the computer. You can also check whether the correct driver for the NIC is installed.

Item: 29 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.3.7)

nmlkj Check whether the link light on the NIC is on.

nmlkj Check whether the NIC is seated properly in the motherboard.

nmlkj Check whether the installed NIC is compatible with the computer.

nmlkj Check whether the correct driver for the NIC is installed on the computer.

Answer:

Check whether the link light on the NIC is on.

of 396


You are troubleshooting a network connectivity problem on a Windows 98 computer, and you need to view the MAC address for the NIC installed in the computer. Which command should you issue at a command prompt to view the MAC address?

Explanation: Of the commands listed, you should use the ipconfig /all command to view the media access control (MAC) address of the network interface card (NIC) installed in the Windows 98 computer. Issuing the ipconfig command with no additional parameters will display the default network adapter's IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway address. The /all parameter displays all available TCP/IP configuration information for all adapters present on the local computer. You could also use the winipcfg command on a Windows 98 computer. Both commands work on a Windows 98 computer. On later versions of Windows, only the ipconfig command will work.

Note: Running the ipconfig command from the run box will also execute the command; however, the command prompt box will open, the command will run, and the box will close before you can review the results. Therefore, it is more helpful to run it from within an open command prompt window.

TCP/IP uses Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) to resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses so that TCP/IP and Ethernet, or another physical layer protocol, can interoperate. The arp command will not display the MAC address for the NIC in your Windows 98 computer. If you issue the arp -a command, then you can view the ARP cache for the computer, which displays the IP address and its corresponding MAC address for all entries in the cache.

The tracert command and the ping command, when issued without switches, will display directions for using these commands. You can use the tracert command with various switches and variables to determine the route a packet takes through a TCP/IP network, and you can use the ping command with various switches and variables to test connectivity between hosts.

Item: 35 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.3.9)

nmlkj the arp command

nmlkj the ping command

nmlkj the tracert command

nmlkj the ipconfig /all command

Answer:

the ipconfig /all command

of 396


You are troubleshooting a connectivity problem on an Ethernet network that contains both NetWare and Windows servers. A Windows 2000 client cannot connect to the Internet or any network resources. However, other computers on the same subnet as the client can access network resources and the Internet.

You issue the ipconfig command at the workstation and find that the IP address assigned to the system's network adapter is 169.254.184.25 and its subnet mask 255.255.0.0. This IP network and subnet are different from the IP network and subnet that other computers on the same segment are using.

Which option is the most likely problem?

Explanation: Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a feature of Windows NT-based and Windows 9x operating systems that enables a system to automatically self-assign an IP address when a DHCP server is not available. APIPA acts as a DHCP failover mechanism, making support easier for small local area networks.

APIPA uses the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) to select a unique IP address in the reserved address range of 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255 and a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0 when no DHCP server is available. Once the system has assigned itself an IP address, it can communicate with other devices on the LAN using TCP/IP, provided the devices are either configured for APIPA or manually set to the correct address range and a subnet mask.

The presence of an address in the APIPA range on a computer is a useful troubleshooting indicator, in that it will tell you that the computer is configured as a DHCP client and that the client is not able to get an address from the DHCP server for some reason. It could be either that the DHCP server is down or out of addresses, or it could perhaps indicate that the NIC on the computer is bad or unplugged.

NetWare and Windows servers do not issue IP addresses to clients unless the DHCP service is running on the server. If the DCHP services were running and properly configured on one of the servers, the client would have obtained an IP address in the proper address range.

It is unlikely that the client obtained the IP address from a DHCP server it found on the Internet because firewalls normally restrict DHCP requests to the local networks, and because the address is within a reserved IP address range.

Item: 38 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.2.12)

nmlkj The client selected the IP address using APIPA.

nmlkj The client obtained the IP address from a NetWare server.

nmlkj The client obtained the IP address from a Windows server.

nmlkj The client obtained the IP address from a DHCP server it found on the Internet.

Answer:

The client selected the IP address using APIPA.

of 396


You are using a router. You need to change the WAN IP address in the router configuration from a remote computer. Which tool should you use?

Explanation: You should use Internet Explorer to access the router configuration remotely. You can specify the IP address of the router or the router name in the address bar of Web browser and press Enter. The router administration interface should then be displayed. You cannot use the Ping tool to access router configuration remotely. The Ping tool is used to test the availability of resources on a network and connectivity to those resources. The IPConfig tool can be used to find the current TCP/IP configuration settings. The MSConfig tool provides access to system configuration settings on a Windows computer.

Item: 40 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.2.14)

nmlkj Ping

nmlkj IPconfig

nmlkj Msconfig

nmlkj Internet Explorer

Answer:

Internet Explorer

of 396


You work for a company whose network contains several subnets. You move your computer from the Development subnet to the Research subnet, which resides in a different building. You turn on the computer and attempt to connect to a computer named COMP5 on the Development subnet, but you are unable to do so. However, you can connect to all of the other computers on the Research subnet, and other Research computers can connect to COMP5 on the Development subnet.

What would explain your computer's communications problem?

Explanation: A computer successfully connects to another computer when it sends data packets that the other computer receives. An incorrect default gateway assignment on your computer will prevent data packets from being routed from the local Research subnet to COMP5 on the remote Development subnet. When data is sent to a remote computer, the data first goes to a router on the local subnet. The router examines the data to determine the destination address, calculates the best path on which to send the data, and sends the data toward the destination. This process fails if the computer has an incorrect default gateway assignment; the default gateway is the IP address of the router that forwards the data.

An incorrect IP address on your computer, such as an IP address appropriate for a different subnet, will probably prevent your computer from communicating on your local subnet, although your computer may possibly be able to communicate with remote computers. If your computer's IP address is the same as another computer's IP address on the same subnet, then your computer will probably not be able to connect to the network.

A loose network interface card (NIC) would probably disrupt all network communications to and from your computer. To check the installation of the NIC, you should confirm that the network cable is attached to both port and computer and that the link light on the NIC is on. If more troubleshooting is required, you may need to check the NIC's drivers or turn off your computer, remove the cover, and attempt to reseat the NIC. If you suspect that a bad NIC is causing a communications problem, then you should replace the NIC with one that you know is working and try to connect to the network.

As long as your computer has the correct protocol installed, your computer will still be able to communicate even if other incompatible protocols are installed. If an incompatible protocol were listed first in the binding order, then your communications would be slower but would still occur. However, if an incompatible network protocol were the only protocol on your computer, then all communications, both local and remote, would be impossible. In that case, you would have to install the required protocol. In general, when a computer has communications problems, the first step in troubleshooting is usually to check the software and settings. Ensure that the correct protocol is in use and the drivers are installed. Use network utilities such as the ping utility to test for connectivity.

Item: 44 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.3.8)

nmlkj an incorrect IP address

nmlkj an incorrect default gateway

nmlkj a loose network interface card (NIC)

nmlkj an incompatible network protocol listed first in the binding order

Answer:

an incorrect default gateway

of 396


You have two computers running Windows Vista at your home. You plan to use a crossover cable to connect both computers. Which hardware device should you use with the crossover cable to establish network connectivity between the computers?

Explanation: You require a network interface card (NIC) in each computer to use a crossover cable to establish network connectivity between the two computers. A crossover cable does not require any other special equipment to connect the two computers. A bridge is a hardware device that connects two portions of a network or two similar networks. This device is used to reduce network traffic by keeping network traffic separate at each segment. You can use a hub or switch to connect multiple computers in a network. Switches are more efficient than hubs.

Item: 75 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.1.17)

nmlkj network interface card (NIC)

nmlkj bridge

nmlkj hub

nmlkj switch

Answer:

network interface card (NIC)

of 396


Which component in a network is used as an access point to another network?

Explanation: The default gateway, or router, component is used as an access point to another network. In a network, a default gateway has its own address, known as a gateway address, that can be specified on a user's computer to enable these computers to access outside networks. In a wired network, routers can be used as default gateways, and in a wireless network, you can configure wireless access points as routers to make them act as default gateways.

The proxy server component allows client computers on a network to indirectly connect other network services. You can configure various types of proxy server depending upon the business requirements: Caching Web, Secure Sockets Layer (SSL), intercepting, open, reverse, or split proxy. A proxy server makes a single connection available to many network users. Proxy servers filter requests and increase performance. A proxy server can be configured to allow only specific types of connections based on protocol type or even user name.

The firewall component is a hardware or software that is used to provide security to a network against threats and attacks. A firewall secures a network from unauthorized users.

The DMZ component, also referred as perimeter network, is located between an internal and external firewall where the internal firewall is connected to the internal network, and the external firewall to the outside network. A DMZ is typically implemented in a network where servers are configured to be accessed from outside networks.

Item: 80 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.2.4)

nmlkj default gateway

nmlkj proxy server

nmlkj firewall

nmlkj demilitarized zone (DMZ)

Answer:

default gateway

of 396


What is the maximum bandwidth of a T3 Internet connection?

Explanation: The maximum bandwidth of a T3 Internet connection is 44.736 Mbps. The maximum bandwidth supported by a T1 Internet connection is 1.544 Mbps. The maximum bandwidth supported by an E1 Internet connection is 2.048 Mbps. The maximum bandwidth supported by a T4 Internet connection is 274.276 Mbps.

Item: 81 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.1.22)

nmlkj 1.544 Mbps

nmlkj 2.048 Mbps

nmlkj 44.736 Mbps

nmlkj 274.276 Mpbs

Answer:

44.736 Mbps

of 396


You are an IT technician. You are working at a customer's home to set up a wireless network using an existing digital subscriber line (DSL) connection. The customer has a Windows XP portable computer that consists of a built-in wireless network adapter. You successfully connect a wireless router to an existing DSL modem using a network cable. You start the computer. What should you do next?

Explanation: You should switch on the DSL modem. After switching on the DSL modem, you should wait for the modem to establish a successful Internet connection. To confirm whether the modem is connected or not, you can check the LEDs on the modem. Once the Internet connection is established, you must switch on the wireless router and wait for the Internet, WAN, or WLAN LED to light up. This indicates a successful connection between the router and the modem.

When the connection between the wireless router and the modem is successfully established, you must configure the wireless router by using the Internet Explorer browser. All wireless routers have a default address, username, and password in which you can access the router settings and configure them according to your requirements. While configuring the router, you can change three main settings that are related to Secure Set ID (SSID): name, encryption settings, and administrator password. After successfully configuring the router, a wireless network icon will be displayed on the Taskbar. By clicking this wireless network icon, you can check the status, duration, speed, or signal strength of the wireless connection. This icon will also display a list of wireless connections available in, so that you can choose and connect your computer to a wireless network.

Item: 82 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.3.5)

nmlkj Switch on the DSL modem.

nmlkj Switch on the wireless router.

nmlkj Configure the wireless router.

nmlkj Choose a wireless network.

Answer:

Switch on the DSL modem.

of 396


To protect wireless access points, which two guidelines should you follow? (Choose two.)

Explanation: To secure your wireless network, you must change the default administrator name and password on the wireless access points. By default, wireless access points are supplied by manufacturers with a default administrator name and password. To prevent unauthorized users from accessing your wireless network, you must change the default administrator name and password.

To protect wireless access points, you should also change the default Server Set ID (SSID) on wireless access points. All wireless access points have a default SSID; you must change the SSID of your wireless access points to something unique. Changing the SSID prevents your wireless network from overlapping with other networks using the same default SSIDs, and from unauthorized users. You should also disable the SSID broadcasts on the network.

Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is a commonly used wireless network encryption method. To prevent unauthorized users from capturing information that is sent across a wireless network, you must enable WEP.

To prevent unauthorized users from accessing your wireless network when you are not using the network, you must power-off the wireless access points. You could also configure MAC address filtering on the wireless access points to prevent unauthorized computers from connecting.

Item: 83 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.2.1)

gfedc Change the default administrator password on wireless access points.

gfedc Change the default Server Set ID (SSID) on wireless access points.

gfedc Do not enable Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP).

gfedc Do not power-off the wireless access points when they are not in use.

Answer:

Change the default administrator password on wireless access points.

Change the default Server Set ID (SSID) on wireless access points.

of 396


Which of the following IP addresses is used by Class B private networks?

Explanation: The 172.16.0.0 address is used by Class B private networks. Private network IP addresses are those addresses which are reserved for use on private networks, and cannot be used on the Internet. The valid IP address ranges for private networks are 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255, 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255, and 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255. If you plan to deploy a private IP address range on your network and need to provide Internet access as well, a Network Address Translation (NAT) server will be needed. The 10.0.0.0 address is a Class A IP address for private networks. The 192.168.0.0 address is a Class C IP address for private networks. The 127.0.0.1 address is the software loopback address.

Item: 86 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.1.21)

nmlkj 10.0.0.0

nmlkj 172.16.0.0

nmlkj 192.168.0.0

nmlkj 127.0.0.1

Answer:

172.16.0.0

of 396


Which components are displayed in the Wireless Network Connection Status dialog box on a Windows XP-based client computer that is connected to a wireless network? (Choose all that apply.)

Explanation: The Wireless Network Connection Status dialog box in a Windows XP-based client computer that is connected to a wireless network displays the speed and signal strength of the wireless connection. To open this dialog-box, you can double-click on the wireless networking icon on the Taskbar. The Wireless Network Connection Status dialog-box also displays the status and duration of wireless connection.

The Wireless Network Connection Status dialog box in a Windows XP-based client computer that is connected to a wireless network does not display the EAP type or the option to enable or disable IEEE 802.1x authentication. The EAP type and the option to enable or disable IEEE 802.1x authentication are displayed in the Wireless network properties dialog box and not in the Wireless Network Connection Status dialog box.

Item: 89 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.3.1)

gfedc speed

gfedc signal strength

gfedc EAP type

gfedc option to enable or disable IEEE 802.1x authentication

Answer:

speed

signal strength

of 396


You want to assign a static Internet Protocol (IP) address to a Windows XP client computer that is configured to use a dynamic IP address.

Which tool should you use? (Choose two.)

Explanation: You can use the Network Connections tool or the NETSH.EXE tool to assign a static Internet Protocol (IP) address to a Windows XP client computer that is configured to use a dynamic IP address. To open the Network Connections tool, you can double-click the My Network Places icon, and then click View network connections in the Network Tasks section in the My Network Places window. In the Network Connections window, double-click the local area connection icon for which you want to assign a static IP address. You can also use the NESTSH.EXE command-line tool to change from dynamic IP address to static IP address by using appropriate parameters. This tool allows you to display or modify the network configuration of a computer.

You cannot use the IPCONFIG.EXE tool to assign a static Internet Protocol (IP) address to a Windows XP client computer that is configured to use a dynamic IP address. This tool can only be used to display settings for network connections and to release or renew an IP address on a computer.

You cannot use the NETDIAG.EXE tool, also referred as Network Diagnostics Tool, to assign a static Internet Protocol (IP) address to a Windows XP client computer that is configured to use a dynamic IP address. This tool is used to perform a series of tests to check the network connectivity on a computer.

Item: 92 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.2.2)

gfedc Network Connections

gfedc NETSH.EXE

gfedc IPCONFIG.EXE

gfedc NETDIAG.EXE

Answer:

Network Connections

NETSH.EXE

of 396


You are a desktop engineer for your company. You want to configure a new Windows XP Professional client computer to connect to the company's local area network (LAN) by using a virtual private network (VPN) connection. You connect the client computer to the Internet. What should you do next?

Explanation: You should use the New Connection Wizard to configure the client computer to connect to the company's LAN by using a VPN connection. The New Connection Wizard is used to connect a computer to the Internet or to a business network by using dial-up or VPN connections. This wizard also allows you to directly connect with another computer using serial, parallel, or infrared ports. A VPN connection allows computers to share files over the Internet using a virtual tunnel.

You should not use a Web browser to configure the client computer to connect to the company's LAN by using a VPN connection. A Web browser is typically used for surfing the Internet to open Web sites or Web-based applications. Moreover, you can use a Web browser to configure broadband Internet modems or wired or wireless routers.

You should not use the NETSH command to configure the client computer to connect to the company's LAN by using a VPN connection. This command allows you to display or modify the network configuration of a computer. You can use the NETSH command to assign a static Internet Protocol (IP) address to a computer or to change the IP address of a computer.

You should not use the IPCONFIG command to configure the client computer to connect to the company's LAN by using a VPN connection. This command displays network settings for network connections on a computer. You can also use this command to release or renew the IP address of a computer.

Item: 93 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.2.6)

nmlkj Use the New Connection Wizard.

nmlkj Use a Web browser.

nmlkj Use the NETSH command.

nmlkj Use the IPCONFIG command.

Answer:

Use the New Connection Wizard.

of 396


What is the operating range for Class 2 Bluetooth devices?

Explanation: The operating range for Class 2 Bluetooth devices is up to 10 meters or 33 feet. Bluetooth is a technology that is used to establish a wireless connection between devices such as computers, printers, keyboards, mouse, mobile phone, and other Bluetooth supported devices. There are two more classes for Bluetooth devices: Class 1 and Class 3. The Class 1 Bluetooth devices have an operating range of up to 100 meters or 300 feet. The Class 3 Bluetooth devices have an operating range of up to 1 meter or 3 feet. All other options are incorrect.

Item: 97 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.2.3)

nmlkj 10 meters or 33 feet

nmlkj 1 meter or 3 feet



Answer:

10 meters or 33 feet

of 396


Which operating frequency band is used by Bluetooth technology?

Explanation: Bluetooth technology operates at a frequency band of 2.4 GHz to 2.485 GHz. Bluetooth allows you to establish a wireless connection between devices, such as laptop, printers, mobile phones, mouse, keyboard, and other devices that supports Bluetooth technology. Bluetooth has an operating range of 1 meter to 100 meters (3 to 300 feet) depending on the device class being used. Bluetooth devices are of three types: Class 1, Class 2, and Class 3.

The 125 KHz to 134 KHz operating frequency band is used by Low frequency (LF). LF is typically used as a frequency range for radio frequency identification (RFID). LF has a read range of up to .5 meter and is used in animal tracking, access control, or vehicle immobilizers.

The 13.56 MHz operating frequency band is used by high frequency (HF). HF is typically used as a frequency range for RFID. HF has a read range of up to 1 meter and is used in item tracking or smart cards.

The 860 MHz to 930 MHz operating frequency band is used by ultrahigh frequency (UHF). UHF is also used as a frequency range for RFID. UHF has a read range of up to 3 meters and is used in automated toll collection or parking lot access.

Item: 101 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.2.5)

nmlkj 2.4 GHz to 2.485 GHz

nmlkj 125 KHz to 134 KHz

nmlkj 13.56 MHz

nmlkj 860 MHz to 930 MHz

Answer:

2.4 GHz to 2.485 GHz

of 396


What is the length of a Media Access Control (MAC) address in bits?

Explanation: A MAC address is 48 bits in length and consists of 12-digit hexadecimal numbers. A MAC address is a unique identifier attached to networking devices, such as network inerface cards (NICs). A MAC address is also referred to as a Locally Administered Address, Ethernet Address, Physical Address, or Network Address. You can run the IPCONFIG /ALL command in the command prompt to view the MAC address of an NIC in a Windows-based computer. All other options are incorrect. IPv4 uses addresses that are 32 bits in length, and IPv6 uses addresses that are 128 bits in length. A logical address consists of a segment selector that is 16 bits in length and an offset of 32 bits or 16 bits in length.

Item: 103 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.3.3)

nmlkj 48 bits

nmlkj 32 bits

nmlkj 128 bits

nmlkj 16 bits

Answer:

48 bits

of 396


You are the server administrator for Nutex Corporation. A desktop user reports that she cannot access network resources. You have assigned a static IP address to the desktop computer. You confirm that the network cable is properly connected from her desktop to the Ethernet port in the wall. What else should you do to troubleshoot the problem?

Explanation: You should first verify that the link light-emitting diode (LED) on the network interface card (NIC) is solid green. The green LED status on the NIC shows that the network connection is established between the computer and the network. If the link LED on the NIC is amber, then it shows that there is collision in the network. This same rule applies if there are two LEDs on the NIC. Issuing the ipconfig /release and ipconfig /renew from the command prompt will generate an error because you have assigned a static IP address to the computer. You should not ensure that the link LED on the NIC is off. If the link LED is not lit on the NIC, it implies that there is no network connectivity. You should not connect a crossover cable from the desktop computer to the Ethernet port on the wall because a crossover cable is used to connect two computers directly without a hub or switch.

Item: 109 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.3.14)

nmlkj Ensure that the link LED on the NIC is green.

nmlkj Run ipconfig /release and ipconfig /renew from the command prompt.

nmlkj Ensure that the link LED on the NIC is off.

nmlkj Connect a crossover cable from the desktop computer to the Ethernet port on the wall.

Answer:

Ensure that the link LED on the NIC is green.

of 396


You need to connect two computers for a customer. The customer does not have a network and does not wish to purchase a concentrator, but both computers include functional Ethernet network interface cards with RJ-45 connectors. Which component will allow you to meet your customer's needs?

Explanation: You can use a crossover cable to connect two computers directly through the RJ-45 connectors on their Ethernet network cards. A crossover cable consists of a standard 10BaseT cable with RJ-45 connectors that have specific pin contacts reversed, or "crossed over." RJ-45 connectors, when used to connect Ethernet interface cards, support a 10BaseT network topology. On a standard 10BaseT network, computers' network interface cards must connect to a concentrator, often referred to as a hub, before they are able to communicate with other computers. The reversed pin contacts in crossover cables accomplish the same signal conditioning that Ethernet concentrators are responsible for on a typical 10BaseT network. One reason to use a crossover cable is to connect two computers directly without incurring the cost of a concentrator. Null-modem cables, which are serial cables with some pin contacts reversed, also allow direct communication between two computers. Use of the term null-modem became common because communications through these modified serial cables use modem commands and protocols, but actual modems do not have to be physically present; standard serial ports are adequate for initiating and maintaining a connection. An AGP card is a graphics card designed to connect to a computer's AGP slot. Passive hubs are concentrators that require no external electric power. The 10BaseT standard does not include specifications for passive hubs; consequently, 10BaseT concentrators are all active, which means they require a source of electric power. A protocol analyzer is a tool that allows the capture and display of packets traveling across a network.

Item: 110 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.2.11)

nmlkj an Accelerated Graphics Port (AGP) card

nmlkj a passive hub

nmlkj a crossover cable

nmlkj a protocol analyzer

Answer:

a crossover cable

of 396


What should the LED on the network interface card (NIC) display to indicate that the network cable is plugged into the NIC?

Explanation: The status of the green LED, also referred as the link light, should be solid. This status indicates that the network cable is plugged in properly into the NIC.

If the green LED is off, it indicates that there is no network connectivity or the network cable is not plugged in properly.

If the orange LED is solid, it indicates that data packets are being sent or received by the computer over the NIC.

If the orange LED is off, it indicates that no data packets are being sent or received by the computer over the NIC.

To verify whether the network cable is plugged into the NIC, you should check the status of the green LED and not the orange one.

Item: 111 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.3.4)

nmlkj The green LED should be solid.

nmlkj The green LED should be off.

nmlkj The orange LED should be solid.

nmlkj The orange LED should be off.

Answer:

The green LED should be solid.

of 396


Which wireless technology requires two devices to be in the line of sight to connect with each other?

Explanation: IrDA is a wireless technology protocol suite that requires two devices to be in line of sight to connect with each other. If there is any disturbance or blockage between the two IrDA ports, the devices will not be able to connect with each other. The maximum distance between two IrDA devices should be 2 m. If you have two IrDA devices that are kept at a distance over 2 m, the IrDA devices will not be able to connect with each other. If the network interface card (NIC) of your portable computer is not working and the computer is equipped with the IrDA port, you can connect to another portable computer with IrDA for data transfers. As a temporary arrangement, an IrDA port can be used to perform data transfer between two portable computers.

The 802.11a, 802.11b, and 802.11g wireless technologies do not require two devices to be in line of sight to connect with each other. The 802.11a wireless technology offers a speed of 54 Mbps, the 802.11b wireless technology a speed of 11 Mbps, and the 802.11g wireless technology a speed of 108 Mbps. These technologies use a wireless access point (AP) to connect devices in a network.

Item: 119 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.2.8)

nmlkj 802.11a

nmlkj 802.11b

nmlkj 802.11g

nmlkj Infrared Data Association (IrDA)

Answer:

Infrared Data Association (IrDA)

of 396


Which hardware device operates at the physical layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model to connect computers in a network?

Explanation: A hub is a hardware device that operates at the physical layer (Layer 1) of the OSI model to connect computers in a network. A switch can connect computers in a network, but does not operate at the physical layer of the OSI model. A switch operates at the data-link layer (Layer 2). A switch enhances network connectivity and performance. It also reduces the network traffic when compared to a hub by forwarding the data packets only to the destination port. A bridge can connect computers in a network, but does not operate at the physical layer of the OSI model. A bridge operates at the data-link layer (Layer 2). A bridge is a hardware device that connects two portions of a network or two similar networks together. This device is used to reduce network traffic by broadcasting data packets to all the possible destinations within a particular segment. A router can connect computers in a network, but usually connects dissimilar networks to each other. Additionally, a router operates at network layer (Layer 3) of the OSI model.

Item: 125 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.2.13)

nmlkj switch

nmlkj hub

nmlkj bridge

nmlkj router

Answer:

hub

of 396


You want to set up a wireless network with data throughput of 54 Mbps. Which two wireless specifications will provide a data throughput of 54 Mbps? (Choose two.)

Explanation: You can use either the 802.11a or the 802.11g specifications. Both 802.11a and 802.11g provide data throughput of 54 Mbps. The 802.11g wireless network provides backward compatibility with the 802.11b wireless network specification, but the 802.11a network does not provide backward compatibility to any other wireless network because it operates in the 5 GHz frequency range rather than the 2.4 GHz range that 802.11b and 802.1g operate in. You should not use the 802.11b wireless network specification. The 802.11b network specification provides data throughput of only 11 Mbps. You should not use the 802.11 wireless network specification. The 802.11 provides data throughput of only 2 Mbps.

Item: 137 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.1.3)

gfedc 802.11

gfedc 802.11a

gfedc 802.11b

gfedc 802.11g

Answer:

802.11a

802.11g

of 396


Which statement is incorrect for routers?

Explanation: Routing does not occur at OSI Layer 4, the transport layer. The transport layer provides transfer of data between end systems or hosts. This layer is accountable for end-to-end error recovery and flow control. Routing occurs at the network layer, also referred to as OSI Layer 3. Network layer provides switching and routing technologies for transmitting data packets from one node to another.

All other options are true for routers. Routers are used to forward data packets across networks. Routers can be installed on a network's gateway to establish a connection between two LANs or WANs or a LAN and its ISP. Routers can use ICMP protocol to communicate with other routers. The ICMP protocol assists a router in providing a default gateway setting to a host. Routers can also send ICMP messages to forward a host to another router.

Item: 139 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.3.6)

nmlkj Routing occurs at OSI Layer 4, the transport layer.

nmlkj Routers are used to forward data packets across networks.

nmlkj Routers are used to establish a connection between two local area networks (LANs) or wide area networks (WANs) or a LAN and its Internet Service Provider (ISP).

nmlkj Routers can use Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) protocol to communicate with other routers.

Answer:

Routing occurs at OSI Layer 4, the transport layer.

of 396


In ad-hoc mode, how many wireless access points will be required to connect five wireless portable computers?

Explanation: In ad hoc mode, you will not require wireless access points to connect five wireless portable computers. Ad hoc mode is typically used to connect wireless peripherals using a centralized hub. Ad hoc mode is typically used in conference rooms where portable computers directly connect to share data.

A site survey should be performed before configuring the wireless network. A site survey identifies all the wireless network requirements and any impediments that may exist.

Item: 142 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.2.9)

nmlkj zero

nmlkj one

nmlkj two

nmlkj three

Answer:

zero

of 396


Which type of cable can operate at up to 2.5 gigabits per second (Gbps)?

Explanation: CAT6 cable can operate at up to 2.5 Gbps. It is often referred to as Gigabit Ethernet. CAT3 cable can operate at up to 10 megabits per second (Mbps). CAT5 cable can operate at up to 100 Mbps. CAT 5e cable can operate at up to 1 Gbps. CAT5e networks can also be referred to as Gigabit Ethernet, but Gigabit Ethernet is more often used to refer to CAT 6 networks.

Item: 143 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.1.19)

nmlkj CAT3

nmlkj CAT5

nmlkj CAT5e

nmlkj CAT6

Answer:

CAT6

of 396


Which connectors are used with fiber-optic cabling? (Choose two.)

Explanation: The ST and SC connectors are the two most popular connectors available for fiber-optic cabling. Other common fiber-optic connectors are FC, FDDI, LC, D4, MU, MT, and MT-RJ.

The following connector shows the four most used fiber optic connectors:

An AUI connector is a 15-pin female connector that looks similar to the shape of the letter "D." It is also known as a DB-15 or Digital Intel Xerox (DIX) connector. It is typically a component of thick Ethernet (10Base5) connections, though it is being phased out with the introduction of Fast Ethernet.

An RJ-11 connector is typically used to connect two pairs of UTP wiring to a voice-grade telephone system.

RJ-45 connectors are used to connect unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) and shielded twisted-pair (STP) cable to hubs, network interface cards (NICs), and various other twisted-pair networking devices. RJ-45 connectors are shaped like RJ-11 connectors, only larger. They use an 8-pin connector housing eight (four pair) wires. Registered Jack (RJ) connectors use a small tab to lock the connector in place.

Item: 145 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.1.1)

gfedc SC

gfedc ST

gfedc AUI

gfedc RJ-11

gfedc RJ-45

Answer:

SC

ST

of 396


Which of the following IP addresses is used by a Class A private network?

Explanation: The 10.0.0.0 address is a Class A IP address for private networks. Private network IP addresses cannot be used on the Internet. The 172.16.0.0 address is a Class B IP address for private networks. The 192.168.0.0 address is a Class C IP address for private networks. The 127.0.0.1 address is not reserved for private networks. This IP address is the software loopback address.

Item: 146 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.1.16)

nmlkj 10.0.0.0

nmlkj 172.16.0.0

nmlkj 192.168.0.0

nmlkj 127.0.0.1

Answer:

10.0.0.0

of 396


What is the transmission distance supported by single-mode fiber optic cable?

Explanation: Single-mode fiber supports a transmission distance of approximately 20 miles, or more. Single-mode fiber has an advantage over the multi-mode fiber and all other transmission mediums in terms of transmission distance.

Single-mode fiber does not support a transmission distance of 50 feet, 3000 feet, or 74 miles.

The coaxial cable that is used in a 10Base2 network is known as RG-58 or ThinNet. The coaxial cable that is used in a 10Base5 network is known as RG-8 or ThickNet. A ThinNet cable supports transmission range up to 185 meters, and a ThickNet cable can supports transmission up to 500 meters.

Multi-mode fiber optic cable supports a transmission distance of 3000 feet.

Unshielded twisted pair (UTP) or shielded twisted pair (STP) cable has a transmission range up to 100 meters or 328 feet.

Item: 169 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.1.5)

nmlkj appr. 50 feet

nmlkj appr. 3000 feet

nmlkj appr. 20 miles

nmlkj appr. 74 miles

Answer:

appr. 20 miles

of 396


What is the minimum category of UTP cable used with 10BaseT?

Explanation: 10BaseT requires a minimum of Category 3 cable. Category 3 cable is acceptable for 10-Mbps transmissions but has largely been phased out in favor of the newer Category 5e and Category 6 standards. These newer cables are rated for much faster speeds (1000 Mbps) and provide backward compatibility to the older and much slower 10-Mbps standards. Most cable suppliers no longer manufacture Category 3 cable. Category 2 cable is not suitable for 10-Mbps transmissions. It only supports speeds of up to 4 Mbps. Category 5 is suitable for transmissions of up to 100 Mbps. It has been phased out in favor of Category 5e and Category 6, which support speeds of up to 1000 Mbps. While Category 5e supports speeds of up to 1000 Mbps, Category 6 is recommend for best results.

Item: 182 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.1.8)

nmlkj Category 2

nmlkj Category 3

nmlkj Category 5

nmlkj Category 5e

nmlkj Category 6

Answer:

Category 3

of 396


What is the maximum segment distance for data transmission using 10BaseT, 100BaseT, and 1000BaseT?

Explanation: 10BaseT, 100BaseT, and 1000BaseT Ethernet use unshielded twisted-pair cable (UTP) as their transmission medium. The maximum transmission distance of UTP cable is 100 meters, or 328 feet. This distance can be increased using repeaters.

Item: 192 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.1.15)

nmlkj 25 meters (82 feet)




nmlkj 500 meters (1,640 feet)

Answer:

100 meters (328 feet)

of 396


Which network medium is the least susceptible to EMI or signal capture?

Explanation: Fiber-optic cable carries its signals in the form of modulated pulses of light. Because fiber-optic uses light pulses rather than electric signals, it is virtually impossible to intercept the signal without interrupting it and thus being detected. In addition, fiber-optic cable is not susceptible to interference. It can span distances of up to two kilometers, or 2,000 meters (6,562 feet) and transmit data at a rate in excess of 100 Mbps. However, fiber-optic cable is the most expensive type of networking cable. The following table presents a comparison of network media:

Item: 193 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.1.14)

nmlkj Coaxial

nmlkj Fiber-optic

nmlkj Shielded twisted-pair

nmlkj Unshielded twisted-pair

Answer:

Fiber-optic

of 396


Which cable connector is used in a 1000BaseT network?

Explanation: The RJ-45 cable connector is used in a gigabit Ethernet or 1000BaseT network. The RJ-45 connector is used with unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) copper-wire cabling and can be used to carry data at up to 1,000 Mbps, which is 1 gigabit per second (Gbps). The SC, ST, and MTRJ connectors are used with fiber-optic cabling. For instance, these cable connectors can be used in a 100BaseFX network.

Item: 194 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.1.11)

nmlkj SC

nmlkj ST

nmlkj MTRJ

nmlkj RJ-45

Answer:

RJ-45

of 396


What is the main difference in the physical composition of UTP and STP cable?

Explanation: Shielded twisted-pair (STP) cable is identical to UTP except for the shielding that encloses the twisted pairs. This metallic shield protects the cable from interference caused by fluorescent light fixtures, motors, and other electromagnetic interference (EMI) sources. STP cable can be used in any implementation where UTP is used, but it is generally only used when shielding from EMI is required because it is more expensive than UTP cable.

Item: 197 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.1.6)

nmlkj Wire gauge

nmlkj Mesh shielding

nmlkj Number of twists in the wires

nmlkj Separators between the wire pairs

Answer:

Mesh shielding

of 396


Your company has decided to implement a wireless network. The wireless network users must be able to connect to resources on your internal network, including file, print, and DHCP services. All wireless clients will run the Windows XP Professional operating system. Which options should you implement? (Choose all that apply.)

Explanation: Infrastructure mode allows wireless computers to connect to a LAN, WAN, or the Internet. This means that infrastructure mode wireless computers can access all computers on the LAN, WAN, and Internet. Infrastructure mode is much more expensive than ad hoc mode to implement because you must configure wireless access points. While infrastructure mode is harder to set up and configure, management is much easier than with ad hoc mode. To view the strength of the wireless network, open the properties dialog box for the wireless network interface card (NIC).

Ad hoc mode allows wireless computers to be configured much faster than infrastructure mode. Ad hoc mode wireless computers all participate in the same network. This means that the ad hoc wireless computers can access each other, but cannot access network resources on a LAN, WAN, or Internet. Ad hoc mode is much cheaper than infrastructure mode to implement. In addition, it is easy to set up and configure and can provide better performance than infrastructure mode. However, it is difficult to manage an ad hoc mode wireless network.

Static IP addresses should not be implemented because the corporate network contains a DHCP server. Static addressing refers to the manual configuration of each computer. APIPA should not be used for the same reason. In addition, APIPA is utilized only if a DHCP server is not found.

Item: 205 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.2.7)

gfedc Infrastructure mode

gfedc Ad hoc mode

gfedc A wireless access point

gfedc Static IP addresses

gfedc APIPA

Answer:

Infrastructure mode

A wireless access point

of 396


You have a computer that cannot connect to the Internet. The computer can ping other computers on the subnet. The computer can ping the default gateway. Other computers cannot ping the FTP site at 64.32.1.54. What should you do to fix the problem?

Explanation: You should reset the router. In this scenario, you cannot connect to the Internet and other computers cannot ping an IP address on the Internet. Since you are able to ping the default gateway, which is the router, the most likely problem is that the router is hung up and needs to be reset. If you can ping a computer but cannot access a Web site, you should check if other computers can access a Web site. If they can, the HTTP service on your workstation is down or port 80 is blocked.

You should not change the IP address of the DNS server in the computer's network configuration. DNS servers resolve names to IP addresses. Name resolution is not the issue. Since other computers cannot connect to a FTP site on the Internet by IP address, the router that is defined as the default gateway is not forwarding packets to the Internet. You should reset the router.

You should not change the IP address of the default gateway in the computer's configuration. The IP address of the default gateway is not the problem. The default gateway's IP address is correct and can be pinged. However, the default gateway is not forwarding packets.

You should not use IPCONFIG /RENEW to fix the problem. IPCONFIG /RENEW allows the computer to extend the lease of the IP address that it already has. The computer's IP address is not the problem.

Item: 218 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.3.2)

nmlkj Change the IP address of the DNS server in the computer's network configuration.

nmlkj Change the IP address of the default gateway in the computer's configuration.

nmlkj Reset the router.

nmlkj Use IPCONFIG /RENEW to renew the IP address of the computer.

Answer:

Reset the router.

of 396


You administer computers on a Microsoft Windows 2000 TCP/IP network. On the network, you want to use a domain name-to-Internet Protocol (IP) address name resolution system that provides a central database on a server to resolve domain names to IP addresses. Which options should you implement on your network?

Explanation: Of the choices presented, you should use Domain Name System (DNS) for domain name-to-IP address resolution on the network that you administer. DNS provides a centralized database of domain name-to-IP address resolutions on a server or servers that other computers on a network can use for name resolution. On a TCP/IP network that uses DNS, only the database files on the DNS servers must be updated to reflect changes that are made to domain name-to-IP address resolutions. When computers cannot communicate on a network, the ability to ping other computers by address by not but name is an indication of a DNS problem. Domain names can also be resolved to IP addresses by using a HOSTS file. On a network that uses a HOSTS file, that file must exist on each computer on the network to enable domain name-to-IP address resolution. When changes are made that affect domain name-to-IP address resolution, then each HOSTS file must be manually updated. LMHOSTS files and Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) are used to resolve NetBIOS names to IP addresses on Microsoft Windows networks, such as Windows NT 4.0 networks.

Item: 220 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.3.11)

nmlkj the Domain Name System (DNS)

nmlkj the HOSTS file

nmlkj the LMHOSTS file

nmlkj the Windows Internet Name Service (WINS)

Answer:

the Domain Name System (DNS)

of 396


What does a cable rated as "plenum" indicate about the cable?

Explanation: A plenum-rated cable will not produce toxic gas when it burns; therefore, it can be used in plenum areas, such as ventilation ducts and other areas that carry breathable air. Non-plenum cables are covered with PVC, which produces toxic gas when it burns. Most fire codes require plenum-rated cable in any area that carries breathable air.

Item: 229 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.1.7)

nmlkj It is rated for speeds of 1000 Mbps.

nmlkj It is not Layer 2 protocol-dependent.

nmlkj It cannot be tapped without detection.

nmlkj It will not produce toxic gas when it burns.

Answer:

It will not produce toxic gas when it burns.

of 396


Which cable uses a light-emitting diode (LED)?

Explanation: A multi-mode fiber optic cable uses an LED to emit the light from the current that passes through the LED.

An LED uses two semiconductors: p-type semiconductors and n-type semiconductors. When both the semiconductors are kept in direct contact, they form a region called P-N junction. The current is passed from the p-type semiconductor to the n-type semiconductor and light emits from the current. The LED is used in fiber optics for faster data transmission that occurs in remote controls and LCD backlighting.

Coaxial cable does not use an LED. Coaxial cable is half-duplex and supports a speed of 10 Mbps. Coaxial-RG-8 cables are used in the 10Base5 network.

Unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cable does not use an LED. UTP cable is used in the 1000BaseT network. The UTP cable contains four pairs of twisted cables. The UTP cables are in pairs in the unshielded form.

An shielded twisted pair (STP) cable does not use an LED. The STP cable is used in the 1000BaseCX network. The STP cable contains four pairs of twisted cables. Each twisted pair is wrapped in a foil that protects them from any kind of interference.

Single-mode fiber optic cable uses a laser diode to emit the light. Laser diodes produce the type of light required to travel down the single-mode fiber cable. The light produced must be an in-phase, single-frequency, and unidirectional light ray.

Item: 232 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.1.4)

nmlkj coaxial cable

nmlkj multi-mode fiber optic cable

nmlkj shielded twisted pair (STP) cable

nmlkj unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cable

Answer:

multi-mode fiber optic cable

of 396


Which Internet access technology is generally available in areas where the other high-speed technologies are not?

Explanation: Satellite technology can go where cable, DSL, and ISDN cannot because satellite does not require wired connections. Instead of copper cable carrying the signals traveling between the user and the ISP copper cable, the signals are bounced off of a satellite. This allows satellite technology coverage to extend over huge geographic areas. The downside of satellite technology is its relatively slow speed compared to cable, ISDN, and DSL. This delay involved in the satellite signal is known as latency.

DSL, ISDN, and cable technologies use technology-specific modems to provide Internet connections.

Item: 233 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.1.13)

nmlkj DSL

nmlkj ISDN

nmlkj Cable

nmlkj Satellite

Answer:

Satellite

of 396


What is the networking model that uses a network operating system to manage the network and act as a central authority for network resources?

Explanation: There are two basic networking models: peer-to-peer and client/server. The client/server model uses a network operating system to manage the network and act as a central authority for network resources. The network operating system runs on one more servers and allows network administrators to control the network. Clients, or workstations, make requests to the servers for resources, and the servers fulfill or reject their requests. This provides a secure and organized network.

Peer-to-peer networks have no central authority. The network is created by individual users sharing resources, such as folders and printers, on their local workstations. This model works well only in small environments with minimal security considerations.

Classful and classless are not networking models.

Item: 236 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.1.12)

nmlkj Classful

nmlkj Classless

nmlkj Peer-to-peer

nmlkj Client/server

Answer:

Client/server

of 396


Which Internet connectivity type always uses a coaxial (coax) cable to establish a two-way connection to the Internet?

Explanation: Cable modem-based Internet connections always use standard coax cabling to establish a direct connection to the Internet. Typically, the cable modem connects to the computer by using either an RJ-45 Ethernet cable or a Universal Serial Bus (USB) cable; however, the cable modem connects to the wall jack and Internet Service Provider (ISP) by using coaxial cable. Because coaxial cabling is capable of transmitting multiple frequencies, the same cable can be used for both cable television and cable modem-based Internet connections. Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) connections and analog modem-based dial-up Internet connections use a standard RJ-11 telephone jack to establish a connection between the modem and the ISP. Satellite-based connections are available in two types: a one-way satellite connection, and a two-way satellite connection. The one-way connection uses a dial-up modem to transmit to the Internet through the ISP and a satellite dish to receive information that is relayed through a satellite from the Internet. The two-way connection uses the satellite for both transmitting and receiving information. In one-way satellite Internet connectivity, the computer connects to a device that is known as an Indoor Receive Unit (IRU), which connects through a coax cable to the satellite dish. In two-way satellite Internet connectivity, an Indoor Transmit Unit (ITU) is used as well as an IRU. Although a coax cable is used between the IRU or the ITU and the satellite dish, not all satellite connections use coax cable for two-way connections to the Internet.

Item: 238 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.1.10)

nmlkj Digital Subscriber Line (DSL)

nmlkj Cable

nmlkj Dial-up

nmlkj Satellite

Answer:

Cable

of 396


Which characteristic is common to 10Base2, 10BaseT, and 100BaseTX?

Explanation: The "Base" in each standard's name indicates that it uses the baseband signaling method for communication over the network. This means that only one signal at a time is sent onto the network medium. This is the direct opposite of broadband, which multiplexes the signals to allow multiple signals on the medium. The naming standard is the same for the different Ethernet types. The first number of each standard indicates the transmission speed in Mbps. The middle portion indicates the signaling type, and the last portion indicates the transmission medium. For example, the "100" in 100BaseTX indicates that it can transmit at 100 Mbps, "Base" indicates that it uses the baseband transmission method, and "TX" indicates twisted-pair cable for the network medium. The cable type is not very intuitive and can be difficult to decipher. 10Base2, 10BaseT, and 100BaseTX do not transmit at the same rate. 10Base2 and 10BaseT transmit at 10 Mbps, whereas 100BaseTX transmits at 100 Mbps. They do not use the same transmission medium: 10Base2 uses coaxial cable, whereas 10BaseT and 100BaseTX use twisted-pair. Their physical topologies are also different: 10Base2 uses a bus topology, whereas 10BaseT and 100BaseTX use a physical star topology. However, they do share the same logical topology (bus). NOTE: 10Base2, 10BaseT, and 100BaseTX are all Ethernet standards, which use Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD).

Item: 242 (Ref:Cert-220-601.5.1.9)

nmlkj Signaling method

nmlkj Physical topology

nmlkj Transmission medium

nmlkj Transmission speed

Answer:

Signaling method

of 396


Which command displays command line help for the ATTRIB command?

Explanation: The /? option can be used with command-line commands to obtain help.

Command-line help for ATTRIB is shown in the figure.

An explanation of the other options is shown in the following graphic:

Operating Systems

Item: 18 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.3.24)

nmlkj ATTRIB /H

nmlkj ATTRIB /?

nmlkj ATTRIB HELP

nmlkj ATTRIB /&

Answer:

ATTRIB /?

of 396


You are the desktop engineer for your company. The company intranet consists of fifteen Windows XP Professional client computers. Management instructs you to configure Internet Information Services (IIS) to provide a manageable, highly reliable, and scalable Web application infrastructure. You install the Domain Name System (DNS) service on a computer. You also install Microsoft FrontPage and Microsoft Visual InterDev to create, edit, and develop interactive Web sites and applications.

What should you do next to install IIS on a Windows XP computer using the least amount of administrative effort?

Explanation: IIS is an optional component for Windows XP that is available for free installation. To install IIS on a Windows XP computer, follow these steps:

1. Open the Control Panel window using the Start button.

2. Click the Add or Remove Programs button to open the Add or Remove Programs window.

3. In the Add or Remove Programs window, click the Add/Remove Windows Components button to open the Windows Components Wizard.

4. In the Windows Components Wizard, double-click the IIS component, select the required subcomponents, and click the OK button.

5. Click the Next button to install the IIS component.

The Windows Components Wizard can also be used to install various other components such as games, fax services, indexing services, management and monitoring tools, and TCP/IP services.

You should not upgrade the computer to Windows 2000 Server or Windows Server 2003 and then install IIS. Upgrading to these operating systems requires considerable amount of administrative effort, and the IIS component is also available in Windows XP Professional. Therefore, there is no need to upgrade the operating system.

You do not need to purchase an IIS CD-ROM to install IIS on a Windows XP computer. IIS is an optional component that can be installed without additional cost from the Control Panel window within the operating system.

Item: 22 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.3.7)

nmlkj In the Control Panel window, open the Add or Remove Programs and click the Add/Remove Windows Components button to install IIS.

nmlkj Upgrade the computer to Windows 2000 Server and then install IIS.

nmlkj Upgrade the computer to Windows Server 2003 and then install IIS.

nmlkj Purchase an IIS CD-ROM to install IIS on the computer.

Answer:

In the Control Panel window, open the Add or Remove Programs and click the Add/Remove Windows Components button to install IIS.

of 396


You are a desktop engineer for a graphic design company. The network consists of 15 Windows XP Professional client computers. Several users report that the performance of the computers is degrading. You detect that there is low disk space on the computers. To enhance the performance of the computers, you instruct the users to back up the data and remove unwanted or applications that are installed on the computers to free up disk space.

What else should you instruct the users to do? (Choose two.)

Explanation: You should instruct the users to run the Disk Cleanup and Disk Defragmenter utilities to enhance the performance of the computers. The Disk Cleanup utility is typically used to delete unwanted or unused files on a computer. This utility helps you to free up space on the hard disk drive. The Disk Defragmenter utility is used to organize noncontiguous files into contiguous files, resulting in the increase in overall performance of a computer. You can also use the DEFRAG.EXE command from the command prompt or a script file to defrag a hard disk.

You should not instruct the users to run the Scheduled Tasks utility to enhance the performance of their computers. This utility is typically used to automate tasks by scheduling the tasks to run at a specified time. You can run scripts, applications, programs, or documents at a predefined time.

You should not instruct the users to run the Security Center utility to enhance the performance of their computers. This utility is available as a feature of Windows XP Professional Service Pack 2 (SP2). By using this utility, you can manage security settings for the Internet Options, Automatic Updates, and Windows Firewall.

You should not instruct the users to run the Files and Settings Transfer Wizard to enhance the performance of their computers. This utility is typically used to transfer files and settings from one computer to another.

Item: 25 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.4.1)

gfedc Run the Disk Cleanup utility.

gfedc Run the Disk Defragmenter utility.

gfedc Run the Scheduled Tasks utility.

gfedc Run the Security Center utility.

gfedc Run the Files and Settings Transfer Wizard.

Answer:

Run the Disk Cleanup utility.

Run the Disk Defragmenter utility.

of 396


Which file name extension is directly associated with the Control Panel applet?

