2010 Stpm Trial Physics Paper 1 Q&A

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CONFIDENTIAL* 1. Which of the following quantities has no units? A Strain B Young’s modulus C Momentum D Work 2. A body moving with constant acceleration experiences a constant A rate of change of distance B rate of change of displacement C rate of change of velocity D rate of change of force 3. A ball is projected vertically upwards reaching a maximum height of 50 m. What is its velocity after 4.0 s? A 7.9 m s -1 upwards B 7.9 m s -1 downwards C 9.7 m s -1 upwards D 9.7 m s -1 downwards 4. A sky diver falls with terminal velocity. Which of the statements below is an application of Newton’s third law? A His weight is balanced by the air resistance on him B Is weight is equal to the force on the Earth by him C The resultant force acting on him is zero D The force of gravity on him is equal to the resistance on him 5. 960/1 *This question paper is CONFIDENTIAL until the examination is over. CONFIDENTIAL* 1

Transcript of 2010 Stpm Trial Physics Paper 1 Q&A

Page 1: 2010 Stpm Trial Physics Paper 1 Q&A

CONFIDENTIAL*

1. Which of the following quantities has no units?

A Strain B Young’s modulus

C Momentum D Work

2. A body moving with constant acceleration experiences a constant

A rate of change of distance B rate of change of displacement

C rate of change of velocity D rate of change of force

3. A ball is projected vertically upwards reaching a maximum height of 50 m. What is its

velocity after 4.0 s?

A 7.9 m s -1 upwards B 7.9 m s -1 downwards

C 9.7 m s -1 upwards D 9.7 m s -1 downwards

4. A sky diver falls with terminal velocity. Which of the statements below is an application

of Newton’s third law?

A His weight is balanced by the air resistance on him

B Is weight is equal to the force on the Earth by him

C The resultant force acting on him is zero

D The force of gravity on him is equal to the resistance on him

5.

If the gain in momentum by the body in time 4.0 seconds is 10 kg m s -1, what is the

value of x?

A 4 N B 6 N C 8 N D 10 N

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F/N

Time/s

x

0 4321

1

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6. A pendulum bob is whirled round on a smooth horizontal surface by a string of length l at a

constant rate. If the tension in the string is kept constant, which of the following graphs

represents the relation between the speed v of the pendulum bob and the length l of the

string.

7. A torque on a rigid body is the

A rotational analogue of force

B rotational analogue of mass

C rate of change of linear momentum

D rate of change of rotational kinetic energy

8. Centre of mass of a body is

A The same as centre of gravity of the body

B The point at which the weight is considered to act.

C The point at which the mass is considered to concentrate.

D The point at which the body will rotate

9. A satellite of mass m going round the Earth in an orbit of radius r takes time T to

complete one revolution. Another satellite of mass 4m takes the same time T to complete

one revolution. The radius of the orbit of the second satellite is

A B C r D 2r

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l

l

A B

C D

v v

vv

l

lO O

OO

2

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10. Which of the following statements regarding simple harmonic motion is true ?

A Frequency decreases with time B Acceleration is constant

C Amplitude varies with time D Speed is maximum at equilibrium

11. A particle performs simple harmonic motion. Its velocity leads the displacement by a

phase of

A B C D

12. A car with a defective suspension system moves over a bump on the road. Which of

the following graphs correctly shows how the height h of the centre of gravity of the car

varies with time t?

A B

C D

13. Two points on a progressive wave differ in phase by 3/8 π radians. The distance between

them is 0.36 m. What is the wavelength?

A 0.12 m B 0.48 m C 0.96 m D 1.92 m

14. Two progressive waves are represented by the equations

y1 = 3.0 sin (20t + 2x) and y2 = 2.0 sin (10t + 5x)

Which of the following is the ratio of the intensity of y1 to that of y2?

A 0.40 B 1.50 C 2.25 D 4.00

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15. When a student blows slowly across an open end of a test tube a fundamental note of

frequency f results. If the student blows harder, the frequencies of the other overtones

are

A 2f, 3f B 3f, 3f C 3f, 4f D 3f, 5f

16. Beats of frequency 5.0 Hz is produced by the superposition of two notes of frequencies

F1 and f2. The waveform of the resultant wave is as shown. Which of the following gives

the values of the frequencies f1 and f2 ?

A f1 = 50 Hz, f2 = 44 Hz B f1 = 53 Hz, f2 = 47 Hz

C f1 = 75 Hz, f2 = 69 Hz D f1 = 210 Hz, f2 = 204 Hz

17. Which of the following statements is true about the energy and force between atoms in a

diatomic molecule?

A The force is zero when the potential energy is minimum

B The attractive force is maximum when the potential energy is zero

C The force is inversely proportional to the square of the separation between atoms

D The force changes from repulsive force (when the separation is large) to attractive

force (when the separation is small)

18. A wire is stretched beyond the elastic limit and then the applied force is removed. Which of

the following statements describes correctly the behavior of the stretched wire?

