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1. In a 3months old infant presenting with clinical symptoms dyspnea tachypneatiring cough restlessness, hypoxemia and hypocapnia in gasometry and

multilobar pneumonia with abscesss in lung parenchyma with pleural effusion in

chest X ray the most probably causative microorganism is one of the following:

a. RSVb. Chlamydia trachomatisc. Staphylococcus aureusd. Mycoplasma pneumoniae. CMV2. In a 3 months old infant the symptoms: severe expiratory dyspnea, wheezing,

tachypnea, tiring cough, hypoxemia in gasometry and hyperinflation of the lungs

in a chest Xray show the following clinical diagnosisa. Pneumococcal pneumoniab. RSV brochiolitisc. Immotile cilia syndromed. Farmers lung (hypersensitive pneumonitis)e. Pneumocystis jicoveci?? Pneumonia

3. In a 10 years old child with chronic interstitial lung disease (child) the differentialshould include:1.Cystic fibrosis

2.Goodpastures syndrome

3.Hypersensitivity pneumonitis

4.Mycoplasma pneumonia infection

5.Immunodeficiency

a. only 4 and 5 are correctb. only 1 is correctc. all above mentioned are correctd. in children child occurs solely due to surfactant deficiencye. none of above mentioned is correct

4. in a 15 year old child presenting with pneumonia and stevens johnsonssyndrome is probable causative microorganism is :

a. CMVb. Streptococcus pneumoniac. Staphylococcus aureus

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d. Mycoplasma pneumoniae. Aspergillus

5. In a 15 years old child with cystic fibrosis a severe exacerbation of the lung asresponding for antibiotic therapy with ceftazidime, amikacin, with coexisting and

increase total IgE concentration in serum, may be due to:

a. Allergic broncholpulmonary aspergillosisb. Chlamdia traomatis infectionc. Alpha 1 antitripsin deficiencyd. Gastroesophageal refluxe. Military TB

6. Spirometry is contraindicated in children suffering from:a. cystic fibrosisb. brochial asthmac. primary ciliary dyskinesiad. pneumothoraxe. chronic cough

7. An exercise test is indicated in:a.

Chest pain

b. Hemoptysisc. Recent myocardial infarctiond. Dyspneae. History of effort intolerance

8. The differential diagnosis in the purpose to establish the diagnosis of asthmachildren should comprise:

a. Gastoesophageal refluxb. Cystic fibrosisc. Foreign body aspirationd. Structural abnormalities of the tracheobronchial treee. All above mentioned

9. All below mentioned medications for asthma are controllers except of ?a. An inhaled corticosteroidb. A sustained release theophyllinec. A short acting beta2 agonist use in attack not as maintenance

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d. Long acting beta2 agoniste. A leukotriene receptor antagonist

10.15 year old boy is suffering from pharyngitis. Physical findings included enlargedcervical and submandibular lymph nodes, sore throat, pet?? Enlarged liver and

spleen. The boy is probably infected with:

a. VZVb. Rubella virusc. EBVd. Group A streptococcie. Measles virus

11.3month old male infant was diagnosed due to microcephaly. His current weight is3400g. following abonormalitis were found after diagnostic procedure

intracranial periventricular calcifications, chorioretinits, deafness

hepatosplenomegaly. The most probable diagnosis is infection with:

a. Rubella virusb. EBVc. CMVd. Toxoplasma gondiie.

HSV

12.The child was flexing the lower limbs after passive flextion of the neck. Positivesign is called

a. Upper kernig sign double check itb. Lower brudzinski signc. Lower kernig signd. Upper brudzinski signe. Babinski sign

13.5 year old boy with a sore throat developed fever and delicate macular rash onthe trunk and the limbs. The most intense skin changes are present in the axillae

and groin, area around the mouth is pale, the throat is red tonsils enlarged the

exudateds tongue with protruding papillae . the boy is probably infected with

a.VZV I think it is chicken pox.

b.Rubella virus

c. EBV

d. group A streptococci

e.Measles virus

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14.6 year old girl presented with rash on her right upper limb. Skin lesion was in theerythema with pale center and active red borders. The girl remembers being?