Explanation: Control Panel is a tool that manages all devices, including driver installation, device property management, and program installation and removal. The icons in Control Panel are associated with files that have a .CPL file name extension. For example, SYSDM.CPL file is associated with the System applet, and the DESK.CPL file is associated with the Display Properties dialog box. By default, the .CPL files are located in the System folder or the System32 folder, depending on your operating system. If a .CPL file becomes corrupted or damaged, then you may get an error message, such as The Explorer caused an invalid page fault in module KERNEL32.DLL at xxxx:xxxxxxxx error. If a .CPL file is missing, either the icon will be missing in Control Panel or the icon will be present but nothing will happen when you double-click it. Files with a .BAT file name extension are known as batch files. A batch file is a text file that contains one or more commands to the operating system. Files with a .DLL file name extension are known as dynamic link libraries. A dynamic link library is a collection of small programs that can be called by another program. Dynamic link libraries contain functions and data. When they are used as device drivers, they have a file name extension of .DRV. Files with an .EXE file name extension are known as executable files. An executable file is a program that, when opened, instructs the operating system to run the executable's program.

Item: 26 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.3.21)

nmlkj .BAT

nmlkj .CPL

nmlkj .DLL

nmlkj .EXE

Answer:

.CPL

of 396


Which type of backup backs up only those files that have changed or have not been backed up but does not mark them as being backed up?

Explanation: A differential backup backs up those files that have changed since the last normal or incremental backup set was created but does not mark them as being backed up. Files that are backed up using differential backups keep the archive attribute set for that file as if no backup operation has occurred. Differential backups are typically fast to perform and require a smaller amount of space to perform than Normal backups. However, differential backups become slower over time because the amount data backed up will increase over time. However, they are easier to restore than incremental backups because fewer archives are required to completely restore a file system. To completely restore a file system that has been backed up using a combination of differential and normal backups, you simply restore the normal backup and then store the differential backup. For example, suppose differential backups are automatically configured to back up the file system at 11:00 p.m. Monday through Thursday and a normal backup is automatically performed at 11:00 p.m. on Friday. If the system's disk crashed on Wednesday morning, you would only have to restore Friday's normal backup and then restore Tuesday's differential backup to fully restore the file system. The other backup types are listed below:

� Normal - Backs up the selected files and marks them as backed up

� Copy - Backs up the selected files but does not mark them as backed up

� Daily - Backs up the files that changed today, but does not mark them as backed up

� Incremental - Backs up the files that have changed or are new, and marks them as being backed up

NOTE: Backup systems use the Archive bit to mark files as either backed up or needs backup. A differential backup does not clear the Archive bit for files it backs up.

Item: 28 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.4.6)

nmlkj Copy

nmlkj Daily

nmlkj Normal

nmlkj Incremental

nmlkj Differential

Answer:

Differential

of 396


While installing a Web camera on a Windows XP computer, you receive a blue screen error. You are unable to boot to Windows after installing the Web camera. Instead, each time you boot the computer, it shows the blue screen error message. What should you do to troubleshoot the problem using the least administrative effort?

Explanation: You should boot the computer using the Last Known Good Configuration. Using this option, you can reverse configuration changes that were made to a Windows computer. This option will boot the Windows computer with configuration information saved from the last time the computer started properly. You should not perform a fresh installation of Windows XP because this procedure will require more administrative effort than is necessary. You should not boot the computer with the Windows XP bootable disk. This will initiate the installation procedure for Windows XP, which requires more administrative effort than is necessary. You should not boot the computer with a Windows 98 bootable floppy. This step will boot the computer only into a command prompt and not into Windows.

Item: 30 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.3.28)

nmlkj Perform a fresh installation of Windows XP.

nmlkj Boot the computer with the Windows XP bootable disk.

nmlkj Boot the computer with a Windows 98 bootable floppy.

nmlkj Boot the computer using the Last Known Good Configuration.

Answer:

Boot the computer using the Last Known Good Configuration.

of 396


You install a new device driver on your Windows XP computer. Upon restarting, the computer continuously reboots. You attempt to use the Last Known Good Configuration, but the computer still continuously reboots. What should you do next to fix the problem?

Explanation: You should boot in Safe Mode to reinstall the drivers. In this scenario, you have added a device driver, but the system continuously reboots upon restarting. The Last Known Good Configuration has failed to rectify the problem. You should next try Safe Mode. Safe Mode is available in the Advanced Options menu. You can access the Advanced Options menu by hitting the F8 key when booting the computer. In Safe Mode, only the essential drivers and services are loaded, so you can more easily diagnose problems. Other modes included in the Advanced Options menu include Safe Mode with Networking, Safe Mode with Command Prompt, Enable VGA Mode, Directory Services Restore Mode, Debugging Mode, and Enable boot logging.

You should not boot from the Windows XP CD and use the recovery console. Although you could possibly disable services and drivers with the recovery console, you should first try to use Safe Mode to resolve the problem first. The recovery console is an advanced troubleshooting tool that should be tried after using the Last Known Good configuration or Safe Mode.

You cannot use Add/Remove Programs to uninstall the device driver. Add/Remove Programs is used to uninstall software applications, not device drivers.

You cannot use the Windows XP CD to boot into the command prompt.

Item: 31 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.3.1)

nmlkj Boot from the Windows XP CD and use the recovery console

nmlkj Boot in Safe Mode and reinstall the drivers

nmlkj Use Add/Remove Programs to uninstall the device driver

nmlkj Boot from the Windows XP CD into the command prompt and reinstall the drivers.

Answer:

Boot in Safe Mode and reinstall the drivers

of 396


Which Windows XP utility should you use to end processes that are running on a computer?

Explanation: You should use the Task Manager utility to end processes that are running on a computer. To open the Task Manager utility, you can press the Ctrl + Alt + Del key combination on the keyboard to open the Windows Security dialog box and then press the Task Manager button to open the Task Manager window. You can also right-click the Taskbar and select the Task Manger option. The Task Manager window displays the applications and processes that are running on a computer. The Task Manager window also displays the system performance and networking statistics.

You should not use the Scheduled Task utility to end processes that are running on a computer. This utility is typically used to automate tasks. By using the Scheduled Task utility in Windows XP, you can schedule applications, programs, scripts, or documents to run at a specific time.

You should not use the System Configuration Utility, also referred as MSCONFIG.EXE, to end processes that are running on a computer. This utility is used to diagnose or troubleshoot Windows configuration issues.

You should not use the System Information tool, also referred as MSINFO32.EXE, to end processes that are running on a computer. This tool displays system information related to the devices and their drivers that are installed in your computer.

Item: 32 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.3.5)

nmlkj Task Manager

nmlkj Scheduled Task

nmlkj System Configuration Utility

nmlkj System Information tool

Answer:

Task Manager

of 396


You upgrade a driver on your Windows XP computer and reboot. After logging in, you notice that the device does not perform. How do you go back to the older version of the driver that you had installed on your computer?

Explanation: You should use Device Manager to roll back to the previous version of the driver. In Windows XP, you can roll back to a previous version of the driver if the new driver fails.

You should not use the Last Known Good Configuration to return to the previous version. The Last Known Good Configuration returns the configuration to the state it was in before the last login. The system registry is overwritten after every login. Since your last login has the new driver version, the Last Known Good Configuration will not return your configuration to the previous driver version.

You could go to the manufacturer's Web site to get a previous version of the driver. However, some manufacturers may not keep older versions of the driver. It would be easier to roll back the driver in Device Manager.

You should not disconnect the device and reattach the device. This procedure will not change the existing driver to the previous one.

Item: 41 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.3.2)

nmlkj Use Device Manager to roll back to the previous version of the driver

nmlkj Use the Last Known Good Configuration

nmlkj Go to the manufacturers Web site to get previous version of the driver

nmlkj Disconnect and reattach the device

Answer:

Use Device Manager to roll back to the previous version of the driver

of 396


You have created a file named Secret.doc that contains secret company information. You must configure the Secret.doc file as hidden to make it more difficult for malicious users to locate this file, and you must make the file read-only so that it cannot be accidentally replaced or deleted. The Secret.doc file is stored in the Files directory on your Windows 98 computer. Which Attrib command must you issue at the command prompt from the Files directory to accomplish this task?

Explanation: You must add the hidden and read-only attributes to the Secret.doc file. Therefore, you use the Attrib +r +h secret.doc command. The Attrib.exe utility enables you to add and remove attributes to and from files on an MS-DOS computer. Windows computers also include this utility, which you can use at the command line. The +r switch will add the read-only attribute to a file, and the -r switch will remove the read-only attribute from a file. The +h switch will add the hidden attribute to a file, and the -h switch will remove the hidden attribute from a file. The +s switch will add the system attribute to a file, and the -s switch will remove the system attribute from a file:

� The Attrib -r -h secret.doc command will remove the read-only and hidden attributes from the Secret.doc file.

� The Attrib -s -h secret.doc command will remove the system and hidden attributes from the Secret.doc file.

� The Attrib +s +h secret.doc command will add the system and hidden attributes to the Secret.doc file.

� The Attrib -r +h secret.doc command will remove the read-only attribute and add the hidden attribute to the Secret.doc file.

� The Attrib -s +h secret.doc command will remove the system attribute and add the hidden attribute to the Secret.doc file.

Item: 42 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.3.22)

nmlkj Attrib -r -h secret.doc

nmlkj Attrib +r +h secret.doc

nmlkj Attrib -s -h secret.doc

nmlkj Attrib +s +h secret.doc

nmlkj Attrib -r +h secret.doc

nmlkj Attrib -s +h secret.doc

Answer:

Attrib +r +h secret.doc

of 396


You are a server administrator for Nutex Corporation. You are working on a Windows 2000 Professional computer. You have restarted the computer after making some configuration changes to the server. You notice that the Windows 2000 computer does not boot, and you receive the following error message: Windows could not start because the following file is missing or corrupt:\WINNT\SYSTEM32\CONFIG\SYSTEMced What should you do to fix the problem?

Explanation: You should restore the system hive in the registry to fix the problem. This issue may occur if the size of the system hive in the registry is too large. You should restore the system hive to decrease the size of the system hive. You should not repair the NTLDR.COM file to troubleshoot the problem. NTLDR is a Windows NT loader file that stores the boot information for Windows computers, including Windows 2000, that operate on an NTFS partition. If a Windows computer is unable to locate the NTLDR file, then the computer will either not boot or will generate the following error message: A kernel file is missing from the disk. Insert a system disk and restart the system. You should not repair the NTDETECT.COM file. This file detects the hardware devices that are required to boot a Windows computer. If this file is missing or corrupt, the computer will display the following error message: Kernel file is missing from the disk You should not change the active partition. As mentioned in the scenario, the Windows computer is not booting up after you have made some configuration changes in the computer; therefore, you do not need to change the active partition.

Item: 43 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.3.27)

nmlkj Repair the NTLDR.COM file.

nmlkj Repair the NTDETECT.COM file.

nmlkj Change the active partition.

nmlkj Restore the system hive in the registry.

Answer:

Restore the system hive in the registry.

of 396


Which tool should you use to troubleshoot hardware problems and install drivers for hardware devices that are added to your computer?

Explanation: You should use the Add Hardware tool to install drivers for hardware devices that are added to your computer and to troubleshoot hardware problems. This tool is located in the Control Panel and can be manually used to install a device driver for a newly added hardware device. Typically, the Windows operating system detects the new hardware device and runs the Add Hardware tool automatically. You can also use this tool to troubleshoot hardware driver-related problems. Many Windows NT drivers will work with Windows 2000.

You should not use the Hardware Removal Tool to install drivers for hardware devices that are added to your computer and to troubleshoot hardware problems. This tool ensures that all the operation of a hot-swappable device is stopped before safely ejecting or unplugging the device.

You should not use the Add or Remove Programs tool to install drivers for hardware devices that are added to your computer and to troubleshoot hardware problems. This tool allows you to install or remove new applications, programs, or Windows components, not hardware or device drivers.

You should not use the Add Printer tool to install drivers for hardware devices that are added to your computer and to troubleshoot hardware problems. This tool is used to install printer drivers and to create printer connections.

Item: 47 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.3.11)

nmlkj Add Hardware tool

nmlkj Hardware Removal Tool

nmlkj Add or Remove Programs tool

nmlkj Add Printer tool

Answer:

Add Hardware tool

of 396


You are a desktop engineer for your company. The company network consists of Windows 98 client computers. You upgrade all client computers to Windows XP Professional.

After the upgrade, a user encounters a blue screen error on the computer. The user reports that the computer restarts automatically after displaying the error message.

What is the probable cause for the restart?

Explanation: The probable cause for the restart is that Windows XP-based computers have a default setting that enables the computers to restart as soon as they encounter an error. You can change this default setting and prevent the computers from restarting. To enable or disable this setting, you should adhere to the following steps:

1. Open the Control Panel window and double-click the System icon to open the System Properties dialog box.

2. In the System Properties dialog box, click the Advanced tab, and then click the Settings button in the Startup and Recovery section to open the Startup and Recovery dialog box.

3. In the Startup and Recovery dialog box, you can check or uncheck the Automatically restart check box to enable or disable the restart feature.

Application, driver, BIOS or hardware device problems are not the probable reasons for the restart of Windows XP-based computers. However, these can be the probable reasons for the blue screen error.

Item: 48 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.3.4)

nmlkj Windows XP-based computers have a default setting that enables the computers to restart as soon as they encounter an error.

nmlkj The operating system is experiencing an application or driver problem.

nmlkj The computer is experiencing a BIOS problem.

nmlkj The computer is experiencing a hardware device problem.

Answer:

Windows XP-based computers have a default setting that enables the computers to restart as soon as they encounter an error.

of 396


Which statement is true of the CHKDSK utility?

Explanation: The CHKDSK command-line utility detects and fixes logical errors in the file system of a drive. If a file is open when the CHKDSK utility runs, the file cannot be scanned at that time. The file will be marked, and CHKDSK will scan the file the next time the computer is booted.

The Disk Defragmenter utility rearranges a file to enable it to occupy contiguous space on a drive.

The default behavior of CHKDSK is to detect errors and generate a report. Running CHKDSK with the /f or /r switch allows it to fix disk errors.

The CHKDSK utility is provided with Windows NT, 2000, XP, and 2003. Windows 9x and Windows Me include both the CHKDSK and SCANDISK utilities.

Item: 50 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.4.11)

nmlkj It detects and fixes file system errors on a Windows disk.

nmlkj It rearranges a file to enable it to occupy a contiguous space on a drive.

nmlkj It can detect Windows disk errors, but fixing errors requires the Scandisk utility.

nmlkj It is NOT available in Windows XP Professional.

Answer:

It detects and fixes file system errors on a Windows disk.

of 396


Your computer is a Windows 2000 Server computer. If you press Ctrl+Alt+Delete on your computer's keyboard, which tool becomes available?

Explanation: If you press the Ctrl+Alt+Delete keys in Windows 2000, then the Windows Security dialog box is displayed, from which the Task Manager utility can be opened. In Task Manager, you can view basic information about the performance of your computer. For example, you can view CPU and memory usage statistics. You can also shut down applications and processes from within the Task Manager utility. You can start Windows Explorer by navigating to its icon in the Start menu or by typing the Explorer command in the Run dialog box. If you press the Ctrl+Alt+Delete keys in Windows 9x, then the Close Programs dialog box will be displayed. In Windows 2000, you can start MMC by typing the mmc command in the Run dialog box on the Start menu. MMC is an extensible tool that enables you to manage your Windows 2000 computer. MMC is extended with snap-ins, which are the tools that actually enable you to manage parts of your Windows 2000 computer. For example, the Active Directory Users and Computers snap-in enables you to add user accounts to Active Directory.

Item: 51 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.3.18)

nmlkj the Task Manager utility

nmlkj the Windows Explorer window

nmlkj the Close Programs dialog box

nmlkj the Microsoft Management Console (MMC)

Answer:

the Task Manager utility

of 396


A user has recently upgraded the video adapter drivers on a Windows XP computer. Since that time, the computer has been continuously restarting. You tried restarting the computer using the Last Known Good Configuration, but it does not affect the problem. What should you do to fix the problem using the least administrative effort? (Choose two.)

Explanation: You should do the following to troubleshoot the problem:

� Restart the computer in Safe Mode.

� Roll back the video adapter drivers.

As mentioned in the scenario, the computer is continuously restarting since you installed the video adapter drivers. You need to roll back the drivers for the video adapter. To do so, press F8 key while restarting the computer to reboot in Safe Mode, and then use the Device Manager snap-in to roll back driver software for the video adaptor. You should not boot the computer with the Windows XP bootable disk. This will either start the Windows XP setup program or boot the computer to the command prompt. You should not perform a fresh installation of Windows XP. This will require more administrative efforts compared to rolling back the drivers. You should not restart the computer, press the F8 key, and select the Command prompt only option. This option will boot the computer into command prompt mode, which does not provide any options to troubleshoot the issue.

Item: 52 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.3.26)

gfedc Boot the computer with a Windows XP bootable disk.

gfedc Restart the computer in Safe Mode.

gfedc Roll back the video adapter drivers.

gfedc Perform a fresh installation of Windows XP.

gfedc Restart the computer, press the F8 key, and select the Command prompt only option.

Answer:

Restart the computer in Safe Mode.

Roll back the video adapter drivers.

of 396


Which file contains the Windows 2000 Readiness Analyzer utility?

Explanation: The Chkupgrd.exe file contains the Windows 2000 Readiness Analyzer. You can use the Windows 2000 Readiness Analyzer to determine whether a computer meets the requirements for an upgrade to Windows 2000. Microsoft designed the Windows 2000 Readiness Analyzer to test common hardware and software for compatibility with Windows 2000. For a more complete list of hardware and software products that are compatible with a Windows 2000 operating system, you should search the Windows 2000 Hardware Compatibility List (HCL) for that operating system. An HCL contains a list of hardware and software products that Microsoft has deemed compatible with a particular Windows 2000 or other operating system.

Windows 2000 provides other methods of determining whether a computer is capable of being upgraded from an earlier operating system to Windows 2000. You can run the utility winnt32.exe /CheckUpgradeOnly to determine the same information.

The Diskcomp.exe utility compares information stored on different floppy disks.

Smartdrv.exe provides disk-caching functionality to improve access times for files that are used frequently.

The MemMaker.exe utility is an MS-DOS utility that reorganizes information stored in RAM to leave larger free areas open for programs and data.

Item: 56 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.2.16)

nmlkj Diskcomp.exe

nmlkj Chkupgrd.exe

nmlkj Smartdrv.exe

nmlkj MemMaker.exe

Answer:

Chkupgrd.exe

of 396


What are the minimum recommended requirements for installing Windows XP?

Explanation:

The minimum recommended requirements for installing Windows XP are a 300 MHz Pentium processor, 128 MB of RAM, and 1.5 GB of free disk space. This applies to both Windows XP Home and Windows XP Professional.

To install Windows 2000, you would need 2 GB of free disk space.

Microsoft usually states system requirements in two ways: minimum requirements and minimum recommended requirements. The minimum requirements are the minimum hardware requirements for installing and running the operating system. You can install the operating system on a system that meets just the minimum requirements, but system performance may be poor and system-intensive applications might not work. The minimum recommended requirements are the requirements for a system to have reasonably good performance. In practice, however, even the minimum system requirements tend to be understated. They do not consider the load that applications place on the computer and the performance expectations of the end users. You should evaluate the requirements of individual end users and the applications that they will be running on the computer when deciding what the minimum requirements for a particular system should be. This may mean that the end user will require a computer system that exceeds the minimum recommended requirements.

Item: 60 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.2.15)

nmlkj Pentium 4 processor, 256 MB of RAM, and 2 GB of free disk space

nmlkj Pentium II processor, 64 MB of RAM, and 650 MB of free disk space

nmlkj 486DX 66 Pentium processor, 24 MB of RAM, and 355 MB of free disk space

nmlkj 300 MHz Pentium processor, 128 MB of RAM, and 1.5 GB of free disk space

Answer:

300 MHz Pentium processor, 128 MB of RAM, and 1.5 GB of free disk space

of 396


Which Service Pack provides the latest updates for Windows 2000?

Explanation: Windows 2000 Service Pack 4 (SP4) provides the latest updates for Windows 2000. This service pack provides updates related to application compatibility, operating system reliability, security, and setup. Windows 2000 SP4 includes all the updates that were included in its previous service packs, such as SP1, SP2, or SP3. All other options are incorrect. Windows 2000 SP1, SP2, and SP3 are older than SP4.

Item: 65 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.4.4)

nmlkj Windows 2000 Service Pack 4 (SP4)




Answer:

Windows 2000 Service Pack 4 (SP4)

of 396


You are an IT technician. You are at a customer site for troubleshooting a problem with a customer relationship management application. What should you do first?

Explanation: When troubleshooting a software problem the first thing you should do is reboot the computer. In many cases this all that needed to restore functionality. When troubleshooting a software problem it is not necessary to turn off the computer and unplug its power cable from the wall socket. This is recommended when you are going to work inside the case. When troubleshooting a software problem it is not necessary to unscrew the case using a Philips screwdriver, unplug the monitor jack or unscrew the old video card. These will have no benefit when addressing a software problem.

Item: 67 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.4.3)

nmlkj Turn off the computer and unplug its power cable from the wall socket.

nmlkj Unscrew the case using a Phillips screwdriver.

nmlkj Turn off the monitor and unplug the monitor jack from the computer.

nmlkj Reboot the computer

Answer:

Reboot the computer

of 396


A user named Mary reports receiving a Service failed to start error message every time she restarts her Windows XP computer. Which utility should you use to determine which service is failing to start?

Explanation:

The Event Viewer is used to view the system log. With Event Viewer, you can also view the security and application logs. A variety of display options are available in Event Viewer. You can list logged events showing the newest or oldest events first, define a time range of events to view, and filter events displayed by type. To run Event Viewer, click Start > Programs > Admin Tools (Common) > Event Viewer. You can also go to Start > Run and then type EVENTVWR.EXE or \%Windir%\EVENTVWR.EXE. Note: %Windir% typically is \Winnt and does not need to be specified in the Run command. My Computer displays all the drives available in the computer. Task Manager displays all the active tasks running on the computer. Performance Monitor monitors the performance of the computer.

Item: 69 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.3.25)

nmlkj My Computer

nmlkj Event Viewer

nmlkj Task Manager

nmlkj Performance Monitor

Answer:

Event Viewer

of 396


If you install Windows 2000 on a drive with multiple partitions, where does Windows install its boot loader?

Explanation: If your drive has multiple partitions, Windows 2000 always installs its boot loader on the first partition, and you cannot change this location during installation. However, after Windows 2000 is installed, you can change the location where Windows 2000 looks for the boot loader.

Item: 70 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.2.13)

nmlkj The first partition

nmlkj The last partition

nmlkj The partition you specify

nmlkj The partition where the main Windows 2000 files will be installed

Answer:

The first partition

of 396


Why should you shut down all running applications before running Disk Defragmenter on a Windows computer?

Explanation: Running other applications may result in disk write operations, forcing Disk Defragmenter to restart continually. Disk Defragmenter reorders file contents on the disk in an attempt to store each file in a contiguous sequence of disk storage blocks. Any application that is running and writing data to the disk may disrupt the ordering carried out by Disk Defragmenter and force the defragmentation process to be restarted.

Disk monitoring and antivirus applications, both of which continuously monitor disks, frequently cause Disk Defragmenter to restart several times. The Terminate and Stay Resident (TSR) applications used with MS-DOS had a similar effect. TSR programs were designed to run in the background and disrupt the many maintenance programs, causing them to restart.

Disk Defragmenter does not require exclusive access to drives. Disk Defragmenter can run concurrently with other applications that are accessing the drives. The CHKDSK utility requires exclusive drive access while checking boot drives.

In a multitasking operating system, such as Windows, the launch of an application is not prevented by other running applications.

Disk Defragmenter does not offer to run at the next bootup time if other applications are running. This behavior is exhibited by the disk maintenance program named CHKDSK while checking boot drives. CHKDSK cannot run without exclusive access to drives. If CHKDSK encounters open files, it cannot proceed. In either situation, CHKDSK typically offers to reschedule its run to the next bootup to gain exclusive disk access without being hindered by open files.

Item: 71 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.4.10)

nmlkj Disk Defragmenter requires exclusive access to drives.

nmlkj Running applications prevent Disk Defragmenter from being launched.

nmlkj If the other applications are running, Disk Defragmenter offers to run at the next bootup time.

nmlkj Running other applications may result in disk write operations forcing Disk Defragmenter to restart continually.

Answer:

Running other applications may result in disk write operations forcing Disk Defragmenter to restart continually.

of 396


Which Windows utility allows you to download and install critical system updates, security patches or hotfixes, and upgrades for Windows components?

Explanation: The Windows Update utility allows you to download and install critical system updates, security patches or hotfixes, and upgrades for Windows components. Windows Update is Microsoft's Web-based software update service. In the Internet Explorer's Address bar, type http : //update.microsoft.com to open the Windows Update Web site or use the Windows Update option in the Tools menu of the Internet Explorer to open the Windows Update Web site. The File and Settings Wizard utility will not allow you to download and install critical system updates, security patches or hotfixes, and upgrades for Windows components. By using this utility, you can transfer user files and settings from one computer to another. The System Restore utility will not allow you to download and install critical system updates, security patches or hotfixes, and upgrades for Windows components. This utility is typically used to repair corrupt or missing system files. For example if you got a message at boot up indicating the NTLDR is missing, this could be used to restore that file. It can also restore the entire system if needed. The Recovery Console utility will not allow you to download and install critical system updates, security patches or hotfixes, and upgrades for Windows components. This utility is also used to replace missing and corrupt system files and enable and disable drivers and services on a computer with a boot up problem.

Item: 72 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.4.5)

nmlkj Windows Update

nmlkj File and Settings Wizard

nmlkj System Restore

nmlkj Recovery Console

Answer:

Windows Update

of 396


You want to enable the System Restore feature on a Windows XP-based client computer. However, you are unable to do so due to the lack of hard disk space. How much free hard disk space is required to enable the System Restore feature?

Explanation: To enable the System Restore feature on a Windows XP-based client computer requires 200 MB of free hard disk space. This utility assists you in recovering a computer from an unstable or crashed state to its original state. When the System Restore feature is enabled, this feature creates restore points and captures a snapshot of important system and program files. You can select these restore points to recover your system from an unstable or crashed state. All other options are incorrect.

Item: 76 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.3.12)

nmlkj 200 MB

nmlkj 150 MB

nmlkj 300 MB

nmlkj 350 MB

Answer:

200 MB

of 396


Which statements regarding partitions are true? (Choose all that apply.)

Explanation: Regarding partitions for use with Microsoft operating systems, only primary partitions and active partitions are bootable. A hard drive can be configured with up to four separate primary partitions, one of which must be marked as active for an operating system to be started. Alternatively, a maximum of three primary partitions and one extended partition can be defined on a hard drive. Only one extended partition is allowed per physical disk drive; an extended partition can be further subdivided into as many logical DOS drives as there are available letters of the alphabet. The Fdisk command-line utility can be used to view, create, and delete partitions. Alternatively, the Disk Management Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-in can be used to manage partitions in Windows 2000 and Windows XP.

Item: 77 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.2.7)

gfedc Active partitions are bootable.

gfedc Primary partitions are bootable.

gfedc Logical DOS drives are bootable.

gfedc Extended partitions are bootable.

Answer:

Active partitions are bootable.

Primary partitions are bootable.

of 396


You are a desktop engineer for your company. The company's network consists of ten Windows XP Professional computers. Management instructs you to implement a backup and restore policy. You plan to make a backup of data, including important system files stored on each client computer, on CD.

Which should you do to take a backup?

Explanation: You should use the Backup utility (Ntbackup.exe) to take a backup of data stored on each client computer on to CD. The Backup utility is a built-in feature of Windows that enables you to create and schedule backups on various media, such as external hard disk drives, CD-ROM, or disks. Using this utility, you can also make a backup of a computer on another computer. By using this utility, you can easily back up all files and folders and the System State information, which includes boot files, the COM+ class registration database, and the registry. The Backup utility also assists you in restoring backed up data in case of a disaster.

Four types of backups can be performed with the Backup utility:

� Full- backs up everything and takes the longest

� Differential- backs up everything that changed since the last full backup. Takes second longest

� Incremental- backs up only those items that have changed since the last backup of any kind. Takes third longest

� Copy- backs up what you indicate as a "snapshot". Time varies.

You should not use a third-party backup application to take a backup of data stored on each client computer on to CD. Using a third-party backup application is not required because Windows XP itself provides an advanced backup utility.

You should not use the Disk Cleanup utility to take a backup of data stored on each client computer on to CD. This utility is typically used to perform regular maintenance of a computer. By using the Disk Cleanup utility, you can delete unwanted files such as downloaded program files, temporary Internet files, Recycle Bin files, setup log files, offline files, and compressed old files, significantly improving the performance of a computer.

You can use a CD burn application to write data on CDs to take a backup of data stored on each client computer. However, using the Backup utility enables you to easily back up the specific computer data that you want to archive.

Item: 79 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.3.6)

nmlkj Use the Backup utility.

nmlkj Use a third-party backup application.

nmlkj Use the Disk Cleanup utility.

nmlkj Use a CD burn application to write data on the CDs.

Answer:

Use the Backup utility.

of 396


Which parameter should you use with setup.exe to specify a different install.wim file during Windows setup?

Explanation: The /installfrom:path parameter should be used. You should run the setup.exe /installfrom:path command to specify a different install.wim file. All other options are incorrect because they do not allow you to specify a different install.wim file during Windows setup. The /tempdrive:drive_letter option will allow you to specify the location to which to save temporary installation files. Setup.exe creates temporary installation files when installing the operating system. The /m:folder_name option will initiate setup.exe to search for source files at a location other than the default location. You can specify the location path in place of the folder_name parameter. The /unattend:answer_file option will enable an unattended installation mode for setup program. Setup.exe will find the instructions to complete the setup in the answer file.

Item: 85 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.2.18)

nmlkj /tempdrive:drive_letter

nmlkj /m:folder_name

nmlkj /installfrom:path

nmlkj /unattend:answer_file

Answer:

/installfrom:path

of 396


Which operating systems support encryption of files and folders? (Choose two.)

Explanation: Windows 2000 and Windows XP support file encryption. Files and folders cannot be encrypted on the Windows 9x, Windows Me, or Windows NT file systems. NTFS is required for file encryption on Windows systems.

Encrypting File System (EFS) provides encryption for files and folders on an NTFS file system. Windows NT 4.0, Windows 2000, and Windows XP support NTFS. However Windows 2000 or later is required to support EFS. EFS incorporates the use of a public key to provide encryption. Decryption occurs when an authorized user accesses encrypted data using a private key. An emergency key is also generated to be used by an authorized administrator only. This process is accomplished transparently and can also be done on remote NTFS volumes.

To enable file encryption, open Explorer and navigate to the folder or file that you want to encrypt. Right-click the file or folder, choose Properties | General | Advanced, and mark the Encrypt contents to secure data option (see below).

Item: 95 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.1.8)

gfedc Windows 98

gfedc Windows 95

gfedc Windows XP

gfedc Windows 2000

gfedc Windows NT 4.0

gfedc Windows 98 SE 2

Answer:

Windows XP

Windows 2000

of 396


You are a desktop engineer for Metroil Corporation. The company network consists of ten Windows XP Professional client computers. The company has purchased twenty new client computers that differ in hardware configurations. Each new computer has its own customized hardware configuration. You are required to install Windows XP Professional on all new client computers using least administrative effort.

What should you do?

Explanation: You should install Windows XP Professional using an unattended installation on new client computers. The unattended installation method requires the least amount of administrative effort to install Windows XP Professional on several client computers. By using an unattended installation, you can perform an automatic upgrade or clean installation of Windows XP Professional with minimal user interaction. To perform an unattended installation, you will require a CD-ROM or a network connection.

You should not install Windows XP Professional using a bootable CD-ROM. Using a bootable CD-ROM for installing Windows XP Professional will require a considerable amount of administrative effort. You will have to manually run the installation on each client computer.

You should not install Windows XP Professional using the System Preparation tool (SYSPREP.EXE). This tool is used to perform cloning, also referred to as ghost imaging, by taking a snapshot of a configured Windows XP Professional installation from a computer. By using the SYSPREP.EXE tool, you can transfer the snapshot to another computer. You should use this tool only if the new computers have similar hardware configuration. However, according to the scenario, the new computers have different customized hardware configuration. Therefore, you should not use the SYSPREP.EXE for installing Windows XP Professional on new client computers.

You should not install Windows XP Professional using Remote Installation Services (RIS). To perform installation using RIS requires client computers that are Pre-Boot Execution Environment (PXE)-enabled or have network cards supported by the Remote Boot Floppy. Also, installing by RIS requires a server that is running Windows 2000 Server or later with Active Directory. Therefore, using RIS will require a considerable amount of administrative effort.

Item: 99 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.2.6)

nmlkj Install Windows XP Professional using an unattended installation on the new client computers.

nmlkj Install Windows XP Professional using a bootable CD-ROM.

nmlkj Install Windows XP Professional using the System Preparation tool (SYSPREP.EXE).

nmlkj Install Windows XP Professional using Remote Installation Services (RIS).

Answer:

Install Windows XP Professional using an unattended installation on the new client computers.

of 396


Which type of backup backs up only those files that have changed since the last backup or have never been backed up, and marks them as being backed up?

Explanation: An incremental backup backs up those files that have been created or changed since the last normal or incremental backup set was created, and marks them as being backed up. Files that are backed up using incremental backups are "marked" by having the archive attribute cleared for that file. Incremental backups are typically very fast to perform and require a smaller amount of space on the backup media than other types of backups. However, they can be time consuming and difficult to restore because in order to completely restore a file system, you must sequentially restore all incremental backups back to the last full (normal) backup. This is why they are typically combined with normal backups; that is, incremental backups performed daily and normal backups performed weekly.

For example, suppose incremental backups are automatically configured to back up the file system at 11:00 p.m. Monday through Thursday and a normal backup is automatically performed at 11:00 p.m. on Friday. If the system's disk crashed on Wednesday morning, you would have to restore Friday's normal backup, then Monday's incremental backup, followed by Tuesday's incremental backup, to fully restore the file system.

The other backup types are listed:

� Normal - Backs up the selected files and marks them as backed up

� Copy - Backs up the selected files but does not mark them as backed up

� Daily - Backs up the files that changed today, but does not mark them as backed up

� Differential - Backs up the files that have changed or are new, but does not mark them as being backed up

NOTE: Backup systems use the Archive bit to mark files as either backed up or needs backup. An incremental backup clears the Archive bit for files it backs up.

Item: 100 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.4.7)

nmlkj Copy

nmlkj Daily

nmlkj Normal

nmlkj Incremental

nmlkj Differential

Answer:

Incremental

of 396


of 396


You are a desktop engineer for your company. The company network consists of five Windows 95 and eight Windows 98 client computers. Management of your company wants you to upgrade all client computers to Windows XP Professional. You upgrade all client computer hardware to meet the minimum requirements of Windows XP professional.

What should you do next? (Choose two.)

Explanation: You should upgrade all Windows 98 client computers to Windows XP Professional. Upgrading Windows 98 client computers to Windows XP Professional is a supported upgrade path. To upgrade to Windows 2000 or Windows XP, you should start the setup program from within the old operating system. For this scenario, you would boot to Windows 98 and start the Windows XP setup program.

You should upgrade all Windows 95 client computers to Windows 98 and then to Windows XP Professional. Upgrading Windows 95 client computers to Windows XP Professional is not a supported upgrade path. Therefore, you must first upgrade Windows 95 client computers to Windows 98 because Windows 98 is a supported upgrade path for Windows XP Professional.

You should not upgrade all Windows 95 client computers to Windows XP Professional. Upgrading Windows 95 client computers to Windows XP Professional is not a supported upgraded path. Because Windows 98 is an upgrade for Windows 95 and is also a supported upgrade path for Windows XP Professional. Therefore, you should first upgrade all Windows 95 client computers to Windows 98 and then to Windows XP Professional.

You should not upgrade all Windows 98 client computers to Windows Me and then to Windows XP Professional because upgrading from Windows 98 to Windows XP Professional is a supported upgrade path. Therefore, there is no need to upgrade Windows 98 client computers Windows Me.

Item: 105 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.2.1)

gfedc Upgrade all Windows 98 client computers to Windows XP Professional.

gfedc Upgrade all Windows 95 client computers to Windows 98 and then to Windows XP Professional.

gfedc Upgrade all Windows 95 client computers to Windows XP Professional.

gfedc Upgrade all Windows 98 client computers to Windows Me and then to Windows XP Professional.

Answer:

Upgrade all Windows 98 client computers to Windows XP Professional.

Upgrade all Windows 95 client computers to Windows 98 and then to Windows XP Professional.

of 396


In Windows 2000, which utility should you use to create a hard disk volume?

Explanation: Of the choices listed, you should use the Disk Management utility to create a hard disk volume in Windows 2000. You can also use the Disk Management utility to delete volumes, format volumes, and configure security settings on hard disk volumes. Disk Management is a snap-in that is located under Computer Management in the Microsoft Management Console (MMC). The Backup utility provides the ability to create a backup copy of the contents of selected portions of a hard disk volume. You can use the ScanDisk utility to search a hard disk volume for file system errors, such as lost clusters and cross-linked files. You can use the Disk Defragmenter utility to improve the performance of a hard disk volume by defragmenting the volume.

Item: 106 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.3.15)

nmlkj Backup

nmlkj ScanDisk

nmlkj Disk Management

nmlkj Disk Defragmenter

Answer:

Disk Management

of 396


You are an IT technician for your company. The company's network consists of forty Windows 98 client computers. You upgrade all forty client computers to Windows XP Professional. You want to educate users in your company about the new Remote Assistance feature in Windows XP.

Which statement is NOT true regarding the Remote Assistance feature?

Explanation: The option stating that Remote Assistance is used to remotely connect and control an offsite Windows XP computer is false. The Remote Desktop feature of a Windows XP computer allows you to connect and control a target Windows XP computer using another Windows XP computer.

All other options are true statements for the Remote Assistance feature. You can start a Remote Assistance session by using any of the three methods: using an instant messaging client, using an e-mail invitation, or by sending a file. To use instant messaging, you can sign in and use the Windows Messenger to ask for assistance from an online contact. To use e-mail, you can open the Help and Support Services page and invite someone via e-mail, such as a help desk professional, friend, or colleague, to help you. Similarly, you can use e-mail services to send a Remote Assistance request as an attached file.

Remote Assistance can be used to log on to a computer with administrative rights to complete an application installation. If a user on a network does not have administrative rights on a Windows XP-based computer to install the required software, then you can use the Remote Assistance feature to log on using administrative rights and perform the software installation for the user.

The two computers that would be involved in a Remote Assistance session must be connected to a network or the Internet. You cannot establish a Remote Assistance session on two standalone Windows XP computers.

Item: 107 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.3.8)

nmlkj You can start a Remote Assistance session by using an instant messaging client, sending an e-mail, or by sending a file.

nmlkj Remote Assistance can be used to log on to a computer with administrative rights and complete an application installation.

nmlkj The two computers involved in a Remote Assistance session must be connected to a network or the Internet.

nmlkj Remote Assistance is used to remotely connect and control an offsite Windows XP computer.

Answer:

Remote Assistance is used to remotely connect and control an offsite Windows XP computer.

of 396


You are a desktop engineer for your company. The company network consists of 10 Windows 95 client computers that are connected in a workgroup environment. The company purchased a license for Windows XP Professional. You are required to install Windows XP Professional on all client computers without losing any existing data.

What should you do? (Choose two. Each correct answer is part of a single solution.)

Explanation: You should first perform a backup of all data on the client computers. Performing a data backup is always recommended before upgrading a computer with another operating system.

After successfully performing the backup, you should perform a new installation of Windows XP Professional because upgrading Windows 95 to Windows XP is not a supported upgrade path. You must perform a new installation for Windows XP Professional and then restore the backed up data. When performing the new installation with a CD, it may be necessary to change the CMOS settings in the computer to alter the boot order so the computer boots from the CD. This will be true if there is another operating system on the computer, perhaps on another drive.

Also, upgrading Windows 95 to other versions, such as Windows 98 or Windows Me, is not the best solution in this case because a Windows 98 license was not mentioned in the scenario. Acquiring a Windows 98 license would incur additional cost.

Windows 98 and Windows Me are better suited for home users.

Item: 108 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.2.2)

gfedc Perform a backup of all data on the client computers.

gfedc Perform a new installation of Windows XP Professional.

gfedc Upgrade Windows 95 computers to Windows XP Professional.

gfedc Upgrade Windows 95 computers to Windows 98 and then upgrade them to Windows XP Professional.

gfedc Upgrade Windows 95 computers to Windows Me and then upgrade them to Windows XP Professional.

Answer:

Perform a backup of all data on the client computers.

Perform a new installation of Windows XP Professional.

of 396


Which Windows operating systems support FAT32? (Choose all that apply.)

Explanation: The original release of Windows 95 supports only FAT16. Later releases of Windows 9x and Windows Me support FAT32 and FAT16. Windows NT 4.0 does not support FAT32 but all releases of Windows 2000 and Windows XP support FAT32. Windows Server 2003 and Windows Vista do not support FAT32.

Item: 118 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.1.10)

gfedc Windows 98

gfedc Windows Me

gfedc Windows NT

gfedc Windows XP

gfedc Windows 95a

gfedc Windows 2000

Answer:

Windows 98

Windows Me

Windows XP

Windows 2000

of 396


You want to access a shared drive on another computer on your network by drive letter from your Windows 2000 computer. Which utilities can you use to map a logical drive to the shared drive on the other computer? (Choose two.)

Explanation: My Network Places and My Computer can both be used to map a network drive in Windows 2000, as shown in the image. Folder Options is a Windows 2000 utility available in Control Panel. It cannot be used to map a network drive. Network Neighborhood can be used to map a network drive in Windows 9x. Network Neighborhood is not available for Windows 2000. It has been renamed to My Network Places in Windows 2000.

Item: 120 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.1.9)

gfedc My Computer

gfedc Folder Options

gfedc My Network Places

gfedc Network Neighborhood

Answer:

My Computer

My Network Places

of 396


of 396


In which Windows XP registry hive is control set data stored?

Explanation: The control set, which is the association between detected hardware devices and their installed device driver software, is stored in the SYSTEM hive of the HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE Registry subtree. The HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE- HARDWARE subtree in the Registry has four subfolders: SAM, SECURITY, SOFTWARE, and SYSTEM. Each of these subfolders is known as a Registry hive. The HARDWARE hive contains data related to hardware that is recognized by the operating system. The SAM subtree stores the Security Accounts Manager (SAM) database information; this data pertains to the user and group accounts that reside on the local computer. The SECURITY subtree stores data related to access permissions and auditing that might be configured on the computer. The SOFTWARE subtree contains configuration data for all software programs that are installed on the computer, including operating system software.

The four other subtrees of the Windows XP Registry are HKEY_USERS, HKEY_CURRENT_USER, HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT, and HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG. The HKEY_USERS subtree contains the default user profile, the current user profile, and all other user profiles. The HKEY_CURRENT_USER subtree contains the profile information for the current user. The HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT subtree contains the file extension associations, The HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG subtree contains the current hardware configuration.

Item: 121 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.3.17)

nmlkj HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SAM

nmlkj HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SYSTEM

nmlkj HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SECURITY

nmlkj HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE

nmlkj HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\HARDWARE

Answer:

HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SYSTEM

of 396


An A+ professional wants to reconfigure the PATH System Variable in a Windows XP Professional computer. Where should the System Variable be configured?

Explanation: System variables can be accessed from Control Panel by double-clicking System, selecting the Advanced tab, and then clicking the Environment Variables button. The Environment Variables dialog box that is displayed allows you to add, edit, or delete user and system variables.

The Boot.ini file is not used to manage System or User Variables. It contains information regarding disk partitions. This information is used to locate the correct disk partition to be used for booting the computer.

The System Configuration utility cannot be used to manage System Variables or User Variables. It is used to alter the operating system configuration for troubleshooting.

Click My Computer > drive C > Properties to display the Local Disk (C:) Properties dialog box. You can select the Tools tab to activate the Check Now, Defragment Now, and Backup Now options. These options will enable you to run the Scan Disk utility, the Disk Defragmenter utility, or the Backup Utility, respectively.

Item: 130 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.2.10)

nmlkj in the Boot.ini file

nmlkj in the System Configuration utility

nmlkj in My Computer, drive C, Properties, Tools

nmlkj in Control Panel, System, Advanced, Environmental Variables

Answer:

in Control Panel, System, Advanced, Environmental Variables

of 396


You want to transfer only the Windows XP operating system setup files from the installation CD-ROM to your computer's hard drive, without copying unnecessary files. Which folder should you copy to your computer's hard drive?

Explanation: If you want to copy the Windows XP operating system setup files from the installation CD-ROM to your computer's hard drive without copying unnecessary files, then you should copy the entire i386 folder. The Windows XP CD contains a collection of folders that can be used to accomplish a variety of pre- and post-installation tasks. However, all of the files that are necessary to install Windows XP are located in the i386 folder. If an over-the-network installation of Windows XP is to be performed, then a copy of the i386 folder should be placed in a shared folder on a distribution server. Windows is the default name for the Windows XP system folder that is created during operating system installation; no folder named Windows exists anywhere on the Windows XP installation CD-ROM. The Support folder on the Windows XP CD-ROM contains operating system deployment and hardware compatibility tools. The Bootdisk folder on the Windows XP CD-ROM contains the program files that are necessary to create a set of four Windows XP setup diskettes.

Item: 132 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.2.17)

nmlkj i386

nmlkj Windows

nmlkj Support

nmlkj Bootdisk

Answer:

i386

of 396


Which type of malicious software infects through the Internet and interrupts or takes control over a computer's operation without informing the user and degrades the performance of the computer?

Explanation: Spyware is a type of malicious software, also referred to as malware. It interrupts or takes control over a computer's function without informing the user and degrades the performance of the computer. Computers are typically attacked by sypware when the user is browsing the Internet. Viruses are also considered as malicious software. Viruses act as a self-replicating computer program that tries to alter the computer's operation by destroying data without the user consent. However, viruses spread themselves by getting attached to an existing program. Worms are also considered malicious software. Worms are similar to viruses but they spread from one computer to another by using a network. Trojan horses are also a type of malicious software. Trojan horses consist of a harmful program that is embedded within useful or interesting looking software. If an unsuspected user executes such a software on a computer, the computer can experience problems such as deletion of data, file corruption, spam e-mails, phishing, and other harmful activities.

Item: 134 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.4.2)

nmlkj spyware

nmlkj viruses

nmlkj worms

nmlkj trojan horses

Answer:

spyware

of 396


You administer a computer network, and you must back up files on a Windows 2000 Server computer. You back up all data once per week on Fridays after the close of business. Monday through Thursday, after the close of business, you perform a backup that includes only those files that have been added or changed since the last full backup. You perform a differential backup on Monday. Which backup type should you perform on Tuesday?

Explanation: You should perform a differential backup on Tuesday. A differential backup includes only those files that have been added or changed since the last full backup. On Monday, the differential backup will back up only files that were changed or created since the full backup on Friday. The backup will therefore include changed and new files from Saturday, Sunday, and Monday. On Tuesday, a differential backup will back up files that changed after the full backup, which includes all files that were changed or created on Saturday, Sunday, Monday, and Tuesday. Consequently, the differential backup will normally require more time on Tuesday than on Monday.

To restore the files on a Windows 2000 Server computer by using a weekly full backup and a daily differential backup, you must first restore the last full backup and then restore only the most recent differential backup. Restoring from a full backup is the fastest method of restoring data. Restoring data from a full backup and a differential backup is typically the second fastest method for restoring data.

An incremental backup includes only those files that have been added or changed since the most recent full or incremental backup. If you perform a weekly full backup with a daily incremental backup, then the restore process will require more time than restoring the data from a daily full backup or from a weekly full backup with daily differential backups. To restore data from a weekly full backup with daily incremental backups, you must first restore the full backup. Then, you must restore each incremental backup in chronological order. The incremental backup that was performed on Monday must be restored first, followed by the incremental backup performed on Tuesday, and so on. A weekly full backup with daily incremental backups is normally the fastest method for backing up data, but the slowest method for restoring data from backup media. A full backup includes all files in the directories that you back up.

Restoring data from a daily full backup is the fastest method of restoring data, but it is normally the slowest method of backing up data because all the data is backed up each time a full backup is performed.

A copy backup, such as the one used in Microsoft Exchange, is similar to a full backup. In Exchange, for example, the copy backup does not delete the log files that Exchange stores when it makes a full backup. You can use the copy backup option in Exchange to retain backup log files.

Item: 135 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.4.9)

nmlkj a copy backup

nmlkj a full backup

nmlkj an incremental backup

nmlkj a differential backup

Answer:

a differential backup

of 396


You are a desktop technician. You mount a volume on a Windows 2000 Professional computer and do not assign a drive letter to the volume. The System Monitor utility displays the incorrect volume size.

What should you do to resolve this problem using the least amount of administrative effort?

Explanation: You should install Windows 2000 SP2, or later, to resolve the incorrect volume size problem. The System Monitor recognizes any logical drive that has a name of type "c:\" because this name is looked up in a table and is added to the performance registry. Therefore, if you do not assign a drive letter to a volume, the volume is not located successfully and the data collector reports a wrong volume to the System Monitor utility. To resolve this problem, you must upgrade the Windows 2000 Professional computer with SP2. Similarly, if you run a fresh installation of Windows 2000 on an external hard disk drive and the hard drive does not show the correct available disk space, you should upgrade Windows 2000 to SP2, or later.

You should not format the volume using the Disk Management utility to resolve the incorrect volume size problem. Formatting the volume will only allow you to reformat the volume using File Allocation Table 32 (FAT32) or New Technology File System (NTFS). However, doing this will not allow the System Monitor utility to display the correct volume size unless you upgrade to Windows 2000 SP2 or later or assign a drive letter to the volume.

You should not run the CHKDSK /F command to resolve the incorrect volume size problem. The CHKDSK command is used to list and correct the errors in a hard disk drive. You should run the CHKDSK /F command only to fix errors on a hard disk drive or its volumes. You can also use the CHKDSK command to check the system file structure.

You should not format the volume by using the DOS-based FORMAT command to resolve the incorrect volume size problem. The FORMAT command will only allow you to delete all stored information in a hard disk drive or its volumes.