A The wire is broken

B The wire will have the permanent extension

C The length of the wire will remain the same as it was when the force was removed

D The wire returns to its original length

19. A rod of original length and cross-sectional area A is stretched by e. If E is the Young

Modulus of the rod, and the change in cross-sectional area of the rod can be neglected, the

energy per unit volume stored in the rod is

A B C D

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20. The diagram below shows the process of expansion for a fixed mass of an ideal gas.

What is the ratio for the gas molecule?

A B

C D

21. In a mixture of two monatomic gases Y and Z at thermal equilibrium, the molecular mass of

Y is double the molecular mass of Z. The mean translational kinetic energy for Z is 8.2 x 10 -

21J per molecule. The mean translational kinetic energy per molecule for Y is

A 4.1 x 10-21 J per molecule

B 5.5 x 10-21 J per molecule

C 8.2 x 10-21 J per molecule

D 16.4 x 10-21 J per molecule

22. The figure below shows isotherms for a fixed mass of an ideal gas at thermodynamic

temperatures T1 and T2.

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p / 105 Pa

Final state of gas

Initial state of gas8

6

4

2

0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 V / m3

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If T1 is 273.15 K, the ice point, then the value T2 is

A 91.05 K

B 364.20 K

C 364.21 K

D 819.45 K

23. Which of the following is true concerning the adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas?

A The internal energy of the gas increases

B The r.m.s speed of the gas molecules decreases

C The temperature of the gas does not change

D The external work done is more than the change in internal energy

24. The diagram shows a lagged metal rod of uniform cross section. Two ends of the rod are

maintain at steady temperature of 1 and 2. The graph shows the variation of temperature

along the rod in a steady state. Which of the following is true about variation of the rate of

heat flow through the rod, and the thermal conductivity, k of the material with distance,

x from the hot end?

k

A Decreases Unchanged

B Increases Unchanged

C Unchanged Decreases

D Unchanged Increases

25. Two properly insulated uniform rods, X and Y are arranged as shown in figure

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p

T1

3x T2

pV

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below.

Two properly insulated uniform rods, X and Y are arranged as shown in figure above. The thermal conductivity of X is 10 times that of Y. The rods are in steady condition. Which one of the following statement is correct?

A The rate of heat flow in X is greater than in Y.B The rate of heat flow will increase if the length of rod X is shortened but the

temperatures 0 0C and 100 0C of are still maintained. C The temperature gradient along X is the same as that along Y.D The temperature Ɵ at the interface between X and Y is nearly 0 0C.

26. The graphs below are drawn to the same scale shows the electric potential V between

two

points P and Q. Which one shows that the electric field strength between P and Q is the

strongest?

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V

A

C

B

D

V

VV

O O

OO

QQ P

P

QP P Q

7

0 0C100 0C

X Y

Thermal insulator 0C

50 mm 5 mm

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27. A capacitor C is charged by using the circuit as shown in figure below. When switch S 1 is

opened and then switch S2 is closed, the reading of the galvanometer G is

A. zero C. decreasing exponentially with time until zero

B. not zero D. decreasing linearly with time until zero

28. Which of the following statements explains correctly the decrease in resistivity of an intrinsic

semiconductor when temperature increased?

A The rate of collision between charge carries and atoms increases with temperature.

B The amplitude of the oscillation of the atoms of a semiconductor increases with

temperature.

C The drift velocity of charge carries increases with temperature.

D The number of the charge carriers per volume increases with temperature

29. When a potential difference V is applied across a copper cable of length L and radius r,

the drift Velocity of the electron is ve .If the length of the wire L changes. Which of the

following graphs show correctly the variation of ve with L

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C

S2

S1

G

High resistance

-+

8

ve

L

ve

L

LL

vevex

A. B.

C. D.

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30.

If the potential difference across point X and point Y is 2.0 V, what is the value of R?

A. 1.0 Ω

B. 2.0 Ω

C. 3.0 Ω

D. 4.0 Ω

31. A galvanometer with negligible internal resistance and a full scale deflection of 5 mA is

modified for use as a Voltmeter with a full scale deflection of 10V. The correct modification

for the required circuit is

A. A resistor of 2 x 105 Ω is connected in parallel to the galvanometer.

B. A resistor of 2 x 104 Ω is connected in series to the galvanometer.

C. A resistor of 2 x 103 Ω is connected in series the galvanometer.

D. A resistor of 2 x 102 Ω is connected in series the galvanometer

32. An electron is launched with velocity v into a space which has magnetic flux density B and

an. electric field strength E that is perpendicular to each other. If the velocity v of the electron

of the electron is uniform, then

A. ; v is perpendicular to B and E.

B. ; v is perpendicular to B and E.

C. : v is perpendicular to B or E

D. ; v is perpendicular to B or E

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YX

4R

4RR

E = 3.5 Vr = 1.5 r 1.5

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33.