Item: 150 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.1.6)

nmlkj Upgrade Windows 2000 to Service Pack 2 (SP2), or later.

nmlkj Format the volume using the Disk Management utility.

nmlkj Run the CHKDSK /F command.

nmlkj Format the volume by using the DOS-based FORMAT command.

Answer:

Upgrade Windows 2000 to Service Pack 2 (SP2), or later.

of 396


You copy an encrypted. TXT file from one folder on your Windows 2000 computer to another folder on your computer. The target folder is shared on the network. Now other users are able to open and read the file.

What is the most likely reason why the file is no longer encrypted?

Explanation: The target folder is on a FAT32 partition. Only NTFS partitions support file encryption for folders and files. If a file is encrypted on an NTFS partition and then moved or copied to a floppy disk or to a FAT16 or FAT32 partition on a hard disk, then the file will lose its encryption attribute. The same is true of the compression attribute; only NTFS supports compression, and the compression attribute is lost when a compressed file is placed on a floppy disk or on a FAT16 or FAT32 partition. Note that although NTFS supports both compression and EFS, the two attributes are mutually exclusive. That is, a file or folder can be either encrypted or compressed, but not both at the same time.

Earlier versions of NTFS provided compression for files and folders. The ability to encrypt files and folders was introduced with NTFS5 and is available in Windows 2000 and Windows XP, but not in Windows NT. Windows XP allows an encrypted file to be shared among multiple users, but this feature is not available in Windows 2000.

All files, except system files, can be encrypted in Windows 2000 as long as the file is saved on an NTFS partition. Once encrypted, a file retains its encryption attribute when it is moved or copied, even if it is copied into a compressed folder. Normally, when a file is copied into a compressed folder, the file inherits the compression attribute. An encrypted file cannot be read across a network. Although users will be able to see the file, they cannot open it.

When a file is copied from an NTFS partition to a FAT partition, the long filename and file attributes are retained. However, file encryption and file compression are not retained, and neither are the NTFS file permissions.

Item: 151 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.1.19)

nmlkj Plaintext files cannot be encrypted.

nmlkj The target folder is on a FAT32 partition.

nmlkj The encryption attribute does not apply across a network.

nmlkj The encryption attribute is always lost when a file is copied rather than moved.

Answer:

The target folder is on a FAT32 partition.

of 396


You recently installed Windows 2000 Professional on your computer. The operating system is installed on drive C. Which folder stores user profiles on your computer?

Explanation: On your Windows 2000 Professional computer, user profile information is stored in the C:\Documents and Settings folder.

By default, Windows 2000 is installed in the C:\winnt folder.

The C:\ folder is the root folder, and user profile information is not stored directly in the root folder.

Many dynamic-link libraries (DLLs) are stored in the C:\winnt\system32 folder. DLLs are code files that a program can use to help the program accomplish its tasks.

Item: 154 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.1.12)

nmlkj C:\

nmlkj C:\winnt

nmlkj C:\users

nmlkj C:\winnt\system32

nmlkj C:\Documents and Settings

Answer:

C:\Documents and Settings

of 396


Which file system does Windows 2000 support for the CD-ROM File System (CDFS)?

Explanation: CD-ROM File System (CDFS) is a relatively simple format defined as the read-only formatting standard for CD-ROM media. Because of its simplicity, the CDFS format has a number of restrictions:

� Directory and file names must be fewer than 32 characters long.

� Directory trees can be no more than eight levels deep.

CDFS is considered a legacy format because the industry has adopted the Universal Disk Format (UDF) as the standard for read-only media.

Windows 2000 supports FAT16, FAT32, and NTFS file systems for hard disks.

NFS is the UNIX/Linux file system.

HPFS is used with Apple's OS/2 operating system.

Item: 156 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.1.18)

nmlkj NFS

nmlkj NTFS

nmlkj CDFS

nmlkj HPFS

nmlkj FAT16

nmlkj FAT32

Answer:

CDFS

of 396


You have shared a few folders on your Windows XP computer. You want to remove sharing for all shared folders. Which command should you run to access shared folders?

Explanation: The fsmgmt.msc command will display the Shared Folders window, which provides access to all shared folders on your local computer. The diskmgmt.msc command opens the Disk Management window, which allows you to manage all dynamic disks and volumes. The services.msc command opens the Services snap-in, which allows you to manage all services running locally on the computer. The devmgmt.msc command opens Device Manager, which allows you to manage, install, or remove hardware devices from the computer.

Item: 162 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.1.25)

nmlkj diskmgmt.msc

nmlkj services.msc

nmlkj fsmgmt.msc

nmlkj devmgmt.msc

Answer:

fsmgmt.msc

of 396


In Windows 2000 and Windows XP, how do you configure Explorer so that files that are currently hidden from view will no longer be hidden?

Explanation: In Windows 2000 and Windows XP, you use Folder Options in the Windows Explorer Tools menu to reveal hidden files. Folder Options is located under the View menu in Windows 98, as shown in the following image:

Item: 164 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.1.17)

nmlkj Click the Edit menu, and select Folder Options | View | Show hidden files and folders.

nmlkj Click the View menu, and select Folder Options | View | Show hidden files and folders.

nmlkj Click the File menu, and select Folder Options | View | Show hidden files and folders.

nmlkj Click the Tools menu, and select Folder Options | View | Show hidden files and folders.

Answer:

Click the Tools menu, and select Folder Options | View | Show hidden files and folders.

of 396


You want to configure a computer running an older version of UNIX operating system to dual-boot with Windows XP Professional. Some installed software applications will use the same data regardless of whether you boot the computer using UNIX or Windows XP.

Which file system should you use for installing Windows XP Professional?

Explanation: You should use the File Allocation Table 16 (FAT16) file system while installing Windows XP Professional. FAT16 supports various operating systems such as older versions of UNIX, Linux, Windows 95/98/Me, and OS/2, Linux. FAT is compatible with MS-DOS and supports a dual-boot configuration that includes Windows 9x.

You should use the File Allocation Table 32 (FAT32) file system while installing Windows XP Professional. FAT32 is a 32-bit version of the FAT file system that provide a larger number of clusters per partition than FAT16, improving the overall disk utilization. However, FAT32 is not compatible with UNIX, Linux, and Windows NT. FAT32 is usually used to provide backwards compatibility when there is an older legacy operating system in a dual boot with XP. FAT32 is supported in Windows 98.

You should not use the New Technology File System (NTFS) file system while installing Windows XP Professional. NTFS enhances security of an operating system by providing advance features such as encryption, file compression, and disk quotas. NTFS supports increased file security. However, NTFS will not support older versions of the UNIX operating system. NTFS is used as a recommended file system for operating systems such as Windows NT, Windows 2000, Windows XP, Windows Vista, and Windows Server 2003. Windows XP will default to NTFS during installation. NTFS supports larger partition sizes that FAT.

You should not use the Hierarchical File System (HFS) file system while installing Windows XP Professional. HFS is used only on computers that are running Mac OS. You cannot use this file system on computers running Windows-based operating system.

Item: 165 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.1.4)

nmlkj FAT16

nmlkj FAT32

nmlkj NTFS

nmlkj HFS

Answer:

FAT16

of 396


Which Windows 2000 backup mode provides the fastest complete restore in case of a hard drive crash?

Explanation:

It takes longer to perform a normal or full backup each day, but this strategy will provide the fastest way to restore your hard drive if you experience a crash.

A full backup once a week plus a daily incremental or differential backup will take less time to back up, but restoring your hard drive will take longer than if you had taken a daily full backup.

Note that the backup type called "normal" by Microsoft is often referred to as a full backup.

You would not perform an incremental backup with a differential backup. Incremental backups require full backups.

Item: 170 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.4.8)

nmlkj Normal (full)

nmlkj Incremental with differential

nmlkj Normal with incremental (full with incremental)

nmlkj Normal with differential (full with differential)

Answer:

Normal (full)

of 396


Which user profiles are supported in Windows 2000 Professional? (Choose two.)

Explanation: Windows 2000 Professional supports local user profiles, roaming user profiles, and mandatory user profiles. Local user profiles are stored on a computer's local hard disk and are specific to each user who logs on to the local computer. Roaming user profiles are created on network servers and are copied to computers as users log on to the network from those computers. A mandatory user profile is a roaming user profile that a user or a group of users must use. If a user is assigned a mandatory profile and the mandatory profile is not available, then that user will be unable to log on to the network.

Always On and Home/Office Desk are power schemes available on Windows 2000 computers, not user profile types.

Item: 173 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.1.7)

gfedc local

gfedc roaming

gfedc Always On

gfedc Home/Office Desk

Answer:

local

roaming

of 396


Which utility do you use to add local user and group accounts to a Windows 2000 Professional computer?

Explanation: The Local Users and Groups utility is used to set up and manage user accounts in Windows 2000, as shown in the graphic.

With Local Users and Groups, you can change passwords and create, delete, and rename user accounts. You can load the Local Users and Groups utility as a Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-in or you can access it through the Computer Management utility.

Sysprep is a Microsoft tool used to deploy images of identically configured computers across a network. There is a version for Windows NT 4.0 and a separate version for Windows 2000.

System Information is an MMC snap-in for Windows 2000 that allows you to view details about the hardware and software components of your system. To run System Information, choose Start | Programs | Accessories | System Tools | System Information.

You can also launch System Information by right-clicking My Computer and choosing the Manage option.

User Manager for Domains provides a function for Windows NT 4.0 similar to the Local Users and Groups utility.

Item: 174 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.1.21)

nmlkj Sysprep

nmlkj System Information

nmlkj Local Users and Groups

nmlkj User Manager for Domains

Answer:

Local Users and Groups

of 396


Which Windows component is a database of hierarchically organized information that the system references continually during operation?

Explanation: The Registry is a hierarchical database of information that Windows continually references during operation. Information stored in the Registry includes the following elements:

� The profiles for each user

� The hardware configuration

� The program icon and folder properties

� The programs installed and the types of files that each program can open

The Registry is organized hierarchically as a tree with keys and their subkeys, hives, and value entries.

Virtual memory is the portion of the hard drive that is set aside for use by the paging file. Profiles contain information regarding user account information. The kernel is the central controller of the operating system. None of these are hierarchical databases.

Item: 175 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.1.15)

nmlkj Kernel

nmlkj Registry

nmlkj Profiles

nmlkj Virtual Memory

Answer:

Registry

of 396


Which file represents the 32-bit command processor included with the Windows 2000 and Windows XP operating systems?

Explanation: Cmd.exe is the 32-bit command processor that is included with the Windows 2000 and Windows XP operating systems, and it is usually referred to as the command prompt. Cmd.exe allows a Windows 2000/XP user to issue program- and document file-related commands from a command-line, non-graphical environment. Although the Cmd.exe environment behaves like the MS-DOS operating system, no DOS code is involved in the action of the Windows 2000/XP command prompt.

Config.sys is a configuration file that is used in Windows 9x and Windows 2000/XP to maintain backward compatibility with 16-bit DOS programs.

Windows 9x uses a variation of the DOS command interpreter, which is named Command.com, to provide a command-line environment to computer users. To provide backward compatibility with legacy 16-bit applications, Command.com is also available with Windows 2000 and Windows XP.

Xcommand.dll, the High-Level Speech Recognition Module, is a dynamic link library that is used by Visual Basic applications that provide speech recognition.

Item: 176 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.1.13)

nmlkj Cmd.exe

nmlkj Config.sys

nmlkj Command.com

nmlkj Xcommand.dll

Answer:

Cmd.exe

of 396


You administer a Windows 2000 Server computer named Win1 in a Windows 2000 Server domain named Domain.com. You must add user accounts to the domain by using the Win1 computer. Which snap-in should you use to add domain user and computer accounts to Active Directory in Windows 2000?

Explanation: You should use the Active Directory Users and Computers snap-in to add domain user and computer accounts to Active Directory in Windows 2000. You can also use the Active Directory Users and Computers snap-in to add, delete, and modify other Active Directory objects, such as printers and user groups. If you create a domain user account on the Win1 Windows 2000 Server computer, then that user account will be available throughout the domain.

You can create a local user account on the Win1 Windows 2000 Server computer by using the Local Users and Groups snap-in. A local user account is available only on the computer on which it was created. You cannot create a domain user account by using the Local Users and Groups snap-in.

You can use the System Properties applet in Control Panel to run Device Manager, view basic hardware information, and configure hardware profiles. A hardware profile determines how a computer starts when it supports multiple hardware configurations. For example, you may create two hardware profiles for a portable computer. One hardware profile can configure the portable computer for connection to a port replicator, and the other hardware profile can configure the computer for connection to a docking station.

You can use the Active Directory Sites and Services snap-in to configure Windows 2000 sites. A site is a group of Windows 2000 computers that are connected by high-speed connections. Sites are usually created to control and configure replication.

Item: 180 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.1.14)

nmlkj the Local Users and Groups snap-in

nmlkj the System Properties applet in Control Panel

nmlkj the Active Directory Sites and Services snap-in

nmlkj the Active Directory Users and Computers snap-in

Answer:

the Active Directory Users and Computers snap-in

of 396


When turning on a Windows XP client computer, you receive the following error message: Windows NT could not start because the following file is missing or corrupt: Winnt_root\System32\Ntoskrnl.exe You have extracted the NToskrnl.exe file from the Windows XP installation disk. The computer still does not boot. What should you do to fix the problem?

Explanation: You should change the partition path in BOOT.INI file to troubleshoot the problem. Windows XP may not boot if the partition path is not specified correctly in the BOOT.INI file. You should not create a new HAL.DLL file to troubleshoot the problem. You have already extracted the NToskrnl.exe file. The HAL.DLL file is required by Windows-based operating system higher than Windows NT, such as Windows 2000. If the HAL.DLL or WIN.COM files are corrupt, then a Windows 2000 computer with an EIDE hard drive system will not function correctly. However, in this scenario, you should change the partition path in the BOOT.INI. You should not create a new WIN.COM file or AUTOEXEC.BAT file to troubleshoot the problem. Windows XP will not generate the error message given in the scenario if the WIN.COM file or the AUTOEXEC.BAT file is corrupt. These files are not necessary for booting a Windows XP computer.

Item: 186 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.1.22)

nmlkj Create a new HAL.DLL file.

nmlkj Create a new WIN.COM file.

nmlkj Create a new AUTOEXEC.BAT file.

nmlkj Change the partition path in BOOT.INI file.

Answer:

Change the partition path in BOOT.INI file.

of 396


What does the DIR D:\MYDOCS\FILECHK.??? /S command do?

Explanation: The DIR command locates all the files and directories that belong to the specified path and match the file name specified as part of the command. The D:\MYDOCS\FILECHK.??? specification matches any file or directory that has the name FILECHK and a three-character extension. The extension can consist of any character if exactly three characters exist. The search starts with the D:\MYDOCS directory and searches all the subdirectories specified by the /s switch.

There is no file that is literally named FILECHK.???. The ??? extension in the command is a wildcard designation that will match any three characters. Windows and DOS filename conventions do not allow the use of the ? character in an actual file or directory name.

The command specifies that the DIR command will scan drive D, not the default drive. The default drive is searched by the DIR command only if the drive is not specified as a part of the command.

The DIR command locates both files and directories. MS-DOS and Windows naming conventions allow the use of extensions in directory names. Therefore, the command will display not only files but also directories.

Item: 195 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.1.16)

nmlkj It locates a file named FILECHK.??? on the default drive.

nmlkj It locates all the files that have names starting with FILECHK on the default drive.

nmlkj It locates all the files that have names starting with FILECHK in the mydocs directory of drive D, including the subdirectories.

nmlkj It locates all the files and directories that have names starting with FILECHK in the mydocs directory of drive D, including the subdirectories.

Answer:

It locates all the files and directories that have names starting with FILECHK in the mydocs directory of drive D, including the subdirectories.

of 396


Which file format is developed by Microsoft to merge hypertext markup language (HTML) files into a single file that consists of a directory, index, and file structure?

Explanation: The Compressed HTML Help (.chm) file format was developed by Microsoft to merge HTML files into a single file that consists of a directory, index, and file structure. This file format is typically used to store Microsoft Help files. The .chm file format provides smaller file size compared to plain HTML files. It also provides the ability to search for text.

The Graphics Interchange Format (.gif) file format is used for storing images in an 8-bit format. Because this format provides smaller file sizes, it is typically used to store images that will be used on the World Wide Web.

The Portable Network Graphics (.png) file format is also an image format. This file format was developed to improve upon the .gif format.

The Waveform (.wav) file format is an audio format that is used to store sound files.

Item: 196 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.1.1)

nmlkj .chm

nmlkj .gif

nmlkj .png

nmlkj .wav

Answer:

.chm

of 396


Which command should you use on a Windows XP-based computer to compare the contents within two files or sets of files?

Explanation: You should use the COMP command to compare contents within two files or sets of files. This command compares the content in a byte-by-byte manner. You can use various parameters, such as /D, /A, /L, or /C, with the COMP command to display differences or comparisons between files.

You should not use the XCOPY command to compare contents within two files or sets of files. This command is used to copy multiple files, subdirectories, or directories. You can use various parameters, such as /P, /C, /V, /Q, and other parameters, with the XCOPY command to have more copy options.

You should not use the ATTRIB command to compare contents within two files or sets of files. This command is used to change the attributes of a file from the command line. It can be used to remove an attribute by typing ATTRIB with the attribute switch, such as removing the system attribute with the -s switch.

You should not use the EXPAND command to compare contents within two files or sets of files. This command is used to open .cab files. For example, the driver.cab file, where drivers are stored, can be accessed in this fashion to replace a corrupt system driver.

Item: 198 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.3.10)

nmlkj COMP

nmlkj XCOPY

nmlkj ATTRIB

nmlkj EXPAND

Answer:

COMP

of 396


Which function is performed by the SCANREG /OPT command?

Explanation: The SCANREG /OPT command compresses the registry by deleting unused space within the registry. The SCANREG /BACKUP command backs up the registry. The SCANREG /FIX command scans and fixes the errors found in the registry. The /FIX switch also removes unused space from the registry. The SCANREG /RESTORE command displays a list of available registry backups and overwrites the current registry with the selected backup.

Item: 201 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.3.16)

nmlkj The command backs up the registry.

nmlkj The command scans the registry and fixes the errors.

nmlkj The command deletes the unused space inside the registry.

nmlkj The command overwrites the registry with a saved copy.

Answer:

The command deletes the unused space inside the registry.

of 396


Which action is performed on a file named File.doc when the command Attrib -r -h File.doc /S is issued from the Windows XP command line?

Explanation: The command Attrib -r -h File.doc /s instructs the operating system to remove the read-only and hidden attributes from the file named File.doc. The /s parameter of the Attrib command processes matching files in the current folder and all subfolders.

The Attrib command, which was originally introduced in MS-DOS, can be used to manipulate file attributes from a command prompt. The a parameter of the Attrib command denotes the archive file attribute, and the s parameter of the Attrib command denotes the system attribute. Therefore, the command Attrib +a +s Filename.txt adds the archive and system attributes to the file named Filename.txt.

Item: 203 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.3.23)

nmlkj The read-only and hidden file attributes are added to the file.

nmlkj The read-only and hidden file attributes are removed from the file.

nmlkj The read-only, hidden, and system attributes are added to the file.

nmlkj The read-only, hidden, and system attributes are removed from the file.

Answer:

The read-only and hidden file attributes are removed from the file.

of 396


You are upgrading a Windows NT 4.0 Server computer to Windows 2000 Server. By default, which file system will be installed on the new Windows 2000 installation?

Explanation: By default, Windows 2000 will keep the same file system that was used by the Windows NT 4.0 installation. When installing over Windows 98 or Windows NT, you will be offered the option to upgrade from FAT16 or FAT32, but the default response is "No."

In deciding on a file system, you should consider the importance of compatibility with other computers on your network. You may want to avoid NTFS, even though it is a superior file system, for this reason.

NOTE: Windows 2000 converts existing NTFS 4.0 drives to NTFS 5.0, which is not natively accessible to Windows NT 4.0 (unless Service Pack 4 is installed).

Item: 206 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.2.14)

nmlkj NTFS

nmlkj FAT32

nmlkj FAT16

nmlkj The file system used by the old Windows NT 4.0 installation

Answer:

The file system used by the old Windows NT 4.0 installation

of 396


You are a desktop engineer for Northern Corporation. The company network consists of one server computer running Windows Server 2003 and twenty-five Windows XP Professional client computers. The network is secured using a third-party firewall device. Management wants you to configure the network to allow users to connect to office computers using the Remote Desktop feature.

Which port on the firewall should you open for Remote Desktop connections?

Explanation: You should open port 3389 on the firewall for Remote Desktop connections. Remote Desktop is a Windows XP feature that allows you to remotely connect and control an offsite Windows XP computer. Using this feature, you can access all applications, files, and network resources on stored in an offsite computer. Because the company network is secured using a third-party firewall device, opening port 3389 on the firewall will allow users to successfully use the Remote Desktop feature from remote locations.

You should not open port 25 on the firewall for Remote Desktop. This port is used by Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). SMTP is used to send e-mail messages across the Internet or from one server to another.

You should not open port 110 on the firewall for Remote Desktop. This port is used by Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3). POP3 is used for retrieving e-mails from the Internet or other servers using a Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) connection.

You should not open port 1494 on the firewall for Remote Desktop. This port is used by Citrix ICA protocol. This protocol provides mission-critical enterprise applications over an existing Internet connection with low bandwidth.

Item: 207 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.3.9)

nmlkj 3389

nmlkj 25

nmlkj 110

nmlkj 1494

Answer:

3389

of 396


Which actions can you perform to install Windows 2000 Professional? (Choose two.)

Explanation: You can install Windows 2000 Professional from a Windows 2000 Professional CD-ROM disc or across a network. One of the methods for installing Windows 2000 Professional across a network is Remote Installation Services (RIS). RIS can be used in conjunction with Pre-Boot Execution Environment (PXE)-compliant computers. PXE is implemented in a chip that usually resides on a computer's network adapter. PXE-compliant computers can automatically start, receive TCP/IP configuration parameters from a BOOTP or DHCP server, locate a RIS server, and install Windows 2000 Professional from a remote network location.

Running SYSPREP.EXE will create an installation image of a source computer that can then be copied to one or more target computers. After the image is copied to a target computer and that computer is started, the Mini-Setup wizard will run and complete the setup process. Each target computer must meet certain requirements, such as having the same Hardware Abstraction Layer (HAL) as the source computer and having a hard disk that is at least as big as the source computer's hard disk.

SYSDIFF.EXE can be used to pre-install applications that must be installed during automated Windows 2000 installation which do not support scripted installation.

Item: 209 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.2.8)

gfedc Install Windows 2000 Professional across a network.

gfedc Install Windows 2000 Professional from a CD-ROM disc.

gfedc Install Windows 2000 Professional by running SYSDIFF.EXE.

gfedc Install Windows 2000 Professional by running the Mini-Setup wizard from Control Panel.

Answer:

Install Windows 2000 Professional across a network.

Install Windows 2000 Professional from a CD-ROM disc.

of 396


A user copied some data from a floppy disk to a Windows XP computer and then restarted the computer. The user received the following error message after restarting the computer: NTLDR is missing Press any key to restart What should you do to troubleshoot the problem?

Explanation: You should remove the floppy disk (non-system disk) from the floppy drive to fix the problem and then press any key. The system is giving this error message because there is a floppy disk in the floppy drive and the system cannot find its bootable media. You should not press Ctrl+Alt+Del to restart the computer. This step will result in the same error message if the floppy disk is not removed. You should not perform a fresh installation of Windows XP. Windows will again generate the same error message if the floppy disk is not removed. You should not boot the computer with a Windows XP bootable floppy disk. Windows XP does not use bootable floppy disks. The installation CD is bootable.

Item: 211 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.3.29)

nmlkj Press Ctrl+Alt+Del to restart the computer.

nmlkj Perform a fresh installation of Windows XP.

nmlkj Boot the computer with Windows XP bootable floppy disk.

nmlkj Remove the floppy disk from the floppy drive, and press any key.

Answer:

Remove the floppy disk from the floppy drive, and press any key.

of 396


Which software program tests hardware device drivers for their compatibility with Windows?

Explanation: The Windows Logo Program option is correct. This software program provides enhanced performance by testing hardware device drivers for their compatibility with Windows. Windows will produce a warning message that reads Continuing Your Installation of This Software May Impair or Destabilize the Correct Operation of Your System when you attempt to install any unsigned drivers that were not tested using the Windows Logo Program. You may continue to install the unsigned device driver, but it may threaten system stability. The Windows Genuine Advantage program tests Microsoft software and verifies whether the software being used is genuine or not. It does not test hardware device drivers for compatibility. Microsoft Defender helps protect Windows computers against third-party spyware, pop-ups, and unwanted software programs. The sfc.exe utility is used to replace corrupt or missing system files. It does not test hardware device drivers for compatibility.

Item: 212 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.3.30)

nmlkj Windows Logo Program

nmlkj Windows Genuine Advantage

nmlkj Microsoft Defender

nmlkj System file checker (sfc.exe)

Answer:

Windows Logo Program

of 396


What allows you to determine the version of the basic input/output system (BIOS) that is installed in your Windows 2000 computer?

Explanation: You must use the System Summary folder in the System Information MMC snap-in to view the version of BIOS that is installed in your Windows 2000 computer. The System Summary folder also displays information about the operating system, system name, processor type, and installed RAM. You can also gain access to the System Information folder by running the Msinfo32 command from the Run dialog box.

If you need more information about the memory on your Windows 2000 computer than the System Summary folder provides, then you can run Mem.exe from a command prompt.

You cannot use the MMC itself to configure or manage a Windows 2000 computer. MMC is an extensible tool that you can use to administer and configure your Windows 2000 computer. MMC acts as a container for snap-ins, such as the System Information snap-in. MMC snap-ins are added to the MMC to enable you to manage and configure your Windows 2000 computer.

You cannot view the type of BIOS that is installed in your computer by selecting either the General tab or the Hardware tab on the System Properties dialog box. Selecting the Hardware Resources folder in the System Information MMC snap-in allows you to view information about IRQ addresses, I/O addresses, DMA channels, and memory addresses. You can view the System Properties dialog box by double-clicking the System icon in Control Panel.

You can start Device Manager by clicking the Device Manager button on the Hardware tab of the System Properties dialog box. You can use Device Manager to manage, configure, and delete device drivers on your Windows 2000 Server computer. You can view information about the total memory and the type of CPU installed in your Windows 2000 Server computer by selecting the General tab in the System Properties dialog box.

Item: 214 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.3.19)

nmlkj the General tab on the System Properties dialog box

nmlkj the Hardware tab on the System Properties dialog box

nmlkj the System Summary folder in the System Information MMC snap-in

nmlkj the Hardware Resources folder in the System Information MMC snap-in

Answer:

the System Summary folder in the System Information MMC snap-in

of 396


What are two ways to launch Device Manager in Windows 2000? (Choose two.)

Explanation: Device Manager is used to configure and troubleshoot installed hardware components. You can access Device Manager through the System Properties console or through the Computer Management console. You can open the Computer Management console by navigating to Administrative Tools in Control Panel and opening Computer Management. You can access the System Properties console from the System applet in Control Panel or by right-clicking My Computer and selecting Properties.

Item: 217 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.3.14)

gfedc Open the System Properties console, and select Hardware > Device Manager.

gfedc Launch the Component Services applet, and select Device Manager.

gfedc Launch the Computer Management applet and select Device Manager.

gfedc Open My Computer, click the Tools menu, and select Device Manager.

gfedc Click the Start menu and select Programs > Accessories > System Tools > Device Manager.

Answer:

Open the System Properties console, and select Hardware > Device Manager.

Launch the Computer Management applet and select Device Manager.

of 396


Which statement is true for Mac OS computers?

Explanation: A Mac OS X 10.3 computer can only read data on an NTFS formatted external hard disk. If you connect an external hard disk drive that is formatted in NTFS to a computer running Mac OS, then you will only be able to read the content in the hard disk drive.

The option stating that an NTFS formatted hard disk drive cannot be converted to HFS is incorrect. Mac OS allows you to convert NTFS or other file systems, such as File Allocation Table 16 (FAT16) or FAT32, to HFS. Hierarchical File System (HFS) is used only on computers that are running Mac OS.

A Mac OS computer cannot read and write data on an NTFS formatted external hard disk drive. You can only read the data that is stored on a NTFS formatted hard disk drive. You cannot write any data on a NTFS format.

A Mac OS computer can create an NTFS format on a hard disk drive. In a Mac OS computer, you can only create drives in a Macintosh File System (MFS) and HFS format.

Item: 219 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.3.3)

nmlkj A Mac OS computer can only read data on an NTFS formatted external hard disk.

nmlkj An NTFS formatted hard disk drive cannot be converted to HFS.

nmlkj A Mac OS computer can read and write data on an NTFS formatted external hard disk drive.

nmlkj A Mac OS computer can create an NTFS format on a hard disk drive.

Answer:

A Mac OS computer can only read data on an NTFS formatted external hard disk.

of 396


You want to create a dual-boot configuration, with each operating system in a single partition and a minimum number of partitions on the computer. You also want all files available to each operating system. In which situation will the FAT32 file system achieve your goals?

Explanation: The FAT32 file system is appropriate for a dual-boot configuration between Windows Me and Windows 2000, with each operating system installed on a 4-GB disk partition. FAT32 is supported by Windows 95 OSR2, Windows 98, Windows Me, Windows 2000, and Windows XP.

Windows NT 4.0 and Red Hat Linux cannot be installed on FAT32 partitions. FAT16 would be inappropriate in this situation because FAT16 supports a maximum partition size of 2 GB. By contrast, FAT32 supports a theoretical maximum partition size of 8 terabytes (TB).

Item: 226 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.2.12)

nmlkj Windows Me and Windows 2000; 4-GB disk partitions

nmlkj Red Hat Linux and Windows XP; 2-GB disk partitions

nmlkj Windows NT 4.0 and Windows XP; 4-GB disk partitions

nmlkj Windows 98 and Windows NT 4.0; 2-GB disk partitions

Answer:

Windows Me and Windows 2000; 4-GB disk partitions

of 396


Which tab is present in the Windows XP version of Task Manager but is not present in the Windows 2000 version?

Explanation: Both the Windows 2000 and the Windows XP versions of the Task Manager utility contain tabs named Applications, Processes, and Performance; however, only the Windows XP version of Task Manager contains the Networking tab. The Networking tab displays network utilization statistics in both a numeric form and a graphical form. In either operating system, the Applications tab lists active applications; stalled or unresponsive applications can be unloaded from memory by selecting the stalled application from the list and clicking End Task. The Processes tab displays all running processes; these processes can consist of application components or system services. The Performance tab displays CPU and memory usage statistics in both a numeric form and a graphical form. Task Manager can be started on a Windows 2000 or Windows XP computer by typing TASKMGR from a command prompt or from the Run dialog box. Alternatively, you can right-click the taskbar and select Task Manager from the shortcut menu, and you can press CTRL+ALT+DEL and select Task Manager.

Item: 227 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.3.20)

nmlkj Processes

nmlkj Networking

nmlkj Performance

nmlkj Applications

Answer:

Networking

of 396


What are two ways that you can access the Internet Properties dialog box to delete temporary Internet files in Windows 2000? (Choose two.)

Explanation: You can delete the temporary Internet files using Internet Options from the Tools menu in Internet Explorer or by opening the Internet Options applet in Control Panel. Either method opens the Internet Properties dialog box, as shown in the image. Click the Delete Files button, or use the Disk Cleanup Wizard, to remove the temporary Internet files from the hard disk.

Item: 228 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.3.13)

gfedc Double-click the Internet Options applet in Control Panel.

gfedc Select the Internet Options from the Tools menu in Internet Explorer.

gfedc Double-click My Network Places and select Internet Options from the Tools menu.

gfedc Right-click My Computer, select Properties, and select Internet Options from the Advanced tab.

Answer:

Double-click the Internet Options applet in Control Panel.

Select the Internet Options from the Tools menu in Internet Explorer.

of 396


Which key combination should you press in a Windows-based computer to open the Task Manager or the Windows Security window, or to reboot the computer?

Explanation: You should press the Ctrl + Alt + Del key combination to open the Task Manager or the Windows Security window, or to reboot the computer. By pressing this key combination, you can open the Task Manager windows or restart a computer running Windows 98 and Windows XP. In Windows XP computers, you can open the Windows Security window that can be used to lock, log off, or shut down the computer. Using the Windows Security window, you can also change the user password or open the Task Manager window. You should not press the Ctrl + Esc key combination to open the Task Manager or the Windows Security window, or to reboot the computer. This key combination is used to bring up the Start menu. You should not press the Ctrl + A key combination to open the Task Manager or the Windows Security window, or to reboot the computer. This key combination is used to select all icons on a desktop or a window. You should not press Alt + Tab key combination to open the Task Manager or the Windows Security window or to reboot the computer. This key combination is used to switch between multiple running applications.

Item: 230 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.1.3)

nmlkj Ctrl + Alt + Del

nmlkj Ctrl + Esc

nmlkj Ctrl + A

nmlkj Alt + Tab

Answer:

Ctrl + Alt + Del

of 396


When turning on a Windows XP client computer, you receive the following error message: Windows could not start because the following file is missing or corrupt: Windows\System32\Hal.dll The computer does not boot. What should you do to fix the problem?

Explanation: You should create a new BOOT.INI file to troubleshoot the problem. Windows XP will generate the following error messages if the BOOT.INI file is missing or damaged: Windows could not start because the following file is missing or corrupt: Windows\System32\Hal.dll or Invalid Boot.ini You should not create a new WIN.INI file to troubleshoot the problem. Windows XP does not require a WIN.INI file to load Windows. Initialization (.INI) files are required to store configuration settings for Windows. Windows computers store configuration settings information in system registry and .INI files. The WIN.INI file stores information related to computer and driver software setting in Windows XP. This file does not contain any information when a full installation of Windows XP is performed. You should not create a new WIN.COM file to troubleshoot the problem. Windows requires WIN.COM to load Windows successfully. However, the error message indicates that the BOOT.INI file is corrupt and needs to be rebuilt. You should not create a new AUTOEXEC.BAT file to troubleshoot the problem. The AUTOEXEC.BAT is a batch file that executes the commands listed in the batch file when Windows boots up.

Item: 231 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.1.23)

nmlkj Create a new WIN.INI file.

nmlkj Create a new AUTOEXEC.BAT file.

nmlkj Create a new BOOT.INI file.

nmlkj Create a new WIN.COM file.

Answer:

Create a new BOOT.INI file.

of 396


Where do you change drive letters, delete volumes, format disks, and perform other disk management tasks in Windows XP?

Explanation:

The Disk Management feature in the Computer Management console allows you to change drive letters, delete volumes, format disks, and perform other disk management tasks in Windows 2000 and Windows XP. The Windows 2000 Computer Management console is shown in the following image:

Windows NT 4.0 contains a similar disk-management utility named the Windows NT Disk Administrator. Windows 9x and Windows Me lack this type of disk-management utility. Disk Management with Windows 9x and Windows Me is performed using command-line utilities, such as FDISK and FORMAT, and third-party utilities.

My System Manager is not a valid tool in Windows XP. System Information displays pertinent information regarding the computer, including the processor used, amount of memory, and operating system version. Computer Management is the console whereby a user can manage computer and operating system components, including the hard drive.

Item: 237 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.1.20)

nmlkj My Computer

nmlkj My System Manager

nmlkj System Information

nmlkj Computer Management

Answer:

Computer Management

of 396


You are a desktop engineer for a graphic designing company. The company network consists of ten Windows 95 client computers. Management of the company requires you to upgrade all client computers to a high-performance operating system with a UNIX-based kernel platform that will enable users to create and edit high-end graphics, audios, and videos.

Which operating system should you use for the upgrade?

Explanation: You should use the Mac OS X operating system for upgrading all client computers. This operating system is based on the UNIX kernel platform and is primarily used for creating and editing high-end graphics, audios, and videos. The Mac OS X operating system also provides all standard UNIX utilities and scripting languages.

You should not use the Windows XP Professional operating system for upgrading all client computers. This operating system is based on non-UNIX kernel. You can use Windows XP Professional for creating and editing high-end graphics, audios, and videos by using various third-party applications. However, MAC OS X is a recommended operating system for graphics, audios, and videos.

You should not use the z/OS operating system for upgrading all client computers. This operating system is based on a UNIX platform. However, the z/OS operating system is a mainframe operating system and is used to manage or integrate core business applications or to process bulk data. You cannot use the z/OS operating system for creating and editing high-end graphics, audios, and videos.

You should not use the Windows Embedded CE operating system for upgrading all client computers. This operating system is based on a non-UNIX kernel. The Windows Embedded CE operating system is primarily used with a variety of devices and consumer electronics, such as pocket PCs, cameras, interactive televisions, and other devices that have minimal storage space. You cannot use this operating system for creating and editing high-end graphics, audios, and videos.

Item: 240 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.1.5)

nmlkj Mac OS X

nmlkj Windows XP Professional

nmlkj z/OS

nmlkj Windows Embedded CE

Answer:

Mac OS X

of 396


A user named John complains that he cannot create a shortcut for a Microsoft Word file named Test.doc using his Windows XP computer. What should you recommend?

Explanation: You should right-click on the desktop, select New, and then select Shortcut to run the Create Shortcut wizard. This procedure will allow you to create a shortcut for the desired file on the desktop. You can perform a similar procedure if you plan to create a new folder to store data. You can also create a new shortcut on the desktop by right-clicking the unopened file's name or icon in the file's folder, and selecting Create Shortcut. All other options are incorrect. The File, Tools, and Edit menus do not provide an option to create a new shortcut.

Item: 241 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.1.24)

nmlkj Open the Test.doc file, click the File menu, and select Create Shortcut.

nmlkj Open the Test.doc file, click the Tools menu, and select Create Shortcut.

nmlkj Open the Test.doc file, click the Edit menu, and select Create Shortcut.

nmlkj Right-click the desktop, select New, and then select Shortcut to run the Create Shortcut wizard

Answer:

Right-click the desktop, select New, and then select Shortcut to run the Create Shortcut wizard

of 396


Which key combination should you press in a Windows XP computer to lock the computer?

Explanation: You should press the Windows icon key + L key combination to lock a Windows XP computer. You should not press the Windows icon key + U key combination to lock a Windows XP computer. This key combination is used to open the Utility Manager window. You should not press the Windows icon key + R key combination to lock a Windows XP computer. This key combination is used to open the Run window. You should not press the Windows icon key + E key combination to lock a Windows XP computer. This key combination is used to open the My Computer window.

Item: 243 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.1.2)

nmlkj Windows icon key + L

nmlkj Windows icon key + U

nmlkj Windows icon key + R

nmlkj Windows icon key + E

Answer:

Windows icon key + L

of 396


You start a clean installation of Windows XP professional on a computer.

Which mode creates a user account named Administrator and allows you to set up the Administrator password during the installation?

Explanation: Graphical user interface (GUI) mode creates a user account named Administrator and allows you to set up the Administrator password during the installation. The GUI mode also installs hardware devices, networking components, and performs other operating system configurations.

Text mode does not create a user account named Administrator and allow you to set up the Administrator password. Text mode is the first phase of Windows XP installation that allows you to repair your existing installation or to select or format a partition using a file system, such as File Allocation Table (FAT) or New Technology File System (NTFS). In this mode, the installation files are also copied to the installation folder on the computer's hard disk.

DOS mode does not create a user account named Administrator and allow you to set up the Administrator password. DOS mode provides you a command-line interface that is used to run DOS-based applications or commands. It is not part of the installation process.

Safe Mode does not create a user account named Administrator and allow you to set up the Administrator password. Safe Mode is a type of booting mode for Windows that is used if there is a critical problem is interfering with the normal operation of Windows. This mode allows you to troubleshoot or diagnose the cause for the critical problem. It is not part of the installation process.

The different versions of Windows have interactive startup options that can be selected. Safe Mode starts Windows with a basic configuration with minimal video settings. The Safe Mode with Command Prompt option does not load the GUI. The Safe Mode with Networking option starts Windows with a basic configuration, but includes networking settings.

Item: 274 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.2.3)

nmlkj GUI mode

nmlkj Text mode

nmlkj DOS mode

nmlkj Safe Mode

Answer:

GUI mode

of 396


Which Windows operating system version cannot be upgraded to Windows 2000?

Explanation: The Windows 3.1 operating system cannot be upgraded to Windows 2000 operating systems, such as Windows XP or Windows Vista. If you want to upgrade a computer running Windows 3.1 to Windows 2000, and the computer meets the minimum hardware requirements, then you must perform a new installation of Windows 2000.

Windows NT Workstation 3.5.1, Windows NT Workstation 4.0, Windows 95, and Windows 98 can be upgraded to Windows 2000. However, it is recommended to perform a new installation when upgrading a computer running Windows 95 or Windows 98 to ensure a successful installation. Amongst these operating systems, Windows NT Workstation 3.5.1 and Windows 95 cannot be upgraded to Windows XP. To upgrade to Windows XP, you are required to perform a new installation on Windows NT Workstation 3.5.1 and Windows 95 computers.

Item: 275 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.2.5)

nmlkj Windows 3.1

nmlkj Windows NT Workstation 3.5.1

nmlkj Windows NT Workstation 4.0

nmlkj Windows 95

nmlkj Windows 98

Answer:

Windows 3.1

of 396


You want to create a volume that uses space on a single hard disk in your Windows 2000 Server computer. Which type of hard disk volumes should you create?

Explanation: You should create a simple volume. A simple volume is composed of hard disk space on a single hard disk. If you extend a simple volume to include free space on more than one hard disk, then the simple volume becomes a spanned volume. A simple volume does not provide fault tolerance. If the hard disk that contains a simple volume fails, then you will lose the data stored on the volume. A redundant array of independent disks (RAID) requires at least two hard disks. A RAID-5 volume, also known as disk striping with parity, requires at least three hard disks and can use as many as 32 hard disks. RAID 5 provides fault tolerance. If one of the hard disks in a RAID-5 volume fails, then the data on the failed hard disk can be recovered from parity information stored on the other hard disks in the RAID-5 volume. A spanned volume consists of free space on at least two hard disks, and can use as many as 32 hard disks. A spanned volume does not provide fault tolerance. If one of the hard disks in a spanned volume fails, then the data stored on the spanned volume is lost. The free space on each hard disk in a spanned volume can vary in size. A striped volume, also known as RAID 0, consists of an equal amount of free space on two or more hard disks, up to as many as 32 disks. Data is written in equal blocks to each hard disk in the striped volume. Consequently, each hard disk in a striped volume must allocate an equal amount of free space to the striped volume. A striped volume does not provide fault tolerance. If one hard disk in a striped volume fails, then you will lose all data stored on the striped volume. A mirrored volume, also known as RAID 1, consists of equal amounts of space on two hard disks. When data is written to a mirrored volume, the same data is recorded twice, once on each disk. The term mirror refers to the identical nature of the stored data on the two disks. If one hard disk in a mirrored volume fails, then the mirrored volume can be broken and the data that is stored on the mirrored volume is still available on the operational hard disk. The image depicts a page from the Create Volume Wizard, which shows the types of hard disk volumes that Windows 2000 Server supports.

Item: 276 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.2.9)

nmlkj RAID 5

nmlkj simple

nmlkj spanned

nmlkj striped

nmlkj mirrored

Answer:

simple

of 396


of 396


Your Windows 2000 Professional computer is currently configured in such a way that you cannot see all file name extensions when you view files in Windows Explorer or in My Computer. You want to view all file name extensions in Windows Explorer and in My Computer. Which procedures could you implement to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

Explanation: You should clear the Hide file extensions for known file types check box to view file name extensions in My Computer and in Windows Explorer. To access this check box, select Folder Options from the Tools menu of either My Computer or Windows Explorer. From the Folder Options dialog box, click the View tab and clear the Hide file extensions for known file types check box. Once file extensions are no longer hidden, you should be able to view file name extensions in Windows Explorer and My Computer.

You cannot configure the Hide file extensions for known file types check box on the File Type tab. If you display the Folder Options dialog box, select the File Type tab, click the Edit button, and click the Set Default button, Windows 2000 Professional will link certain applications to specific file name extensions. Then, when you double-click a file with one of the known file name extensions, Windows 2000 Professional will start the associated application and open the file with the application. File name extensions will remain hidden.

You can configure a folder in Windows Explorer on a Windows 2000 Professional computer to display hidden files and folders. To do so, select the folder you want to configure, open the Tools menu, select Folder Options click the View tab on the Folder Options dialog box, click the Show hidden files and folders option, and click OK. If you click the Like Current Folder button on the View tab of the Folder Options dialog box, then the other folders on your Windows 2000 Professional computer will be configured as the current folder is configured.

Item: 277 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.1.11)

gfedc Open Windows Explorer, select Tools, select Folder Options, select the File Type tab, click the Edit button, and click the Set Default button.

gfedc Open Windows Explorer, select Tools, select Folder Options, select the View tab, and clear the Hide file extensions for known file types check box.

gfedc Double-click the My Computer icon, select Tools, select Folder Options, select the File Type tab, click the Edit button, and click the Set Default button.

gfedc Double-click the My Computer icon, select Tools, select Folder Options, select the View tab, and clear the Hide file extensions for known file types check box.

Answer:

Open Windows Explorer, select Tools, select Folder Options, select the View tab, and clear the Hide file extensions for known file types check box.

Double-click the My Computer icon, select Tools, select Folder Options, select the View tab, and clear the Hide file extensions for known file types check box.

of 396


Where should you go to turn OFF automatic updates for service packs, device drivers, and security updates in a Windows XP Professional computer?

Explanation: By clicking Control Panel, going to System, and clicking the Automatic Updates tab, you can select one of four options:

� Automatically download recommended updates for my computer and install them.

� Download updates for me but let me choose when to install them.

� Notify me but do not automatically download or install them.

� Turn off Automatic Updates.

Selecting the last option allows you to turn OFF updates. By running the Wupdmgr.exe tool, you launch a Web browser that navigates automatically to the Windows update site, http : // windowsupdate.microsoft.com/. The Wupdmgr.exe tool provides Microsoft product updates and patches and automatically installs them. By clicking Control Panel, going to Internet Options, and clicking General, you can access the Internet Properties dialog box. The dialog box allows you to set preferences and to configure the Automatic updates setting for the Internet Explorer Web browser. The settings include Home Page, Temporary Internet files, and History. By clicking Control Panel, going to Add or Remove Programs, and clicking Add New Programs, you cannot configure the Automatic updates setting. This approach allows you to either install new applications from CDs or floppies or update Windows from the Microsoft Update Web site by using the Internet.

Item: 278 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.2.11)

nmlkj Click Start, go to Run, type Wupdmgr.exe,

nmlkj Click Control Panel, go to Internet Options, and click General.

nmlkj Click Control Panel, go to System, and click the Automatic Updates tab.

nmlkj Click Control Panel, go to Add or Remove Programs, and click Add New Programs.

Answer:

Click Control Panel, go to System, and click the Automatic Updates tab.

of 396


Which Windows operating system supports 64 GB of physical random access memory (RAM)?

Explanation: Windows Server 2003, Datacenter Edition supports 64 GB of physical RAM. This operating system supports large-scale virtualization and mission-critical solutions for databases, high volume real-time transaction processing, server consolidation, and enterprise resource planning software. Windows Server 2003, Enterprise Edition does not support 64 GB of physical RAM. It supports a maximum of 32 GB of physical RAM. This operating system provides increased reliability, security, manageability, and scalability for applications running in an enterprise. Windows 2000 Professional and Windows XP Professional does not support 64 GB of physical RAM. Both of these operating systems supports only up to 4 GB of physical RAM. Windows 2000 Professional and Windows XP are typically used as client operating systems that enable user to use various applications for their professional or personal use.

Item: 279 (Ref:Cert-220-601.3.2.4)

nmlkj Windows Server 2003, Datacenter Edition

nmlkj Windows Server 2003, Enterprise Edition

nmlkj Windows 2000 Professional

nmlkj Windows XP Professional

Answer:

Windows Server 2003, Datacenter Edition

of 396


You maintain a company network that has 300 computers in a factory environment. Dust and dirt collect regularly on these computers, particularly on the monitors. What should you use to clean the computer cases and the monitors?

Explanation: Either a mild solution of soap and water or a significantly diluted ammonia-based cleaning solution is recommended for cleaning the exterior of computer cases. You should first dampen a lint-free cloth or paper towel, and then clean the case with the dampened towel. Monitor screens are often coated with anti-glare and antistatic materials, so only pure water or a manufacturer-approved liquid should be used to clean the screen. Avoid spraying cleaning solution into the top vents on the monitor because circuit boards are often located directly under the vents. Bleach and strong ammonia solutions can damage a computer case. Alcohol is often used to clean the moving parts of printers or the read/write heads of floppy disk drives. Naval jelly is a phosphoric acid-based jellied material that is used to remove rust from metallic surfaces. Compressed air is helpful for removing dust from the inside of a computer, where liquids should never be used for cleaning. A soft-bristled brush can also be used on the system board, cards, and other components. Solvent-based cleansers and aerosols, which can damage the plastic and electric components of a computer, should never be used for cleaning.

Personal Computer Components

Item: 280 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.4.11)

nmlkj bleach

nmlkj alcohol

nmlkj naval jelly

nmlkj compressed air

nmlkj mild soap and water

Answer:

mild soap and water

of 396


Cathy is at the case of a computer to add some memory and perform some additional maintenance, and she wants to protect the computer equipment from electrostatic discharge (ESD).

How can she proceed safely?

Explanation: Cathy should wear a grounding strap to prevent damage to computer components from ESD. She should never ground herself to the system board because she could damage the board itself with ESD. Wearing a grounding strap ensures that any static electricity is passed to ground potential. Cathy could electrocute herself by inadvertently connecting the strap to a line voltage source. Line voltage is the power supplied by the wall plug, which is typically 120 or 240 volts AC. Unplugging a computer will not protect it from ESD. The buildup of static electricity on a person wearing synthetic fabric can easily reach 21,000 volts. Whereas a buildup of approximately 750 volts of static electricity is necessary to produce a visible spark, a buildup of only 10 volts can cause damage to computer components. Therefore, ESD can damage components at energy levels too low to be perceptible by human senses. Even if static discharges do not destroy a computer chip, they may decrease the life of the chip.

Item: 281 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.4.12)

nmlkj She should unplug the computer.

nmlkj She should use a grounding strap.

nmlkj She should connect her grounding strap to the system board.

nmlkj She should connect her grounding strap to a line voltage source.

Answer:

She should use a grounding strap.

of 396


The application you are running from CD-ROM stops responding. You borrow another CD-ROM from a colleague and receive an error indicating that the media cannot be read. Which are the two most cost-effective actions you should take first to resolve the problem? (Choose two.)

Explanation: You should clean the CD-ROMs. If cleaning the discs proves ineffective, then you should clean the drive optics, following the manufacturer's directions. Because both CD-ROMs could not be read, the fault is probably with the drive and not the discs. However, cleaning the discs takes little time and effort. First, inspect the CD-ROM for dust, smudges, fingerprints and scratches. To clean a CD-ROM, use a clean, dry, lint-free cloth and gently wipe the disc from the center toward the outer edge. An alcohol solution can be used for removing stubborn smudges and oily residues. Avoid cleaning solutions that leave a residue or that react with the plastic, and do not use abrasive cleansers. The basic input/output system (BIOS) is not the source of the problem in this scenario. The cleaning process for the lens optics and the aperture can vary from drive to drive and may involve the use of compressed air. Replacing the CD-ROM drive may resolve the problem but is not cost-effective as a first approach.

Item: 282 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.4.3)

gfedc Clean the CD-ROMs.

gfedc Clean the drive optics.

gfedc Flash the computer BIOS.

gfedc Replace the CD-ROM drive.

Answer:

Clean the CD-ROMs.

Clean the drive optics.

of 396


You are a technician servicing a medium sized client. As part of a normal maintenance inspection, you notice dust and other fine particles around the power supply fans of many computers. You decide to clean the power supply fans to prevent any potential problems that this might cause. What should you use to clean the fan?

Explanation: A vacuum cleaner is useful when cleaning a system loaded with fine debris particles and dust. There are special vacuum cleaners designed to be used with computer systems. These minimize the possibility of electrostatic discharge. Some are even small enough to carry on service calls and utilize inside the system case. Another device that you may use is a compressed air (gas) canister. Use the canister as a blower to remove the dust and debris from the system case or system components. A good maintenance program involves active and passive operations. One of the active components of this program is to periodically clean the dust and particles from the system. Dust buildup can lead to partial shorts in a system or can accelerate corrosion of electrical contacts.

Item: 283 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.4.10)

nmlkj Pencil eraser

nmlkj Soap and water

nmlkj Vacuum or compressed air

nmlkj Chlorofluorocarbonated Freon

Answer:

Vacuum or compressed air

of 396


You need to recommend preventive maintenance solutions to a user. What should be your recommendation?

Explanation: You should place the computer away from direct sunlight. You should recommend the user to place the computer in a location that does not experience direct heating or cooling, such as in direct sunlight or under an air conditioner vent. Environmental factors such as heat, dust, and dirt may affect the performance of a computer. You should also recommend that the user periodically check the computer hardware for visual defects. You should not place your computer near the air conditioner because it may damage the computer. Temperature variances can cause moisture to condense in your computer. Also, an air conditioner vent may be a source of dust. You should not place your computer directly in sunlight because excessive heat can also damage the computer. You should not place an indoor plant near your computer. You should not place anything near your computer that may cause dust or dirt to accumulate inside your computer.

Item: 284 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.4.13)

nmlkj Place the computer near an air conditioner vent.

nmlkj Place the computer in brightly lit sunlight.

nmlkj Place the computer away from sunlight.

nmlkj Place an indoor plant near your computer.

Answer:

Place the computer away from sunlight.

of 396


Your company has issued a directive that uninterruptible power supplies (UPSs) should be used. You have been given a standard 500 VA UPS. What equipment in your office should you connect to the UPS?

Explanation: Only a CPU and monitor should be connected to a standard 500 VA UPS. Typically, a standard UPS with the 500 VA capacity should have only critical devices connected. A CPU and monitor combined will utilize the UPS to its maximum VA capacity. You should not connect speakers to a standard 500 VA UPS. Typically, speakers do not consume high-voltage, but a speaker is a non-critical device. For a standard UPS to perform at its optimum capacity, you should connect only the critical devices. You should not connect a laser printer or ink jet printer to a standard 500 VA UPS because a printer typically consumes a lot of electricity. A UPS is typically used to connect devices that are critical for running a computer. A printer is a noncritical device that can cause malfunctioning of the UPS. A laser printer consumes high-level voltage that can cause the UPS battery to degrade or malfunction. On the other hand, an ink jet printer still draws enough voltage to possibly cause malfunction to a UPS with 500 capacity. Therefore, you should not connect a laser or inkjet printer to a UPS.

Item: 285 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.4.2)

gfedc CPU

gfedc monitor

gfedc speakers

gfedc laser printer

gfedc ink jet printer

Answer:

CPU

monitor

of 396


Susan wants to ensure that she buys a surge suppressor that will quickly stop a power spike. Which feature should be of the greatest interest to Susan?

Explanation: The clamping speed is a measure of how quickly a surge suppressor responds after incoming voltage reaches a threshold level. This response time is referred to as the clamping voltage.

The access speed is a measure of the time required to retrieve information from a storage device. The bus and transfer speeds measure data transmission rates. Transfer speed, access speed, and bus speed are not characteristics of a surge protector.

Item: 305 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.4.4)

nmlkj the bus speed

nmlkj the access speed

nmlkj the transfer speed

nmlkj the clamping speed

Answer:

the clamping speed

of 396


After you have identified the problem, what is the next step in the troubleshooting process?

Explanation: After you have identified the problem, you should analyze the problem. This generally includes analyzing potential causes of the problem, isolating the causes of the issue, and eliminating the possibilities. These processes are all part of the second step of the troubleshooting process. Questioning the user is part of the process of identifying the problem. Identifying the problem is the first step of the troubleshooting process. Documenting activities and outcomes it the last step in the troubleshooting process. Evaluating the results is the fourth step in the troubleshooting process. The steps in the troubleshooting process, according to the CompTIA A+ certification exam objectives, are the following:

1. Identify the problem. 2. Analyze the problem. 3. Test components. 4. Evaluate the results. 5. Document activities and outcomes.

Item: 306 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.3.28)

nmlkj Question the user.

nmlkj Document activities and outcomes.

nmlkj Evaluate the results.

nmlkj Analyze the problem.

Answer:

Analyze the problem.

of 396


Which serial communication standards provide hot-swap capability? (Choose two.)

Explanation:

Universal Serial Bus (USB) and Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 1394 are serial bus standards that allow hot swapping of devices. The term hot swapping, which is also known as hot plugging, refers to the ability to add or remove a device from the bus while the computer is turned on and operational. Older bus standards do not support this feature. Indeed, removing or adding a device while the computer is running can damage the device or the computer. For example, the ATX motherboard has two adjacent PS/2 ports for the keyboard and mouse connectors. If these connectors are reversed, the computer will usually beep and show an error message during the POST routine. If you unplug and reinsert the connectors while the computer is still turned on, you can cause a power surge through a connector and damage the motherboard. A typical response to an error message associated with such a connector reversal would be to press F1, but because the keyboard is connected to the mouse port, pressing this function key will have no effect. USB is an external expansion bus standard that allows hot swapping and Plug and Play (PnP) capability. Up to 127 devices can be connected through 4-pin USB ports and daisy-chained USB hubs to the single USB controller. Two of the pins are used for data, and the other two provide power. The older USB 1.1 standard provides data transfer speeds of up to 12 megabits per second (Mbps), now referred to as low speed, because USB 2.0 supports a data transfer rate of 480 Mbps, which is called full speed or high speed. Devices that meet the USB 1.1 standard can be used with a USB 2.0 controller, which is designed for backward compatibility.

PS/2 connectors, also known as mini-DIN 6 connectors, are used almost exclusively with keyboard and mouse connectors. The RS-232C serial interface is most commonly associated with COM ports and especially with dial-up modems that connect to a COM port. The AT motherboard commonly used a 9-pin serial mouse that also connected to a COM port. The green mini-DIN 6 connector is for a PS/2 mouse. The purple mini-DIN 6 connection is for a PS/2 keyboard.

The original IEEE 1394 standard offers data transfer rates of 400 Mbps; a newer standard, IEEE 1394b, provides up to 800 Mbps. The Apple implementation of IEEE 1394 is called FireWire, and the Sony implementation is called i.LINK. Like USB, FireWire also supports hot swapping and PnP capability. IEEE 1394 can support up to 63 devices.

Item: 307 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.1.3)

gfedc USB

gfedc PS/2

gfedc RS-232C

gfedc IEEE 1394

Answer:

USB

IEEE 1394

of 396


Your monitor fails and you send it to be repaired, which you are told will take at least three days. You obtain an old 14-inch VGA monitor from storage and connect it to your Windows XP computer. When you turn on your computer, the monitor displays the Windows XP splash screen briefly but then shows only closely spaced horizontal lines and random colors. What should you do to correct this problem?

Explanation: A Video Graphics Array (VGA) monitor, operating in graphics mode, such as the Windows XP GUI interface, can only support a resolution of 640 x 480 pixels and 16 colors. The symptoms described in the scenario suggest that the display settings for the original monitor exceed the capabilities of the VGA monitor. When you enter Safe Mode, Windows automatically sets the video display to 16 colors and a resolution of 640 x 480, so your replacement monitor should function properly. You will then be able to open the Display Properties dialog box from either Control Panel or by right-clicking the desktop. Then, you can select the Settings tab and make the required changes. You should also check the other settings for the display because a refresh rate that is set too high can cause similar problems.

Turning the monitor off and on will not correct the display problems described in the scenario.

Installing additional RAM to the video adapter will increase the number of colors and video resolution supported by the adapter, but the monitor will still be the limiting factor because of its VGA.

The A20 gate is a complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS) setting that enables access to the first 64 kilobytes (KB) of extended memory. Disabling this setting may disable all access to the random access memory (RAM) greater than 1 megabyte (MB).

Item: 308 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.3.12)

nmlkj Turn the monitor off and then on.

nmlkj Add more RAM to the video adapter.

nmlkj Enter the CMOS setup, and disable the A20 gate.

nmlkj Reboot into Safe Mode, and then change the display settings to a lower resolution and fewer colors.

Answer:

Reboot into Safe Mode, and then change the display settings to a lower resolution and fewer colors.

of 396


A client named Dale calls and reports that his CD-ROM drive has stopped responding, and he cannot eject the compact disc that is currently in the drive. What should you bring when you go to Dale's office?

Explanation: On most CD-ROM drives, you can use a paper clip to eject the drive tray mechanism that holds the compact disc. You should power down the computer before using the paper clip in the drive. A small aperture, known as an emergency eject hole, is generally located in the front of the drive. Pushing the paper clip through the hole will move a small lever and cause the tray to move slightly forward. You can then carefully pull the tray open fully.

Item: 309 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.3.13)

nmlkj a paper clip

nmlkj a screwdriver

nmlkj a pair of pliers

nmlkj a chip extractor

Answer:

a paper clip

of 396


You are the desktop administrator for your company and maintain all the computers in your organization. To properly upgrade one of the computers, you must upgrade the motherboard. While upgrading this computer, you should choose the appropriate form factor that is suitable for the motherboard of the existing computer. Which two specifications should you consider while selecting the appropriate form factor? (Choose two.)

Explanation: Form factor largely defines the physical size and the power supply supported on a motherboard. Each type of form factor will have a standard physical size for the motherboard. There may be deviations from the standard size of a motherboard for motherboards made by certain manufacturers, but the physical size of the motherboard is largely defined in the form factor specifications. The power supply supported by a particular form factor may not be supported by another form factor of the motherboard. For example, there is a difference in the power supply used for PIII and PIV motherboards. The power supply connectors that connect to the motherboard are different in size, shape, and power ratings.

Other factors, such as the placement of mounting holes and the physical layout of the motherboard, should also be considered when deciding on a form factor for a motherboard. Some of the form factors are AT, Baby AT, micro-ATX, mini-ATX, and Balanced Technology Extended (BTX).

The number of PCI slots and the amount of memory supported on the motherboard are not considered as part of the form factor. Typically, a specific type of form factor will have a specified number of PCI slots. In the same form factor, the numbers of PCI slots on the motherboard typically do not differ even if the vendor is different. The support for memory is not driven by the form factor but by the architecture and technology used to design the motherboard.

Item: 310 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.2.3)

gfedc physical size

gfedc power supply

gfedc number of PCI slots

gfedc supported amount of memory

Answer:

physical size

power supply

of 396


What are the dimensions of an Advanced Technology Extended (ATX) motherboard?

Explanation: The correct dimensions for an ATX motherboard are 12 inches wide and 9.6 inches deep. An ATX motherboard has the processor and memory located at a right angle to the expansion slots so that more expansion slots can be installed easily. An ATX motherboard supports up to seven expansion slots in a combination of Industry Standard Architecture (ISA) and Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) slots. The mini-ATX motherboard is 11.2 inches wide and 8.2 inches deep. It supports fewer expansions slots than the ATX motherboard. The AT motherboard is 12 inches wide and 13.8 inches deep. This motherboard was phased out when the ATX motherboard was introduced in 1995. The baby AT motherboard is 9 inches wide and 13 inches deep. The baby AT motherboard can support a maximum of two full length expansion cards because the processor, memory, and expansion slots are arranged parallel to each other, leaving less space for expansion slots than provided by an ATX motherboard.

Item: 311 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.1.37)

nmlkj 11.2 inches wide and 8.2 inches deep

nmlkj 12 inches wide and 9.6 inches deep

nmlkj 12 inches wide and 13.8 inches deep

nmlkj 9 inches wide and 13 inches deep

Answer:

12 inches wide and 9.6 inches deep

of 396


What are the four primary sources of display problems? (Choose four.)

Explanation: The video signal cable, video controller card, video driver software, and the monitor are the four primary sources of display problems. The one you suspect first as the cause of a particular problem will depend on the symptoms exhibited by the system.

If a user reports a display problem, you should ask the user to ensure that the monitor is plugged in and turned on. You should also ask the user to ensure that the contrast and brightness on the monitor is adjusted properly.

If the monitor is blank but the computer fan is running after turning the computer on, the monitor is either not on or not plugged in. If the monitor is blank and the computer fan is NOT running after turning the computer on, the computer is not plugged in or the power supply is not functional.

Item: 312 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.3.7)

gfedc Monitor

gfedc Processor

gfedc Data cable

gfedc Power supply

gfedc Video signal cable

gfedc Video driver software

gfedc Video controller card

Answer:

Monitor

Video signal cable

Video driver software

Video controller card

of 396


You have a low-speed USB 1.1 device connected to the built-in hub on a full-speed USB device, which is then connected to your computer's USB 2.0 controller. What is the greatest distance that can separate the USB 1.1 device from the computer?

Explanation: The maximum length of a Universal Serial Bus (USB) cable when a low-speed USB 1.1 device is connected in a chain is limited to 3 meters. Although the USB 2.0 specification allows a maximum cable length of 5 meters, the slower device limit will take precedence. USB supports two modes for data transfer, isochronous and asynchronous. An isochronous connection uses a high bandwidth and transfers data at a guaranteed fixed rate. Such transfers are required for demanding multimedia applications and high-performance USB devices. Asynchronous connections transfer data at a low bandwidth; these data transfers can only occur when there is no isochronous traffic on the bus. USB 2.0 supports isochronous transfers at rates of up to 480 megabits per second (Mbps) and asynchronous transfers at rates of up to 12 Mbps. On a USB bus, isochronous data transmissions always take precedence over asynchronous data transmissions.

Item: 313 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.3.24)

nmlkj 1.5 meters

nmlkj 3 meters

nmlkj 5 meters

nmlkj 10 meters

Answer:

3 meters

of 396


What are the two most important factors to consider when selecting a replacement power supply for a desktop computer? (Choose two.)

Explanation: When replacing a power supply, you should first look for a replacement that fits the form factor of the computer. Power supplies are designed to operate with a specific form factor. Once you have found the proper form factor, the next characteristic that you should look for is the rated output capacity in watts. You must make sure that the replacement can supply sufficient power for the components inside the computer. You should estimate the wattage consumed by the computer's components, and then install a power supply that is rated higher than your estimate. This allows components to be added to the computer and gives a buffer for estimating errors.

You do not need to consider voltage levels or fan type, because the voltage and fan type sizes are standard within the form factors.

Item: 314 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.1.7)

gfedc Fan type

gfedc Form factor

gfedc Voltage levels

gfedc Output capacity in watts

Answer:

Form factor

Output capacity in watts

of 396


Which of the following components on an Advanced Technology Extended (ATX) motherboard is used to support communication between the central processing unit (CPU) and random access memory (RAM)?

Explanation: The Northbridge chip (also referred to as the north bridge) is used to support communication between the RAM and the CPU. It also supports the Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) bus, the Level2 cache, and the Accelerated Graphics Port (AGP) port. It provides communication to higher speed devices than the south bridge chip. The Southbridge chip (also referred to as the south bridge) supports slower devices such as expansion slots, Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) drives, and USB ports. It handles all input/output (I/O) functions. The ATA interface is used to connect storage devices to the motherboard, such as CD-ROM drives and hard disks. Firmware is a software program that stores a set of programming instructions in read-only memory to control the desired device functionality.

Item: 315 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.1.35)

nmlkj Southbridge chip

nmlkj Northbridge chip

nmlkj Advanced Technology Attachment (ATA) interface

nmlkj firmware

Answer:

Northbridge chip

of 396


Which event is an early indication that you may need to replace a computer's complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS) battery?

Explanation: Often, your earliest indication of a failing CMOS battery is loss of time at startup. You can monitor the accuracy of the computer's clock over several days to make this determination. After each startup, type the system command time at a command prompt, press Enter, and then compare the time value the computer displays to a known standard. Personal computers, including MS-DOS computers, Windows 9x computers and Windows 2000/XP computers, derive date and time information from the CMOS clock only at system startup. After startup, these operating systems rely on a memory controller to keep time. The memory controller's refresh timer is likely to gain or lose several seconds on a daily basis, but this has no bearing on the CMOS battery. Therefore, you should check the system date and time, but only at startup, if you suspect the battery is beginning to fail. If a computer's power supply fails, or if a boot device, such as a hard disk fails, then startup will not complete successfully. It is important to note that if a CMOS battery fails, it is possible for a computer to generate a No boot device available error during startup, but this does not necessarily indicate that a hard disk has failed. If you replace the hard disk with another disk known to be functional, and you still receive the same error message, then you should suspect that the CMOS chip or its battery has failed. Parity errors at startup relate to a computer's random access memory (RAM). Such errors indicate that RAM modules on a computer's system board are not compatible with each other or that one or more memory modules have failed. Consequently, you should replace memory modules to ensure that all onboard modules are functioning and have the same parity setting.

Item: 316 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.3.20)

nmlkj Parity errors occur at startup.

nmlkj A hard disk on the computer fails

nmlkj The computer's power supply fails.

nmlkj The computer's internal clock loses time at startup.

Answer:

The computer's internal clock loses time at startup.

of 396


After you have resolved a client's computer problem, what is the last step in the troubleshooting process?

Explanation: The last step in the troubleshooting process is to document activities and outcomes. This should be completed after you have resolved the client's computer problem or transferred the problem to another technician. Documentation serves two purposes. First, a future technician experiencing the same problem can easily arrive at a solution, and second, another technician will not repeat the same troubleshooting steps you have completed, thereby reducing redundant effort. After resolving the issue, you should not identify the troubleshooting process. Identification of the troubleshooting process should be done after you understand the problem clearly. This comes much earlier in the troubleshooting process. After resolving the issue, you should not test the solution. If you have resolved the issue, you have already tested the solution. Testing the solution occurs much earlier in the troubleshooting process. After resolving the issue, you should not evaluate the results. If you have resolved the issue, you have already evaluated the results. Evaluating the results occurs during the testing the solution phase of the troubleshooting process.

Item: 317 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.3.30)

nmlkj Identify the troubleshooting process.

nmlkj Test the solution.

nmlkj Evaluate the results.

nmlkj Document activities and outcomes.

Answer:

Document activities and outcomes.

of 396


You are the network administrator for Nutex Corporation. You have configured a wireless network for a group of users to provide Internet access. However, users complain that they are facing intermittent loss of wireless connection. You have verified the hardware and software configuration of both your Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL) modem and wireless router and your DSL line from the Internet Service Provider (ISP). What could be causing your problems?

Explanation: Cordless phone and other type of physical obstructions can cause intermittent loss in wireless connectivity. Wireless devices use 2.4 GHz range, which is also used by devices such as cordless phones and microwaves. These devices can interfere with the wireless devices. For example, if you are experiencing wireless connectivity problems every day around noon, a microwave being used to heat lunches could be causing the problem. You can reduce the radio frequency interference (RFI) by relocating the interfering devices. You could also reduce the range of the wireless network. Different wireless frequencies experience different RFI problems. You should always research the frequency that you plan to deploy to determine which devices will cause you problems. DSL filters cannot cause interference in wireless networks. The wireless router is not the problem. As mentioned in the scenario, you have already verified the hardware and software configuration of the wireless router. You do not need to test it again. A television set does not cause any problem in wireless communication. Only the devices that use wireless range used on your networks can cause interference in wireless connectivity.

Item: 318 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.3.26)

nmlkj DSL filters

nmlkj Cordless phones

nmlkj Wireless router

nmlkj Television set

Answer:

Cordless phones

of 396


After which procedure are you most likely to flash a computer's BIOS program?

Explanation: Most modern computers make use of a technology known as flash read-only memory (ROM) or flash basic input/output system (BIOS) that allows code in a computer's core chips (firmware) to be updated by software that is available through the BIOS manufacturer or system board manufacturer. You may need to flash a computer's BIOS program after you integrate certain types of technological enhancements, such as a central processing unit (CPU) with a new instruction set, into your computer. Before you flash the BIOS, you should back up the BIOS settings on a floppy disk and document the CMOS configuration settings. A computer's CMOS settings need to reflect the addition of any new memory, hard disk drives, or other components so that components that were previously present can communicate with them. In most modern computers, the CMOS is able to update its random access memory (RAM) setting automatically. However, if you observe a CMOS memory mismatch error at startup immediately after you have added memory, then you should invoke the CMOS setup program manually to record the new total. Flashing a computer's BIOS is unnecessary in the event of a memory mismatch error. You should not need to flash a computer's BIOS after you replace the system board. After replacing a computer's system board, you should restart the computer and enter the complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS) setup program. If you use an identical replacement system board, then you would normally use the same CMOS settings that you had used before. If the new board is not identical to the old system board, then you may need to enter values for setup variables that were not available in the BIOS settings on the original system board. If you are uncertain about what values to use, you can usually accept the default values for these new variables. You should also enter the CMOS setup program if you want to change a computer's boot sequence, which is the order in which a computer will attempt to use drives as boot devices. However, you should not need to flash a computer's BIOS after you change the boot sequence.

Item: 319 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.3.22)

nmlkj adding memory

nmlkj upgrading CPU resources

nmlkj replacing the system board

nmlkj changing the boot sequence

Answer:

upgrading CPU resources

of 396


You replaced a failed floppy disk drive in a computer that runs Windows Me. When you start the computer, the green light on the floppy disk drive turns on and stays on. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

Explanation: Data cables are commonly installed improperly. If you reverse the data cable, the green light on the floppy disk drive will turn on and stay on, and POST will report a failed floppy disk drive when the computer is rebooted. To fix the problem, reverse the data cable and restart the computer. When a cable is improperly connected, the floppy drive is not recognized.

Most floppy data cables identify pin 1 with a colored stripe that runs the length of the cable. Match pin 1 on the cable with pin 1 on the floppy disk drive and on the main board floppy connector.

NOTE: It is good practice to identify pin 1 on the floppy disk drive before you mount the drive in the drive bay.

Item: 320 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.3.25)

nmlkj The floppy drive has a disk in it.

nmlkj The floppy drive data cable is reversed.

nmlkj The floppy drive power cable is reversed.

nmlkj The floppy drive is not enabled in BIOS.

nmlkj The power cable is not connected to the floppy drive.

Answer:

The floppy drive data cable is reversed.

of 396


Which two system components should you check to avoid CPU overheating? (Choose two.)

Explanation: You should check the heat sink and the CPU fan to avoid CPU overheating.

A heat sink conducts heat away from the CPU. It is firmly attached to the top of the CPU to absorb heat. The heat sink and fan attached on the CPU must match the CPU specifications. Thermal compound should be applied directly to the CPU before attaching the heat sink. Thermal compound aids in heat dissipation.

The fan is attached to the top of the heat sink to blow the hot air away from the CPU. Dust builds up with time in the heat sink and the fan, which reduces heat sink and fan performance. Therefore, you should check these two components on a regular basis to avoid CPU overheating. CPU overheating should be suspected when a system reboots repeatedly.

You do not need to check the motherboard, the power supply or RAM, to avoid CPU overheating.

The motherboard is the main system board that has slots to accept the CPU. The motherboard does cause CPU overheating.

The Power Supply Unit (PSU) provides required voltage to the computer components. The PSU converts AC current into DC current. However, the PSU does not cause overheating of the CPU.

RAM does not cause overheating of the CPU either. RAM is volatile memory and data is stored in RAM only while the computer is on. RAM deletes all data stored in it once the computer is powered off.

Item: 321 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.3.2)

gfedc heat sink

gfedc CPU fan

gfedc motherboard

gfedc power supply unit

gfedc RAM

Answer:

heat sink

CPU fan

of 396


Which methods can you use to check the CPU speed of a Windows XP computer? (Choose two.)

Explanation: To check the CPU speed of a computer, you can use the following two methods:

1. Click Start, click Run, type Msinfo32, and then click OK. Click System Summary. These steps will open the System Information Utility. The system utility will provide detailed information regarding the CPU, RAM, and OS of the computer.

2. Right-click the My Computer icon, click Properties, and then click the General tab. The General tab will display information regarding the CPU, RAM, and OS of the computer.

You will not be able to check the CPU speed by using the other two options. If you run Msinfo32 and then click Components, the summary page that appears as a result of the above steps does not show CPU speed. It prompts you to select a subcategory.

If you right-click the My Computer icon, click Properties, and then click the Hardware tab, it will display options to manage the Device Manager, Drivers and Hardware Profiles. It does not display CPU speed.

Item: 322 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.3.1)

gfedc Click Start, click Run, type Msinfo32, and then click OK. Click System Summary.

gfedc Right-click the My Computer icon, click Properties, and then click the General tab.

gfedc Click Start, click Run, type Msinfo32, click OK, and then click Components.

gfedc Right-click the My Computer icon, click Properties, and then click the Hardware tab.

Answer:

Click Start, click Run, type Msinfo32, and then click OK. Click System Summary.

Right-click the My Computer icon, click Properties, and then click the General tab.

of 396


Which architecture is commonly used to build central processing unit (CPU) sockets?

Explanation: Today, most CPU sockets are built on the Pin Grid Array (PGA) architecture. Such CPU sockets can easily be identified by their square shape and white color. A CPU socket is displayed in the image:

Cylinder-head-sector (CHS), also referred to as Cylinders/Heads/Sectors, refers to the way data is physically addressed on the hard disk drive. The Advanced Technology Attachment (ATA) interface is used to connect storage devices such as CD-ROM drives and hard disks. The Enhanced Integrated Device Electronics (EIDE) interface is used to connect storage devices.

Item: 323 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.1.34)

nmlkj CHS

nmlkj PGA

nmlkj ATA

nmlkj EIDE

Answer:

PGA

of 396


You are preparing to open a computer case to physically examine some components. Which precautionary measures should you to take to protect hardware devices from electrostatic charge? (Choose all that apply.)

Explanation: To protect hardware devices from electrostatic charge, you should wear grounding straps, use an anti-static solution, and use rubber mats to stand on while working with hardware devices that are prone to electrostatic charge, such as memory modules, monitors, and keyboards. This should be done before any other procedures, such as unplugging the computer or opening the case. These measures provide antistatic protection against the electrostatic charge. With devices that are prone to electrical charge, you need to follow precautionary measures. However, when connecting devices, such as hard drive and power supply unit, you should not wear a grounding strap. When connecting a power cord to a power supply unit, you should not wear a grounding strap. You should not use carpets to stand and work with hardware devices that are prone to electrostatic charge. Carpets can generate up to 1000 volts of charge that can destroy the hardware devices that are prone to electrostatic discharge. You should not work with hardware devices that are prone to electrostatic charge in a low-humidity environment. Low and dry temperatures can destroy the hardware devices that are prone to electrostatic charge and render them unusable. The recommended humidity level is 50 percent.

Item: 324 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.3.9)

gfedc Wear grounding straps.

gfedc Use anti-static solution.

gfedc Use carpets to stand on.

gfedc Use rubber mats to stand on.

gfedc Work in a low-humidity environment.

Answer:

Wear grounding straps.

Use anti-static solution.

Use rubber mats to stand on.

of 396


Which procedure should NOT be a part of preventive maintenance?

Explanation: You should not clean the motherboard with a duster. Cleaning a motherboard with a duster is not the correct procedure to practice preventive maintenance. You should use a small brush or canned air to remove dust from the motherboard. Regular removal of dust and debris from the computer components will improve performance of the computer. To properly clean your system, you must partially disassemble it. Proper and thorough cleaning of the computer components requires certain tools. One of the more useful tools is a large plastic claw-type parts grabber. This tool can be used to pick up a screw if you drop a screw inside the tower case while opening the case. A pair of plastic tweezers will also suffice, A plastic tool is especially important if the computer is still on. A metal tool could short out some connections. Backup of important files is an important procedure in preventive maintenance. Tape is generally the fastest and safest form of performing backup. You should test your backup files by performing random restores at regular intervals, which will ensure the viability of your data. Defragmenting files is one of the best ways to protect both your hard disk and the data on it. Defragmentation improves the speed at which the drive retrieves files by storing all the files in contiguous sectors on the disk. Updating your antivirus software should be a regular process under preventive maintenance. Viruses are more dangerous and frequent these days, therefore, you should update the firewall feature in your operating system. You should perform a scan for viruses and spy ware regularly.

Item: 325 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.3.4)

nmlkj cleaning motherboard with duster

nmlkj backup important files

nmlkj defragmenting files

nmlkj update the antivirus software

Answer:

cleaning motherboard with duster

of 396


You are installing a computer with two IDE hard drives: Drive1 and Drive2. You configure both the hard drives as a master on the primary IDE bus. Then, you boot the computer to check the results. What will be the outcome of this configuration?

Explanation: In this scenario, the computer will not boot from either of the hard drives. On a single IDE bus, you cannot configure two drives as master. There are two IDE buses: the Primary IDE bus and the Secondary IDE bus. Each bus can support a maximum of two IDE devices that should be configured as master and slave. A single IDE bus cannot have two master or two slave IDE devices. In this scenario, you have configured both the drives as the master on the primary IDE bus. When both the drives on a single IDE bus are configured as master or slave, the computer will not be able to boot from either of the drives connected. When two drives are connected on a single IDE bus, one must be configured as master and the other as slave. When installing a second drive, it will be necessary to configure these settings correctly and may even be necessary on some older computers to tell the bios that the second drive is there. Otherwise the computer will behave as if the drive is not there. The options that state that the computer will boot from Drive1 or Drive2 are incorrect. One of the drives must be configured as master and the other drive configured as a slave for a proper boot up to occur. The computer will be able to boot from the master drive only if that drive has an operating system installed on it. The option that states that the computer will prompt for the selection of the hard disks is incorrect because the BIOS does not support selection of hard disks during boot time. If you install a second IDE drive after the first is already installed and functioning properly, you can configure the second IDE drive as the slave on the same IDE cable or configure the second drive as the master on the secondary IDE cable. If you have trouble detecting the newly installed hard drive after installation, you should check the jumper settings and the cable connection.

Item: 326 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.2.9)

nmlkj The computer will boot from Drive1.

nmlkj The computer will boot from Drive2.

nmlkj The computer will not boot from either of the hard drives.

nmlkj The computer will prompt for the selection of the hard drives.

Answer:

The computer will not boot from either of the hard drives.

of 396


Which form factor standard has significantly reduced the cost of computer design?

Explanation:

The Advanced Technology Extended (ATX) form factor has significantly reduced the cost of computer design. The ATX form factor remains the industry standard and provides a required consistency for computer components which contributes largely in reducing prices for cases as well as power supplies.

WTX is a motherboard form factor. WTX supplies are intended to be matched to WTX motherboards and put in WTX form factor cases. WTX is not an industry standard and has not contributed to a reduction in the costs of computer design.

BTX is a form factor for PC motherboards, originally considered an alternative to the ATX motherboard form factor. However, this form factor was discontinued.

AT is a previous version of PC standard that was replaced by ATX.

Item: 327 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.2.1)

nmlkj Advanced Technology Extended (ATX)

nmlkj Workstation Technology Extended (WTX)

nmlkj Balanced Technology Extended (BTX)

nmlkj Advanced Technology (AT)

Answer:

Advanced Technology Extended (ATX)

of 396


Which features are important considerations for a technician who is adding memory modules to a computer's system board? (Choose two.)

Explanation:

Adding new memory modules with access speeds and parity settings different from those of existing modules on the same memory bank can cause intermittent system failures.

Access speed refers to the amount of time a memory module requires to provide data to a memory controller. Access speed is measured in nanoseconds. The memory controller is the interface between physical memory and a computer's central processing unit (CPU); it is typically part of a system board's chipset. Mixing modules of different speeds on the same memory bank will tend to cause a computer to stop responding on an intermittent basis and may result in data corruption.

Parity is an error-detection method used to verify whether information has been lost as data is moved from one location to another. Memory modules are classified as either parity or non-parity depending on whether they perform error checking. Combining parity random access memory (RAM) with non-parity RAM can sometimes generate parity errors at startup. It is safest to ensure that all modules within a bank have an identical parity setting, although adding parity modules on a non-parity system board can occasionally prove feasible.

A system board's documentation should clarify its minimum access speed requirements for memory modules. It is possible to add memory modules that operate faster than a system board's minimum requirement, as long as memory modules within a bank have the same access speed. Using faster memory will not provide any performance benefit. Using memory slower than the minimum requirement, however, will cause a computer's CPU to waste time waiting for slower memory modules during input/output (I/O).

Observing the system board's bank order requires that memory bank 0 must be completely filled before memory is added to bank 1, and banks 0 and 1 must be completely filled before memory is added to bank 2, and so on. All memory modules are extremely sensitive to static electricity, so caution should be used when installing or removing them.

Although a Level 1 cache is RAM, a Level 1 cache is built into a CPU and is not a memory module located on a computer's system board. Neither the CPU nor its cache is a factor that the technician needs to consider when adding memory to a system board.

Item: 328 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.2.2)

gfedc parity

gfedc CPU type

gfedc access speed

gfedc Level 1 cache

Answer:

parity

access speed

of 396


Which action should NOT be performed as part of a preventive maintenance procedure?

Explanation: You should not use paper towels to clean LCD screen. Paper products contain cellulose which can scratch delicate surfaces of LCD screen. You can use soft dry cotton clothes to clean the LCD screen. Cloths used to clean eyeglasses and camera lenses can also be used to clean the delicate surfaces of LCD screens. You can use a vacuum cleaner to clean the keyboard to dislodge dust from the keyboard. You should first disconnect the keyboard from the computer and then use a soft brush with the vacuum cleaner to clean the keyboard. You can also use compressed air to remove additional dust particles. You can clean the CPU fan with a soft brush that should not bend the fan. You should clean the CPU fan to avoid any dust particles from settling on the fan. Dust particles settled on the CPU fan can cause the fan to slow down which can eventually cause CPU overheating. You can use a small brush or canned compressed air to clean the motherboard. Dust buildup on the motherboard can lead to several problems. Dust can contain conductive elements that can cause short circuits in the computer. Regular removal of dust and debris from the motherboard will improve performance of the computer in the long run.

Item: 329 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.4.1)

nmlkj Use a paper towel to clean the LCD screen.

nmlkj Use a vacuum cleaner to clean the keyboard.

nmlkj Use a soft brush to clean the CPU fan.

nmlkj Use canned compressed air to clean the motherboard.

Answer:

Use a paper towel to clean the LCD screen.

of 396


Which component can you connect to a Zero Insertion Force (ZIF) socket?

Explanation: A ZIF socket holds a Central Processing Unit (CPU) in place on a system board and connects it to a computer's expansion bus. The ZIF socket design includes a lever for easy insertion. To install a CPU, users need only open the lever, insert the CPU, and then close the lever to secure the CPU's connection to a system board. The ZIF interface itself has evolved through several variations, each with different pin layouts. Intel's 486 CPU chips and early Pentium microprocessors are compatible with ZIF sockets. With the Pentium II microprocessor, which is based on Intel's P6 micro architecture, Intel changed to a new connection configuration called Slot 1. Single inline memory module (SIMM) holds several RAM chips on a circuit board for connection to a computer's system board. Dynamic random access memory (DRAM) is a type of RAM module that is used commonly on computer system boards today. Electrically erasable programmable read only memory (EEPROM) is a type of read-only memory (ROM) chip whose contents can be erased and re-programmed.

Item: 330 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.2.5)

nmlkj Central Processing Unit (CPU)

nmlkj Single inline memory module (SIMM)

nmlkj Dynamic random access memory (DRAM)

nmlkj Electrically erasable programmable read only memory (EEPROM)

Answer:

Central Processing Unit (CPU)

of 396


You are teaching a one-week computer repair class. Early Monday morning, you discover that a student from the previous week protected his computer with a BIOS startup password, and you are unable to contact the student to obtain the password. This week's class starts in one hour, and all seats are taken. What should you do to make the computer available to a student in this week's class?

Explanation: Some system boards include a jumper that allows only the complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS) password and no other CMOS settings to be cleared. Removing the computer's CMOS battery would clear all CMOS settings including the password; after replacing the battery, you would have to reconfigure the necessary CMOS settings.

Replacing the CMOS chip is usually impractical because you should use an exact replacement chip to ensure compatibility, and most CMOS chips are soldered to the system board.

Replacing the system board is a time-consuming task and requires that you have a spare board readily available.

Removing the CMOS battery may require a considerable amount of time to accomplish because some CMOS random access memory (RAM) integrated circuits can retain their settings for several hours.

System board and basic input/output system (BIOS) security issues have led manufacturers to create a two-tier password approach. One password, sometimes referred to as the setup or supervisor password, allows access to the CMOS setup. The second password, sometimes referred to as the startup or user password, allows access to the computer after a successful startup. Computer BIOS programs require the password before allowing the CMOS setup program to be invoked. The Windows Administrator password is an operating system password, not a CMOS password.

However, forcing a CMOS mismatch error, for example by removing a memory module and restarting the computer, may also allow for an immediate resolution of this problem. When a computer's power-on self-test (POST) program finds devices attached to a computer that is not recorded in the computer's CMOS, the computer's POST program generates CMOS mismatch errors. Similarly, when existing physical components are recorded in CMOS but with settings different from those of corresponding physical devices attached to the computer, CMOS mismatch errors are also generated by the POST program. Sometimes when a computer displays mismatch error messages at startup, it will allow you to enter the CMOS setup program by pressing a keyboard function key. This approach will allow you to disable the password and leave other CMOS settings intact.

Item: 331 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.3.10)

nmlkj Replace the CMOS chip.

nmlkj Remove the CMOS battery.

nmlkj Replace the system board.

nmlkj Use a system board jumper.

nmlkj Use your Windows Administrator password.

Answer:

Use a system board jumper.

of 396


You add memory to your system board, and replace the computer cover. You begin to reconnect the peripheral devices. Which two devices have cable connectors that you must be careful not to interchange? (Choose two.)

Explanation: You should be careful not to plug the parallel port printer into the SCSI-1 port or to plug the SCSI-1 tape backup into the parallel printer port. The standard parallel port on a personal computer (PC) is a 25-pin female D-type connector. Although most SCSI devices have 50 pins, 68 pins or 80 pins on their connectors, some PC-based SCSI cards and most Apple-based SCSI cards use a 25-pin D-type connector that is identical to the parallel port connector on a PC. Older PCs with AT system boards usually have a 5-pin DIN connector for the keyboard, and newer PCs often have a 6-pin mini-DIN connector for the keyboard. Keyboards can also connect to computers that are equipped with USB ports. An external RS-232 modem will connect to either a 9-pin or a 25-pin serial port on your computer. Although the 25-pin serial port connector on the computer is a D-type connector with the same pin configuration as the 25-pin parallel printer port on the computer, the serial port is a male connector and the parallel port is a female connector.

Item: 332 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.3.8)

gfedc the keyboard

gfedc the external RS-232 modem

gfedc the external SCSI-1 tape backup

gfedc the standard parallel port printer

Answer:

the external SCSI-1 tape backup

the standard parallel port printer

of 396


Which procedure will help prevent a computer from overheating during use?

Explanation:

Keeping the computer cover closed and secured helps prevent a computer from overheating because the closed case maintains the desired airflow cooling circulation pattern through the computer. The computer case, or enclosure, is the box that contains the components of a computer. The case provides a chassis to which components are attached, an electrical ground through the power supply's power cable, and a cover that isolates the inside components from the outside world. Heat is produced by all devices and components that use electricity, and non-dissipated heat often leads to either temporary or permanent component failure. To dissipate the heat, computers are equipped with one or more cooling fans. The fans provide a convection current of air through vents in the case. Typically, cool room air enters the front of the case, flows across the system board and expansion cards, through the power supply and then is discharged out the rear of the case. The power supply fan provides the motive force for this process, and sometimes an additional intake fan is provided at the inlet vent. In a well-designed system, the air stream establishes a circulation pattern that provides optimal cooling. A computer should also have slot covers in place for unused expansion slots. Heat production can be decreased by enabling reduced power modes when the computer is idle for extended periods, and heat dissipation can be increased by adding additional fans within the case. The use of a screen saver will effect only the monitor and not the computer itself. The voltage applied to cooling fans is not a user-adjustable variable. Every added device will increase the amount of heat generated within the case, so installing and using a video card will not help prevent overheating.

Item: 333 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.4.7)

nmlkj Use a blank-screen screen saver.

nmlkj Apply a higher voltage to the cooling fans.

nmlkj Keep the computer cover closed and secured.

nmlkj Use an installed video card rather than a built-in video chip on the system board.

Answer:

Keep the computer cover closed and secured.

of 396


Which statement is true for Advanced Technology Extended (ATX) motherboards?

Explanation: An ATX motherboard can support a maximum of seven expansion slots. ATX motherboards are generally an improvement over AT and baby AT motherboards and provide more space for expansion slots, such as Industry Standard Architecture (ISA), Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI), and Accelerated Graphics Port (AGP) card slots. An ATX motherboard supports a 20-pin power connector. A 20-pin power connector consists of a single connector that can only be connected in one way to the motherboard. A 12-pin power connector is supported on AT and baby AT motherboards. A 12-pin power connector is a combination of two 6-pin power connectors where the P8 and P9 pins are together. Therefore, you must ensure that the black wires are adjacent to each other while connecting a 12-pin power connector to the motherboard. The processor, memory, and expansion slots are NOT in line with each other on an ATX motherboard. The memory slot on an ATX motherboard is placed at a 90 degree angle to all expansion slots. The processor, memory, and expansion slots are oriented parallel to each other on AT and baby AT type of motherboards. An ATX motherboard cannot support EDO RAM. EDO RAM is considered obsolete.

Item: 334 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.1.33)

nmlkj An ATX motherboard has a 12-pin power connector.

nmlkj The processor, memory, and expansion slots on an ATX motherboard are all in line with each other.

nmlkj An ATX motherboard can support a maximum of seven expansion slots.

nmlkj An ATX motherboard can support Extended Data Output (EDO) Random Access Memory (RAM).

Answer:

An ATX motherboard can support a maximum of seven expansion slots.

of 396


An IBM computer is giving one long beep and one short beep when turned on. The computer does not boot up. What should you do to troubleshoot the problem?

Explanation: You should check the motherboard to troubleshoot the problem. One long and one short beep indicates problem with the motherboard. You should not check the video adapter card. You need to check the video adapter card if there is a one long beep and two short beeps. A single short beep indicates that the computer has cleared the Power-on self-test (POST) and is booting up. If the screen does not give a display after a normal POST, you should check the connectors between the computer and the monitor. You should not reconnect the keyboard. If there is a keyboard issue, an IBM computer will generate three long beeps. You should not check the CPU. In case of a CPU failure, the computer will not generate any beep.

Item: 335 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.3.27)

nmlkj Check the video adapter card.

nmlkj Check the motherboard.

nmlkj Reconnect the keyboard.

nmlkj Check the central processing unit (CPU).

Answer:

Check the motherboard.

of 396


Which multimeter setting should you use to test a computer's power supply output?

Explanation: When testing the output of a power supply, your multimeter should be set for DC voltage. The power supply converts the AC power from the wall outlet into DC power levels that the computer can safely use.

When testing the power output of a power supply, you should test the disk drive power supply and the motherboard power supply. The power that you should expect to find on each pin of the motherboard connector depends on the form factor (such as Baby AT and ATX). The form factor refers to the physical size and shape of a device, such as a motherboard.

Disk drive power-supply connectors are standard across the industry. They have four pins, which have the following characteristics:

� Pin 1 - Yellow wire (+12 VDC)

� Pin 2 - Black wire (Ground)

� Pin 3 - Black wire (Ground)

� Pin 4 - Red wire (+5 VDC)

Use the DC voltage setting on your multimeter when testing the output of any power-supply connector.

Item: 336 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.3.15)

nmlkj Ohms

nmlkj Continuity

nmlkj AC voltage

nmlkj DC voltage

Answer:

DC voltage

of 396


Which components must pass a computer's power-on self-test (POST) before an operating system will load? (Choose three.)

Explanation: A computer will not load an operating system if it encounters fatal errors during the POST. A central processing unit (CPU), memory, or video card failure during the POST routine will generate a fatal error and halt the startup process. A hard disk drive and a keyboard are both optional devices for a computer. Many server computers do not have a keyboard for security reasons, and most basic input/output system (BIOS) routines allow the POST to bypass a keyboard error. Although a hard disk failure will prevent the loading of an operating system from that disk, not all computers load the operating system from a hard disk. For example, many computers can load the operating system from a floppy disk, a CD-ROM drive, or a network drive. Failure of a network interface card (NIC) will prevent the loading of an operating system from a network location, but an operating system can still be loaded from a local device.

Item: 337 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.1.4)

gfedc the memory

gfedc the keyboard

gfedc the video card

gfedc the hard disk drive

gfedc the network interface card (NIC)

gfedc the central processing unit (CPU)

Answer:

the memory

the video card

the central processing unit (CPU)

of 396


Which tool would be used to measure the voltage supplied by a disk drive power connector?

Explanation: The multimeter is a versatile test instrument that is used to measure values of voltage, current and resistance associated with electrical circuits. In this scenario, the voltage of a disk drive power connector would be measured with the multimeter set to read volts of direct current (VDC). Electricity that always moves in one direction is referred to as direct current, and electricity that reverses direction regularly is referred to as alternating current. The voltage at an outlet is measured as volts of alternating current (VAC). A multimeter set to read volts of direct current but connected to alternating current, or set to read volts of alternating current but connected to direct current, will usually give a reading of 0 volts. A volt is a type of force known as electromotive force. Voltage can be measured even when no current is moving; this is analogous to water pressure that is present at a valve even when no water is flowing. Multimeters can be set to measure electrical resistance. Electrical resistance is measured in units of ohms, which are abbreviated either by the Roman letter O or by the Greek letter omega. A multimeter that measures volts and ohms is sometimes referred to as a VOM, for volt-ohm meter, or as a DVOM for digital volt-ohm meter. The primary difference between a VOM and a DVOM is that a VOM has a meter equipped with a moving needle, and a DVOM has a digital display that shows numbers and units. Usually, multimeters can also measure electric current, typically in units of milliamperes (mA). A milliampere, or milliamp, is one thousandth of an ampere (A) and can be represented as 1 mA or as 0.001 A. An ohmmeter is an instrument that measures electrical resistance only, usually with more accuracy than the ohm scale on a multimeter. A Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) terminator is a resistor that is placed at the end of a SCSI chain to prevent the reflection of data signals back down the chain. The Windows Resource Meter is a software application in Microsoft Windows 9x operating systems that can be used to monitor the percent utilization of system resources, user resources, and graphics device interface (GDI) resources; the Resource Meter cannot be used to measure voltage.

Item: 338 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.3.14)

nmlkj ohmmeter

nmlkj multimeter

nmlkj SCSI terminator

nmlkj Windows Resource Meter

Answer:

multimeter

of 396


You are a desktop engineer in TeleSoft Corporation. Angela has joined the organization as a customer care executive. You have to install Windows XP Professional on a new computer for Angela. The hard disk drive has single FAT32 partition. Which procedure would you NOT follow to start the installation?

Explanation: You cannot use the Windows XP Professional upgrade CD-ROM to install Windows XP Professional on the new computer. The Windows XP Professional upgrade CD-ROM is used to upgrade an existing operating system on the computer, such as Windows 98, Windows Millennium Edition (Me), and Windows 2000 Professional.

You can boot the computer with Windows XP Professional bootable CD-ROM to install Windows XP Professional on the new computer. To install Windows XP from the Windows XP CD-ROM, you should insert the Windows XP CD-ROM into your CD-ROM or DVD-ROM drive, and then restart the computer. Then follow the instructions displayed on the screen to complete the installation.