The figure above shows two concentric rings X and Y are on the horizontal plane. The radius of

ring X is r1= 1.0m and ring Y is r2 where r2 = 2r1 and the current through ring y is four times the

current through X but in the opposite direction, then the resultant magnetic flux density at the

centre is

A. and direction pointed towards N

B. and direction pointed towards N

C. and direction pointed towards S

D. and direction pointed towards S

34. Figure (a) shows a rectangular coil PQRS placed in a uniform magnetic field. The magnetic

flux density B varies with time t as shown in figure (b)

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r2

r1

X

Y

N

S

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Which one of the following graphs shows variation of the magnitude of induced e.m.f. E

with time t ?

35. Which of the following methods used to produce voltage or current is by self-induction?

A. High voltage or current is by self induction

B High voltage that is produced in a Van de Graaf generator

C High voltage that is produced when the switch in a solenoid circuit is opened

D Current that flows in a copper plate when the plate is oscillating between magnetic poles

of a Magnet

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t

B

T 2T 3T0 4T

X X XX

X X XX

X X XX

X X XX

Figure (b)Figure (a)

4T3T2TT0

E

A

4T3T2TT0

E

BA

4T3T2TT0

E

CA

4T3T2TT0

E

DA

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36. An alternating current I represented by the equation I=4 sin 100 t flows in a resistor with

resistance of 5.0 Ω . If l is in ampere and t in seconds, find the mean power dissipated in the

resistor.

A. 10 W B. 20 W C. 40 W D. 160 W

37. A non-inverting amplifier contains a feedback resistance RF in the circuit. What is the function

of the feedback?

A. To increase the gain B. To increase the effect of distortion

C. To increase the bandwidth D. To oppose the input voltage

38. Which effect provides direct experimental evidence that light is a transverse, rather than

a longitudinal, wave motion?

A. Light can be diffracted.

B. Two coherent light waves can be made to interfere.

C The intensity of light from a point source falls off inversely as the square of the

distance from the source.

D Light can be polarized.

39. A point object, located in air, is at a distance u in front of a glass sphere of radius r. If the

refractive index of glass is n and the image formed inside the glass sphere is equal to 2u,

what is the value of u?

A. B. C. D.

40. Coherent monochromatic light illuminates two narrow parallel slits and the interference

pattern that results is observed on a screen some distance beyond the slits. Which

modification increases the separation between the dark lines of the interference pattern?

A. decreasing the distance between the screen and the slits.

B. increasing the distance between the slits

C. using monochromatic light of higher frequency

D. using monochromatic light of longer wavelength

41. A monochromatic light of wavelength 600 nm illuminates a diffraction grating of 3 x 105

lines per metre. If the zero order is not being considered, how many diffracted fringes

can be observed?

A 2 B 5 C 7 D 10

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42. The graph below shows the results of the photoelectric effect experiment of Milikan.

The intercept of the f-axis of the graph at f0 depends on

A. the frequency of radiation B. the intensity of radition

C. the work functiom D. the stopping potential

43. The de Broglie wavelength of a bullet of mass 0.02 kg and moving at speed 300 ms-1 is

A. 7.3 Χ 10-36 m

B. 1.8 Χ 10-35 m

C. 1.1 Χ 10-34 m

D. 9.9 Χ 10-33 m

44. Calculate the frequency of electromagnetic radiation emitted by a hydrogen atom

which undergoes a transition between energy levels of -1.36 x 10-19J and

-5.45 x 10-19 J.

A 1.36 x1014 HzB 4.09 x 1014 HxC 6.17 x 1014 HzD 6.17 x 1019 Hz

45. The cut-off frequency in the continuous X-ray spectrum from an X-ray tube depends on

the

A target metal

B voltage across the tube

C filament current

D anode current

46. The main principle used to produce laser is

A reflection of light

B spontaneous emission of photons

C radioactive decay

D stimulated emission of photons

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47. The rest masses of deuteron , proton and neutron are 2.0150u, 1.0096u and 1.0097u

respectively. A deuteron may disintegrate to a proton and neutron if it

A emits a photon of energy 2.0 MeV

B emits a photon energy 3.1 MeV

C captures a photon of energy 2.0 MeV

D captures a photon of energy 3.1 MeV

48. A sample consists of two radioactive nuclides in equal proportion but each has a different

decay constant. Which graph shows the relation between the initial activity Ao and the initial

total number of radioactive nuclei No of the sample?

49. Find the binding energy of carbon-12.

(mass of carbon-12 = 11.996706 u, mp = 1.007276 u, mn = 1.008665 u,

u = 1.66 x 10–27 kg)

A. 0.511 MeV

B. 9.11 MeV

C. 14.8 MeV

D. 92.3 MeV

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N0

A0

A0

A

DA

N0

A0

CA

N0

A0

BA

N0

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50. Which of the following elementary particles has quark?

A Proton

B Photon

C Electron

D Neutrino

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