You can boot the computer with Windows XP boot disks to start the installation of Windows XP Professional. Windows XP Setup boot disks can be created by downloading the executables from Microsoft Web site if your computer does not support booting from a CD-ROM. Due to the size limitations of floppy disks, the Windows XP Setup boot disks require 6 blank and formatted 3 1/2 floppy disks. Floppy disks are usuallyl only used to transport and install small programs and utilities, such as device drivers and diagnostic utilities.

You can boot the computer with Windows 98 startup disk to start the setup for Windows XP Professional on the new computer if your computer does not support booting from a CD-ROM. You should run the SMARTDRV.EXE on the command prompt before starting the setup for Windows XP Professional computer. If you do not run the SMARTDRV.EXE, the file copy phase of the setup process will be slow. To create startup disks in Windows 98, you should go to Add/Remove Programs.

Item: 339 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.3.3)

nmlkj Boot the computer with Windows XP Professional upgrade CD-ROM.

nmlkj Boot the computer with Windows XP Professional bootable CD-ROM.

nmlkj Boot the computer with Windows XP boot disks.

nmlkj Boot the computer with Windows 98 startup disk.

Answer:

Boot the computer with Windows XP Professional upgrade CD-ROM.

of 396


What is the name of the media of a hard drive where data is stored?

Explanation: The disk platter is the media of a hard drive where data is stored. The head actuator does not store data. The head actuator positions the read/write heads over the correct track on the surface of the disk platters. This device is present in hard disks, CD-ROMs, and floppy drives, performing the same function in all devices. The read/write heads do not store data. The read/write heads access data on a disk platter. The head actuator actually places the read-write head into position over the appropriate track on the surface of the disk platter. The disk platter stores the data. Firmware is a software program that stores the set of programming instructions in read-only memory to control disk drive functionality.

Item: 340 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.1.38)

nmlkj head actuator

nmlkj disk platter

nmlkj read/write heads

nmlkj firmware

Answer:

disk platter

of 396


You are installing an Ultra3 SCSI hard drive onto an existing SCSI chain. The bus is an Ultra2 SCSI bus. You set the SCSI ID, then install the drive with a 50-pin to 68-pin adapter on one end. When you reboot the machine, none of the SCSI devices is working properly.

What must you do to correct the problem?

Explanation: In order for a SCSI bus to work properly, you must terminate it at both ends. Otherwise, signals on the bus will bounce back and forth on the bus and disrupt proper communications. The terminator must match the bus, not the device, so in this scenario it will have to be an Ultra2 SCSI terminator. You will also need an adapter on the other end of the drive to adapt the 68-pin Ultra3 device connector to the 50-pin Ultra2 terminator. The 50-pin to 68-pin adapter that connects the Ultra2 bus to the Ultra3 SCSI device should not be changed. It is the correct adapter to use. 40-pin connectors are used on IDE devices, not SCSI devices.

Item: 341 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.3.18)

nmlkj Install an Ultra3 SCSI terminator onto the hard drive.

nmlkj Install an Ultra2 SCSI terminator onto the hard drive.

nmlkj Replace the 50-pin to 68-pin adapter with a 68-pin to 50-pin adapter.

nmlkj Replace the 50-pin to 68-pin adapter with a 50-pin to 40-pin adapter.

Answer:

Install an Ultra2 SCSI terminator onto the hard drive.

of 396


When you start your computer, you notice that the computer does not power on. What could be the reason for this?

Explanation: The most likely reason for this problem is a bad power supply. A power supply unit (PSU) provides power to the computer. Therefore, if the power supply is faulty it would not provide the necessary power voltage, and the computer will not power up.

Faulty RAM does not stop the computer from powering on. You would receive an unending string of beeps, or an error message will be displayed in case of faulty RAM.

An overheated CPU will cause the computer to reboot automatically. An overheated CPU can be caused by a bad heat sink or a faulty fan attached to the CPU. Overheating of the CPU does not prevent the computer from being powered on.

A crashed hard disk does not prevent the system from being powered on. The hard disk is a storage device that retains data even when there is no power. You will receive an error message if the hard disk has crashed, but the computer will still be powered on.

Item: 342 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.3.6)

nmlkj Random Access Memory (RAM) chip is faulty

nmlkj power supply is bad

nmlkj CPU is overheated

nmlkj hard disk has crashed

Answer:

power supply is bad

of 396


Aaron and Cheryl work for SurfSide Corporation. Aaron has to move the STRUCTURE.PDF file, that is 56.8 MB in size, to Cheryl's portable computer. SurfSide Corporation does not allow sending files larger than 10 MB via e-mail. Surfside uses a standard specification for its portable computers. Cheryl's computer has a standard floppy disk drive, two USB ports, and two PCMCIA slots. No additional hardware can be added. Which media would you suggest to transfer the file to Cheryl's portable computer? (Choose two.)

Explanation: USB flash memory and Secure Digital can be used to transfer the file to Cheryl's portable cpmputer. USB flash memory and Secure Digital cards are types of non-volatile flash memory used with portable devices. USB flash memory and a Secure Digital card support fast data transfer with higher capacity. USB flash memory and Secure Digital memory can be electrically erased and reprogrammed. The floppy Disk is an incorrect option because the maximum storage capacity of the standard floppy disk is 1.44 MB, and the file you have to transfer is 56.8 MB in size. You should not use the hard disk drive to transfer the file because the hard disk drive is a fixed storage media. Removing a hard disk drive in a portable computer requires opening the computer and ths is not a recommended practice. You should not use the CD-ROM to transfer the file because this requires writing the file on the CD-ROM. Writing the file on the CD-ROM requires a CD-Writer which is an additional hardware requirement.

Item: 343 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.1.1)

gfedc USB Flash memory

gfedc Floppy Disk

gfedc Hard Disk Drive

gfedc Secure Digital

gfedc CD-ROM

Answer:

USB Flash memory

Secure Digital

of 396


Which factors improve hard disk performance and speed? (Choose all that apply.)

Explanation:

A faster seek time and higher revolutions per minute (RPM) improve hard disk performance and speed. The seek time, measured in milliseconds (ms), largely depends on the speed with which the actuator arm can read the information from the platters of the disk's read/write position. The actuator is the device used to position the head arms to different tracks on the surface of the platter on hard drives as well as on CD ROM drives; therefore, it is the part that moves. The faster the actuator arm moves and reaches that position, the faster the response. The drive access speed is also dependent on the spinning speed of the platters. The spinning speed is measured in RPMs. A higher RPM value indicates a higher speed for the disk.

A higher latency time does not improve the disk performance. A higher latency time indicates that the RPM value is low and that the platters are taking a long time to reach the read/write head. Higher latency negatively impacts the disk performance and speed.

The disk capacity indicates the amount of data that a disk can hold. Disk capacity does not indicate a hard disk's speed and performance. A disk with higher disk capacity can even decrease the performance if the hard drive has a large amount of data or is full.

Bigger disk geometry does not indicate higher speed and performance. The disk geometry indicates a disk's cylinders, sectors, and heads.

Item: 344 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.1.8)

gfedc faster seek time

gfedc higher latency time

gfedc higher disk capacity

gfedc bigger disk geometry

gfedc higher revolutions per minute

Answer:

faster seek time

higher revolutions per minute

of 396


Your digital camera requires a FireWire interface for image transfers to your computer. Which port type should you use to connect the digital camera to your computer?

Explanation: FireWire is the name that Apple Computer, Inc., uses for devices, cables, and connectors that comply with the IEEE 1394 standard. The name is often used to refer to such components even when they are not made by Apple or used with Apple computers. Sony Corporation refers to its implementation of IEEE 1394 devices as i.LINK.

USB does not use a FireWire interface. In the mid-1990s, USB was developed as a cooperative effort by various computer and telecommunications corporations. Since the introduction of the USB standard, many devices with USB interfaces, such as digital cameras, joysticks, and audio players, have been developed. The USB standard provides a faster data transfer rate than the RS-232 standard, and most modern personal computers provide at least one USB port. USB ports have become more popular than COM ports, especially for attaching digital cameras to a computer.

Digital cameras that use an RS-232 interface require a COM port, which is a serial interface. An RS-232 port has either a 9-pin or a 25-pin male DB connector. Digital cameras typically use serial ports, such as COM and USB ports, for transferring photographic images to the computer.

The PS/2 port is a serial interface, but its use is restricted almost exclusively to keyboards and pointing devices. SCSI port is a parallel interface.

Item: 345 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.2.6)

nmlkj COM

nmlkj Universal Serial Bus (USB)

nmlkj PS/2

nmlkj A Small Computer System Interface (SCSI)

nmlkj IEEE 1394

Answer:

IEEE 1394

of 396


Which speeds are not valid bus speeds for SDRAM? (Choose two.)

Explanation:

SDRAM does NOT operate at 256 MHz or 512 MHz; however, SDRAM modules are available in 256-megabyte (MB) and 512-MB capacities.

RAM is measured in bytes, for example, 128 MB (mega bytes).

Most synchronous Dynamic RAM (SDRAM) operates at one of two standardized bus speeds: 100 MHz and 133 MHz. SDRAM that runs at 100 MHz is referred to as PC-100 memory, and SDRAM that runs at 133 MHz is known as PC-133 memory. SDRAM is referred to as synchronous because the RAM operates synchronously with the motherboard's system clock. SDRAM uses special internal clock signals and registers to organize data requests from memory. Earlier implementations of SDRAM included PC-66 and PC-83, which are no longer manufactured on any large scale. Occasionally, higher-speed SDRAM modules can be found that operate at 150 MHz and 166 MHz, but these are not considered standard speeds.

Item: 346 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.1.6)

gfedc 100 MHz

gfedc 133 MHz

gfedc 256 MHz

gfedc 512 MHz

Answer:

256 MHz

512 MHz

of 396


What does the automatic voltage regulation (AVR) feature in a UPS provide?

Explanation: AVR protects electronic equipment from power surges and drops, and supplies it with battery power if necessary. The UPS monitors the line power and the automatic voltage regulation (AVR) circuitry balances out voltage or frequency fluctuations to guarantee a clean, consistent power supply.

Item: 347 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.4.6)

nmlkj Extra-long battery life

nmlkj Quick-charge capability

nmlkj Protection from power surges and power drops

nmlkj Automatic device shutdown when the power fails

Answer:

Protection from power surges and power drops

of 396


You have just installed a 5-gigabyte (GB) Enhanced Integrated Drive Electronics (EIDE) hard disk drive on a user's Windows XP computer. You installed the drive on the primary EIDE channel and configured it as a slave to the hard disk drive that is already present. You ensured that there were no resource conflicts when you performed the installation. Although the computer's basic input/output system (BIOS) program recognizes the hard disk geometry correctly, My Computer and Windows Explorer report the drive as having a capacity of only 504 megabytes (MB). Which step should help you resolve this problem?

Explanation: Failure to set a computer's translation mode to Logical Block Addressing (LBA) can cause the BIOS to report a large-capacity drive as having a capacity of only 504 MB. LBA provides a layer of abstraction between a hard disk and the computer BIOS; the layer of abstraction addresses input/output (I/O) requests to the disk. LBA allows disks with storage capacities of up to 8.4 GB to be addressed fully by reporting virtual, not physical, disk geometry parameters to a computer's BIOS.

In this scenario, the drive was visible in My Computer and Windows Explorer, although its capacity was misreported. Other factors can cause a hard disk not to appear in the user interface, although the hard disk is identified by the BIOS program. You may need to run the commands fdisk and format to partition and format the drive, respectively, so that it can be recognized by the operating system. Simply refreshing the view may also allow the drive to be displayed. Therefore, you should press F5 or select Refresh from the View drop-down menu from within Windows Explorer or from within My Computer before beginning extensive tests. You may also need to check jumper settings on both drives to verify that those settings identify each drive correctly as either a master or a slave. Furthermore, in some cases, compatibility problems with other EIDE devices may force you to isolate the new hard disk drive on its own EIDE channel.

A computer's system board has no jumpers that can affect a drive's failure to appear in the user interface.

The connection of the hard disk drive does not need to be reversed because the drive was properly recognized by the BIOS. Most EIDE cable connectors have an exterior alignment pin that fits into a notch on the drive-side connection to prevent reversing the connector when it is inserted into the drive. If the alignment pins are missing, you should locate either the red or blue stripe on the cable. The stripe should be lined up to pin 1.

Item: 348 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.3.23)

nmlkj Enable the proper translation mode.

nmlkj Reset jumper settings on the system board.

nmlkj Change jumper settings on the new hard disk drive.

nmlkj Reverse the cable connection to the new hard disk drive.

Answer:

Enable the proper translation mode.

of 396


A user complains that their computer mouse is not working properly. The mouse pointer jerks and jumps around the screen which makes working with the computer very frustrating for the user. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

Explanation: A dirty track ball-based mouse will cause the mouse pointer to jump and jerk when the user tries to move it. It is one of the more annoying problems for computer users, but it is also one of the easiest to fix.

The mouse's environment should be kept dry and free from dust. You will need to periodically remove and clean the track ball and the X and Y track ball roller wheels inside the mouse. Dirt can also build up on the base of an optic mouse and cause performance issues.

Most track ball-based mice are easy to clean. You will need to turn the mouse over, and open the roller ball access panel. On most mouse devices, you simply push the access panel in and turn counterclockwise a few degrees to open. Once you remove the panel, you can clean the roller ball with a lens cleaner or alcohol. When you have done that, use a lint-free swab dabbed in the cleaner to clean the X and Y track ball roller inside the mouse. You might also use compressed air to dry the roller wheels and remove any remaining dust and dirt.

Item: 349 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.4.8)

nmlkj Static

nmlkj Dirty mouse

nmlkj Interrupt conflict

nmlkj Faulty mouse driver

nmlkj Failing graphics adapter

Answer:

Dirty mouse

of 396


You recently created an emergency recovery CD for your Windows 98 computer. You did so by writing a compressed image of the system to a CD-RW using the ISO 9660 format and making the disk bootable. You now want to use the emergency recovery CD to restore your crashed system, but the system does not boot from the CD when you place the CD in the CD-ROM drive and reboot. What should you do first to solve this problem?

Explanation: You can set the order in which BIOS looks for a boot image. By default, the BIOS in most computers looks for a boot image in A:, then C:, then reports an error message if it does not find a boot image. If you want to boot from a CD, you should tell BIOS to search the CD-ROM drive for a boot image. You should not replace the CD-ROM drive as your first step. The CD-ROM drive could be defective, but it is much more likely that the BIOS is not configured to search the CD-ROM for a boot record. Also, it will take approximately 30 seconds to restart the computer and check BIOS, whereas it would take several minutes to replace the CD-ROM drive, provided you have one handy. As a general troubleshooting rule, you should try the quick fixes before resorting to the more time-consuming troubleshooting tasks. You should not ensure that the CD-ROM drive is set to master. The main function of the master/slave setting is to tell each drive on the IDE channel that another drive is present. It does not affect whether the system can boot from the drive. You should not change the disk format from ISO 9660 to Joliet format. The Joliet format is for long file name CDs, and this format cannot be used to boot.

Item: 350 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.3.17)

nmlkj Replace the CD-ROM drive.

nmlkj Configure BIOS to boot from the CD-ROM.

nmlkj Make sure the CD-ROM drive is set to master.

nmlkj Change the disk format from ISO 9660 to Joliet.

Answer:

Configure BIOS to boot from the CD-ROM.

of 396


Which feature is provided by Automatic Voltage Regulators (AVRs) technology?

Explanation: AVRs are hardware devices that provide line power conditioning for computer equipment. AVRs can exist either as stand-alone units or as functionality integrated components in Uninterruptible Power Supplies (UPSs). UPSs, in turn, are hardware devices that provide battery backup for electronic devices; a UPS system offers both line conditioning and power backup, but is usually more expensive than an AVR.

AVRs do not provide for physical security or disaster recovery for computer hardware.

Item: 351 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.4.9)

nmlkj battery backup for computer hardware

nmlkj physical security for computer hardware

nmlkj disaster recovery for computer hardware

nmlkj line power conditioning for computer hardware

Answer:

line power conditioning for computer hardware

of 396


You have purchased a program that requires a joystick. Which type of port could your computer have to allow you to attach a joystick? (Choose two.)

Explanation: Most joysticks use a DB-15 connector, but joysticks that are compatible with the Universal Serial Bus (USB) standard are also commercially available. DB-15 ports, often included on sound cards, have two rows of pins: one row of 8 pins and one row of 7 pins. The 15-pin Video Graphics Array (VGA) connector has three rows with 5 pins in each row; this connector is known as a Sub-D 15 Pin High-Density connector. USB slots are now included with most new computers and are also available on Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) expansion cards. A DB-9 port provides a serial connection for devices, such as a serial mouse, a modem, or a serial printer. Centronics-36 ports are found on parallel printers, and a printer cable connects the Centronics-36 printer port to a female DB-25 port on the computer.

Item: 352 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.1.5)

gfedc a DB-9 port

gfedc a Centronics-36 port

gfedc a DB-15 port

gfedc a USB port

Answer:

a DB-15 port

a USB port

of 396


When performing periodic maintenance on computer systems, how should you clean the keyboards?

Explanation: To prevent problems with keyboards, periodically clean them with a vacuum cleaner, or turn the keyboard upside down and use compressed air to blow the dust, dirt and garbage that accumulates. If keys are sticking, remove the keycap, and spray-clean the switch with a contact cleaner.

Item: 353 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.4.5)

nmlkj Vacuum the keyboards.

nmlkj Clean the contacts with a pencil eraser.

nmlkj Use a stiff coarse brush to remove dirt and dust particles.

nmlkj Spray the keyboards with an all-purpose cleaner and then swab the inside of the keyboards.

nmlkj Place the keyboards on the top shelf of a dishwasher and run them through the rinse cycle.

Answer:

Vacuum the keyboards.

of 396


A customer named George has protected the complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS) information on his computer with an administrator password. He calls you and reports that he has forgotten his password. How should you resolve his problem without incurring unnecessary expense?

Explanation: You should change jumper settings on the computer's system board. Some modern system boards include a jumper for clearing a password without removing other CMOS settings. If George protected his computer's CMOS information with an administrator password, then it will be impossible to complete a successful startup of his computer without entering that password. Nevertheless, you can remove the password, which is also stored in CMOS, without replacing the CMOS chip. To remove the password, you need to clear the CMOS memory completely. Not only the password, but also the hard disk drive type, disk geometry parameters, and all other settings will be removed when you clear CMOS memory completely.

System board documentation should provide instructions for clearing the CMOS settings. This is usually accomplished by changing specific jumper settings on the system board. However, removing a CMOS battery from a computer's system board will also clear its CMOS settings.

Some CMOS setup programs support two passwords: one for administrators and one for users. The user password allows read-only access to CMOS settings, but only knowledge of the administrator password will allow a user to change the values of CMOS variables.

It may be necessary to flash a computer's basic input/output system (BIOS) program when you need to integrate technological enhancements into a computer or add new functionality that was unavailable when the computer's BIOS program was written. Flashing BIOS is not necessary for this scenario, and flashing BIOS will not be possible in this scenario until the password issue is resolved.

Replacing the CMOS chip or system board on George's computer would also resolve his problem, but both of these approaches would involve unnecessary expense.

Item: 354 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.3.16)

nmlkj Flash the BIOS.

nmlkj Replace the CMOS chip.

nmlkj Replace the system board.

nmlkj Change jumper settings on the computer's system board.

Answer:

Change jumper settings on the computer's system board.

of 396


Which display types can include the thin-film transistor (TFT) technology? (Choose all that apply.)

Explanation: LCD monitors and portable computer monitors can include the TFT technology. This type of technology is used in flat-panel monitors, thereby allowing the monitors to occupy less space than their CRT counterparts. Video projectors do not include the TFT technology. Video projectors use a lens to transfer the image to the projection surface. A CRT monitor does not include the TFT technology. Instead, it uses a cathode ray tube to generate images on the screen.

Item: 355 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.1.24)

gfedc Liquid crystal display (LCD) monitor

gfedc Video projector

gfedc Portable computer monitor

gfedc Cathode ray tube (CRT) monitor

Answer:

Liquid crystal display (LCD) monitor

Portable computer monitor

of 396


Which status value in the job completion status box in the Backup Progress window indicates that a backup job experienced no error?

Explanation: The Backup Progress window will show the value Completed in the job completion status box when the job finishes without any error. You should verify the backup logs to determine whether any errors were encountered during the backup. Verification of backup logs assures the quality of backups.

A Completed with exceptions value will not be displayed in the job completion status box. The Completed with exceptions value indicates that the backup job has completed, but a file which was in use or open was skipped, or got corrupt during the operation.

A Failed value will not be displayed in the job completion status box. This value will be displayed for a backup job that does not finish and encountered one or more major errors.

A Timed out value will not be displayed in the job completion status box in the backup progress window. You receive the Timed out value status when the job does not complete in the specified time frame.

Item: 356 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.3.5)

nmlkj completed with exceptions

nmlkj completed

nmlkj failed

nmlkj timed out

Answer:

completed

of 396


How many pins are there in an S-video connector? (Choose two.)

Explanation: There are either four or seven pins in an S-video connector. S-video connectors are analog video connectors that can transfer video signals to other devices. Five pin configurations are usually found in an AT keyboard connector. Six pin configurations are usually found in a PS/2 mouse or keyboard connector. PS/2 mouse and keyboard connectors are usually identified with their color. A PS/2 mouse connector is usually green, and a PS/2 keyboard connector is usually purple. Nine pin configurations are used by serial connectors. Serial connectors can also use 25 pins.

Item: 357 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.1.25)

gfedc four

gfedc five

gfedc six

gfedc seven

gfedc nine

Answer:

four

seven

of 396


How many pins are in an IDE ribbon cable connector?

Explanation: Common disk connectors are as follows:

� IDE cable - 40-pin

� Floppy cable - 34-pin

� Internal narrow SCSI cable - 50-pin

� Internal wide SCSI cable - 68-pin

NOTE: All IDE cables have 40-pin connectors, but they can have 40 or 80 conductors (wires) in the ribbon cable. Newer Ultra-ATA/66 drives require the 80-conductor ribbon cables to transfer data at the higher rate (66MB/second). The newer cables have additional ground wires between the original 40 conductors to dampen interference caused by the faster transfer speeds.

Item: 358 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.2.7)

nmlkj 34

nmlkj 40

nmlkj 50

nmlkj 68

Answer:

40

of 396


A client, Warren, reports CMOS mismatch errors at startup. Further conversation with Warren reveals that he had forgotten the startup password he assigned in CMOS, and he had to clear all CMOS settings for his computer to complete a successful startup. Although he can now start his computer, he continues to observe CMOS errors each time he starts the computer. He replaced the CMOS battery, but the problem continues.

Which component should you investigate first to resolve the problem?

Explanation: You should first investigate the system board's jumper settings, specifically the jumper that is used to clear the complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS) settings. A common method for clearing CMOS settings, including the startup password, is to use a jumper on the system board that is specifically designed for clearing CMOS settings. If Warren selected this method for clearing his password, then he may have neglected to move the jumper back to its original position after the settings were cleared. If this jumper is left in the clear settings position, then the system board will continue to clear all CMOS settings at each startup. Checking the jumper setting is analogous to inspecting the power cord of a nonfunctioning piece of hardware to see if the cord is unplugged. A computer that is unable to retain CMOS information between startups may also have a CMOS battery that has failed. If the system board jumpers are set correctly, your second step should be to check the voltage of the newly installed CMOS battery. Occasionally, even new components are defective. You should also examine the battery compartment for corrosion, because corroded contacts would prevent a battery from providing power to the CMOS chip. Although adding certain types of new hardware, such as drives and Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) adapters, will cause a CMOS mismatch error, once the hardware is installed and configured in the basic input/output system (BIOS) settings, the error should no longer occur. Flashing a computer's BIOS program is generally done to enable new features or provide new settings, but it will not correct the problem of CMOS mismatch errors.

Item: 359 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.3.21)

nmlkj the CMOS battery voltage

nmlkj the presence of new hardware

nmlkj the system board jumper settings

nmlkj the availability of a BIOS flash for the CMOS

Answer:

the system board jumper settings

of 396


You replaced a processor with a newer processor that runs at a much greater speed. However, your system does not identify the processor correctly, and the processor runs at the same speed as the old processor. What could you do to correct this problem?

Explanation: If you replace a CPU and the power-on self test (POST) fails to correctly identify the CPU, the most likely cause of the problem is an old BIOS. You should check with the BIOS manufacturer to see if this is indeed the problem, and update the BIOS. Misconfigured jumpers can be another cause of a misidentified processor in older motherboards. Many older motherboards use jumpers to set the processor bus frequencies. Consult the motherboard documentation to determine how to properly configure the jumpers when you come across this problem. Reseating the processor would not correct the problem. If the processor were not seated properly, the system would not boot. There is not a turbo switch on motherboards. However, some motherboards have jumpers that require you to manually configure the processor bus frequencies. The symptoms presented in the scenario do not indicate an incorrectly configured processor voltage level. Symptoms of an improperly set processor voltage level include system lockups during or shortly after POST, and the failure of the operating system to boot. Motherboards that use a form factor newer than the Socket 7 and Super Socket have built-in voltage regulators that do not require manual setting. However, Socket 7 and Super Socket motherboards require you to manually set the proper voltage level required for the particular processor.

Item: 360 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.3.19)

nmlkj Update the BIOS.

nmlkj Reseat the processor.

nmlkj Flip the turbo switch on the motherboard.

nmlkj Change the voltage setting for the processor.

Answer:

Update the BIOS.

of 396


When you start your computer, a CMOS checksum error is caused. After investigating, you discover that the CMOS battery is causing the problem. You want to measure the voltage of the CMOS battery before replacing it with a new one. Which device should you use?

Explanation: The Volt Ohm Meter (VOM) is used for most electrical measurements and for testing continuity. This meter can check voltage, AC or DC, ohms, AC circuits, DC circuits, batteries, milliamps, diodes, or capacitors. There are two types of VOMs: analog and digital. The analog VOM has a physical meter with a needle that moves from left to right, a rotary switch, and a set of wire probes. The switch setting enables you to select the mode in which the device should operate. The measurement of certain signals and levels is not accurate because of the physical meter. The digital VOM has a digital display, movable parts, wire probes, and a rotary switch to select the operational mode. A tachometer is used to measure the speed of a moving body, such as a rotating shaft in an engine. Tachometers display speed in analog or digital format. A current clamp, also referred to as a clamp-on current probe, enables a user to measure currents without breaking the electric circuit. Current clamps are designed with jaws that can be opened, placed around the conductor, and clamped to form a magnetic loop around the conductor. Current clamps offer a safe, simple, and accurate method for taking current measurements. You cannot use a continuity meter to measure the voltage of a CMOS battery because a continuity meter is used to check the continuity between two or more components on a circuit board. The continuity meter is used to test the continuity of a circuit to determine whether a circuit is open or closed. Unlike a closed circuit, an open circuit cannot conduct electricity. A continuity meter is also known as a multimeter or a continuity tester. In some applications, such as testing a power supply, a continuity meter along with a Volt OHM Meter is used for the testing purpose. A continuity meter determines whether the various components of a power supply are connected properly. The continuity meter is also used to ensure that components, which are not supposed to be connected, are not connected to prevent possible hazards while testing a power supply. For example, power (the power supply outputs) and ground should never be continuous. After ensuring the proper connectivity of various components with the help of a continuity meter, you can use Volt OHM Meter to measure other important features, such as diode checks, transistor measurements, capacitance measurements, and voltage outputs.

Item: 361 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.3.11)

nmlkj Tachometer

nmlkj Current Clamp

nmlkj Volt Ohm Meter

nmlkj Continuity Meter

Answer:

Volt Ohm Meter

of 396


Where are the memory slots located on an Advanced Technology Extended (ATX) motherboard?

Explanation: On an ATX motherboard, memory slots are located parallel to the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) connectors. The following is a diagram of the ATX motherboard layout:

All the other options are incorrect because memory slots are located on a right angle to all expansion slots on an ATX motherboard, whether they are Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI), Industry Standard Architecture (ISA), or Accelerated Graphics Port (AGP) slots. The following is a diagram of the baby AT motherboard layout, demonstrating that the expansion slots are parallel to the memory slots:

Item: 362 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.1.36)

nmlkj parallel to the Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) slots

nmlkj parallel to the Industry Standard Architecture (ISA) slots

nmlkj parallel to the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) connectors

nmlkj parallel to the Accelerated Graphics Port (AGP) card slot

Answer:

parallel to the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) connectors

of 396


Steven's computer includes a hard drive that connects to the computer's motherboard by means of a 7-wire cable with a single interface. Which hard drive interface is used by Steven's disk drive?

Explanation: The hard disk drive in Steven's computer uses the Serial ATA (SATA) interface. Serial ATA supports a maximum data transmission speed of 150 Mbps, and uses a 7-wire cable that can be up to one meter in length. Unlike the IDE and EIDE interface, which uses two channels per ribbon cable, or the SCSI cable, which can support up to 15 additional devices, the SATA cable has only a single interface. Therefore, a computer with two SATA drives requires two SATA interfaces on the motherboard.

Item: 363 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.2.8)

nmlkj IDE

nmlkj EIDE

nmlkj SCSI

nmlkj Serial ATA

Answer:

Serial ATA

of 396


Which statements about IDE drives are true? (Choose two.)

Explanation:

For IDE drives, you would configure the disk as single drive only when you are installing a single IDE disk. When you are installing two IDE disks, you should configure one disk as the master and the other as the slave. You connect the disk to the IDE controller using a 40-pin cable that is not more than 0.5 meters (18 inches) long.

If both IDE drives connected to a single cable fail, it is likely that you accidentally configured both drives as master or slave.

Item: 364 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.2.4)

gfedc You must use a 40-pin data cable.

gfedc You must terminate both ends of the IDE bus.

gfedc You can use a 25-pin or 50-pin data cable with IDE.

gfedc You can attach up to seven IDE drives together using the same controller card.

gfedc You can attach two IDE drives on the same controller as long as the drives are configured master and slave.

Answer:

You must use a 40-pin data cable.

You can attach two IDE drives on the same controller as long as the drives are configured master and slave.

of 396


What is the minimum number of DIMMs that can be installed in a typical system?

Explanation: DIMMs are 64 bits wide. This width matches the memory bus of modern computer systems, which means that DIMMs can be installed one at a time.

The DIMM modules are eight bytes wide and transfer eight bytes (64 bits) of data at a time. With DIMMs made of older SDRAM (synchronous DRAM) memory chips, the data is transferred once per clock cycle. However, with DDR SDRAM and DDR2 SDRAM, the data is transferred two times per clock cycle: once on the leading edge of the clock signal and again on the falling edge. This allows large amounts of data to be transferred per clock cycle. For example, in a Pentium 4 system with a front-side bus operating at 400 MHz, up to 6,400 MB of data is transferred to and from the DDR2-DIMMs per second.

The total speed is affected by the clock and bus speed supported by the module. For example, DDR 1600 uses a clock speed of 100 MHz with a bus speed of 200 resulting in a total transfer rate of 1600 Mbps.

SIMMs come in two sizes: 30-pin and 72-pin. The 30-pin SIMMs are used in x486 systems, which have a 32-bit memory bus. Each 30-pin SIMM is only eight bits wide, which is why four 30-pin SIMMs are needed to form a single bank of memory. The larger 72-pin SIMMs expand the chip bus to 32 bits wide. They were developed for later x486 systems and the original Pentium systems, which have a 64-bit memory bus. This means that only one 72-pin SIMM can be installed in an x486 system, but two are required for Pentium systems because of their larger bus. SIMMs were phased out in favor of DIMMs because of performance limitations. Their performance is inferior to DIMMs and RIMMs because of the slower speeds at which they operate. For example, the maximum data transfer of an EDO SIMMs operating on a 33-MHz clock is approximately 266 MBps.

RIMMs come in 64-, 32-, and 16-bit packages. The 64-bit modules have an eight-byte bus, while the 32-bit and 16-bit modules have four- and two-byte buses, respectively. The 64-bit RIMMs can operate at high speeds and can transfer a large amount of data per second using 184 pins. For example, RIMM modules operating on a clock speed of 600 MHz can transfer eight bytes of data twice per clock cycle, for a total transfer rate of up to 9,600 MBps. RIMMs must be installed in pairs.

Item: 365 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.1.22)

nmlkj 1

nmlkj 2

nmlkj 4

nmlkj 8

Answer:

1

of 396


Where is the MBR stored?

Explanation: A Master Boot Record (MBR) is contained in a partition's master boot sector, which is the first sector of a computer's hard disk or a system floppy disk. MBRs contain two primary components: executable code and a partition table. Executable code in the MBR is responsible for locating the appropriate operating system from the partition table and loading it into RAM to make the operating system active. Partition tables identify each partition that resides on a specific disk. The MBR is 512 bytes so it only takes up about 2 or 3 percent of the hard drive even on small drives. A computer's MBR is not stored in the basic input/output system (BIOS), the complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS) or the paging file.

Item: 366 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.1.19)

nmlkj BIOS

nmlkj CMOS

nmlkj hard disk

nmlkj paging file

Answer:

hard disk

of 396


Which type of central processing unit (CPU) socket is a mobile processor primarily used in laptops?

Explanation: Socket 479 is used in laptops for mobile processors. Socket 478 and 423 are CPU sockets used in desktop computers for Pentium 4 processors. Socket 370 is a CPU socket used in desktop computers for Pentium III or Celeron processors.

Item: 367 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.1.32)

nmlkj Socket 478

nmlkj Socket 479

nmlkj Socket 370

nmlkj Socket 423

Answer:

Socket 479

of 396


Which type of connector is shown in the exhibit? (Click the Exhibit(s) buttion.)

Explanation: The image displays a serial connector. The serial connector is also known as DB-9 male connector. A serial connector can also be configured as a 25-pin connector, which is an older standard. A Video Graphics Array (VGA) connector has three rows, and each row has 5 pins. A VGA connector is usually blue in color and contains 15 pins. A VGA connector is also known as a DB-15 connector and is shown in the following figure:

A parallel connector has two rows with 25 pins. The parallel port is also known as a printer port or DB-25 port. An S-video connector comes with either four or seven pins, and is round in shape.

Item: 368 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.1.30)

nmlkj Video Graphics Array (VGA) connector

nmlkj Serial connector

nmlkj Parallel connector

nmlkj S-video connector

Answer:

Serial connector

of 396


Which term is used to identify the concentric circles on a hard disk platter?

Explanation: The term track identifies the concentric circles on a hard disk platter. A hard disk platter is divided into various smaller circles referred to as tracks. There are 1024 tracks on a single platter, numbered from 0 to 1023.

A sector is not used to identify the concentric circles on a hard disk platter. A sector is the smallest part of a track. Typically, a sector is 512 KB in size.

A cluster is not used to identify the concentric circles on a hard disk platter. A cluster is a combination of two or more sectors. When you attempt to save a file that is larger than 512 KB, two sectors will be used. In this scenario, two sectors will be used to form a cluster.

A cylinder is not used to identify the concentric circles on a hard disk platter. A cylinder is a a collection of the same track number, such as track 10, from all the recordable platters.

Physical parts of the hard drive assembly are as follows:

� platter - Hard drives generally have multiple disks in a stack, and each is known as a platter

� spindle - The spindle revolves the platters in a speed measured by RPM (revolutions per minute)

� read/write head - Responsible for reading and writing data to/from the platters; there is usually a set of read/write heads on each side of each platter

� drive bay - The physical space allowed for the drive assembly in the computer case

Non-SCSI hard drives now generally come in two types: SATA (Serial ATA) and IDE (Integrated Drive Electronics).

Item: 369 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.1.20)

nmlkj track

nmlkj sector

nmlkj cluster

nmlkj cylinder

Answer:

track

of 396


Which statement characterizes a Universal Serial Bus (USB) mouse?

Explanation: You can attach USB devices to a computer that is functioning and then use the USB devices immediately, without having to restart the computer; doing so is often referred to as hot swapping or hot plugging. The operating system should recognize any newly attached USB devices and prompt users for drivers, if necessary. If the device driver has previously been installed, then you should be able to use the device immediately. USB is an external expansion bus standard that allows many compatible devices to be connected simultaneously through a single USB port. By utilizing USB hubs in conjunction with the USB ports available on the local machine, up to 127 of these devices can be connected to the computer. The devices are connected to the computer by a 4-pin connector. USB is also designed to be faster than ordinary RS-232 ports to support telephony applications, such as low-resolution video conferencing.

Item: 370 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.1.23)

nmlkj You can plug a USB mouse into a computer while the computer is on.

nmlkj A USB mouse must be connected to a computer through a parallel port.

nmlkj You must restart the computer immediately after connecting the USB mouse.

nmlkj You cannot connect a USB mouse if another USB device is already connected to the computer.

Answer:

You can plug a USB mouse into a computer while the computer is on.

of 396


Which procedure is NOT part of the first step in the troubleshooting process?

Explanation: The first step in the troubleshooting process does NOT include analyzing the problems. This process is part of the second step in the troubleshooting process. The first step of the troubleshooting process is to identify the problem. That includes completing the following processes:

1. Talk to the user and ask questions about the problem. 2. Gather information on the problem. 3. Identify user changes. 4. Use this information to identify the problem.

The five steps of the troubleshooting process are to identify the problem, analyze the problem, test components, evaluate the results, and document activities and outcomes.

Item: 371 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.3.29)

nmlkj Identify the problem.

nmlkj Question the user.

nmlkj Analyze the problem.

nmlkj Identify user changes.

Answer:

Analyze the problem.

of 396


Which port is displayed in the exhibit? (Click the Exhibit(s) button.)

Explanation: The parallel port is shown in the exhibit. A parallel port has two rows with a total of 25 pins. The parallel port is also known as a printer port or a DB-25 female connector. A VGA connector has three rows, and each row has 5 pins. A VGA connector is usually blue in color and contains 15 pins. A VGA connector is also known as a DB-15 connector. The following image displays a DB-15 female port:

A serial connector is also known as DB-9 connector or RS-232 connector. A serial connector has 9 pins divided in two rows. An S-video connector comes with four or seven pins and is round in shape.

Item: 372 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.1.28)

nmlkj Video Graphics Array (VGA) port

nmlkj Serial port

nmlkj Parallel port

nmlkj S-video port

Answer:

Parallel port

of 396


Which connector is displayed in the exhibit? (Click the Exhibit(s) button.)

Explanation: The Video Graphics Array (VGA) connector is shown in the exhibit. A VGA connector has three rows, and each row has 5 pins. A VGA connector is usually blue in color and contains 15 pins. A VGA connector is also known as a DB-15 female connector. A game controller has 15 pins distributed in two rows. A game connector is also known as a DB-15 female connector, but the distribution is different from a VGA connector. A serial connector is also known as DB-9 connector or RS-232 connector. A serial connector has 9 pins divided in two rows. A parallel connector has two rows with 25 pins. A parallel port is also known as a printer port or a DB-25 female connector.

Item: 373 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.1.27)

nmlkj Game connector

nmlkj Serial connector

nmlkj Parallel connector

nmlkj Video Graphics Array (VGA) connector

Answer:

Video Graphics Array (VGA) connector

of 396


You are the LAN administrator for your company. Tim, an employee in the Marketing department, is scheduled to receive a new computer with an AGP slot. Tim calls you and asks what type of device the AGP slot can support. What should you tell Tim?

Explanation: The Accelerated Graphics Port (AGP) slot is located on the system board and is designed exclusively for video cards. AGP video cards are designed to offer performance superior to that of Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) video cards, which offer data transfer rates faster than those of Industry Standard Architecture (ISA) video cards. AGP slots have several standards: 1x, AGP Pro, 2x, 4x, and 8x. All of the standards use a 32-bit bus width. The 1x standard provides a bus speed of 33 MHz and 266 Megabytes per second (MBps). The AGP Pro standard provides a bus speed of 33 MHz and 266 MBps. The 2x standard provides a bus speed of 66 MHz and 533 MBps. The 4x standard provides a bus speed of 66 MHz and 1,066 MBps. The 8x standard provides a bus speed of 66 MHz and 2,133 MBps.

AGP cards come with varying amounts of onboard RAM and are required for graphics-intensive or 3-D gaming. More onboard RAM yields better performance.

Computers can contain both PCI and AGP plug-in slots. There are usually multiple PCI slots, which are cream colored, while there will usually be a single AGP slot, which is brown.

PCI constitutes a significant improvement over the older ISA standard, especially in data transfer speed. Different kinds of PCI cards, such as network cards, sound cards, Digital Versatile Disc (DVD), and Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) adapters, have proliferated due to the enhancements offered by the PCI architecture. Currently, all major manufacturers of Intel-compatible system boards incorporate PCI architecture into their board designs.

Typically, several PCI devices are placed on a single computer, and the PCI bus has to share its bandwidth among competing devices. Technical problems associated with these increasing demands on the expansion bus occurred concurrently with rising popularity in 24-bit graphics and 3-D rendering. Recent graphics technologies require greater performance on the part of the display subsystem. In order to satisfy the demand for superior graphics performance without further burdening the PCI bus, Intel developed the AGP standard. This standard calls for a single slot that is tuned exclusively for a display adapter. There are several different AGP specifications accepted today. PCI data transfer rates are limited to approximately 132 megabytes per second (MBps), whereas AGP transfer rates currently approach 1 gigabyte per second (GBps). Newer and faster AGP standards are still in development.

Item: 374 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.1.18)

nmlkj The AGP slot supports faster video cards.

nmlkj The AGP slot supports external hard disks.

nmlkj The AGP slot supports faster network interface cards.

nmlkj The AGP slot supports external random access memory (RAM) in the computer.

Answer:

The AGP slot supports faster video cards.

of 396


Which technology allows a central processing unit (CPU) to execute two separate instructions concurrently?

Explanation: The Hyper-Threading technology allows a CPU to execute multiple instructions at the same time. This option is enabled by default. You can disable or enable Hyper-Threading from the system Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) setup program. Network Access Protection (NAP) ensures that computers on a network comply with system health requirements for access and communication, such as being updated with the latest antivirus definitions. NAP is based on policies configured on a Windows Server 2008 computer. Hyper-V is a Windows Server 2008 component that provides server virtualization, allowing you to configure virtual machines (VMs). Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (SATA) is a computer bus primarily designed for the transfer of data between a computer and mass storage devices.

Item: 375 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.1.31)

nmlkj Network Access Protection (NAP)

nmlkj Hyper-Threading

nmlkj Hyper-V

nmlkj Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (SATA)

Answer:

Hyper-Threading

of 396


Which connector would you use to connect an S-video cable to a portable computer?

Explanation: The following image is an S-video connector:

You can easily identify an S-video connector with its round shape and number of pins. An S-video connector comes with four or seven pins. An S-video connector is also known as mini-DIN 4 or mini-DIN 7 connector. The following image is an AT keyboard connector:

An AT keyboard connector is also known as a DIN 5 connector on the motherboard. The following image is a PS/2 keyboard connector:

Item: 376 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.1.26)

nmlkj

nmlkj

nmlkj

nmlkj

Answer:

of 396


A PS/2 keyboard connector is also known as mini-DIN 6 connector. A PS/2 keyboard connector is usually purple in color. The following image is a PS/2 mouse connector:

A PS/2 mouse connector is green in color. The PS/2 mouse connector is also known as mini-DIN 6 connector.

of 396


Select the image that represents a PS/2 keyboard port.

Explanation: The following image is a PS/2 keyboard port:

A PS/2 keyboard connector is also known as a mini-DIN 6 connector, and has 6 pins. A PS/2 keyboard connector is usually purple in color. The following image is a DB-9 or RS-232 serial port:

This port has 9 pins. The following image is an AT keyboard port:

Item: 377 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.1.29)

nmlkj

nmlkj

nmlkj

nmlkj

Answer:

of 396


An AT keyboard port is also known as A DIN-5 connector on the motherboard The following image is a PS/2 mouse port:

A PS/2 mouse connector is usually green in color and has 6 pins. The PS/2 mouse connector is also known as mini-DIN 6 connector.

of 396


How many pins are in a floppy drive connector?

Explanation: Floppy drive connectors have 34 pins. However, only a few of the pins are actually used, and the communication between a floppy drive and its controller is serial; data transfer thus occurs one bit at a time. There is also a twist in a standard floppy drive cable that serves to distinguish between attached floppy drive assemblies. Thus, the drive connector that is separated from the floppy disk drive controller by the twist is associated with drive A, and the drive connector that is on the same side of the cable twist as the floppy controller is associated with drive B. Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) hard disk cables have 40-pin connectors, whereas Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) host adapters normally include connectors with 50 or 68 pins. Universal Serial Bus (USB) devices use 4-pin connectors to connect to a computer's expansion bus.

Item: 378 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.1.21)

nmlkj 15

nmlkj 25

nmlkj 34

nmlkj 50

Answer:

34

of 396


Which ID number is normally assigned to the SCSI controller?

Explanation: In most situations, the HBA is assigned the SCSI ID with the highest priority (7 or 15). The ID can be set either through hardware settings (jumpers) or through software utilities, such as an EISA configuration diskette or PS/2 Reference Diskette. Usually, the SCSI HBA uses number 7 or 15; the other devices on the bus use prioritized ID numbers 0-6 or 0-14, with 0 having the lowest priority.

CD-ROMs are generally assigned SCSI ID 3. SCSI ID 2 is often used for floppy drives.

Item: 379 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.1.15)

nmlkj 0

nmlkj 1

nmlkj 7

nmlkj 8

Answer:

7

of 396


Which hardware components will require the least amount of time to replace?

Explanation: A memory module is inserted into the memory slot without investing substantial effort. The memory module will require the least time to replace. Memory modules are usually just inserted into the slot and snapped into place. No screws are required.

The network interface card (NIC), processor, motherboard, and power supply unit are field replaceable units (FRUs) of a computer and can be replaced. A motherboard will require disassembly of the entire system unit before being replaced. Therefore, a motherboard is not the hardware component that requires the least amount of time to replace.

A power supply unit will also require substantial amount of effort to replace compared to a memory module. With a power supply, all of the power connectors would need to be disconnected from the motherboard and all peripheral devices.

Typically, a NIC is installed as an add-on card that can be taken out of the system unit by opening a single screw. A NIC will require more time to be replaced than a memory module.

Item: 380 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.1.11)

nmlkj motherboard

nmlkj memory module

nmlkj power supply unit

nmlkj network interface card

Answer:

memory module

of 396


Which single-ended Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) standard supports the longest maximum cable length?

Explanation: SCSI-1, the earliest SCSI standard, supports a maximum cable length of 6 meters. Fast SCSI-2 and Wide Fast SCSI-2 have maximum cable lengths of only 3 meters. Ultra SCSI specifications have maximum cable lengths of only 1.5 meters.

Item: 381 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.1.13)

nmlkj SCSI-1

nmlkj Ultra SCSI

nmlkj Fast SCSI-2

nmlkj Wide Fast SCSI-2

Answer:

SCSI-1

of 396


Which statement is an accurate characterization of the Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) architecture?

Explanation: The PCI architecture supports 64-bit data transfers and includes 32-bit data paths for backward compatibility, whereas older Industry Standard Architecture (ISA) buses support only 8-bit and 16-bit data transfers. Because PCI slot circuitry is more compact than ISA circuitry, PCI slots are shorter and take up less space on a system board than their ISA counterparts. The PCI bus is independent of a computer's processor type. Apple computers also incorporate PCI buses. Although the PCI standard was developed mostly to allow for bus mastering, not all PCI devices use bus mastering. Not all PCI slots in a computer support bus mastering. Bus mastering refers to the ability of a device to take control of a computer's expansion bus, and send data directly to another device on the bus without requiring the use of a computer's central processing unit (CPU) resources. In most cases, you can expect the PCI slots closest to the keyboard connector to support bus mastering. New PCI buses and devices can run at 66 megahertz (MHz) and support data transfers at top speeds of approximately 132 megabytes per second (MBps). In modern computers, the PCI bus has displaced the VL bus, or Video Electronics Standards Association (VESA) Local Bus (VLB), which is an older standard with a maximum practical speed of 33 MHz that is not compatible with Pentium computers. PCI supports multiple processors and is the leading standard for expansion bus technology. Major manufacturers of Intel-compatible system boards currently incorporate PCI buses onto their new system boards.

Item: 382 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.1.9)

nmlkj All PCI cards support bus mastering.

nmlkj The PCI bus is for 80386 and 80486 computers only.

nmlkj The PCI architecture supports 32- and 64-bit data transfers.

nmlkj The PCI architecture is for Intel-compatible computers only.

Answer:

The PCI architecture supports 32- and 64-bit data transfers.

of 396


You are a desktop engineer for Verigon Corporation. Gloria Taylor requires a PCI network interface card and a PCI sound card installed in her computer. Her computer has three PCI slots, two of which contain the video card and the modem, respectively.

Which card should you use to attach both the PCI network interface card and sound card to the computer?

Explanation: You should use a riser card to attach both the PCI network interface card and the sound card to the computer. A riser card is an expansion card that can be directly connected to the motherboard on a PCI or ISA slot. Riser cards have several slots to hold additional cards, such as PCI or ISA that work in parallel with the motherboard. PCMCIA card is an incorrect option because a PCMCIA card is not used on desktop computers. A PCMCIA card is also known as a PC Card and is used in laptops. You cannot use a USB PCI card to attach PCI cards to the motherboard. . A USB PCI card functions as a USB hub that provides additional USB ports to connect more USB devices. It does not provide slots to attach PCI devices. You cannot use flash, a memory card, in this scenario because a flash memory card does not have capability to attach a PCI network interface card or sound card to it. Flash memory devices are storage devices by design.

Item: 383 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.1.2)

nmlkj riser card

nmlkj PCMCIA card

nmlkj USB PCI card

nmlkj flash memory card

Answer:

riser card

of 396


If two SCSI devices on an 8-bit bus want to use the SCSI bus at the same time during normal operation, which device has priority?

Explanation: On a SCSI bus, the device with the highest number has the highest priority during normal operation. You would want to assign the highest number to the Host Bus Adapter (HBA). On an 8-bit SCSI bus, this would be SCSI ID 7, since the range is from 0 to 7. The device with the lower ID number would have lower priority. It does not matter where the devices are physically located on the bus. NOTE: The first boot device should be set to SCSI ID 0. When the bus is initialized, it scans ID numbers starting at 0. This ensures that the boot device will be recognized. This contrasts with bus priority, which is recognized during normal bus communications. Disk drives, being fast devices, do not need as high a bus priority as devices, such as CD-ROMs and tape drives, which are slower.

Item: 384 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.1.14)

nmlkj The device with the lower ID number

nmlkj The device with the higher ID number

nmlkj The device closest to the Host Bus Adapter

nmlkj The device farthest away from the Host Bus Adapter

Answer:

The device with the higher ID number

of 396


Which Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) type supports a data transfer rate of up to 40 megabytes per second (MBps)?

Explanation: Wide Ultra SCSI supports transfer rates of 40 MBps. SCSI-1 supports 5 MBps transfers. Fast SCSI-2 supports data transfer speeds of 10 MBps. Wide SCSI-2, introduced with SCSI-2, supports a data transfer rate of 10 MBps Wide Fast SCSI-2 supports 20 MBps transfers.

Item: 385 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.1.12)

nmlkj SCSI-1

nmlkj Fast SCSI-2

nmlkj Wide SCSI-2

nmlkj Wide Ultra SCSI

nmlkj Wide Fast SCSI-2

Answer:

Wide Ultra SCSI

of 396


Which currently accepted Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) standard supports the fastest data transfer rates?

Explanation: Of the SCSI standards listed, Ultra320 SCSI currently supports the fastest data transfer rates of up to 320 megabytes per second (MBps). However, many other SCSI standards exist. The exhibit compares the major SCSI standards. Ultra ATA standards are not SCSI standards.

Item: 386 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.1.17)

nmlkj SCSI-3

nmlkj Ultra ATA-133

nmlkj Ultra320 SCSI

nmlkj Ultra2 Wide SCSI

Answer:

Ultra320 SCSI

of 396


Which type of computer memory module has 168 pins?

Explanation:

Dual inline memory modules (DIMMs) have 168 pins. Some DIMM designs have 72 or 144 pins. These are known as Small Outline DIMMs; normally used in portable computers, they are often referred to as SO-DIMMs.

Single inline pin packages (SIPPs) have 30 pins, and single inline memory modules (SIMMs) have 30 or 72 pins.

Dual inline pin packages (DIPPs) have 16 pins. Rambus dynamic random access memory (RDRAM) was developed by Rambus, Inc., to provide data transfers faster than those available with standard dynamic random access memory (DRAM) modules.

RDRAM modules are essentially DRAM chips, but they use a different memory architecture than standard DRAM modules. RDRAM began to acquire wide recognition with the release of computers that use Intel's Pentium III processor.

The exhibit shows a variety of RAM modules.

Item: 387 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.1.10)

nmlkj SIPP

nmlkj SIMM

nmlkj DIMM

nmlkj DIPP

nmlkj RDRAM

Answer:

DIMM

of 396


of 396


What allows multiple SCSI devices to reside on a single SCSI chain?

Explanation: Depending on the SCSI host adapter, a single SCSI bus can support as many as 16 physical devices (including the host adapter). Each device is assigned a unique ID that identifies the device and gives the device a priority weighting. The Host Bus Adapter (HBA) in an SCSI channel is assigned the highest priority (7 or 15), which allows it to take control of the channel when necessary. The other devices, such as SCSI hard disks and CD-ROMs drives, are assigned IDs ranging from 0 to 6 on channels that support seven devices, or 0 to 15 on channels that support 15 devices. The SCSI IDs are normally assigned by the Plug-and-Play (PnP) system but can be manually assigned in most systems.

Item: 388 (Ref:Cert-220-601.1.1.16)

nmlkj Each device is assigned a unique ID.

nmlkj Each device is assigned a unique I/O address and IRQ.

nmlkj Each device is configured as either a master or a slave.

nmlkj The data cable is twisted to give each device a unique physical address.

Answer:

Each device is assigned a unique ID.

of 396


Which conditions contribute to laser printers having fuzzy print or low print quality? (Choose two.)

Explanation: When the print quality is fuzzy or unclear, it is probably the result of using paper that is damp. This is because during the fusing process the toner does not adhere (fuse) permanently to the paper, which has water mixing with the toner. You should also suspect damp paper if the print rubs off easily from the paper or if areas of printed characters are missing or extremely light (spot deletions).

Printers and Scanners

Item: 2 (Ref:Cert-220-601.4.3.13)

gfedc Damp paper

gfedc High humidity

gfedc Too much paper in the paper tray

gfedc A warped roller in the paper path

gfedc Iron particles in the paper fibers

gfedc A problem with the charge wires or the drum

Answer:

Damp paper

High humidity

of 396


Your printer is printing fuzzy text with white lines running through it. You need to clean the clogged print head of your inkjet printer. Which two activities can you undertake to immediately clean the clogged print head? (Choose two.)

Explanation: When your printer is printing fuzzy text with white lines on a paper, you should clean the clogged print head. To clean the clogged print head, you should run the printer management utility that is provided to you by the manufacturer along with the printer. If the printer management utility fails to clean the clogged print head, you should power the inkjet printer off and then on. When you do this, the nozzle is flushed. This further cleans the clogged print head.

The white lines can also appear during printing due to a slight misalignment of the ink cartridge. With the help of the printer management utility, you can align the ink cartridge. The ink cartridge alignment is typically performed when you install a new ink cartridge.

The platen is not used to clean the clogged print head. The platen is used in a dot matrix printer to hold the paper and push the paper for printing.

You should not replace the nozzle to clean the clogged print head. The nozzle is located in the print head. Some printers have print heads attached to them, but others have ink cartridges that will contain the print head, and you would have to replace the entire cartridge instead.

You should not replace the ink cartridge with a new ink cartridge. Depending upon the type of printer you are using, the ink cartridge may or may not contain the print head. It is not likely that the entire ink cartridge needs replacement. Usually just allowing the printer to clean print nozzles and align itself will fix the problem described in the scenario.

Item: 3 (Ref:Cert-220-601.4.3.11)

gfedc Replace the platen.

gfedc Replace the nozzle.

gfedc Power the inkjet printer off and then on.

gfedc Replace the ink cartridge with a new ink cartridge.

gfedc Run the printer management utility provided with the printer.

Answer:

Power the inkjet printer off and then on.

Run the printer management utility provided with the printer.

of 396


Your laser printer repeatedly prints vertical lines through the page. What is the probable cause of this error?

Explanation: If you have vertical lines or white spaces throughout the page, you probably have some debris caught between the wipe blade and the drum. This could scratch a track on the drum where the drum would not attract any toner, causing white spaces to appear where no toner is fused to the paper. The developer roller and drum normally have blades, named "doctor blades", immediately above and below them, which scrape off excess toner. A small lump of damp toner may block the gap between one of these blades and the roller or drum.

The corona wires apply electrostatic charges to the photoreceptor and the paper. If a page has a fuzzy white vertical line, where the print is faint or absent, the transfer corona is probably dirty. Open the printer and look at the transfer corona for particles of toner or dust from paper; these disturb the electrostatic field around the corona. That disturbance does not allow toner to be attracted from the photoreceptor onto the paper.

Item: 17 (Ref:Cert-220-601.4.3.15)

nmlkj Low-quality paper

nmlkj Too much moisture on the paper

nmlkj Too much paper in the paper tray

nmlkj A warped roller in the paper path

nmlkj Overly thick paper for the printer

nmlkj A problem with the corona wires or the drum

Answer:

A problem with the corona wires or the drum

of 396


You are an IT technician for a company. All computers in your company run the Windows XP Professional operating system. Your company purchases a new printer that has been launched recently in the market. However, the printer is delivered to your company without the printer documentation. Prior to installation of the printer driver, you want to verify that the printer is supported by Windows XP Professional. Your solution should consume the minimum amount of time. What is the BEST method you should use?

Explanation: You should check the Hardware Compatibility List (HCL) , which is available on the Microsoft Web site for Windows XP Professional. Hardware products that are listed on the Windows XP HCL are extensively tested with Windows products for stability and compatibility. Microsoft uses the HCL to identify components that are supported for use with the Windows operating system. The HCL is used to search the compatible product list for Windows XP. If hardware products are not listed on HCL, an error may occur during their installation process.

Commonly, product documentation for all hardware products specifies the compatible operating systems. However, in this scenario, the product documentation is missing. Therefore, you should check the HCL on the Microsoft Web site. The HCL is similar to the Windows Catalog, which can be used to verify the compatibility of your computer's hardware and software devices with Windows Server operating systems.

You should not download and install the latest Windows Update for Windows XP Professional on all computers. Windows Update is used to install critical security patches or hotfixes on a computer for a Windows operating system.

You should not search for and download the printer documentation from the Internet because this would consume more time, and may not confirm the product's compatibility with Windows XP Professional.

You should not request the printer documentation from the vendor because this would consume more than the required time.

Item: 34 (Ref:Cert-220-601.4.2.3)

nmlkj Check the HCL on the Microsoft Web site for the Windows XP Professional operating system.

nmlkj Download and install the latest Windows Update for Windows XP Professional on all computers.

nmlkj Search for the printer documentation on the Internet.

nmlkj Ask the vendor to send the printer documentation.

Answer:

Check the HCL on the Microsoft Web site for the Windows XP Professional operating system.

of 396


Last month, you installed a laser printer in your organization. The printer has been working properly since it was installed. Recently, you noticed that the laser printer is printing blank documents with no text or images. What should you do first?

Explanation: You should replace the toner cartridge. The laser printer will not print or will print blank documents if the toner cartridge is empty. You do not need to clean the printer if the printer is printing blank documents. The toner cartridge is most likely empty. However, if you need to clean a laser printer, then you must remove the toner cartridge from the printer after first disconnecting the power from printer. To clean the printer, you should remove the spilled toner from inside the printer using canned air and then clean the corona wires inside the printer with an isopropyl solution. You should not repair the printer because the printer is functioning properly. Because it is printing blank pages, you should first replace the cartridges. You should not reinstall the printer drivers. When a print command is sent to the printer, it is printing, but it prints blank pages, indicating that the toner cartridge is empty.

Item: 36 (Ref:Cert-220-601.4.3.17)

nmlkj Clean the laser printer.

nmlkj Repair the printer.

nmlkj Replace the toner cartridge.

nmlkj Reinstall the printer drivers.

Answer:

Replace the toner cartridge.

of 396


You specify multiple documents to print on your laser printer in the following order:

1. FileA.doc

2. FileB.doc

3. FileC.doc

Due to time constraints, you want to print only FileB.doc, and do it as quickly as possible.

What should you do?

Explanation: You should cancel the printing of FileA.doc and FileC.doc from the Print Spooler. When a document is sent for printing on a printer, the Print Spooler service manages the printing jobs. The Print Spooler service prints documents based on their priority. The Print Spooler allows you to manage print jobs using commands, such as pause, cancel, and resume, to print jobs. In this scenario, you are required to cancel two print jobs. With the competing jobs removed, the printer will print FileB.doc. Therefore, you should cancel the print jobs for FileA.doc and FileC.doc.

All other options are incorrect because they would consume more time than canceling the printing of FileA.doc and FileC.doc.

Item: 37 (Ref:Cert-220-601.4.3.4)

nmlkj Cancel the printing of FileA.doc and FileC.doc from the Print Spooler.

nmlkj Cancel the printing of all documents from the Print Spooler. Specify FileB.doc for printing again.

nmlkj Turn off the printer. Send the FileB.doc for printing again.

nmlkj Use Windows Task Manager to end all print tasks. Send the FileB.doc for printing again.

Answer:

Cancel the printing of FileA.doc and FileC.doc from the Print Spooler.

of 396


You are installing a new USB printer on a computer running Windows XP Professional. The appropriate drivers are not included with Windows XP Professional. What is the FIRST step you should perform after connecting the USB printer to your computer?

Explanation: You should first install the device driver for the printer after connecting the USB printer to your computer. Usually, the device driver will automatically install. In this scenario, the appropriate drivers are not included with Windows XP Professional. Device drivers are APIs that ensure successful communication between the hardware and the operating system. When you connect a USB printer to your computer, the Found New Hardware notification message is displayed. Windows operating systems, such as XP, ME, 2000, and 98, provide default USB printer drivers. Most USB printers support printer drivers provided by the Windows operating system. The device driver for a compatible printer is installed automatically by the Windows operating system. However, if your USB printer is not supported by the default USB printer drivers, you should then install the printer driver provided by the printer manufacturer.

You should not print a test page because the printer will not print a document if a valid printer driver is not installed. A test page is printed to ensure that the printer in printing documents correctly.

You should not calibrate the printer and print a test page because printer calibration is done to ensure that the printer output is the same as is displayed on the monitor.

You should not restart your computer because restarting a computer will not install the USB printer successfully.

Item: 45 (Ref:Cert-220-601.4.3.6)

nmlkj Install the device driver for the printer.

nmlkj Print a test page.

nmlkj Calibrate the printer and print a test page.

nmlkj Restart your computer.

Answer:

Install the device driver for the printer.

of 396


A user named John reports that he is unable to print documents from his computer. When he tries to print any document from his computer, the Print dialog box does not appear. What functionality should you verify FIRST?

Explanation: You should first verify that the Print Spooler service is functioning because this service is used to manage all print jobs on a computer. If the Print Spooler service is not running, the Print dialog box will not appear in any program on your computer. You should restart the Print Spooler service to ensure print jobs can be specified from your computer. When a document is sent for printing on a printer, the Print Spooler service manages the printing jobs. The Print Spooler service prints documents based on their priority. The Print Spooler service allows you to manage print jobs using commands, such as pause, cancel, and resume print jobs. The Print Spooler service can be accessed from Start > Control Panel > Administrative Tools > Services > Print Spooler. You should not verify the printer driver functionality first in this scenario. If the printer driver of your computer is corrupt, then the printer will not respond to print commands. However, the Print dialog box will appear. You should not verify the printer cable connectivity first in this scenario. If the printer cable is not connected properly, the printer will not be available, and the printer spooler will generate an error. However, the Print dialog box will appear. You should not verify the functionality of the printer head first in this scenario. If the printer head does not work properly, then printed documents will be distorted. However, the Print dialog box will appear.

Item: 53 (Ref:Cert-220-601.4.3.3)

nmlkj Print Spooler service

nmlkj Printer driver

nmlkj Printer cable

nmlkj Printer head

Answer:

Print Spooler service

of 396


You are troubleshooting a problem with a laser printer where several pages of random dots are produced when you try to print a one-page document. You have verified that the proper print driver is installed and that the printer settings are correct. What component is the most likely cause of this problem?

Explanation: A laser printer that prints wavy lines or random dots when you try to print a document most likely has a failed formatter board. The formatter board, also known as the formatter card, control board, or system board, contains all the circuitry required to operate the printer and control its many components. It receives control signals from the computer and formats the data to be printed. The formatter board or system board also monitors the conditions within the printer and responds to input from its various sensors.

Other common sources of printing problems are having the wrong print driver installed or an improperly configured printer. However, these problems typically produce somewhat legible print. The print is not exactly what is expected, but it does resemble the expected language. None of the other parts listed would cause random dots on the page because they are not actually tasked with the actual printing process.

Item: 54 (Ref:Cert-220-601.4.3.14)

nmlkj Detac corona

nmlkj Fusing rollers

nmlkj Discharge lamp

nmlkj Formatter board

Answer:

Formatter board

of 396


If you clear a paper jam from the tray in a laser printer, but the printer still indicates a jam, what step should you perform next?

Explanation: Opening and closing the printer cover will cause the printer to reset itself and should clear the "printer jammed" message. There is usually a sensor or switch located in the cover to clear the printer error. The same effect can be produced by turning the power to the printer off and back on again.

A laser printer has sensors to determine which paper trays are installed, what size paper is in them, and whether the tray is empty. It also uses sensors to track the movement of the paper through each stage of printing, allowing the formatter board to know where the page is at all times, and to sequence the activities of the solenoids and clutches properly.

The diagnostic software generally troubleshoots problems with the actual printed image and does not help to resolve print jams.

It is not likely that you need to locate another paper jam in any location. Paper jams require that the printer cover be opened and shut.

Item: 62 (Ref:Cert-220-601.4.3.16)

nmlkj Run the diagnostic software.

nmlkj Open and close the top assembly.

nmlkj Look for another jam in the paper tray.

nmlkj Look for another jam in the pressure roller area.

Answer:

Open and close the top assembly.

of 396


Your company purchases a new printer. You are required to install the printer on a computer running Windows XP Professional. Where can you find the device driver of the printer?

Explanation: You should use the CD provided by the manufacturer to find the printer driver. Commonly, all printers are bundled with a CD that contains the setup program to install the printer and printer drivers for different operating systems. However, you should also check the manufacturer's Web site for the current driver versions to ensure the version on the CD is the most current one, or to download an updated driver.

You should not look for the printer driver on the Hardware Compatibility List (HCL) because Microsoft uses the HCL to identify components that are supported for use with the Windows operating system. The HCL allows you to search the list for products compatible with the Windows operating system. If a computer has hardware products that are not listed on the HCL, an error may occur during the installation process.

You should not look for the printer device driver on the Windows Update Web site for Windows XP Professional. The Windows Update Web site is used to install critical security patches or hotfixes on a computer for the Windows operating system.

You should not look for the device driver on the printer documentation, because the printer documentation provides information whether the printer supports a Windows operating system or not.

Item: 64 (Ref:Cert-220-601.4.2.1)

nmlkj The CD provided by the manufacturer

nmlkj The HCL on the Microsoft Web

nmlkj The Windows Update Web site for Windows XP Professional

nmlkj The printer documentation

Answer:

The CD provided by the manufacturer

of 396


Your company has purchased a new printer with a parallel cable. You are required to install the printer on a user's computer.

Which two icons from Control Panel can you use to install the new printer? (Choose two.)

Explanation: You can use the Add Hardware icon or the Printers and Faxes icon in Control Panel to install the new parallel-port printer.

� Double-click the Add Hardware icon to start the Add Hardware Wizard, which walks you through the steps to install the new printer.

� Double-click the Printers and Faxes icon to display the list of installed printers and faxes. Click the Add a Printer link to start the Add Printer Wizard, and install the new printer.

You can either specify the location of a printer driver, or let Windows decide the best available driver to install for your printer.

You should not use the Administrative Tools icon in Control Panel. This icon is used to access administrative tools such as Computer Management, Component Services, Services, Event Viewer, and Performance monitor.

You should not use the Add or Remove Programs icon in Control Panel because this icon is used to install or uninstall software programs from a computer.

You should not use the Automatic Updates icon in Control Panel because this icon is used to configure that how Windows Updates will be downloaded and installed on your computer.

Item: 91 (Ref:Cert-220-601.4.3.1)

gfedc Add Hardware

gfedc Printers and Faxes

gfedc Administrative Tools

gfedc Add or Remove Programs

gfedc Automatic Updates

Answer:

Add Hardware

Printers and Faxes

of 396


You are required to print a large number of pages on an inkjet printer in the minimum possible time.

Explanation: You should specify low-resolution printing for the pages to print. Printer resolution specifies the quality of printer output. Dots per Inch (DPI) measures printer resolution. The higher the DPI of a printer, the higher the quality of the printer output. For example, the DPI of dot-matrix printers is lower than the DPI of laser printers. However, a higher DPI printer will consume more computer memory and will require more time to be processed by the printer. Therefore, in scenarios where you want to print documents at high speed with low quality, you should specify low-resolution printing.

You should not specify high resolution printing because this would require more time than printing documents at low resolution. High-resolution printing will increase DPI of the printer, so the printer process will consume more memory and time, not less.

You should not change the page orientation to either Portrait or Landscape mode because this would not affect speed of the printer. Page orientation is changed to specify whether the long edge or short edge of the paper is the top of the page.

Item: 98 (Ref:Cert-220-601.4.2.4)

nmlkj Specify low-resolution printing.

nmlkj Specify high-resolution printing.

nmlkj Change page orientation of all pages to Portrait.

nmlkj Change page orientation of all pages to Landscape.

Answer:

Specify low-resolution printing.

of 396


You are using a color inkjet printer. You print an image containing multiple colors. However, colors in the printed document are not the same as those displayed on the monitor. You want to ensure that printed documents contain the same colors as displayed on your monitor. What should you do?

Explanation: You should calibrate the printer to ensure that printed documents contain the same color as those displayed on your monitor. When colors of an image are different on your monitor than the printed output of the image, the first step is to calibrate your monitor. The next step is to calibrate your printer, which can be done by using the printer software.

You should not install a new color cartridge because this will not ensure that printed documents contain the same color as those displayed on your monitor. You should install a new color cartridge when the ink in the cartridge has run out.

You should not shake the color cartridge of the printer because this will not ensure that printed documents contain the same color as those displayed on your monitor. You should remove and shake the color cartridge of the printer when you suspect that the printer ink has dried.

You should not change the screen resolution of your computer to 800 by 600 pixels because this will not ensure that printed documents contain the same color as those displayed on your monitor. The screen resolution of a computer is used to specify the size of objects and text to be displayed on the screen.

Item: 112 (Ref:Cert-220-601.4.3.10)

nmlkj Calibrate the printer.

nmlkj Install a new color cartridge in the printer.

nmlkj Remove the color cartridge of the printer, shake it, and replace in the printer.

nmlkj Change the screen resolution of your computer to 800 by 600 pixels.

Answer:

Calibrate the printer.

of 396


In which situation will you print a calibration page from a printer?

Explanation: When documents printed by a printer are distorted, you should first calibrate your printer and then print the calibration page. The printer calibration process involves configuring printer settings to ensure that the printer output is the same as it is displayed on the monitor.

In scenarios where the colors of an image are different on your monitor than those on the printed output of the image, the first step is to calibrate your monitor. The next step is to calibrate your printer, which can be done by using the printer driver.

You should not print a calibration page when installing a new printer because calibration is done when the printer output is not correct. When you install a new printer, you should print a test page to ensure the printer is printing documents.

You cannot print a calibration page on a laser printer because calibration is done for an inkjet printer and not for a laser printer. Inkjet printers use ink cartridges to print colored documents.

You should not print a calibration page when your monitor displays distorted images. Printing a calibration page will not correct the monitor. You should calibrate your monitor to ensure images are displayed correctly on your monitor.

Item: 116 (Ref:Cert-220-601.4.3.7)

nmlkj When documents printed by a printer are distorted

nmlkj When you install a new inkjet printer

nmlkj When you install a new laser printer

nmlkj When your monitor displays distorted images

Answer:

When documents printed by a printer are distorted

of 396


You bought a monochrome laser printer two years ago. The printer has gradually stopped feeding paper. Which printer component should you check the first?

Explanation: You should first check your pickup roller printer component if your laser printer stops feeding paper. A pickup roller acts as the first point of contact between printer and paper because the pickup roller draws the paper from the paper tray into the printer. A malfunctioning pickup roller can cause false paper jams wherein the printer is not able to pick up the paper from the tray because the pickup roller fails to turn. You should not check a fuser roller printer component if your laser printer stops feeding paper. A fuser roller is a printer component that helps in binding the toner ink to the delicate paper fibers so that the images stick to the paper properly. You should not check a pressure roller printer component if your laser printer stops feeding paper. A pressure roller is a printer component that applies pressure against the fuser roller while paper is passing through them for printing inside the printer. You should not check a transfer roller printer component if your laser printer stops feeding paper. A transfer roller is a printer component that is used to transfer the image from the photoreceptor to the paper.

Item: 124 (Ref:Cert-220-601.4.3.9)

nmlkj Pickup roller

nmlkj Fuser roller

nmlkj Pressure roller

nmlkj Transfer roller

Answer:

Pickup roller

of 396


You are working as an IT technician for a financial company. Your company purchases a USB printer. You are required to install the USB printer on a computer that is running Windows XP Professional. To install the USB printer, you connect the USB printer to the computer, and log on to the computer. What will happen?

Explanation: The Plug and Play feature of the Windows will install the USB printer using the default USB printer drivers. Windows operating systems, such as XP, ME, 2000, and 98, provide default USB printer drivers. All common USB printers support the printer drivers provided by the Windows operating system. In this scenario, the Windows XP Professional operating system is being used; therefore, USB printers will be installed automatically by the Plug and Play feature. The USB printer driver files provided by Windows operating systems are Usbprint.sys and Usbmon.dll.

You do not need to start the Add New Printer wizard because the USB printer will be installed using the default USB printer drivers provided by the Windows operating system.

The Add New Printer wizard will not start automatically when you connect the printer. This wizard is started when you click the Printers and Faxes icon in Control Panel. Moreover, USB printers are installed using the default USB printer drivers provided by the Windows operating system.

It is not compulsory to use a printer driver provided by the manufacturer. Windows operating systems, such as XP, ME, 2000, and 98, provide default USB printer drivers. Commonly all USB printers support the printer drivers provided by the Windows operating system.

Item: 126 (Ref:Cert-220-601.4.2.5)

nmlkj The Windows Plug and Play feature will install the USB printer using the default USB printer drivers.

nmlkj The USB printer will not be installed. You need to start the Add New Printer wizard to install the USB printer.

nmlkj The Add New Printer wizard will be started automatically when you connect the printer, and will ask for printer manufacturer's driver.

nmlkj The USB printer will not be installed. You must use the USB printer driver provided by the manufacturer.

Answer:

The Windows Plug and Play feature will install the USB printer using the default USB printer drivers.

of 396


You purchase an old inkjet printer for your company. When you print a test page, extra horizontal lines are printed all over the page.

What should you do FIRST to print a test page successfully?

Explanation:

You should clean the print head to print a test page successfully. If an inkjet printer is not used for a period of time, the print head can get clogged. You should clean the print head using the printer's software or clean it manually. You should remove the dried ink from the print head during the cleaning process.

You should not refill the printer ink cartridge because this is done when the printer cartridge is running low on ink. Refilling the printer ink cartridge will not clean the print head. If your ink cartridge contains the print head, then replacing the ink cartridge can be a solution; however, replacing an ink cartridge is an expensive solution.

You should not clean the printer paper feeder because it is used to feed paper to the printer. In this scenario, the printer is not printing correctly; therefore, you should clean the print head.

You should not use high-quality paper for printing because these papers are used to print high-quality photo images or formal documents. In this scenario, the printer is not printing correctly; therefore, the document will not print on any type of paper, and you should clean the print head to solve the problem. When the wrong type of paper is used, a paper jam can occur. However, the most common reason for a paper jam is worn pick-up rollers.

Item: 144 (Ref:Cert-220-601.4.3.5)

nmlkj Clean the print head.

nmlkj Refill the printer ink cartridge.

nmlkj Clean the printer paper feeder.

nmlkj Use high-quality paper for printing.

Answer:

Clean the print head.

of 396


You are performing maintenance on an ink-jet printer. What should you do immediately after replacing a cartridge in an ink-jet printer?

Explanation: Some high-end ink jet printers have sensors to align the print head, but most have an alignment utility that is used to align the head. Alignment is also known as calibration. This utility should be run whenever a cartridge is replaced and when the black portions of the print do not align with the color portions. The following image shows a typical print alignment utility:

Item: 147 (Ref:Cert-220-601.4.2.6)

nmlkj Reboot the computer.

nmlkj Charge the OPC drum.

nmlkj Reinitialize the printer.

nmlkj Run the print alignment program.

Answer:

Run the print alignment program.

of 396


Which of these components are part of a laser printer? (Choose all that apply.)

Explanation: Main control boards and fusers (or fusing assemblies) are both laser printer components. A laser printer also contains a toner cartridge, laser scanner, high voltage power supply, DC power supply, transport assembly (which contains the paper registration rollers), and corona. Most laser printers have a main control board that includes a processor, a basic input/output system (BIOS), random access memory (RAM) and read-only (ROM) modules. The ROM modules contain printer languages and fonts. Sometimes the main control board on a laser printer is referred to as its interface controller or as printer controller circuitry. This board is functionally similar to the system board on a personal computer.

Fusers, or fusing assemblies, are laser printer components that use heat and pressure to force toner, which is a fine powder used as ink, onto printer paper. Polyester resins are responsible for making the toner adhere to paper better. A static charge eliminator strip is used to drain the charge in the paper when printing. The toner cartridge contains a developer that is responsible for carrying the toner that is used by the printing process. The high voltage power supply gives the voltage for the charge and transfer corona assemblies.

Laser printers do not use ribbons or platens, both of which provide support for impact printers such as dot-matrix printers.

Item: 152 (Ref:Cert-220-601.4.1.1)

gfedc fuser

gfedc ribbon

gfedc platen

gfedc main control board

Answer:

fuser

main control board

of 396


During which stage of the laser printing process is the laser used?

Explanation: The laser in the laser printing process is used during the writing stage. The six stages of the laser printer operation are as follows:

� Cleaning - A rubber cleaning blade removes any toner left on the photoreceptor drum and deposits it into a waste bin, and a discharge lamp neutralizes the charge on the drum.

� Conditioning - The charge corona (also referred to as the primary corona) applies a uniform charge (typically negative) to the photoreceptor drum. This creates a "blank slate" for the laser to write to.

� Writing - The modulated laser beam writes an electrostatic image on the rotating drum. Any areas on the photoreceptor drum that the laser beam touches lose most of their electrostatic charge. This differential in electrostatic charge between the areas of the drum that have been written to and the remainder of the drum allows the image to attract toner in the next phase.

� Developing - Toner is transferred from the toner cartridge to the photoreceptor drum. The toner cartridge has a metallic roller known as a developing cylinder that takes on a charge equal to the photoreceptor drum. The toner sticks to the developing cylinder, and as it rotates toward the paper a "toner fog" is created as the toner is both attracted to and repelled from the photoreceptor drum. The toner is repelled from areas that were not touched by the laser because they have the same electrostatic charge as the toner and it is attracted to the areas on the drum that were touched by the laser because of the difference in the electrostatic charges. This creates an image that is ready to be transferred to a piece of paper.

� Transferring - The transfer corona charges the paper so that the toner on the photoreceptor drum is attracted to the paper as the drum rotates and the paper and drum come into very close proximity. A corona discharges the electrostatic charge on the paper immediately after the toner transfers from the photoreceptor drum to the paper, preventing the paper from sticking to the drum.

� Fusing - The final step permanently bonds the toner to the paper. A fusing roller, heated by a quartz lamp, melts the toner to the paper and the paper exits the printer.

Item: 160 (Ref:Cert-220-601.4.1.4)

nmlkj Fusing

nmlkj Writing

nmlkj Cleaning

nmlkj Developing

nmlkj Transferring

nmlkj Conditioning

Answer:

Writing

of 396


During which stage of the laser printing process is the toner transferred from the toner cartridge to the photoreceptor drum?

Explanation: The toner is transferred from the toner cartridge to the photoreceptor drum in the developing stage of the laser printing process. The following are the six stages of the laser printing process:




� Developing - Toner is transferred from the toner cartridge to the photoreceptor drum. The toner cartridge has a metallic roller called a developing cylinder that takes on a charge equal to the photoreceptor drum. The toner sticks to the developing cylinder, and as it rotates toward the paper a "toner fog" is created as the toner is both attracted to and repelled from the photoreceptor drum. The toner is repelled from areas that were not touched by the laser because they have the same electrostatic charge as the toner and it is attracted to the areas on the drum that were touched by the laser because of the difference in the electrostatic charges. This creates an image that is ready to be transferred to a piece of paper.



Item: 161 (Ref:Cert-220-601.4.1.3)

nmlkj Fusing

nmlkj Writing

nmlkj Cleaning

nmlkj Developing

nmlkj Transferring

nmlkj Conditioning

Answer:

Developing

of 396


What occurs during the cleaning phase of laser printing?

Explanation: The discharge lamp neutralizes the photoreceptor in the cleaning stage of the laser printing process. The following are the six stages of the laser printing process:







Item: 177 (Ref:Cert-220-601.4.1.5)

nmlkj The laser writes an image on the photoreceptor drum.

nmlkj The transfer corona applies a positive charge to the paper.

nmlkj The discharge lamp neutralizes the photoreceptor drum.

nmlkj The primary corona wire applies a uniform charge on the drum.

Answer:

The discharge lamp neutralizes the photoreceptor drum.

of 396


You are considering your options for connecting a printer that has multiple connection types. Which bus standard supports a data transfer rate of 400 megabits per second (Mbps)?

Explanation: Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 1394, which is also known as FireWire, supports 400-Mbps transfer rates in the IEEE 1394 standard and up to 800 Mbps in the IEEE 1394b standard. MCA is an obsolete and proprietary expansion bus standard that IBM developed for its PS/2 models in the mid-1980s; it supported a maximum data transfer rate of 384 Mbps. It will not be a possibility for connecting a printer. The RS-232 standard serial interface supports data transfer rates of approximately 100 kilobits per second (Kbps). The USB 1.1 standard allows a maximum transfer rate of 12 Mbps. The newer USB 2.0 standard supports data transfers of up to 480 Mbps. All USB cables have two wires that carry data and two wires that supply low-voltage power. The IEEE 1284 standard defines data transfer through an 8-bit parallel interface, such as the line printer (LPT) port commonly used by parallel printers. This standard provides for unidirectional communications in either direction, also known as simplex data transfer, and for bidirectional communications in half-duplex mode. Half-duplex mode supports data transfer in either one direction or the other, but not both directions simultaneously. The IEEE 1284 standard also supports Enhanced Capability Port (ECP) mode with a high-speed data transfer rate of 2 to 4 Mbps, and Enhanced Parallel Port (EPP) mode with a high-speed data transfer rate of up to 2 Mbps.

Item: 178 (Ref:Cert-220-601.4.1.8)

nmlkj Micro Channel Architecture (MCA)

nmlkj RS-232

nmlkj Universal Serial Bus (USB) 1.1

nmlkj IEEE 1284

nmlkj IEEE 1394

Answer:

IEEE 1394

of 396


One of your clients needs to print to multi-part forms. Which printer type should you advise your client to consider?

Explanation: Dot-matrix printers can print multi-part forms, often referred to as carbon copies, because the act of printing is accomplished by physically striking paper with a print head. Another impact printer, the daisy-wheel printer, can also be used for multi-part forms.

Inkjet, thermal, and laser printers cannot print on all layers of a multi-part form. A multi-part form has two or more sheets of paper per page, and only an impact printer can create an impression on the pages under the top page.

Daisy-wheel and dot-matrix printers are still used in some specialty environments, such as when multi-part forms are printed or where the typewriter appearance of a daisy-wheel printout is required. The daisy-wheel printer offers a higher print quality compared to a dot-matrix printer, but the daisy-wheel printer is generally limited to printing text whereas a dot-matrix printer can print text and graphics.

Item: 181 (Ref:Cert-220-601.4.1.7)

nmlkj laser

nmlkj inkjet

nmlkj thermal

nmlkj dot-matrix

Answer:

dot-matrix

of 396


During which stage of the laser printing process is the toner permanently bonded to the paper?

Explanation: The toner permanently bonds to the paper during the fusing stage. The following are the six stages of the laser printer operation:







Item: 188 (Ref:Cert-220-601.4.1.2)

nmlkj Fusing

nmlkj Writing

nmlkj Cleaning

nmlkj Developing

nmlkj Transferring

nmlkj Conditioning

Answer:

Fusing

of 396


You are an IT technician for a consulting company. You installed a new inkjet printer and successfully printed a test page. Later, users complained that they were unable to print any documents on the new printer.

What should you verify FIRST?

Explanation: In this scenario, you should first verify that there is paper in the printer, because you successfully printed a test page after installing the printer.

If the printer is not out of paper, then you should verify the printer driver and printer components, such as the print head and ink cartridge.

You should not verify the printer driver first in this scenario because you successfully printed a test page after installing the new printer. If a printer driver becomes corrupt, you still may be able to print to the printer. However, the print job may be distorted.

You should not verify the ink cartridge first in this scenario because you successfully printed a test page after installing the new printer. If the ink cartridge is not working properly, then the printer will print distorted text or images.

You should not verify the print head first in this scenario because you successfully printed a test page after installing the new printer. If the print head is not working properly, then the printer will print distorted text or images.

Item: 199 (Ref:Cert-220-601.4.3.2)

nmlkj Availability of paper

nmlkj Printer driver

nmlkj Ink cartridge

nmlkj Print head

Answer:

Availability of paper

of 396


Your company has purchased a new inkjet printer. Which unit of measurement will you use to specify the printing resolution for the printer?

Explanation: Dots per Inch (DPI) measures printer resolution. Printer resolution specifies the quality of printer output. The higher the DPI of a printer, the higher the quality of output. For example, the DPI of dot-matrix printers is lower than the DPI of laser printers, and dot-matrix printers give a lower-quality output. However, a higher DPI printer will consume more computer memory and require more time for print jobs to be processed by the printer.

In scenarios where you want to print documents at high speed with low quality, you should specify low-resolution printing. The only time it is acceptable to use a lower resolution is when print speed is more important than print quality.

Pixels per Inch (PPI) measures monitor resolution. Monitor resolution can be configured by specify the PPI value for the monitor.

Lines per Inch (LPI) measures printer resolution for halftone screen systems. You can configure the LPI for a printer to set the detail and sharpness of a printed document.

Samples per Inch (SPI) measures resolution for a scanner. You can configure SPI for a scanner to specify the quality of scanned images.

Item: 200 (Ref:Cert-220-601.4.2.2)

nmlkj DPI (Dots per Inch)

nmlkj PPI (Pixels per Inch)

nmlkj LPI (Lines per Inch)

nmlkj SPI (Samples per Inch)

Answer:

DPI (Dots per Inch)

of 396


You notice that the pages coming out of your laser printer have extra toner that you can brush off. Which printer component is MOST likely causing the problem?

Explanation: If the pages coming out of your laser printer have extra toner that you can brush off, it is most likely that the fuser assembly printer component is creating the problem. The fuser assembly printer component holds two rollers that get heated to a high temperature to bind the dry toner ink to the paper fabric. When the printed pages carry extra toner that you can rub off, it usually indicates that the fuser roller is not getting heated enough to melt the dry toner particles properly and fuse the toner ink with the paper fibers.

If the pages coming out of your laser printer have extra toner that you can brush off, a toner cartridge cannot be the cause. A toner cartridge is a printer component that contains toner ink that is fused to the paper during the printing process. A toner cartridge, if not working properly, can cause problems such as uneven or variable density printing.

If the pages coming out of your laser printer have extra toner that you can brush off, a pickup roller cannot be the cause. This is because the pickup roller is a printer component that draws the paper from the paper tray into the printer. A malfunctioning pickup roller can cause false paper jams wherein the printer is not able to pick up the paper from the tray because the pickup roller fails to turn.

If the pages coming out of your laser printer have extra toner that you can brush off, a photoreceptor cannot be the cause. A photoreceptor is a photosensitive printer component that is used to transfer a latent electro-photographic image created by the laser beam on to the paper during the printing process.

Item: 204 (Ref:Cert-220-601.4.3.8)

nmlkj Toner cartridge

nmlkj Pickup roller

nmlkj Fuser Assembly

nmlkj Photoreceptor

Answer:

Fuser Assembly

of 396


You are troubleshooting a laser printer problem where faint images of previously printed pages are appearing on the current page. Which two components are the most likely cause of this problem? (Choose two.)

Explanation: The condition where faint images of previously printed pages appear on the current page is referred to as "ghosting." This is caused by a failure during the cleaning phase where the erase lamps do not remove the charge on the photoreceptor drum, or the cleaning blade does not remove the old toner from the drum. Therefore, either the discharge lamp or the cleaning blade is the components causing the problem.

The coronas transfer the image to the paper but do not actually ensure that the image is fused to the paper. The fuser rollers roll the fuser over the paper but do not actually fuse the image to the paper.

Item: 210 (Ref:Cert-220-601.4.3.12)

gfedc Detac corona

gfedc Charge corona

gfedc Fusing rollers

gfedc Discharge lamp

gfedc Cleaning blade

Answer:

Discharge lamp

Cleaning blade

of 396


Electro photographic (ELP) cartridges are found in which type of printers?

Explanation: ELP cartridges are found in laser printers. The ELP cartridge contains a supply of toner, the corona wire, the drum assembly, and a roller. The drum, which is referred to as either a photosensitive or an organic photoconductor (OPC) drum, is the heart of the cartridge. As the drum rotates, it receives the laser light that writes the image of the page that is being printed. Wherever the laser beam strikes, it places a charge on the drum, and the toner, which has an opposite charge, is attracted to the drum surface. The toner is transferred to the paper, which has been charged by the transfer corona. The toner is then fused to the paper. This general process applies to both laser jet printers and laser copy machines.

Because OPC drums are light-sensitive, they should be stored in a dark environment. OPC drums are also temperature-sensitive and should be stored at room temperature or below. One manufacturer recommends a long-term storage temperature of no more than 25 degrees Celsius, which is 77 degrees Fahrenheit. Higher temperatures can rapidly degrade the semiconducting properties of the drum.

Thermal printers use a heated head to cause images to appear on a special paper. Dot-matrix and daisy-wheel printers are considered impact printers because they use mechanical methods to transfer ink from a ribbon to the paper.

Item: 234 (Ref:Cert-220-601.4.1.6)

nmlkj laser

nmlkj thermal

nmlkj dot-matrix

nmlkj daisy-wheel

Answer:

laser

of 396


You are a desktop technician visiting a customer site. You are having trouble communicating with the customer because they have a speech impediment. You have the notes from the customer service call and you believe that the problem is probably with the monitor or display. What should you do?

Explanation: You should repeat what the customer tells you. You should also speak slowly and try to gather more information about the problem. You must gather problem-related information directly from the customer before starting the troubleshooting process. When you have trouble communicating with a customer, you should first speak slowly and clearly, or rephrase your statements to get a better understanding of the problem. You can also use gestures to exchange information with customers. It is also advisable to ask the customer to demonstrate the problem to get a better understanding of the problem. You should not ignore the customer and proceed to troubleshoot the computer issue. Professionalism dictates that you should always discuss the issue with the customer when you arrive at the customer's site. Proceeding to troubleshoot the problem without obtaining any information from the customer, regardless of the information you have been given, is considered rude and unprofessional. You should not call your supervisor immediately. This is only necessary if you are unable to communicate with the customer and do not understand the problem. Every effort should be made to communicate with the customer. You should not ask the customer to write down an explanation of the problem. Most people's verbal skills are much stronger than their written skills. The customer may not be comfortable writing about the issue.

Professionalism and Communication

Item: 222 (Ref:Cert-220-601.8.1.12)

nmlkj Ignore the customer and proceed to troubleshoot the computer issue.

nmlkj Repeat what the customer tells you.

nmlkj Call your supervisor immediately.

nmlkj Ask the customer to write down an explanation of the problem.

Answer:

Repeat what the customer tells you.

of 396


On what does active listening focus?

Explanation: Active listening focuses on the speaker and what he is saying. The listener does not have to agree with the speaker. However, the listener must be able to understand what the speaker is saying. Active listening is the process of participating is a conversation and assuring the speaker that he is being heard. Active listening does not focus on the problem, the response to the problem, or the listener and what he is hearing.

Item: 223 (Ref:Cert-220-601.8.1.6)

nmlkj the problem

nmlkj the response to the problem

nmlkj the speaker and what he is saying

nmlkj the listener and what he is hearing

Answer:

the speaker and what he is saying

of 396


When communicating with a customer, all of the following are acceptable practices EXCEPT:

Explanation: When communicating with a customer, you should NOT use acronyms or technical jargon to sound more intelligent. Customers may not understand these terms and will be frustrated because you used them. All of the other options are acceptable practices when communicating with a customer.

Item: 224 (Ref:Cert-220-601.8.1.1)

nmlkj Listen to the customer.

nmlkj Use direct statements to the customer.

nmlkj Avoid interrupting the customer.

nmlkj Use acronyms to sound more intelligent.

Answer:

Use acronyms to sound more intelligent.

of 396


What should you do if a customer calls and complains that his monitor has waves going across it?

Explanation: Waves going across a monitor are usually an indication of electromagnetic interference (EMI) problems. Fluorescent lights, space heaters, and certain other devices can cause EMI. To solve EMI problems, you should move the computer component experiencing the problem away from the EMI source or eliminate the EMI source.

Item: 245 (Ref:Cert-220-601.8.1.10)

nmlkj Ask the customer to reboot the computer.

nmlkj Schedule an appointment with the customer to replace the video card.

nmlkj Ask the customer what electrical equipment is near the computer.

nmlkj Ask the customer to change his monitor with another monitor to see if the problem is fixed.

Answer:

Ask the customer what electrical equipment is near the computer.

of 396


Cathy, a customer, calls you to explain a problem she is having with her computer. She is going into great detail about what is happening. What should you do?

Explanation: You should initially allow the customer to complete her explanation of the problem, and record all the details given. This will ensure that you have a complete understanding of the problem and what could have caused or led to the problem. It could also prevent you from having to ask a question later that could result in the customer having to repeat information. If a customer has to repeat information she has already given, she will get frustrated because she was not listened to the first time. You should never interrupt the customer when she is explaining a problem. This will only frustrate the customer by making her feel as if you do not have time for her. You should not record only the information you feel is relevant. This is filtering and can cause you to miss information that can possibly help to solve the problem.

Item: 249 (Ref:Cert-220-601.8.1.5)

nmlkj Interrupt the customer, and obtain only the relevant information.

nmlkj Interrupt the customer, and obtain only the basic information.

nmlkj Allow her to finish her explanation of the problem, and record all the details she gives you.

nmlkj Allow her to finish her explanation of the problem, but record only the information you feel is relevant.

Answer:

Allow her to finish her explanation of the problem, and record all the details she gives you.

of 396


All of the following techniques are part of the active listening process EXCEPT:

Explanation: Participating in a conversation and assuring the speaker that the speaker is being heard is active listening. There are many techniques you should use to ensure active listening. All of the techniques are part of the active listening process EXCEPT agreeing with what the customer is saying. You should never agree or disagree with the customer's statements. You should allow the customer to complete his points. Do not interrupt. You should listen and attempt to understand what the customer is saying. You should be able to summarize the customer's statement when the customer is through to ensure complete understanding. You should respond to questions and directions appropriately to let the customer know you are listening. You should ensure that distractions have been removed and that you are able to focus on what the customer is saying.

Item: 252 (Ref:Cert-220-601.8.1.7)

nmlkj Allow the customer to complete his points.

nmlkj Agree with what the customer is saying.

nmlkj Respond to questions and directions appropriately.

nmlkj Listen and attempt to understand what the customer is saying.

nmlkj Summarize the customer's statements to ensure complete understanding.

Answer:

Agree with what the customer is saying.

of 396


Which statement is more effective when dealing with a customer who keeps having the same problem?

Explanation: When communicating with your customers, it is important that you do not communicate ineffectively. The statement "Often this type of problem is caused when a computer is not shut down properly" is more effective than the other statements given. Communication with customers should never be negative or abrupt. You should never give orders to the customer. You should focus on what you can do, rather than on what you cannot do. Never criticize or blame the customer. Always try to help, even if you do not know the immediate solution to a problem or question. The other options are examples of ineffective communication. The statement "I do not know what is causing this problem" makes you appear unknowledgeable or unwilling to help. The statement "You should never shut down your computer that way" is worded in such a way as to appear to blame or criticize the customer. The statement "You should have shut down your computer properly" is giving orders to the customer.

Item: 254 (Ref:Cert-220-601.8.1.2)

nmlkj "I do not know what is causing this problem."

nmlkj "You should never shut down your computer that way."

nmlkj "You should have shut down your computer properly."

nmlkj "Often this type of problem is caused when a computer is not shut down properly."

Answer:

"Often this type of problem is caused when a computer is not shut down properly."

of 396


You are at a customer site. The customer reports problems staying connected to the Internet, but he does not provide any specific information. What should you do to gather more information on the problem?

Explanation: You should ask the customer to demonstrate the problem. It is recommended to ask the customer to demonstrate the problem to better understand the problem, especially when a customer is unable to explain the problem clearly or may be explaining it inaccurately. After gathering all possible information, you should troubleshoot the problem based on the customer's demonstration. You should not troubleshoot the problem as reported until you have a thorough understanding of the problem. You need to give the customer an opportunity to explain or demonstrate the problem. You should not escalate the problem. A problem should only be escalated after you have completed the preliminary troubleshooting and determined that the problem is outside your area of expertise. You should not attempt to connect to the Internet from the customer's computer. This could be part of the troubleshooting process, but only after the customer has explained or demonstrated the problem.

Item: 257 (Ref:Cert-220-601.8.1.11)

nmlkj Ask the customer to demonstrate the problem.

nmlkj Troubleshoot the problem as reported.

nmlkj Escalate the problem.

nmlkj Attempt to connect to the Internet from the customer's computer.

Answer:

Ask the customer to demonstrate the problem.

of 396


You are a desktop administrator for Nutex Corporation. A user in the human resources department reports being unable to open Internet Explorer on their computer. You go to the customer's desk to troubleshoot the problem. While you are there, you notice confidential documents regarding an employee's recent disciplinary action sitting next to the keyboard. What should you do?

Explanation: You should turn the documents over. This will keep the documents in the same place as the customer left them, but will prevent you from reading the confidential contents. This shows respect to the customer's property while ensuring confidentiality. You should not read the information on the document and inform your co-workers of its contents. This is a violation of ethics. You should never read and divulge confidential information while completing a service call. You should not store the papers in a drawer. You should never move anything on a customer's desk without asking permission. Turning over the document leaves it in the same place while ensuring that you cannot read its contents. You should not read the information on the document but keep the information confidential. This is still an ethical violation, even if you do not share the confidential information.

Item: 258 (Ref:Cert-220-601.8.2.8)

nmlkj Read the information on the document, and inform your co-workers of its contents.

nmlkj Store the papers in a drawer.

nmlkj Turn the documents over.

nmlkj Read the information on the document, but keep the information confidential.

Answer:

Turn the documents over.

of 396


You are a desktop administrator for Nutex Corporation. A user reports problems with their computer monitor. When you arrive at the user's office, you find many personal items placed on and around the monitor. What should you do?

Explanation: You should ask the customer to clear the monitor and the surrounding area of any personal items. This shows that you respect the customer and the customer's property. You should not clear the monitor and area surrounding it of any personal items. This shows disrespect for the customer and their personal items. You should not inform the customer that you cannot work on the monitor because of the amount of personal items. This may cause a hostile reaction in the customer. You should first ask the customer to remove the personal items before you begin troubleshooting. You should not call maintenance to have the personal items removed. The customer should be asked to remove his or her own personal property.

Item: 259 (Ref:Cert-220-601.8.2.9)

nmlkj Clear the monitor and surrounding area of any personal items.

nmlkj Ask the customer to clear the personal items away before you begin to work.

nmlkj Inform the customer that you cannot work on the monitor because of the amount of personal items around it.

nmlkj Call maintenance to have the personal items removed so you can work.

Answer:

Ask the customer to clear the personal items away before you begin to work.

of 396


You are a desktop support technician. You visit a client's home to troubleshoot a customer complaint of a faulty Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS). While checking the UPS, the customer's eleven-year-old child tries to touch the parts assembly. What should you do?

Explanation: You should ask the customer to take the child away from the work area. This is necessary for the child's safety and to prevent distractions while you are working. You should not ignore the child and continue troubleshooting the problem. This may prove harmful for the child and may cause distractions while you are working. You should not explain the troubleshooting procedure to the child. This may prove harmful for the child if the child tries the troubleshooting procedure later without adult supervision. You should not encourage the child to know more about the solution. This may prove harmful for the child if the child tries the troubleshooting procedure later without adult supervision.

Item: 262 (Ref:Cert-220-601.8.2.11)

nmlkj Ignore the child, and troubleshoot the problem.

nmlkj Ask the customer to take the child away from the work area.

nmlkj Explain the troubleshooting procedure to the child.

nmlkj Encourage the child to know more about the solution.

Answer:

Ask the customer to take the child away from the work area.

of 396


You are at a customer location handling a computer problem. Your cell phone rings. You should NEVER interrupt a customer for a phone call from whom?

Explanation: You should NEVER interrupt a customer for a phone call from a friend. You should let your voice mail answer the call and call your friend back after leaving the customer location. All of the other options are entities from whom a call may result in a customer interruption. However, the interruption should be prefaced by asking the customer if you can take the call and going into another room. The customer should always feel as if his problem is the most important issue at the present moment.

Item: 266 (Ref:Cert-220-601.8.2.7)

nmlkj a friend

nmlkj a co-worker

nmlkj another customer

nmlkj your supervisor

Answer:

a friend

of 396


When dealing with an angry customer, you should do all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation: When dealing with an angry customer, you should NOT transfer the customer to a supervisor. Transferring a customer to a supervisor should only be done if you cannot handle the customer's problem. When dealing with an angry customer, it is most important that you remain calm. The next most important thing to remember is to never make the situation personal because the customer is usually angry about something that has already happened over which you have no control. It is always good to let the customer vent. You should ask questions about the problem and maybe even request that they repeat the details of the problem. Make sure to be a good listener to avoid further frustration.

Item: 272 (Ref:Cert-220-601.8.1.8)

nmlkj Stay calm.

nmlkj Let the customer vent.

nmlkj Do not make the situation personal.

nmlkj Transfer the customer to a supervisor.

Answer:

Transfer the customer to a supervisor.

of 396


You are a desktop support technician. You visit a client location to troubleshoot a computer problem the client is experiencing. When you arrive, the neighbor is waiting. The neighbor informs you that the client will be back within an hour and that you are to troubleshoot the problem in his absence. The neighbor plans to leave while you fix the problem. What should you do?

Explanation: You should ask the neighbor to call the client and inform him that you cannot troubleshoot the problem without his presence. You must ensure that a person above 18 years of age is present at customer site during your visit, and that the person present is a resident of the home. You should not start the troubleshooting process in absence of a person above 18 years of age who lives at the customer location. You should not ask the neighbor more about the problem. Because the neighbor is not a resident of the home, it is likely that the neighbor does not understand the problem being experienced. You should not wait for the client until he returns. This would waste valuable time that could be spent on another technical issue.

Item: 273 (Ref:Cert-220-601.8.2.10)

nmlkj Start the troubleshooting process.

nmlkj Ask the neighbor to call the client and inform him that you cannot troubleshoot the problem without his presence.

nmlkj Ask the neighbor more about the problem.

nmlkj Wait for the client to return.

Answer:

Ask the neighbor to call the client and inform him that you cannot troubleshoot the problem without his presence.

of 396


Which type of communication creates a win-win situation for both parties?

Explanation: Assertive communication creates a win-win situation for both parties. Assertive communication forces all parties to be responsible for their actions. Assertive communication includes statements like "Help me to understand why the report wasn't submitted on time." Passive communication avoids conflict at all costs and results in a lose-win situation. The speaker loses, while the receiver wins. Aggressive communication uses conflict in every situation to intimidate the recipient and results in a win-lose situation. Statements are often accusatory without attempting to understand, such as "We are failing on this project because of your lack of performance." Passive-aggressive communication is a combination of both the passive and aggressive communication types.

Item: 288 (Ref:Cert-220-601.8.1.4)

nmlkj passive

nmlkj aggressive

nmlkj assertive

nmlkj passive-aggressive

Answer:

assertive

of 396


While performing preventative maintenance on a user's computer, you notice several files that violate the Acceptable Usage Agreement the user signed when initially employed by the company. The IT department has specific policies for dealing with any violations. What should you do?

Explanation: You should follow the procedures for dealing with this violation. The policies that are in place contain the guidelines for reporting any violations of the Acceptable Usage Agreement. If a user signs the Acceptable Usage Agreement, then the user is bound by that agreement and its terms. The Acceptable Usage Agreement should include details on what is considered unacceptable behavior or computer usage. It should also give possible repercussions. While the other options may be included as part of the policies for dealing with violations, you should always consult the procedures documentation and follow them exactly.

Item: 290 (Ref:Cert-220-601.8.2.2)

nmlkj Contact your supervisor.

nmlkj Contact the user's supervisor.

nmlkj Inform the user that the files must be removed.

nmlkj Follow the procedures for dealing with this violation.

Answer:

Follow the procedures for dealing with this violation.

of 396


A customer has contacted you and is angry about your company's service. During the call, you discover that another technician responded initially to the customer's issue. What should you do first?

Explanation: The first thing you should always do when dealing with an angry customer is to remain calm. It is important that customers feel that someone understands their problem. The only way you can convey this feeling is to remain calm. Remembering not to take the situation personally is the next important point. While asking for clarification is an important step, it is not the first step you should take. You should only complete this step once you have listened to the customer's entire complaint. Hearing out the initial complaint is important to helping to diffuse the customer's anger. You should ask the customer what would make the situation better but only after listening to the customer's initial complaint and analyzing the issue. In most cases the customer has not stopped to think about how to improve the situation. Asking the customer for suggestions can begin the problem-solving process. You should never transfer the customer to the technician who initially handled the issue. This can increase the frustration level for the customer. You should attempt to handle the situation if at all possible. If that is not possible, the customer should be transferred to a supervisor.

Item: 293 (Ref:Cert-220-601.8.1.9)

nmlkj Stay calm.

nmlkj Ask for clarification.

nmlkj Ask the customer what would make the situation better.

nmlkj Transfer the customer to the technician who initially handled the issue.

Answer:

Stay calm.

of 396


Your office informs you that a customer will be contacting you by cell phone within the next ten minutes about an emergency issue. However, the customer does not contact you before your next appointment. What should you do if the customer calls you while you are at another customer's location?

Explanation: It is always acceptable to take emergency calls. You should always excuse yourself before taking the call and should keep the call as brief as possible. Calling your supervisor is not necessary because you were alerted about the emergency status of the call. You should not let the call go to voice mail because this would cause the customer frustration, especially because you were alerted about the emergency status of the call. You should not send the customer a text message. A better strategy would be to wait until the customer calls and take the call.

Item: 294 (Ref:Cert-220-601.8.2.6)

nmlkj Call your supervisor.

nmlkj Let the call go to voice mail.

nmlkj Excuse yourself, and take the call.

nmlkj Send the customer a text message.

Answer:

Excuse yourself, and take the call.

of 396


George, a co-worker, is late for every meeting he has with you. Which statement is an example of assertive communication?

Explanation: Assertive communication always attempts to help the other person understand your feelings. A good example of assertive communication in this scenario is "When you are late for our meeting, I feel frustrated because my daily schedule has to be altered." This is a good example because it states the problem and how you feel about it without being accusatory and putting the recipient on the defense. All of the other options are not good examples of assertive communication. A recipient of the other statements would feel attacked or a lack of understanding.

Item: 295 (Ref:Cert-220-601.8.1.3)

nmlkj "Is it possible for you to be on time to a meeting?"

nmlkj "Why are you always late for our meetings?"

nmlkj "I won't be able to have lunch today because you have delayed our meeting."

nmlkj "When you are late for our meeting, I feel frustrated because my daily schedule has to be altered."

Answer:

"When you are late for our meeting, I feel frustrated because my daily schedule has to be altered."

of 396


What should you do if a customer's telephone rings and the customer is not around?

Explanation: You should not answer a customer's phone if the customer is not around. You should focus on the task at hand. All of the other options are incorrect ways of handling the situation. Because you are at the customer's location to handle a specific computer issue, you should focus on that issue and ignore outside distractions. It is acceptable to inform the the telephone rang, but you should never answer another person's telephone unless specifically requested to do so.

Item: 296 (Ref:Cert-220-601.8.2.5)

nmlkj Answer the call, and inform the caller that the customer is away from his desk.

nmlkj Answer the call, and take a message for the customer.

nmlkj Locate the customer, and inform him that his telephone is ringing.

nmlkj Do not answer the call.

Answer:

Do not answer the call.

of 396


What should you do if you discover inappropriate material on a company-owned computer but no specific company computer-use policy exists?

Explanation: If you discover inappropriate material on a company-owned computer but no specific computer-use policy exists, you should inform your supervisor of the inappropriate material. You are only responsible to report this type of issue to your immediate supervisor. Your supervisor can then make the judgment call about how to handle the issue from there. You should never escalate these issues to the company president nor should you report the issue to the user's supervisor. Because of your role as an IT technician, you should only report any issues to your supervisor. You should never take it upon yourself to ask the user to remove inappropriate material.

Item: 297 (Ref:Cert-220-601.8.2.1)

nmlkj Inform your supervisor of the inappropriate material.

nmlkj Inform the user's supervisor of the inappropriate material.

nmlkj Ask the user to remove the inappropriate material.

nmlkj Inform the company president of the inappropriate material.

Answer:

Inform your supervisor of the inappropriate material.

of 396


While servicing some computer equipment, you overhear a conversation about company-wide pay raises. What should you do?

Explanation: Professional behavior and ethics dictates that any confidential information you overhear should be kept confidential. You should never inform anyone, even someone affected by the information, of the details of the confidential information.

Item: 302 (Ref:Cert-220-601.8.2.4)

nmlkj Keep the information confidential.

nmlkj Tell your co-workers about the pay raise.

nmlkj Tell your supervisor about the pay raise.

nmlkj Send an anonymous e-mail to all company employees about the pay raise.

Answer:

Keep the information confidential.

of 396


While servicing a computer at a customer location, you notice a memo regarding upcoming corporate structural changes. What should you do?

Explanation: An IT technician should never divulge a customer's confidential data that is learned while servicing a computer at the customer location. Any confidential information that is discovered should be kept confidential. You should never make a copy, take a picture, or memorize the contents of a confidential memo.

Item: 303 (Ref:Cert-220-601.8.2.3)

nmlkj Make a copy of the memo.

nmlkj Memorize the contents of the memo.

nmlkj Keep the information confidential.

nmlkj Take a picture of the memo.

Answer:

Keep the information confidential.

of 396


You want to provide secure access to the research laboratory and ensure that only authorized persons can enter the laboratory. Which system does NOT provide an effective means of ensuring that only authorized persons can enter the server room?

Explanation: The single sign-on system does not provide an effective means of ensuring that only authorized persons can enter the server room. The single sign-on system is used to provide access over a network and ensures security of data in a computer network. However, it does not ensure physical security of data and computers and cannot be used to ensure that only authorized persons enter the laboratory. All the other systems listed provide an effective means of ensuring that only authorized persons enter the laboratory. The smart card system, swipe card system, and biometric access control system are all different types of access control systems that can be used to ensure physical protection. All the three system will be helpful in ensuring that only authorized individuals enter the laboratory. Smart cards and swipe cards store user's credentials and verifies these user's credentials before providing them access to the resource. Only authorized users will be able to gain access through an access control system. The biometric access control system, on the other hand, uses an individual's physical characteristics, such as finger prints to authenticate a user. These characteristics are compared against the data stored for reference, and access is provided to a user if the stored data matches with the user's characteristics.

Safety and Environmental Issues

Item: 221 (Ref:Cert-220-601.7.2.12)

nmlkj Smart card system

nmlkj Swipe card system

nmlkj Single sign-on system

nmlkj Biometric Access Control system

Answer:

Single sign-on system

of 396


Which detection systems should be installed in the server room to improve the safety of the room and to protect the integrity of the equipment? (Choose all that apply.)

Explanation: The following detection systems should be installed in the server room to improve the safety of the room:

� Temperature detection system

� Water detection system

� Smoke detection system

These detection systems improve the safety of the server room and the integrity of the equipment by detecting any evidence of fire, water, or moisture in the server room. The temperature detection system detects the temperature and raises an alarm if the temperature goes above or below the fixed maximum or minimum range. Similarly, water detection or moisture detection system can detect the presence of water or moisture in the server room. This improves the safety of the room because water can cause severe damage when combined with electricity and large amounts of moisture can cause damage to computer components. Water and moisture detectors can detect the presence of water and moisture and a preventive action can be taken before any damage is done. Smoke detection systems raise an alarm as soon as they detect smoke. An early fire alarm can prevent severe damage to property and life. Installation of a light sensor is not required in the server room because there is no practical need of sensing light inside the server room. Light sensors are installed where a specific action has to be performed on sensing light. For example, light sensors will be installed in street lamps that can detect dim light and turn on as a result.

Item: 225 (Ref:Cert-220-601.7.1.1)

gfedc Temperature detection system

gfedc Water detection system

gfedc Smoke detection system

gfedc Light detection system

Answer:

Temperature detection system

Water detection system

Smoke detection system

of 396


Which statements are true regarding proper disposal of unusable and old batteries? (Choose all that apply.)

Explanation: The option stating that unusable Ni-cad batteries should be given to the waste disposal facility is correct regarding disposal of unusable and old Ni-cad batteries. Old and unusable Ni-cad batteries are considered hazardous waste. Therefore, care must be taken while disposing these batteries. These batteries should either be given to the waste disposal facility or be handed over to the supplier. Both waste disposal facility and supplier will ensure that these batteries are properly recycled. The options stating that unusable Ni-cad batteries can be thrown in garbage or a water body are incorrect. Unusable Ni-cad batteries are considered hazardous waste, and, therefore, should not be disposed either in garbage or water body. Utmost care should be taken while disposing the unusable and old Ni-cad batteries. The options stating that unusable alkaline batteries should not be thrown in the garbage or should be handed over to the supplier are incorrect. Alkaline batteries are non hazardous, and, therefore, can be thrown in the garbage. Additionally, alkaline batteries do not need to be handed over to the supplier because alkaline batteries are not rechargeable and may not be of any use to the supplier.

Item: 244 (Ref:Cert-220-601.7.3.1)

gfedc Unusable Ni-cad batteries can be thrown in garbage.

gfedc Unusable alkaline batteries should not be thrown in garbage.

gfedc Unusable Ni-cad batteries should be thrown in a water body.

gfedc Unusable alkaline batteries should be handed over to the supplier.

gfedc Unusable Ni-cad batteries should be given to the waste disposal facility.

Answer:

Unusable Ni-cad batteries should be given to the waste disposal facility.

of 396


You are an electrical engineer for your company. You notice that there are spikes, surges, and occasionally drops in voltage. Which device should you deploy to address the problem?

Explanation: You should deploy a Uninterrupted Power Supply (UPS). A UPS is deployed as a secondary source of power when the primary power source fails or is interrupted for some time. A modern UPS can act as an Automated Voltage Regulator (AVR) which can ensure that the power going to the computer is constant. A UPS can prevent spikes, surges, and drops in voltage. A surge protector can prevent constant high voltage, such as surge and spikes, from causing severe damage to electrical equipments. A surge protector is a device that can control high influx of electricity. A surge protector consists of a metal oxide varistor that transfers the excess voltage to the ground in event of a surge. However, a surge protector cannot prevent against a drop in voltage. Deploying a voltage transformer will not address the problem. Voltage transformers are used to regulate power fluctuation but do not help in problems related to prolonged high voltage. Deploying batteries or generator will not address the problem. Batteries and generators are used as secondary sources of power when there is a major power outage.

Item: 246 (Ref:Cert-220-601.7.2.15)

nmlkj Surge protector

nmlkj UPS

nmlkj Voltage transformer

nmlkj Batteries

nmlkj Generator

Answer:

UPS

of 396


You are an on-site technician for your company and have been assigned the task of replacing a damaged motherboard in a customer's computer. You must carry the replacement working motherboard to the customer's residence. Which is the BEST method to carry the motherboard to the customer's residence?

Explanation: You should carry the motherboard in an anti-static bag to the customer's residence. Use of an anti-static bag prevents damage caused by generation of static electricity. A hardware component of a computer such as a memory chip, processor, or a motherboard should always be handled with care to avoid any contact with static electricity. Even a small amount of static electricity can cause severe damage to hardware components. Therefore, while transferring hardware components you should keep all components in an anti-static bag. When you take the components out of a computer, the components must again be placed on an anti-static bag while waiting to reinstall them into the computer.. All the other options are incorrect because none of them present the best method to carry the motherboard to the customer's residence. Cloth, wood, and paper can conduct electricity if they become damp by water or moisture. Therefore, they are not the best materials to carry hardware components of a computer. These components should always be carried in an anti-static bag.

Item: 247 (Ref:Cert-220-601.7.2.7)

nmlkj Wrap the motherboard in a piece of lint-free cloth.

nmlkj Carry the motherboard in an anti-static bag.

nmlkj Carry the motherboard in a metal-lined wooden box.

nmlkj Carry the motherboard in a paper bag lined with Styrofoam.

Answer:

Carry the motherboard in an anti-static bag.

of 396


You want to prevent your computer from any type of Electro Static Discharge (ESD) while servicing the computer. Which actions should you NOT perform while servicing the computer? (Choose two.)

Explanation: While servicing a computer, you should not perform the following actions as prevention against ESD:

� Ensure that the room in which computer is serviced is carpeted.

� Ensure that the room in which computer is serviced is cool and dry.

To prevent ESD, the room in which computer is serviced should not be carpeted because carpets are known to be conductors of ESD. Therefore, to prevent against ESD carpets should not be placed in the computer rooms. Similarly, cool and dry conditions are considered prone to static electricity, and, therefore, you should not service a computer in a cool and dry room. To prevent ESD, humidity in the server room should be maintained above an average of 45%. You should wear an anti-static wrist band while servicing a computer to prevent against ESD. Anti-static wrist bands provide a conductive path to the ground and get rid of the ESD before it can cause any damage to your computer. You should keep your one hand in contact with the bare metal frame of the computer at all times to prevent against ESD. This step is useful when you are not wearing an anit-static wrist band because this step will keep you grounded to prevent against ESD. You should wear cotton clothes to prevent against ESD because other materials, such as synthetic and nylon, are known to be conductors of static charge. Therefore, to prevent against ESD, cotton clothes can be worn.

Item: 248 (Ref:Cert-220-601.7.2.1)

gfedc Wear an anti-static wrist band.

gfedc Keep your one hand in contact with bare metal frame of computer at all times.

gfedc Ensure that the room in which computer is serviced is carpeted.

gfedc Ensure that the room in which computer is serviced is cool and dry.

gfedc Do not wear cotton clothes.

Answer:

Ensure that the room in which computer is serviced is carpeted.

Ensure that the room in which computer is serviced is cool and dry.

of 396


As a technician who frequently observes Electrostatic discharge (ESD) damage to parts, you have become concerned about the presence of contributing factors in your work area. Which environmental condition is likely to cause ESD problems?

Explanation: ESD problems are much more likely to occur in areas with low humidity. Keep the humidity of any area where you will work on open computers between 70 and 90%. The problems usually occur during the winter months when the humidity is low or in dry climates where the humidity is low year-round. Static discharges can damage sensitive computer components, but their effects are not always seen right away and can be difficult to diagnose.

Item: 250 (Ref:Cert-220-601.7.1.10)

nmlkj Low humidity

nmlkj High humidity

nmlkj Low temperatures

nmlkj High temperatures

Answer:

Low humidity

of 396


There have been some instances of missing hardware in your organization. Keeping this in mind, you want a system in place to avoid any such incidents in future. Which method should you use as the most effective preventive measure against any instances of hardware theft?

Explanation: In this scenario, you should install surveillance cameras in work areas to prevent against any instances of hardware theft. Surveillance cameras will be an effective solution because surveillance cameras will be a major deterrent for a person with malicious intentions. Surveillance cameras are also useful in identification of persons in the event of a theft. Surveillance cameras can serve other purposes such as monitoring, detection, and alarm function. If you deploy additional security personnel for frisking, they will not always be able to detect instances of hardware theft such as surveillance cameras. Surveillance cameras are more effective because they act as a deterrent against any malicious activities. Not allowing employees to bring personal belongings to the workplace is not a practical solution. Replacing all the existing CPU cases with new CPU cases that have lock and key system is also not a practical solution because it will require increase the financial costs involved. Additionally, locked CPU cases will not prevent theft of computer components that are present outside the CPU, such as the mouse, keyboard, and monitor.

Item: 251 (Ref:Cert-220-601.7.2.14)

nmlkj Install surveillance cameras in work areas.

nmlkj Deploy additional security personnel for frisking.

nmlkj Do not allow employees to bring personal belongings to the workplace.

nmlkj Replace all the existing CPU cases with new CPU cases that have lock and key system.

Answer:

Install surveillance cameras in work areas.

of 396


Why should you never attempt to repair a monitor yourself?

Explanation: Monitors contain display circuits, which can hold extremely high voltages for hours or even weeks after the power has been removed. Monitors contain capacitors that store energy. A monitor's capacitors can deliver a lethal dose of electric current if you come in contact with its leads even when the monitor is unplugged from the line current. For this reason, monitors should only be repaired by qualified and properly equipped service personnel. DANGER - Opening a monitor is dangerous and should only be attempted by someone who is properly trained in this area!

Item: 253 (Ref:Cert-220-601.7.3.4)

nmlkj Opening it will disable the monitor power generator.

nmlkj The monitor's internal parts are extremely radioactive.

nmlkj Opening it will disable the over-voltage protection circuit.

nmlkj Opening the monitor will expose the photosensitive receptor inside.

nmlkj There is an electrical source inside which can hold a lethal charge.

Answer:

There is an electrical source inside which can hold a lethal charge.

of 396


After you start your computer, you hear an unusual, high-pitched noise. The source of the noise is the fan mounted inside the power supply. After a few minutes, the noise goes away. Which action should you take?

Explanation: The power supply is a field replaceable unit (FRU). When the fan in the power supply stops functioning normally, you should replace the entire power supply. The power supply, which has potentially lethal voltages, should be repaired only by properly trained technicians. Be sure to use a replacement unit of the same or greater wattage and with the same type of output connectors; the system board connection for an AT or baby AT board is different from the connector for an ATX-style board. Also, check for any special features that the system board has. Some power supplies have a multi-speed fan that uses a special control cable connected to the system board. When the interior of the case reaches a certain temperature, the fan speed is increased to provide additional cooling. Otherwise, the fan runs at a slower, quieter speed. Under all circumstances, the computer should be disconnected from the electrical outlet before any repair work on the power supply is begun. The fan inside the power supply is especially important for cooling the computer electronics. This fan exhausts hot air from the case, which causes cooler outside air to be drawn into the case. A cooling fan mounted on a card helps prevent hot spots inside the case by providing better interior circulation, but it will not exhaust hot air. The fan inside the power supply does not require lubrication or other maintenance, such as bearing replacement.

Item: 255 (Ref:Cert-220-601.7.2.17)

nmlkj Replace the fan assembly.

nmlkj Replace the power supply.

nmlkj Replace the bearings inside the fan motor.

nmlkj Lubricate the bearings inside the fan motor.

nmlkj Disable the power supply fan, and install a cooling fan card in an unoccupied PCI or ISA slot.

Answer:

Replace the power supply.

of 396


A technician was working at a client's residence and left some wires uncovered. A child comes in contact with the uncovered wires and is electrocuted. You rush to help the child. What should you do FIRST ?

Explanation: In this scenario, you should first turn off the power supply. Turning off the power supply will ensure that no further damage is caused to the child because of the flow of electricity. You should not pull the child away from the wires first because this action might also bring you in contact with electricity. To avoid this, you should first turn off the power supply and then pull the child away from the wires. You should not give Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR) to the child first. CPR should be administered to the child only after the child's contact with electricity has been removed. This ensures that the person administering CPR to the child does not come in contact with electricity and even the child is saved from any further caused due to electricity. Before taking the child to a doctor, you should first pull the child away from wires. After you have pulled the child away from wires, administer CPR to the child because an electric shock can cause a heart arrest causing death. After administering CPR, the child should be taken to the doctor for further medical treatment.

Item: 256 (Ref:Cert-220-601.7.2.10)

nmlkj Pull the child away from the wires.

nmlkj Give cardiopulmonary resuscitation to the child.

nmlkj Turn off the power supply.

nmlkj Take the child to a doctor.

Answer:

Turn off the power supply.

of 396


The following steps can be performed in response to electrocution of a person:

1. Remove the person's contact with source of electricity by pulling him or her. 2. Turn off the main switch. 3. Call for medical help. 4. Provide cardiopulmonary resuscitation.

Which option represents the correct sequence in which these actions should be performed in event of an electrocution?

Explanation: In event of an electrocution, you should perform the given steps in the following order:

� Turn off the main switch.

� Remove the person's contact with electricity by pulling him or her.

� Provide cardiopulmonary resuscitation.

� Call for medical help.

Turning off the main switch will ensure that the electrocution victim does not suffer further. Turning off the main switch is also necessary before any person can remove the victim from the source of electricity. Once the electricity is turned off, the victim should be pulled to remove them from contact with the source of electricity. If you are not able to switch off the electricity, you should never touch the victim if he or she is still in contact with electricity. If the victim is still in contact with the source of electricity, you should use a non-conducting material to remove the victim from the source of electricity. Next, the victim should be administered cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) because powerful electrocution can cause heart arrest leading to death. Before calling for medical help, you should perform all the other actions because waiting for the medical help to arrive might reduce the chances of victim's survival. All the other options are incorrect because none of these options represent the correct sequence in which these actions should be performed in event of an electrocution.

Item: 260 (Ref:Cert-220-601.7.2.9)

nmlkj 1, 2, 4, 3

nmlkj 2, 1, 4, 3

nmlkj 3, 2, 4, 1

nmlkj 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer:

2, 1, 4, 3

of 396


Which statement is NOT true about Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR) in context of electrocution?

Explanation: The option stating that CPR should always be administered under medical supervision is not true about CPR. CPR is typically performed when immediate medical assistance is not available. The victim's chances of survival increase if the victim receives an early CPR followed by medical treatment. In event of electrocution, the victim might suffer a cardiac arrest that can turn fatal. If CPR is administered on time, the victim can be saved. The option stating that you should not complete the circuit between the wire and ground before administering CPR is true. Before administering CPR you should ensure that electricity is turned off and the victim is removed from the source of electricity. If it is not possible to turn off the electricity, the victim should be removed from the source of electricity using a non-conducting tool to avoid completing the circuit between the wire and ground. If you complete the circuit between the wire and ground, chances are that even you might get electrocuted. The option stating that you should remove the victim from the source of electricity before administering CPR is true. If the victim is not removed from the source of electricity, the person administering CPR can also come in contact with electricity and get electrocuted. The option stating that CPR should be given if the victim has had a cardiac arrest is true. If the victim suffers a cardiac arrest, a timely CPR and medical attention can save the victim. If you do not administer a CPR and wait for medical help to arrive, the victim's chances of survival might decrease.

Item: 261 (Ref:Cert-220-601.7.2.8)

nmlkj You should not complete the circuit between the wire and ground before administering CPR.

nmlkj You should remove the victim from the source of electricity before administering CPR.

nmlkj CPR should always be administered under medical supervision.

nmlkj CPR should be given if the victim has had a cardiac arrest.

Answer:

CPR should always be administered under medical supervision.

of 396


You have stored critical information about your company in the computers in your server room. You want only authorized people to be allowed entry into the server room. Which method will be MOST effective to maintain the security of the server room?

Explanation: To maintain the security of the server room, an access control system should be employed on the entrance of the server room. An access control system will prevent any unauthorized access to the server room. An access control system uses devices, such as smart cards or biometrics, to provide access to authorized persons. Therefore, unauthorized individuals cannot enter the server room. Employing a security staff at the entry of the server room to check the individuals who enter will not completely ensure security because the security staff may or may not know which individuals are authorized to enter. Therefore, there is a possibility that unauthorized persons are provided access to the server room. Placing a safe lock on the server door and giving the key only to the authorized persons is not a practical solution because the number of authorized persons could be higher in number and providing a key to every person may not be possible. Additionally, there is a possibility that people might loose the key posing a threat to the security of the server room. Positioning a surveillance camera at the entrance of the server room is not an effective solution because a surveillance camera can only be used to monitor people entering the server room. It cannot control access to the server room. To maintain the security of data stored in the server room, you should restrict entry into the server room.

Item: 263 (Ref:Cert-220-601.7.2.11)

nmlkj Employ an access control system on the entrance of the server room.

nmlkj Employ a security staff at the entry of the server room to check the individuals who enter the server room.

nmlkj Place a safe lock on the server door and give the key only to the authorized persons.

nmlkj Position a surveillance camera at the entrance of the server room.

Answer:

Employ an access control system on the entrance of the server room.

of 396


For which type of fire is a Class C fire extinguisher uniquely intended?

Explanation: A Class C fire extinguisher is uniquely intended to fight electrical fires, such as fires that involve computer equipment; Class C fire

extinguishers use carbon dioxide (CO2) or Halon to quench fires. A Class C fire extinguisher will also be rated to extinguish Class A fires, or Class B fires, or both Class A and Class B fires; the respective classifications are A/C, B/C, and A/B/C. A Class A fire extinguisher is intended to fight fires that involve ordinary combustible materials, such as wood or paper; Class A fire extinguishers are water-based. A Class B fire extinguisher is intended to fight fires that involve flammable liquids, such as oil, grease, or gasoline; Class B fire extinguishers

can contain dry chemicals, foam or liquid CO2.

A Class D fire extinguisher is intended to fight fires that involve flammable metals, such as magnesium or sodium; Class D fire extinguishers typically contain graphite or sodium chloride.

Item: 264 (Ref:Cert-220-601.7.2.16)

nmlkj gasoline

nmlkj wood and paper

nmlkj flammable metals

nmlkj electrical equipment

Answer:

electrical equipment

of 396


You are an on-site technician and are at a customer site to perform server room maintenance. You notice that water has entered the server room from a leaking water pipe. You call building maintenance to alert them of the problem. You then inform the network administrator that water in the server room may void the server warranty. You then wear rubber sole shoes to perform the maintenance work. What could be the reason for wearing rubber sole shoes?

Explanation: Rubber sole shoes are worn for maintenance of server rooms because rubber sole shoes will not allow electric current to pass from the ground through your body. When working with electrical appliances, you should be careful not to allow electric current to pass from the ground through your body. Rubber is a bad conductor of electricity and does not allow electricity to pass through the body. If there is water in the server room, you must wear rubber sole shoes to avoid any contact with water or electricity. The option stating that wearing rubber sole shoes completes the circuit between electric wire and ground is incorrect. Wearing rubber shoes does not complete the circuit between electric wire and ground because rubber is a bad conductor of electricity and does not allow electricity to pass to the ground through your body. The options stating that wearing rubber sole shoes allows or does not allow static charge to pass from the ground through your body are incorrect. In this scenario, rubber shoes are worn to protect you against electric current and not as a protection against static charge.

Item: 265 (Ref:Cert-220-601.7.2.5)

nmlkj Wearing rubber sole shoes completes the circuit between electric wire and ground.

nmlkj Wearing rubber sole shoes does not allow static charge to pass from the ground through your body.

nmlkj Wearing rubber sole shoes allows static charge to pass from the ground through your body.

nmlkj Wearing rubber sole shoes does not allow electric current to pass from the ground through your body.

Answer:

Wearing rubber sole shoes does not allow electric current to pass from the ground through your body.

of 396


You detect the humidity of your server room is fluctuating towards the lower side. What could be the possible effect of low humidity in server room?

Explanation: Low humidity in the server room can cause static electricity. Static electricity is mainly caused in dry conditions when two dissimilar objects come in contact with each other. This electricity travels through the body and a spark is produced on the finger tip when the person touches something. Static electricity can cause severe damage to electronic computer components, such as the motherboard, hard disk, and random access memory. Therefore, the humidity level in the server room should not be low. Organizations can install a humidifier to maintain the level of humidity in the room. Technicians working with internal computer components can also wear anti-static wrist bands to prevent damage from static electricity. Low humidity in the server room does not cause corrosion. Corrosion is a result of high humidity and can adversely affect performance of the computer system by reducing the electrical efficiency of connectors. Low humidity in the server room does not cause electric shocks. An electric shock occurs when an individual comes in direct contact with uncovered electric wires or when a person is not properly grounded. To prevent electric shocks, electrical equipments should be properly grounded and individuals should wear protective gears, such as rubber sole shoes and rubber gloves while servicing electrical circuits. Low humidity in the server room does not cause power fluctuation. A power fluctuation is caused either when power is in excess or shortage for a longer period of time or is momentary. Different types of devices are used to prevent power fluctuation depending on whether the type of fluctuation is high or low.

Item: 267 (Ref:Cert-220-601.7.2.13)

nmlkj corrosion

nmlkj static electricity

nmlkj electric shock

nmlkj power fluctuation

Answer:

static electricity

of 396


You are assembling a personal computer. You remove the packaging material of different hardware components, such as memory chip and motherboard. Where should you place these hardware components to prevent damage from positive and negative charges?

Explanation: The hardware components such as memory chip and motherboard should be placed on an anti-static bag before attaching them in the computer case once the packaging material has been removed. Placing these components on an anti-static bag will prevent damage from positive and negative charges. The imbalance of positive and negative charges causes generation of static electricity. Computer equipment such as processor, memory chips, and motherboard are very sensitive to static electricity and should be handled with care to avoid any contact with static electricity. Therefore, the hardware components should be placed on an anti-static bag. Placing the hardware components on a wooden table does not completely prevent damage caused from positive and negative charges. This is because static electricity can be generated if there are any traces of moisture in the wooden table. Holding the hardware components in your hands does not prevent damage caused from positive and negative charges. Hands can act as good conductors of electricity if the person holding the components is not properly grounded. Placing the hardware components on the floor or on a piece of newspaper does not prevent damage caused from positive and negative charges. Both floor and paper can cause static electricity to be transferred to the hardware components.

Item: 268 (Ref:Cert-220-601.7.2.6)

nmlkj place them on an anti-static bag

nmlkj place them on a wooden table

nmlkj hold them in your hands while wearing a pair of lint-free gloves

nmlkj place them on a tile floor

nmlkj place them on a piece of newspaper

Answer:

place them on an anti-static bag

of 396


What should you do with the empty toner cartridge from a laser printer?

Explanation: You should return the empty toner cartridge to the manufacturer for recycling. Laser printers use toner cartridges that can usually be refurbished and refilled by the manufacturer. The toner in a particular brand or model of cartridge has a specific formulation, and using a cartridge with the wrong toner may ruin your printer. Toner cartridges, circuit boards, batteries, and other computer components typically include recommendations from the manufacturers regarding any special requirements they may have for recycling or disposal.

Item: 269 (Ref:Cert-220-601.7.3.2)

nmlkj Deposit it in a municipal trash bin.

nmlkj Refill it with general-purpose toner.

nmlkj Return it to the manufacturer for recycling.

nmlkj Send it to a standard plastic recycling center.

Answer:

Return it to the manufacturer for recycling.

of 396


You find that a computer in the company's conference room has caught fire due to a short circuit. You ventilate the room immediately. What should you do NEXT?

Explanation: If a computer catches fire, you should first ventilate the room so that the smoke from the fire can escape and then use a fire extinguisher to douse the fire. You should never douse an electrical fire with water because the combination of water and electricity can be dangerous. To douse an electrical fire, a dry chemical fire extinguisher should be used. You should not get a bucket of water to douse the fire because water should never be used on an electrical fire. To douse an electrical fire, you should use a chemical fire extinguisher specifically made for electrical fires. The options stating that you should inform security and contact the system administrator are incorrect. Extinguishing the fire should be the first priority if a computer has caught fire. Once the fire has been doused, you can contact the system administrator and inform security.

Item: 270 (Ref:Cert-220-601.7.2.3)

nmlkj Get a bucket of water to douse the fire.

nmlkj Use a fire extinguisher to douse the fire.

nmlkj Inform building security.

nmlkj Contact the system administrator.

Answer:

Use a fire extinguisher to douse the fire.

of 396


Why should an old CRT be disposed of as hazardous waste?

Explanation: Computers contain components that are considered hazardous wastes. In older monitors (CRTs), the main hazardous waste product is lead. The frit, or the material that joins the front and back panels of the monitor, is almost pure lead. Therefore, when disposing of a monitor, it is a good idea to ship it to a computer/electronics recycler.

Item: 271 (Ref:Cert-220-601.7.3.3)

nmlkj Lead content

nmlkj Copper wiring

nmlkj Silver emulsion

nmlkj Phosphorus screens

nmlkj Residual electronic charge

Answer:

Lead content

of 396


Which type of fire extinguisher is the BEST to douse an electrical fire?

Explanation: A carbon dioxide extinguisher is the best to douse an electrical fire. Carbon dioxide extinguishers contain highly pressurized non-flammable carbon dioxide gas. You can also use a dry chemical extinguisher to douse an electrical fire. However, carbon dioxide scores over dry chemical extinguishers because carbon dioxide based extinguishers do not leave a harmful residue like dry chemical extinguishers. Dry chemical extinguishers can leave a sticky residue that might damage electrical appliances. APW extinguishers are not used to douse an electrical fire simply because they are water based and can aggravate an electrical fire. A water based fire extinguisher should not be used on electrical fires. APW extinguishers are used to douse Class A fires. Class A fires are the fires originating from flammable materials such as paper, wood, and cardboard. Fires originating from electrical equipments, such as wires and circuits, are classified as Class C fire. Dry chemical extinguisher is not the best option for dousing an electrical fire because dry chemical extinguishers leave a harmful residue. Dry chemical extinguishers leave harmful residue that should be cleaned immediately. It cannot cause damage to electrical appliances, such as computer equipments.

Item: 286 (Ref:Cert-220-601.7.1.4)

nmlkj Water extinguisher

nmlkj Water or Air-Pressurized Water (APW) extinguisher

nmlkj Dry chemical extinguisher

nmlkj Carbon Dioxide extinguisher

Answer:

Carbon Dioxide extinguisher

of 396


You are a network engineer and determine that the air-conditioner of your server room is not functioning. What should you do FIRST?

Explanation: If you determine that the air conditioner of the server room is not functioning properly, you should first call the maintenance staff. It is the maintenance staff who will be responsible for proper functioning of electrical equipments, such as air conditioner, fans and tube lights installed in the server room. If any employee detects a problem with any of these electrical equipments, they should first inform the maintenance staff. You should not try to fix the air conditioner yourself because this is not a practical solution. Air conditioners are complex electrical equipments and only experts should service them. Rules and regulations regarding servicing of electrical equipments are generally mentioned in the company's policies. You should not call the security staff because it is the maintenance staff which is responsible for the proper functioning electrical equipments deployed in computer rooms. Security staff is typically responsible for physical security, such as restricting any unauthorized persons from entering the office premises and checking on the hardware components being taken into or out of the office premises. You should not inform the network administrator or the supervisor first if you find that the air-conditioner of your server room is not functioning. In case the air conditioner is not functioning, the maintenance staff should be the first one to be informed. Later on, you can inform the network administrator or your supervisor.

Item: 287 (Ref:Cert-220-601.7.1.3)

nmlkj Try to fix the air conditioner.

nmlkj Call the maintenance staff.

nmlkj Call the security staff.

nmlkj Inform the network administrator.

nmlkj Inform your supervisor.

Answer:

Call the maintenance staff.

of 396


A major fire is detected in the basement of your company and a fire alarm is raised. What should be the FIRST step?

Explanation: When a major fire breaks out in the basement of your company, the first step that you should perform is to evacuate the building. In such a scenario, safety of employees is the highest priority. Therefore, you must evacuate the building, tell others to evacuate the building, and save as many lives as possible. Other things, such as data and property, are also important, but human life is given priority over all these. All the other options are incorrect because human safety is given higher priority than anything else in event of a crisis. Locating the fire extinguisher to douse the fire should not be done because firefighters can perform this task once the building is evacuated. Similarly, turning off the electricity, determining the type of fire, and calling the emergency personnel can be done once the building is evacuated.

Item: 289 (Ref:Cert-220-601.7.1.5)

nmlkj Evacuate the building.

nmlkj Locate the fire extinguisher to douse the fire.

nmlkj Turn off the electricity.

nmlkj Call the emergency personnel.

nmlkj Determine the type of fire.

Answer:

Evacuate the building.

of 396


Which steps can be used as preventive measures against static electricity? (Choose all that apply.)

Explanation: The following steps can be used as preventive measures against static electricity:

� Wear anti-static bands while servicing computer components.

� Have proper grounding of building and outlets.

Wearing anti-static bands or wrist straps while servicing computer components will ensure that the static electricity is not passed on to computer components when a technician is servicing a computer. The anti-static bands or wrist straps needs to grounded to an earthing point. Even a small amount of static electricity can damage internal computer components, such as motherboard, random access memory, and hard disk. Ensuring proper grounding of buildings and outlets will also prevent against static electricity because objects that are not properly grounded can generate static electricity. Ensuring the humidity level does not become too high will not act as a preventive measure against static electricity because static electricity is not generated in humid conditions. Static electricity is typically generated in dry conditions when the humidity is low. Therefore, to prevent against static electricity, you should ensure that humidity level does not become too low. High humidity can causes corrosion but not cause static electricity. Wearing leather sole shoes will not act as a preventive measure against static electricity. Shoes are known to be conductors of static electricity, and, therefore, wearing leather sole shoes will help in transfer of static electricity instead of preventing it. Rubber sole shoes can provide some resistance to static electricity if they soles are made up of conductive rubber that scatters static electricity. Ensuring that sensitive areas, such as server rooms, are carpeted will not act as a preventive measure against static electricity. Carpets are known to be conductors of static electricity, and special care should be taken if you want a carpet in the server room. As carpets are considered to be conductors of static electricity, you should ensure that either the carpets themselves are anti-static, or the carpets are sprayed with anti-static agent.

Item: 291 (Ref:Cert-220-601.7.2.2)

gfedc Wear anti-static bands while servicing computer components.

gfedc Ensure that the humidity level does not become too high.

gfedc Wear leather sole shoes.

gfedc Have proper grounding of building and outlets.

gfedc Ensure that sensitive areas, such as server rooms, are carpeted.

Answer:

Wear anti-static bands while servicing computer components.

Have proper grounding of building and outlets.

of 396


You have been given a form to review during the interview process for a new job. The form includes sections requesting safety measures, fire fighting procedures, transportation requirements, and first aid measures. Which form are you reviewing?

Explanation: Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) is a data sheet that is used and filled by the chemical manufacturers. When a chemical manufacturer sells the chemicals to a company, the MSDS data sheet must be completed by the manufacturer and provided to the company for reference. The MSDS contains important information regarding chemicals that were shipped by the chemical manufacturer and includes substance properties, identification of substances, the storage type used by substances, fire fighting procedures, substance handling, safety information, and spillover cleanup procedures. The company that receives the chemicals should make the MSDS available to the employees. It usually also contains the name of the manufacturer. CSS does not contain the information mentioned in the scenario. A CSS is used for formatting HTML pages. You can use CSS to design the HTML pages by adding preformatted information, such as specific paragraph type and color type to the text being added in a text box. Using CSS, you do not have to design the HTML pages and format them individually. You can use CSS and HTML pages that are formatted according to the CSS attached to them. Manager's Safety Data Sheet is a nonexistent term. In a company, an Employee Information Data Sheet is typically used by the human resources department to track each employee's information. The Employee Information Data Sheet will not contain the information mentioned in this scenario.

Item: 292 (Ref:Cert-220-601.7.1.9)

nmlkj Cascading Style Sheet (CSS)

nmlkj Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)

nmlkj Manager's Safety Data Sheet

nmlkj Employee Information Data Sheet

Answer:

Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)

of 396


You are an on-site technician at a customer's residence to fix a new motherboard. You find that the carpet of the computer room has become damp due to moisture. Which of the following precautions should you take?

Explanation: In this scenario, since the carpet has become damp with moisture, you should wear rubber sole shoes while fixing the motherboard. The combination of water and electricity can be lethal and care should be taken to ensure that you have no contact with either component. Rubber is a bad conductor of electricity and it will not allow electric current to pass from the damp ground through your body. If you find large amounts of water in the computer room, you should warn the customer that presence of water in the computer room may invalidate the server warranty. Wearing an anti-static wrist strap will not prevent you from coming in contact with electricity or the damp ground. In this scenario, you should prevent a direct contact with electric current and the damp carpet. To avoid this you should use rubber shoes as a barrier between the damp carpet and your body. An anti-static wrist strap is used as a precautionary measure to prevent damage against static charge. It cannot protect you against electric current. Asking the customer to remove the damp carpet is not a practical solution when you are an on-site technician and are working at the customer's residence. Placing the computer and all the hardware components on an anti-static bag will not prevent you from coming in contact with electricity and the damp ground simultaneously. Hardware components are placed on an anti-static bag to prevent damage against static charge. Using rubber handled needle nose pliers for all maintenance tasks will not prevent you from coming in contact with electricity and the damp ground simultaneously. Rubber handled needle nose pliers are used to safely screw or unscrew computer peripherals to the computer.

Item: 298 (Ref:Cert-220-601.7.2.4)

nmlkj Wear rubber sole shoes.

nmlkj Wear anti-static wrist strap.

nmlkj Ask the customer to remove the damp carpet.

nmlkj Place the computer and all the hardware components on an anti-static bag.

nmlkj Use rubber handled needle nose pliers for all maintenance tasks.

Answer:

Wear rubber sole shoes.

of 396


Which information is NOT available in Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) for a chemical product?

Explanation: MSDS for a chemical product does not contain prices per unit for the chemical product. All chemical products are accompanied by a MSDS document. The MSDS for a chemical product contains information, such as manufacturer name, emergency phone numbers, fire-fighting procedures, first-aid procedures, health hazards, reactivity data, and flash point. A MSDS document should be provided to employees, if any chemical products are being used at a workplace. All other options are incorrect because MSDS does provide information about health hazard data, fire and explosion data, and reactivity data.

Item: 299 (Ref:Cert-220-601.7.1.6)

nmlkj Price per unit

nmlkj Health Hazard data

nmlkj Fire and Explosion data

nmlkj Reactivity data

Answer:

Price per unit

of 396


While performing computer maintenance you dropped a small jumper inside the computer case. Which tool will you use to pick up the jumper from the case?

Explanation: You can use needle nose pliers to pick up the dropped jumper from the computer case. Electricians or computer engineers use needle nose pliers to cut wires or grip small screws or jumpers. These pliers have a long nose which makes it easier to grip small articles, such as screws and jumpers, from closely bound electrical enclosures. Additionally, it has sharp edges which also make it appropriate to cut wires. A clamp cannot be used to pick up the dropped jumper from the computer case. A clamp is a fastening tool used to fasten screws to hold objects together tightly so that application of pressure does not loosen them. An electric screwdriver cannot be used to pick up the dropped jumper from the computer case. An electric screwdriver is a repair tool used by computer engineers to quickly assemble and disassemble computer components. A screwdriver with magnetic tip should not be used to pick up the dropped jumper from the computer case because a magnetic field can damage the hardware components in the computer, such as motherboard, hard disk, and memory chips. Additionally, a screwdriver is not required in this scenario because a screw driver is used to fasten and unfasten screws. It cannot be used to pick up screws or jumpers.

Item: 300 (Ref:Cert-220-601.7.1.2)

nmlkj needle nose pliers

nmlkj clamp

nmlkj electric screwdriver

nmlkj screwdriver with magnetic tip

Answer:

needle nose pliers

of 396


Which printer component contains harmful substances?

Explanation: The laser printer toner contains harmful substances that may cause irritation to the skin and eyes. You should be cautious while handling a laser printer toner. The printer handling guidelines suggest that you should keep toner away from your nose and eyes. While disposing the laser printer toner as suggested by most regulations, you should ensure that you are disposing the toner at a dumpsite that is labeled as a Subtitle D dumpsite. This dumpsite is authorized by the government regulations for handling harmful and hazardous substances. A platen does not contain harmful substances. A platen is a roller in a dot matrix printer that pushes the paper for printing. A ribbon cartridge does not contain harmful substances. A ribbon cartridge is a roll of ribbon used in dot matrix printer. The ribbon is situated between the paper and the print head. The inkjet printer cartridge does not contain harmful substances. The inkjet printer cartridge contains liquid ink that is used by the inkjet printer to print documents.

Item: 301 (Ref:Cert-220-601.7.1.8)

nmlkj platen

nmlkj ribbon cartridge

nmlkj laser printer toner

nmlkj inkjet printer cartridge

Answer:

laser printer toner

of 396


Where will you get instructions about the fire-fighting procedures for a chemical product?

Explanation: All chemical products are accompanied by a Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) document. The MSDS for a chemical product contains information, such as manufacturer name, emergency phone numbers, fire-fighting procedures, first-aid procedures, and flash point. MSDS document should be provided to employees, if any chemical products are being used at a work place. The Hazardous Materials (HAZMAT) sign does not provide information about fire-fighting procedures for a chemical product. The HAZMAT sign is used to specify restriction on the entrance of vehicles transporting hazardous material in tunnels and residential areas. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) Web site does not provides information about fire-fighting procedures for a chemical product. The EPA Web site provides information about environmental related issues. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) Web site does not provides information about fire-fighting procedures for a chemical product. The OSHA Web site provides information and guidelines about safety and health regulations for workplaces.

Item: 304 (Ref:Cert-220-601.7.1.7)

nmlkj Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS)

nmlkj Hazardous Materials (HAZMAT) sign

nmlkj Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) Web site

nmlkj Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) Web site

Answer:

Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS)

of 396


Which switch should you use with the Format command-line utility to specify a volume label to ensure that you are not prompted for the volume label after the formatting of a hard disk drive is complete?

Explanation: You should use the /v switch with the Format command-line utility. The Format utility allows you to remove all data from a hard disk drive. You can run the Format utility by either right-clicking on a hard disk drive icon in My Computer and selecting the Format option, or use the Format command-line utility to format a hard disk drive. You must have administrative rights to format a hard disk drive. There are several switches that can be used with the Format command-line utility. The /v switch allows you to specify a volume label so that you are not prompted for the volume label after the formatting of a hard disk drive is complete. You cannot use the /fs switch to specify the volume label. The /fs switch is used to specify the file system to use, such as FAT, FAT32, or NTFS. You cannot use the /c switch to specify the volume label. The /c switch is used to compress files that are created on the new volume. You cannot use the /x switch to specify the volume label. The /x switch causes the volume to dismount, if necessary, before it is formatted.

Security

Item: 1 (Ref:Cert-220-601.6.2.2)

nmlkj /fs

nmlkj /c

nmlkj /v

nmlkj /x

Answer:

/v

of 396


Which group's membership is required to format a hard disk drive on a Windows XP computer in a workgroup?

Explanation: The Administrators group's membership is required to format a hard disk drive on a Windows XP computer. The Format utility allows you to remove all data from a hard disk drive. You can run the Format utility by either right-clicking on a hard disk drive icon in My Computer and selecting the Format option, or you can use the Format command-line utility to format a hard disk drive. You must be a member of the Administrators group to format a hard disk drive. The options stating Power Users and Users groups are incorrect because you must be a member of the Administrators group to format a hard disk drive. You can format a hard disk drive if you are a member of the Domain Admins group, but the Domain Admins group is not available on a Windows XP computer that is a member of a workgroup. It is only available on domain member computers.

Item: 4 (Ref:Cert-220-601.6.2.3)

nmlkj the Power Users group

nmlkj the Users group

nmlkj the Administrators group

nmlkj the Domain Admins group

Answer:

the Administrators group

of 396


Which security principal holds the default right to allow or deny permission to access an object on a Windows XP computer?

Explanation: The owner holds the default right to allow or deny permission to access an object on a Windows XP computer. An object's owner can give another security principal permission to take ownership of that object. After taking the ownership of the object, the new security principal can allow or deny permission to access the object. The members of the Power Users group do not hold the default right to allow or deny permission to access an object on a Windows XP computer. The Power Users group primarily provides backward compatibility for running non-certified applications. Members of the Power Users group have more permissions than members of the Users group and fewer than members of the Administrators group. The members of the Power Users group can perform any operating system task except tasks reserved for the Administrators group. If a Power User attempts to access an object that can only be accessed by its owner, the Power User will not be able to access that object. The options stating Built-in Administrators group and built-in Administrator account are incorrect. By default, the built-in Administrators group on a Windows XP computer is assigned a user right that allows this group to take ownership of all objects on the computer. The members of the Administrators group or the local Administrator cannot allow or deny permission to access an object without first taking ownership of the object.

Item: 5 (Ref:Cert-220-601.6.3.7)

nmlkj Creator/Owner

nmlkj Power User

nmlkj Built-in Administrators group

nmlkj Built-in Administrator account

Answer:

Creator/Owner

of 396


What can you use to secure a Windows XP computer by directly downloading security and bug-related fixes for various Windows-related products?

Explanation: You can use Windows Update to secure your computer by directly downloading security and bug-related fixes Windows Update offers a location for downloading critical system component updates, service packs, security fixes, patches, and free upgrades to selected Windows components. These updates help you keep your Windows XP computer secure and up-to-date. You cannot use SUS or WSUS to secure your computer by directly downloading security and bug-related fixes for various Windows-related products. SUS and WSUS are Microsoft's free patch management tools. SUS has been replaced with a new version of the patch management tool called WSUS. WSUS and SUS do not allow you to secure a Windows XP computer by directly downloading. To use SUS or WSUS, you must configure a SUS or WSUS server and configure all client computers to use Automatic Updates to be able to download and install updates. SUS and WSUS do not allow you to download and install updates for all Windows-related products. You cannot use Windows Firewall to secure you computer by directly downloading security and bug-related fixes for various Windows-related products. Windows Firewall is a program that protects your computer by blocking unauthorized access to your computer. Windows Firewall blocks communications that might actually be dangerous software trying to connect to your computer. Windows Firewall is available when you upgrade to Windows XP Service Pack 2 (SP2). When you enable Automatic Updates, Windows Firewall is also enabled. You cannot use Windows Firewall to secure a Windows XP computer by directly downloading security and bug-related fixes for various Windows-related products.

Item: 6 (Ref:Cert-220-601.6.2.5)

nmlkj Windows Firewall

nmlkj Windows Software Update Services (WSUS)

nmlkj Software Update Services (SUS)


Answer:

Windows Update

of 396


You are a network administrator for Nutex Corporation. Your organization implements a wireless network. You have been tasked with designing the end-user security training that will be given to all employees regarding the wireless network. Which security issue should you cover?

Explanation: You should ensure that social engineering attacks are covered in the end-user wireless network security training. End users should always be aware of the social engineering techniques that can be used by hackers. A wireless network security policy should cover end-user training on security solutions and social engineering training. You should not ensure that DOS attacks are covered in the end-user wireless network security training. This information should be covered in the IT technician and administrator wireless network security training. You should not ensure that physical security issues are covered in the end-user wireless network security training. This information should be covered in the IT technician and administrator wireless network security training. You should not ensure that smart card usage is covered in the end-user wireless network security training. Smart card usage training should only be implemented if smart cards are used on your network.

Item: 8 (Ref:Cert-220-601.6.2.9)

nmlkj denial of service (DOS) attacks

nmlkj physical security issues

nmlkj social engineering attacks

nmlkj smart card usage

Answer:

social engineering attacks

of 396


Which security principal is assigned a user right that allows the security principal to take ownership of all objects on a computer running Windows XP Professional?

Explanation: The built-in Administrators group is assigned a user right that allows the members of the Administrators group to take ownership of all objects on a computer running Windows XP Professional. The members of the Administrators group can allow or deny permission to access an object after taking ownership of the object. The built-in Power Users group is not assigned a user right that allows the members of the Power Users group to take ownership of all objects on a computer running Windows XP Professional. The members of the Power Users group can perform any operating system task except tasks reserved for the Administrators group. The owner of an object is not assigned a user right that allows the owner to take ownership of all objects on a computer running Windows XP Professional. An object's owner can give another security principal permission to take ownership of that object. The owner of an object cannot take ownership of another object for which the owner does not have appropriate permissions. The Users group is not assigned a user right that allows the members of the Users group to take ownership of all objects on a computer running Windows XP Professional. The members of the Users group cannot modify operating system settings or other users' data. The members of the Users group have full control over only their own data and their own portion of the registry.

Item: 9 (Ref:Cert-220-601.6.3.6)

nmlkj the built-in Power Users group

nmlkj the built-in Administrators group

nmlkj the creator/owner


Answer:

the built-in Administrators group

of 396


Which operation must you undertake to avoid mishandling of tapes, floppies, and printed material?

Explanation: Proper labeling is required to avoid mishandling of the information on storage media, such as tapes and floppy disks. Compact discs and floppy disks are used to store small data sets while backup tapes are used to store large numbers of data sets. Storage media containing confidential information must be appropriately marked and labeled to ensure appropriate classification. The storage media should also be stored in a protected area. Each media should be labeled with the following details:

� classification

� date of creation

� retention period

� volume name and version

� name of the person who created the backup

Degaussing is not a media handling technique but a media sanitization technique. Degaussing is the process of reducing or eliminating an unwanted magnetic field of a storage media. Degaussing refers to a method of sanitizing the storage media by using magnetic forces. Degaussing devices generate powerful opposing magnetic fields that reduce the magnetic flux density of the storage media to zero. Degaussing is the most preferred method for erasing data from magnetic media, such as floppy disks and magnetic tapes. Zeroization is not a media handling technique but a media sanitization technique. Zeroization implies that a storage media is repeatedly overwritten with null values, such as multiple ones and zeros, for sanitization. Zeroization is generally used in a software development environment. Data transfer to an offsite location should take place to create a backup copy of the media if there is a disaster at the primary site. Data transferred to an offsite location acts as a backup copy of the data. The storage media should be labeled appropriately to prevent mishandling.

Item: 10 (Ref:Cert-220-601.6.3.9)

nmlkj labeling

nmlkj degaussing

nmlkj zeroization

nmlkj offsite storage

Answer:

labeling

of 396


Which files contain a profile of each known virus and are checked by antivirus software to identify a virus?

Explanation: The virus definitions contain a profile of each known virus and are checked by antivirus software to identify a virus. Virus definitions are files that contain a profile of each known virus. The antivirus programs use these definitions to identify and delete the viruses from your computer. Since new viruses come out all the time, you should install most current virus definitions for your antivirus software so that the software is able to scan and identify the new viruses, and delete them from your computer. A service pack is a cumulative set of hotfixes, security patches, critical updates, and updates since the release of a product. A service pack may also contain many resolved problems that have not been made available through any other software updates. A service pack does not contain a profile of each known virus and is not checked by antivirus software to identify a virus. Hotfixes are packages that are composed of one or more files used to address a problem in a product. Hotfixes do not contain a profile of each known virus and are checked by antivirus software to identify a virus. A security patch is a fix for a specific product addressing a security vulnerability. A security patch does not contain a profile of each know virus and is not checked by antivirus software to identify a virus.

Item: 15 (Ref:Cert-220-601.6.2.6)

nmlkj Service pack

nmlkj Hotfixes

nmlkj Security patches

nmlkj Virus definitions

Answer:

Virus definitions

of 396


What is the most recent software from Microsoft that helps you prevent your computer from malware and spyware threats?

Explanation: Windows Defender is the most recent software from Microsoft that helps you prevent your computer from malware and spyware threats. Windows Defender is a free software from Microsoft that protects your computer against pop-ups, slow performance, and security threats that are caused by spyware and other potentially unwanted software. Windows Defender is currently in beta-testing and can be downloaded from Microsoft's Web site. You can use Windows Defender to remove and quarantine spyware on Windows 2000, Windows XP, Windows Server 2003, and Windows Vista operating systems. Spyware and malware are malicious software that threatens the security and privacy of computer users. Spyware and malware are installed on a computer through deceit or trickery without a user's knowledge or consent. This type of spyware and malware can range from unwanted pop-up ads to programs that can record keystrokes or take over a computer. The best method to help prevent spyware and malware threat is to inform user about the risks involved and how to avoid these risks. Microsoft Windows Malicious Software Removal Tool is not the most recent software from Microsoft that helps you prevent your computer from malware and spyware threats. Microsoft Windows Malicious Software Removal Tool helps you remove specific, prevalent malicious software from computers that are running Microsoft Windows Server 2003, Microsoft Windows XP, or Microsoft Windows 2000. However, this tool does not protect your computer from spyware and malware in real-time. This tool searches your computer for malware and spyware only when you run it. Also, Microsoft Windows Malicious Software Removal tool is not the most recent anti-spyware software from Microsoft. Microsoft AntiSpyware is not the most recent software from Microsoft that helps you prevent your computer from malware and spyware threats. Microsoft AntiSpyware is the previous version of Microsoft Defender. Ad-Aware SE Personal is a free anti-spyware software from Lavasoft that provides you with advanced protection against spyware and malware. Ad-Aware SE Personal is not a Microsoft product.

Item: 49 (Ref:Cert-220-601.6.4.3)

nmlkj Microsoft Windows Malicious Software Removal Tool

nmlkj Windows Defender

nmlkj Microsoft AntiSpyware

nmlkj Ad-Aware SE Personal

Answer:

Windows Defender

of 396


Christine, a user, reports that her new scanner is making a loud clicking noise when it starts up. You investigate and discover the lamp comes on, but it does not scan the document. What could be the MOST likely cause of this problem?

Explanation: The locked lamp could be the most likely cause of the problem in this scenario. Most scanners have a locking feature to protect the internal parts from moving during shipping. Usually it is the lamp assembly that moves across the document to scan it. Therefore, you must unlock the lamp assembly before using your new scanner. When you use a new scanner without unlocking the lamp, the scanner makes a loud clicking noise and does not work. The incorrect driver could not be the most likely cause of the problem in this scenario. If the driver is incorrect, the scanner will not be recognized by the computer. In this scenario, the lamp comes on when you start the scanner, which indicates that the driver is correct. A faulty lamp could not be the most likely cause of the problem in this scenario because the lamp comes on when you start the scanner. This indicates the lamp is not faulty. A faulty motor could not be the most likely cause of the problem in this scenario because the scanner makes clicking noises when you start it. This clicking noise usually comes when the lamp assembly attempts to move, but the lock prevents it from moving across the document.

Item: 57 (Ref:Cert-220-601.6.3.3)

nmlkj The incorrect driver is installed.

nmlkj The lamp is faulty.

nmlkj The motor that drives the lamp assembly is faulty.

nmlkj The lamp is locked.

Answer:

The lamp is locked.

of 396


What are the two MOST common types of BIOS passwords that can be set to restrict access to a computer and to protect the CMOS settings within the BIOS? (Choose two.)

Explanation: The User password and the Supervisor password are the two types of passwords that can be set to restrict access to a computer and to protect the CMOS settings within the BIOS. These two types of passwords are commonly found in the BIOS of most modern computers. The User password restricts access to a computer by requiring each user who is trying to start the computer to enter the password. The Supervisor password restricts access to BIOS settings to ensure that unauthorized users are not able to change the BIOS settings. The computer prompts for the User password each time a user attempts to boot a computer. The computer prompts for the Supervisor password each time a user attempts to enter the BIOS setup program. The options stating local administrator password and guest password are incorrect because these two types of passwords are not found in the BIOS settings.

Item: 58 (Ref:Cert-220-601.6.3.2)

gfedc Local administrator password

gfedc User password

gfedc Supervisor password

gfedc Guest password

Answer:

User password

Supervisor password

of 396


What is the aim of security awareness training?

Explanation: The primary aim of security awareness training is to ensure that all employees understand their security responsibilities, the ethical conduct expected from them, and the acceptable use of an effective security program. It is important to understand the corporate culture and its effect on the security of the organization. User responsibilities for protection of information assets are defined in the organization's information security policies, procedures, standards, and best practices developed for information protection. Security awareness training may be customized for different groups of employees, such as senior management, technical staff, and users. Each group has different responsibilities and they need to understand security from a perspective pertaining to their domain. For example, the security awareness training for the management group should focus on a clear understanding of the potential risks, exposure, and legal obligations resulting from loss of information. Technical staff should be well versed regarding the procedures, standards, and guidelines to be followed. User training should include examples of acceptable and unacceptable activities and the implication of noncompliance. User training might be focused on threats, such as social engineering, which can lead to the divulgence of confidential information that may hamper business operations by compromising the confidentiality and the integrity of information assets. Staff members should particularly be made aware of such attacks to avoid unauthorized access attempts. Before developing security awareness training, it is important that the corporate environment is fully understood.

Item: 59 (Ref:Cert-220-601.6.4.6)

nmlkj All employees must understand their security responsibilities.

nmlkj All employees in the IT department should be able to handle security incidents.

nmlkj All employees excluding top management should understand the legal implications of loss of information.

nmlkj All employees in the IT department should be able to handle social engineering attacks.

Answer:

All employees must understand their security responsibilities.

of 396


What should you do after deleting the temporary Internet files if you are unable to connect to Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) secured Web sites by using Internet Explorer in Windows XP?

Explanation: You should add the SSL secured Web site to the Trusted sites zone, and clear the SSL cache. When you are unable to connect to Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) secured Web sites by using Internet Explorer in Windows XP, you should first delete the temporary Internet files and cookies. If you are unable to connect to the secured Web site even after deleting the temporary Internet files, you should configure the security and content settings in Internet Explorer. You should add the Web site to the Trusted sites zone, and clear the SSL cache. You should select the Trusted sites zone on the Security tab of the Internet Options dialog box to add the Web site to the Trusted sites zone. You should click the Clear SSL State button on the Content tab on the Internet Options dialog box to clear the SSL cache. When the SSL certificate of the Web site is no longer valid for Internet Explorer, you should reset the security settings of Internet Explorer by removing the Web site from the Trusted sites zone. You should not add the SSL secured Web site to the Local intranet zone. The Local intranet zone contains Web sites that are found on the intranet. In this scenario, the secured Web site is not located on your intranet. Therefore, adding the SSL secured Web site to the Local intranet zone will not be useful. You should not add the SSL secured Web site to the Internet zone. The Internet zone is for Internet Web sites, except those listed in Trusted sites and Restricted sites zones. You cannot add any site to the Internet zone. You should not delete stored passwords. When you delete stored passwords, the passwords that are automatically filled in when you log on to a Web site you have previously visited are deleted. Deleting stored passwords will not be useful in this scenario.

Item: 63 (Ref:Cert-220-601.6.3.1)

gfedc Add the SSL secured Web site to the Trusted sites zone.

gfedc Add the SSL secured Web site to the Local intranet zone.

gfedc Add the SSL secured Web site to the Internet zone.

gfedc Clear the SSL cache.

gfedc Delete stored passwords.

Answer:

Add the SSL secured Web site to the Trusted sites zone.

Clear the SSL cache.

of 396


Which feature in Windows XP notifies you when critical updates are available for your computer?

Explanation: The Automatic Updates feature notifies you when critical updates are available for your computer. The Automatic Updates service enables the download of updates from Microsoft's Windows Update Web site. This service automatically downloads and installs the latest updates, drivers, and enhancements from Microsoft. Automatic Updates keep your computer secure and up-to-date. This procedure for keeping your system secure and up-to-date is referred to as patch management. Windows Update is a Web site that allows users to directly download updates for various Windows-related products. You can use Windows Update to secure your computer by directly downloading security and bug-related fixes for various Windows-related products. Windows Update offers a location for downloading critical system component updates, service packs, security fixes, patches, and free upgrades to selected Windows components. The Windows Updates Web site does not automatically notify you when critical updates are available. You can configure the Automatic Updates feature to ensure that Windows XP notifies when critical updates are available for download from the Windows Update Web site. SUS and WSUS do not notify you when critical updates are available for your computer. SUS and WSUS are Microsoft's free patch management tools. SUS has been replaced with a new version of the patch management tool called WSUS. To use SUS or WSUS, you must configure a SUS or WSUS server and configure all client computers to use Automatic Updates to be able to download and install updates. SUS and WSUS do not allow you to download and install updates directly.

Item: 66 (Ref:Cert-220-601.6.4.1)

nmlkj Automatic Updates


nmlkj Windows Software Update Services (WSUS)

nmlkj Software Update Services (SUS)

Answer:

Automatic Updates

of 396


Which two methods are used to monitor access control violations? (Choose two.)

Explanation: IDSs and audit logs are used to monitor access control violations. ACLs are al method of access control. They cannot be used to monitor violations. Backups are a method used to compensate for access violations because they allow you to recover your data. Other compensating measures include business continuity planning and insurance.

Item: 68 (Ref:Cert-220-601.6.3.8)

gfedc Access control lists (ACLs)

gfedc Intrusion detection systems (IDSs)

gfedc backups

gfedc audit logs

Answer:

Intrusion detection systems (IDSs)

audit logs

of 396


Which malicious software relies on other applications to execute and infect the system?

Explanation: A virus is malicious software (malware) that relies on other application programs to execute and infect a system. The main criterion for classifying a piece of executable code as a virus is that it spreads itself by means of hosts. The hosts could be any application on the system. A virus infects a system by replicating itself through application hosts. The different types of viruses are as follows:

� Stealth virus: It hides the changes it makes as it replicates.

� Self-garbling virus: It formats its own code to prevent antivirus software from detecting it.

� Polymorphic virus: It can produce multiple operational copies of itself.

� Multipart virus: It can infect system files and boot sectors of a computer system.

� Macro virus: It generally infects the system by attaching itself to MS-Office applications.

� Boot sector virus: It infects the master boot record of the system and is spread via infected floppy disks

� Compression virus: It decompresses itself upon execution but otherwise resides normally in a system.

The standard security best practices for mitigating risks from malicious programs, such as viruses, worms and Trojans, include implementation of antivirus software, use of host-based intrusion detection system, and imposition of limits on the sharing and execution of programs. A worm does not require the support of application programs to be executed and is a self-contained program capable of executing and replicating on its own. Typically, a worm is spread by e-mails, transmission control protocols (TCP's), and disk drives. A logic bomb malware is similar to a time bomb that is executed at a specific time on a specific date. A logic bomb implies a dormant program that is triggered following a specific action by the user or after a certain interval of time. The primary difference between logic bombs, viruses, and worms is that a logic bomb is triggered when specific conditions are met. A Trojan horse is malware that is disguised as a useful utility but embeds malicious codes on itself. When the disguised utility is run, the Trojan horse performs malicious activities in the background and provides a useful utility at the front end. Trojan Horses use covert channels to perform malicious activities, such as deleting system files and planting a backdoor into a system.

Item: 88 (Ref:Cert-220-601.6.3.10)

nmlkj a virus

nmlkj a worm

nmlkj a logic bomb

nmlkj a Trojan horse

Answer:

a virus

of 396


You have stored confidential data on a Windows XP computer. You need to recommend a solution to ensure that other users accessing this computer with their login credentials should not have access to the confidential data. What should you recommend?

Explanation: You should implement Encrypting File System (EFS). EFS helps protect one user's data from other users logging on to the same computer because EFS is specific to user accounts. You can enable EFS encryption on any drive in a computer. You should also implement a firewall on a portable computer to prevent unauthorized remote connections. You should not implement an Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) VPN. This type of network is recommended when you need to allow remote users to connect via the Internet to resources within a corporate or private network. Users connect to the Internet, then tunnel into the VPN using IPSec. You should not implement New Technology File System (NTFS). Implementing NTFS will not provide the security you need. NTFS will allow you to configure permissions on files and folders in the computer, but will not protect local users from accessing the information. NTFS does not encrypt information. You should not implement Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP). PPTP allows you to access a private network through the Internet or other public network by using a VPN connection, but does not provide as much security as IPSec.

Item: 90 (Ref:Cert-220-601.6.2.10)

nmlkj Implement an Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) virtual private network (VPN).

nmlkj Implement Encrypting File System (EFS).

nmlkj Implement New Technology File System (NTFS).

nmlkj Implement the Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP).

Answer:

Implement Encrypting File System (EFS).

of 396


You are sharing a portable computer with a vendor to work on a legacy application. What should you do to secure this computer from theft?

Explanation: You should use a T-bar locking mechanism to protect the portable computer from physical theft. A T-bar locking mechanism helps protect your devices from physical theft by locking the device to the desk. If you do not have a T-bar locking mechanism and you need to leave an unsecured computer at any time, you should lock the computer in a cabinet or drawer. You should not implement password protection, EFS encryption, or BitLocker encryption on the portable computer. None of these will prevent the computer from being stolen. Password protection will only provide protection against unauthorized access. EFS encryption protects user data from other users who have logged on to a computer. BitLocker encryption helps protect user data and system files from unauthorized access.

Item: 94 (Ref:Cert-220-601.6.1.11)

nmlkj Use a T-bar locking mechanism.

nmlkj Implement password protection on the computer.

nmlkj Enable encrypting file system (EFS).

nmlkj Enable BitLocker.

Answer:

Use a T-bar locking mechanism.

of 396


What should you do to prevent unauthorized physical access to a server that contains confidential company data?

Explanation: You should place the server in a locked server room to prevent unauthorized physical access to a server that contains confidential company data. You must place your servers in a physically secure location to keep them safe from attacks, both physical as well as network attacks. Once the servers that contain confidential company data are compromised, your entire network is at risk. Therefore, you must protect your servers to protect your confidential company data. To protect your servers, you must ensure that servers are not vulnerable to physical calamities. You should locate servers in a secure, well-ventilated room. It is recommended that your server room should not have any windows and should have a single door that you can lock. Only authorized IT staff should have access to the server room keys. You can also implement some form of physical entry control, such as smart card, retina scan, or fingerprint scanning to protect the server room from unauthorized physical access. You should also instruct all IT staff to lock the server room while leaving the room. In the event when you find the server room left opened by another technician, you should first lock the room and then follow the company guidelines or policy to handle such issues. You should not protect the server by configuring a Firewall. A firewall does not protect a server from unauthorized physical access. A firewall protects a server from unauthorized network access. You should not only place the server in a separate room. You should also lock the server room to prevent unauthorized physical access to the server room. If the server room is not locked, any user can enter the server room, which will not prevent unauthorized physical access to the server. Locking the server cabinet will only prevent tampering with internal components of the server. To completely secure a server, you should place the server in a locked server room.

Item: 113 (Ref:Cert-220-601.6.4.2)

nmlkj Protect the server by configuring a Firewall.

nmlkj Place the server in a locked server room.

nmlkj Place the server in a separate room.

nmlkj Lock the server cabinet.

Answer:

Place the server in a locked server room.

of 396


You enable Windows Firewall on a Windows XP computer named WinPC1 before connecting it to the Internet. When you attempt to ping WinPC1, you receive the "Destination net unreachable" message. How should you configure Windows Firewall on WinPC1 to ensure that you are able to ping WinPC1?

Explanation: You should enable the Allow incoming echo request option on the ICMP Settings dialog box in the Windows Firewall. When you ping any computer, an Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) Echo request message is sent to the destination computer. The destination computer sends an ICMP Echo Reply message in response. By default, Windows Firewall does not allow incoming ICMP Echo messages, and, therefore, the computer cannot send an ICMP Echo Reply in response. To configure Windows Firewall locally to allow the incoming ICMP Echo message, you must enable the Allow incoming echo request option on the ICMP Settings dialog box. You can open the ICMP Settings dialog box by clicking the Settings button under the ICMP heading on the Advanced tab of the Windows Firewall dialog box. When you connect a computer to the Internet, it is recommended that you should enable Windows Firewall, and install all the available service packs to prevent your computer from unauthorized access and unwanted security threats. You should not enable the Allow incoming router request option. This option supports the ability to pass on information to its requestor about any routers to which the host is connected. Enabling the Allow incoming router request option will not enable you to ping WinPC1. You should not enable the Allow incoming timestamp request option. This option is used to ensure that the data sent to this computer can be acknowledged with a confirmation message indicating the time that the data was received. Enabling the Allow incoming timestamp request option will not enable you to ping WinPC1. You should not enable the Allow incoming mask request option. This option allows a computer to listen for and respond to requests for more information about the public network to which it is attached. Enabling the Allow incoming mask request option will not enable you to ping WinPC1.

Item: 114 (Ref:Cert-220-601.6.4.4)

nmlkj Enable the Allow incoming router request option.

nmlkj Enable the Allow incoming timestamp request option.

nmlkj Enable the Allow incoming echo request option.

nmlkj Enable the Allow incoming mask request option.

Answer:

Enable the Allow incoming echo request option.

of 396


On a computer running Windows XP Professional, members of which group can install only applications that do not modify operating system files or install system services?

Explanation: The members of the Power Users group can install only applications that do not modify operating system files or install system services. The Power Users group primarily provides backward compatibility for running non-certified applications. Members of the Power Users group have more permissions than members of the Users group and fewer than members of the Administrators group. The members of the Power Users group can perform any operating system task except tasks reserved for the Administrators group. The members of the Administrators group can install any application on a computer running Windows XP Professional. The members of Administrators group can perform tasks, such as installing the operating system and its components, installing service packs, and repairing the operating system. The members of the Users group cannot modify operating system setting or other user's data. The members of the Users group do not have permission to install any application. To install an application on a computer, the user must have administrative rights on the computer. To verify whether a user can install an application on a computer, you should check the user account settings to see if the user has sufficient permissions to install the application. The members of the Backup Operators group can back up and restore files on a computer, regardless of any permissions that protect those files. The members of the Backup Operators group can also log on to the computer and shut it down, but they cannot change security settings. The members of the Backup Operators group do not have permission to install any application on a computer running Windows XP.

Item: 117 (Ref:Cert-220-601.6.2.4)

nmlkj the Administrators group

nmlkj the Power Users group


nmlkj the Backup Operators group

Answer:

the Power Users group

of 396


You want to allow a help desk technician to delete files and subfolders within a folder named MiscFiles regardless of the permissions protecting the files and subfolders on a Windows XP computer. The Windows XP computer is a member of the domain in which the technician's user account is a member. What is the minimum permission that you should grant to the help desk technician to be able to delete files and subfolders within the MiscFiles folder?

Explanation: You should grant the Allow - Full Control permission to the help desk technician to allow this person to delete files and subfolders within the MiscFiles folder regardless of the permissions protecting the files and subfolders. You can configure file and folder permissions to specify which users or groups can access a particular file or folder. You can set file and folder permissions only on drives that are formatted to use NTFS file system. When you want to enable a user to delete files and subfolders within a folder, you should grant the Allow - Full Control permission to the user for that folder. While troubleshooting file and folder permissions, you should first verify the file and folder permissions on a hard drive if a user is unable to access some files on the hard drive. The Allow - Read permission enables a user to only read the contents of a file or a folder. The Allow - Read permission does not enable a user to modify or delete a file or subfolder within a folder. The Allow - Modify permission enables a user to perform actions, such as read contents of a file, append data to a file, and delete a file or a folder ,for which the user has been granted appropriate permissions. The Allow - Modify permission does not enable a user to delete files and subfolders for which the user does not have appropriate permissions. The Allow - Write permission enables a user to write data or append data to a file. The Allow - Write permission does not allow a user to delete files and subfolders.

Item: 127 (Ref:Cert-220-601.6.3.5)

nmlkj Allow - Read

nmlkj Allow - Modify

nmlkj Allow - Write

nmlkj Allow - Full Control

Answer:

Allow - Full Control

of 396


Which option is NOT an objective of a security awareness program?

Explanation: A security awareness program does NOT ensure non-violation of the security policy. A security awareness program promotes acceptable use and behavior, enforces compliance to the information security program, and communicates ramifications of violating the security policy. The main objective of security-awareness training is to make employees aware of their security responsibilities and of the expected ethical conduct and acceptable activities. The user must understand the acceptable and unacceptable activities and the implication of violating the security policy. A security awareness program focuses on compliance and the acceptable use of resources and ethical conduct in the organization. Users can either be penalized through disciplinary action or terminated for noncompliance to the security policy. The implementation of the security policy should be routinely monitored to trace security policy violations and attempted violations to ensure that appropriate personnel can be held responsible.

Item: 128 (Ref:Cert-220-601.6.4.5)

nmlkj to promote acceptable use and behavior

nmlkj to ensure non-violation of the security policy

nmlkj to enforce compliance to the information security program

nmlkj to communicate ramifications of violating the security policy

Answer:

to ensure non-violation of the security policy

of 396


Which two threats can be prevented in a wireless network by using the Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) protocol? (Choose two.)

Explanation: The WEP protocol is primarily used for guarding the wireless network against threats, such as eavesdropping. The WEP protocol is used for securing a wireless network. WEP is used to encrypt data packets during data transmission. This protects data packets from being altered during data transmission. The WEP protocol is not used for protecting a wireless network from virus attacks. The WEP protocol is not used for protecting a wireless network from denial of service attacks.

Item: 129 (Ref:Cert-220-601.6.1.3)

gfedc virus attacks

gfedc eavesdropping

gfedc denial of service

gfedc altered data packets

Answer:

eavesdropping

altered data packets

of 396


Which type of BIOS password can you configure to restrict access to the BIOS setup program?

Explanation: You should configure the Supervisor password to restrict access to the BIOS setup program. Modern computers use two passwords, namely User password and Supervisor password, to restrict access to a computer and to protect the CMOS settings within the BIOS. The Supervisor password restricts access to BIOS settings to ensure that unauthorized users are not able to change the BIOS settings. The User password can be used to restrict access to a computer. The computer prompts for the User password each time a user attempts to boot a computer. The computer prompts for the Supervisor password each time a user attempts to enter the BIOS setup program. You should not use the User password to restrict access to the BIOS setup program. The User password restricts access to a computer by requiring each user who is trying to start the computer to enter the password. The options stating administrator password and system password are incorrect because these two types of passwords are not found in the BIOS settings and cannot be configured to restrict access to a computer or the BIOS setup program.

Item: 138 (Ref:Cert-220-601.6.3.4)

nmlkj User password

nmlkj Supervisor password

nmlkj Administrator password

nmlkj System password

Answer:

Supervisor password

of 396


You are upgrading a Windows XP Professional computer with one hard drive to Windows XP Professional Service Pack 2 (SP2). What is the FIRST task that you should perform before upgrading the computer?

Explanation: Backing up data to an external media should be the FIRST task you perform before you upgrade the computer to Windows XP SP2. Windows XP Professional contains the Backup utility that helps you protect your files and other important information if your computer fails. You can use the Backup utility to back up the data on your hard drive to another hard drive, a tape drive, a CD, a DVD, or another computer. By backing up the data, you can easily restore the data from the archived copy if your hard drive is erased or damaged. It is recommended that you back up your data before performing a system upgrade or before you start servicing your computer. The System Restore tool enables you to create a system restore point that you can use to return your computer to a previous working state. System Restore takes a snapshot of critical system files and some program files and stores this information as restore points. The restore points are stored on the hard drive. Also, the System Restore utility does not help you protect your data. Therefore, creating a system restore point should not be the FIRST task in this scenario. Configuring volume Shadow Copy is not the most suitable task that you should perform in this scenario. The Volume Shadow Copy Service creates consistent point-in-time copies of data known as shadow copies. You can use two methods to create shadow copies namely full copy or differential copy. A full copy or clone is a complete copy of the original data on a volume. The differential copy or copy-on-write method creates shadow copies that are differential rather than full copies of the original data. In this scenario, the computer has only one hard drive; therefore, the shadow copies will be created on the same hard drive, which will not help you protect the data in the event the system fails while upgrading to Windows XP Professional SP2. ASR is a tool that enables you to recover your system in the event the system fails. You should use ASR after you have tried all other options to recover your system. ASR includes two parts, namely, ASR backup and ASR restore. You should run the ASR wizard that is located within the Backup utility to perform the ASR backup portion. The wizard backs up the system state, system services, and all the disks that are associated with the operating system components. ASR disks are used to start system recovery by using ASR. When you recover your system by using ASR, ASR tries to restore all the disk configurations, but it might not be able to do so under some circumstances. Therefore, creating ASR disks in this scenario would not be the most suitable task to protect the data.

Item: 140 (Ref:Cert-220-601.6.2.1)

nmlkj Back up data to an external media.

nmlkj Create a restore point.

nmlkj Configure Volume Shadow Copy.

nmlkj Create Automated System Recover (ASR) disks.

Answer:

Back up data to an external media.

of 396


Which network type uses WEP for security?

Explanation: An 802.11b wireless network uses WEP security technology. According to the published IEEE 802.11 standard, the acronym WEP stands for Wired Equivalent Privacy, but many variations can be found, such as Wireless Encryption Protocol. The concept is that computers are authenticated on the wireless network and data transmissions are encrypted, such that a level of wireless security exists that is equivalent to the security in a wired Ethernet network. To increase security on a wireless network, 802.11b networks can also implement a unique 32-bit Service Set Identifier, or SSID, for each wireless client that connects to an access point. The SSID is used to distinguish one wireless LAN (WLAN) from another WLAN. WEP is not used on 802.3 Ethernet networks or 802.5 Token-Ring networks. A Bluetooth network, which is wireless, uses a link key for authenticating devices on the network. The link key is a shared 128-bit secret key that is established during a special pairing session.

Item: 155 (Ref:Cert-220-601.6.1.9)

nmlkj 802.3

nmlkj 802.5

nmlkj 802.11b

nmlkj Bluetooth

Answer:

802.11b

of 396


You have configured the following filters on your company's packet-filtering firewall:

� Permit all traffic to and from local hosts.

� Permit all inbound tcp connections.

� Permit all ssh traffic to linux1.kaplanit.com.

� Permit all smtp traffic to smtp.kaplanit.com.

Which rule will most likely result in a security breach?

Explanation: The Permit all inbound tcp connections filter will most likely result in a security breach. This rule is one you will not see in most firewall configurations. By simply allowing all inbound tcp connections, you are not limiting remote hosts to certain protocols. Security breaches will occur because of this misconfiguration. You should only allow those protocols that remote hosts need. You should drop all others. In most cases, permitting all traffic to and from local hosts is a common firewall rule. If you configure firewall rules regarding local host traffic, you should use extreme caution. It is hard to predict the type of traffic originating with your local hosts. If you decide to drop certain types of traffic, users may complain about being unable to reach remote hosts. Limiting certain types of traffic, such as ssh and smtp traffic, to certain computers is a common firewall configuration. By using this type of rule, you can protect the other computers on your network from security breaches using those protocols or ports. Other common firewall packet filters include dropping inbound packets with the Source Routing option set, dropping router information exchange protocols, and dropping inbound packets with an internal source IP address. For the most part, filters blocking outbound packets with a specific external destination IP address are not used.

Item: 158 (Ref:Cert-220-601.6.1.6)

nmlkj Permit all traffic to and from local hosts.

nmlkj Permit all inbound tcp connections.

nmlkj Permit all ssh traffic to linux1.kaplanit.com.

nmlkj Permit all smtp traffic to smtp.kaplanit.com.

Answer:

Permit all inbound tcp connections.

of 396


What is the most common form of identification and authentication?

Explanation: The most common form of identification and authentication is user identification with reusable password. User identifications (IDs) and passwords are something you know, such as your personal information or a alpha-numeric word or phrase that you memorize. Biometrics, while not the most common form of identification and authentication, is more secure than user identification and passwords. Biometrics is something you are, such as a fingerprint. This type of authentication would be more secure than a password, because your fingerprint will never change. Smart cards are not commonly implemented because of the expense, however, they are more secure than using user identification and passwords. Smart cards, a Type 2 authentication factor, are something you have, such as a physical card that you must swipe or scan to gain access. Two-factor authentication must include two of the following three categories: something you know (Type I), some you have (Type II), or something you are (Type III). Two-factor authentication is not as common as user identification and passwords. When assessing identification and authentication controls, it is good practice to maintain a list of authorized users and their approved access levels. A password policy should force users to change their passwords at predefined intervals. User accounts should be terminated when employment is terminated or suspended while on vacation or leave. Account lockout policies can ensure that unsuccessful login attempts will eventually result in an account being locked out.

Item: 159 (Ref:Cert-220-601.6.1.8)

nmlkj biometrics

nmlkj smart cards

nmlkj two-factor authentication

nmlkj user identification with reusable password

Answer:

user identification with reusable password

of 396


Which password policy setting can you configure on a Windows XP computer to define number of days that a password must be kept before the user can change it?

Explanation: You can configure the Minimum password age setting on a Windows XP computer to define number of days that a password must be kept before the user can change it. The Minimum password age setting determines how many days a new password must be kept before the user can change it. The Minimum password age setting is designed to work with the Enforce password history setting to prevent users from changing back to their old passwords by quickly resetting their passwords the required number of times. While implementing a new password policy, you should encourage the users to create their passwords by using a combination of numbers and letters so that the passwords are difficult to guess. You should also encourage users to memorize their passwords instead of writing it down somewhere. The passwords that are written down on a piece of paper or stored in an easily accessible file on their computers can pose a big security threat to the users' computers. You cannot use the Enforce password history setting to define number of days that a password must be kept before the user can change it. The Enforce password history setting determines the number of unique new passwords a user must use before an old password can be reused. You cannot configure the Enforce password history setting to define number of days that a password must be kept before the user can change it. You cannot use the Maximum password age setting to define number of days that a password must be kept before the user can change it. The Maximum password age setting determines number of days a password can be used before the user is required to change it. You cannot configure the Maximum password age setting to define number of days that a password must be kept before the user can change it. You cannot use the Minimum password length setting to define number of days that a password must be kept before the user can change it. The Minimum password length determines the minimum number of characters a password must have. You cannot configure the Minimum password length setting to define number of days that a password must be kept before the user can change it.

Item: 163 (Ref:Cert-220-601.6.1.1)

nmlkj the Enforce password history setting

nmlkj the Maximum password age setting

nmlkj the Minimum password age setting

nmlkj the Minimum password length setting

Answer:

the Minimum password age setting

of 396


Which type of encryption method is recommended for a wireless home network to secure the wireless communication?

Explanation: The Wi-Fi Protected Access - Pre-Shared Key (WPA-PSK) encryption method is recommended for a wireless home network to secure the wireless communication. Enabling encryption is the most important step in securing a wireless communication. When you want to secure the wireless communication in a wireless home network, the recommended encryption method is WPA-PSK. To configure the WPA-PSK encryption method, you will be required to enter a string of characters that will be used as an encryption key. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) is not a recommended encryption method for a wireless home network. You should use WPA to secure wireless communication in a scenario where you have a large corporate wireless network and want to secure the wireless access of clients to the company's network. You can also configure the wireless router or wireless access point to prevent broadcasting to the Service Set Identifier (SSID). The SSID differentiates one network from another to ensure that multiple independent wireless networks can operate in the same physical area. Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (MS-CHAP) and Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol version 2 (MS-CHAP v2) are authentication protocols. You cannot use these protocols to encrypt wireless communication.

Item: 167 (Ref:Cert-220-601.6.1.2)

nmlkj Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA)

nmlkj Wi-Fi Protected Access - Pre-Shared Key (WPA-PSK)

nmlkj Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (MS-CHAP)

nmlkj Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol version 2 (MS-CHAP v2)

Answer:

Wi-Fi Protected Access - Pre-Shared Key (WPA-PSK)

of 396


Which option is NOT a component of basic Electronic Access Control (EAC) security?

Explanation: Door motion detectors are not used with basic EAC security. Door motion detectors detect movements in the door to guard against unauthorized access and thus prevent a security breach in the facility. The EAC security system uses electronic equipment to identify an authorized individual and provides the individual with access into a restricted area. EAC also allows an owner to increase employee productivity by preventing unrestricted traffic from flowing to different areas of the building. EAC can include proximity readers, biometric systems, and programmable locks. EAC can also integrate with CCTV and alarms for monitoring the facility premises.

Item: 179 (Ref:Cert-220-601.6.1.7)

nmlkj proximity reader

nmlkj biometric systems

nmlkj programmable locks

nmlkj door motion detector

Answer:

door motion detector

of 396


Which password policy setting allows you to configure how many new passwords must be created before an old one can be reused?

Explanation: Password history allows you to configure how many new passwords must be created before an old one can be reused. This setting enhances security by allowing the administrators to ensure that old passwords are not being reused continually. Reused passwords are sometimes referred to as rotating passwords. Password age allows you to configure the minimum or maximum number of days that pass before a user is required to change the password. It is a good security practice to enforce a password age of 30 to 60 days. Some companies force users to change their passwords monthly or quarterly. This interval should be determined based on how critical the information is and on how frequently passwords are used. Password length allows you to configure the minimum number of characters that must be used in a password. At minimum, this policy should be configured to seven or eight characters. You should not configure this value too high as it can make the password difficult to remember. Password lockout allows you to configure the number of invalid logon attempts that can occur before an account is locked. Usually this password lockout policy also allows you to configure the number of days that the account remains in this state. In some cases, you may want to configure the account lockout policy so that an administrator must be contacted to enable the account again. Password complexity allows you to configure which characters should make up a password to reduce the possibility of dictionary or brute force attacks. A typical password complexity policy would force the user to incorporate numbers, letters, and special characters. In addition, both uppercase and lowercase letters can be required. A password that uses a good mix, such as Ba1e$23q, is more secure than a password that only implements parts of these requirements, such as My32birthday, NewYears06, and John$59. Account policies should be enforced on all systems in the company. It is also a good practice to make sure that passwords are masked or encrypted. This encryption should occur on the storage device on which they are located. Also, encryption should be used when they are transmitted across the network. As a good practice, a user's password should never be the same as the login account.

Item: 184 (Ref:Cert-220-601.6.1.5)

nmlkj password age

nmlkj password length

nmlkj password history

nmlkj password lockout

nmlkj password complexity

Answer:

password history

of 396


As a consultant, you have created a new security structure for a company that requires that passwords be issued to all employees. The company's IT department has made several password distribution recommendations. Which method is the most secure?

Explanation: You should instruct users to report to the IT department with proper identification for password setup. This will ensure that users access the appropriate account to create a user password. Users should also be informed that storing passwords in text files is against security policy as it creates an unacceptable risk of theft. Instructing the users to request a password via e-mail or sending an e-mail message to each user containing their password are not secure methods. E-mail is not encrypted. Therefore, anyone can intercept e-mail messages. Issuing the same password to all users and forcing the users to change their passwords upon initial logon is not secure. Initially, any user would be able to access another user's account, especially if you use a common naming scheme for the user accounts.

Item: 189 (Ref:Cert-220-601.6.1.10)

nmlkj Instruct users to request passwords via e-mail.

nmlkj Send an e-mail to each user that contains the user's password.

nmlkj Instruct users to report to the IT department with proper identification for password setup.

nmlkj Issue the same password to all users. Upon initial logon, force the users to change their passwords.

Answer:

Instruct users to report to the IT department with proper identification for password setup.

of 396


What is the most important activity that users must undertake while handling confidential data?

Explanation: The most important activity that users must undertake while handling confidential data is logging off from a computer whenever they leave their workstations. Users must lock their computers and adhere to the clear screen policy. If the screen of a computer can be read when users are absent from their workstation, sensitive information will be disclosed to unauthorized users. Activities, such as logging off from workstations, locking systems, and using password-protected screensavers, enable you to maintain the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information. Operating systems generally encrypt authentication credentials, such as passwords, in encrypted forms in the server accounts database. Encryption of the password as it transmits the network is ensured by the protocol used on the network. Encryption of passwords may prove to be an inadequate measure if employees leave their desks without locking their computers. Auditing and monitoring act as a detective control to identify a security breach as a result of an unauthorized activity. Auditing and monitoring might not be effective if users are unaware of standard security practices. It is important to conduct security awareness programs at regular intervals to educate users regarding the best practices of implementing and maintaining security of the infrastructure and information assets that are vital to the business operations.

Item: 213 (Ref:Cert-220-601.6.2.8)

nmlkj encrypting passwords

nmlkj transferring data in an encrypted form

nmlkj logging off from the computer whenever they leave their workstations

nmlkj enabling auditing and monitoring on the computer whenever they leave their workstations

Answer:

logging off from the computer whenever they leave their workstations

of 396


Which protocol should you configure on a remote access server to authenticate remote users with smart cards?

Explanation: You should use the Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP). By using an EAP authentication protocol, such as EAP-Transport Level Security (EAP-TLS), for authentication, the remote access server can authenticate remote users with smart cards. The other authentication protocols listed do not support authentication using smart cards. Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) requires that users authenticate using a password. The password is transmitted in plain text, thereby allowing a possible security breach. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) provides a higher level of security. Passwords are not sent in plain text. Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (MS-CHAP) comes in two versions. Version 2 provides better security because it provides mutual authentication, meaning both ends of the connection are authenticated.

Item: 216 (Ref:Cert-220-601.6.2.7)

nmlkj EAP

nmlkj MS-CHAP

nmlkj CHAP

nmlkj PAP

Answer:

EAP

of 396


Which password setting is most important to ensure password strength?

Explanation: Password complexity is most important to ensure password strength. Password complexity allows you to configure which characters should be required in a password to reduce the possibility of dictionary or brute force attacks. A typical password complexity policy would force the user to incorporate numbers, letters, and special characters. Both uppercase and lowercase letters can be required. A password that uses a good mix, such as Ba1e$23q, is more secure than a password that only implements parts of these requirements, such as My32birthday, NewYears06, and John$59. Password age allows you to configure the minimum or maximum number of days before a user is required to change the user's password. It is a good security practice to enforce a password age of 30 to 60 days. Some companies force users to change their passwords monthly or quarterly. This interval should be determined based on how critical the information is and on how frequently passwords are used. Password history allows you to configure how many new passwords must be created before an old one can be reused. This setting enhances security by allowing the administrators to ensure that old passwords are not being reused continually. Passwords that are used repeatedly are sometimes referred to as rotating passwords. Password lockout allows you to configure the number of invalid logon attempts that can occur before an account is locked. Usually this password lockout policy also allows you to configure the number of days that the account remains in this state. In some cases, you may want to configure the account lockout policy so that an administrator must be contacted to re-enable the account. The use of strong passwords will help to prevent password cracking, which is the process of cracking the password using a dictionary or brute force attack. A security administrator should periodically test the strength of user passwords. The best method for testing is to copy the user password database to a stand-alone server, and use a password cracking program against the database.

Item: 239 (Ref:Cert-220-601.6.1.4)

nmlkj password age

nmlkj password history

nmlkj password lockout

nmlkj password complexity

Answer:

password complexity

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220-601 Test[1]

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