Several days ago. The rash appeared at the site of a bite. The girl should be treat

by:

a. Amoxicillinb. Doxycyclin she is 6 years of age no doubt doxy is not indicated but amox

doesnt work for lyme dis. Plus 10 days tx will not effects her teaths

c. Clindamycind. Ciprofloxacine. Penicillin

15.7 year old boy was brought to emergency department with hight fever, listless an ?he had peteciae on the skin of lower and upper limbs. The most probableinfection with:

a. Streptococcus pneumoniab. Staphylococcus aureusc. Neisseria menignitidisd. Streptococcus agalactiaee. E.coli

16.A 12 year old boy resents to the emergency department because of progressiveintermittent crampy abdominal pain and bilious vomiting for the past 12 hours.

He has had two watery bowel movements in the last 36 house and has not

voided in 6 hours. Two weeks ago, he had a laparotomy and ileal resection for

crohn disease.

Of the following, the clinical finding that MOST favors a diagnosis of post

operative small bowel obstruction rather than ileus is:

a. Abdominal distensionb. Decreased urine outputc. Hyperactive bowel soundsd. Paucity of stool on rectal examinatione. Tachycardia

17.5 year old boy came to gastroenterologist due to chronic diarrhea that startedtwo years ago. In the diagnostic process anti endomisium anibodies were

detected. Your next diagnostic step is:

a. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy to check the gastric mucosab. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy with duodenal biopsies

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c. Assenssment of the inflammatory markersd. Hydrogen breath teste. Introduction of gluten free diet

18.silent celiac disease means that the patient:a. can eat oatsb. can stop the gluten free diet after pubertyc. has to keep gluten free diet for the whole lifed. special diet is not indectaede. can eat gluten but in very small amount like 10grams/day

19.differential diagnosis in patient with chronic diarrhea should include all excepta. esophageal achalasiab. inflammatory bowel dieasesc. lactose intoleranced. cystic fibrosise. chronic pancreatitis

20.2 month baby girl was admitted to the hospital with severe dehydration . inmedical history diarrhea lasted 4 days up to 8-9 stools /day, fever up to 39 degree

Celsius, lack of appetite. The mother of a baby reported that the stools containblood and pus. As a doctor in charge you:

1.Give water and electrolyte replacement

2.Take blook for basic lab test( gasometry, electrolytes, morphology)

3.Perform microbiological stool culture

4.Administer fluorochiolone iv

5.Administer cephalosporin iv

a. 125b. 1235c. 1234d. 124e. 12

21.Campylobacter jejuni, except gastrointestinal manifestation, can cause:1. arthritis2. gullian barre syndrome3. myocarditis

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4. encephalopathy5. hemolytic anemiaa. 125b. 245c. 124d. 135e. 12345

22.To treat Campylobacter jejuni we can use:1. Fluorochinolones2. Macrolides3. Tetracycline4. Cephaolosporines5. Aminoglycosidesa.1235

b.1234

c.124

d.15

e.1245

23.15 year old boy that smokes 10 cigarettes per day was diagnosed with pepticulcer and H. pylori infection 6 months ago. He underwent the treatment twice

success-he is still H.pylori positive. A doctor should:

a. Prescribe the treatment for the third timeb. Give only probioticsc. Perform gastroduodenoscopy and rapid urease testd. Perform gastroduodenoscopy and take biopsies for microbiological culturee. Perform gastroduodenoscopy and take biopsies for microbiological culture

and the assessment of bacterial drug resistence

24.The Helicobacter infection can be tested with:a. Rapid hydrogen testb. Histopathologyc. Hydrogen breath testd. Culture from bloode. All methods are suitable

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e. Sweat test for cystic fibrosis28.Of these tumors in the acquired immune deficiency syndrome immunity (AIDS)

occurs most frequently:

a. Kaposi sarcomab. Melanomac. Lung cancerd. Ewing sarcomae. Plasmocytic multiple myeloma

29.6 year old boy is admitted to hospital with the following symptoms: fever forseveral days and upper respiratory tract catarrhea, symmetrical rash

maculopapular eruption of the face trenk and limbs, eruptions are shape of

garland, greshh red with a bluish edge. In lab studies with deviations areleucopenia with lymphocytosis an slight eosinophilia. These symptoms are the

result of infection:

a. Parvovirus B19b. EBVc. CMVd. VZVe. Rubella

30.The disadvantages of coexisting with wilms tumor are:1. Renal hypoplasia, rectal duplication, horseshoe kidney, hypospadias2. Body hypertrophy, aniridia, malformations of bone joint, cardiovascular

defect

3. Central nervous system defect, spina bigida, liver hypoplasia4. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia, cancer lymphomoas5. Hypatoblastoma, retinoblastoma, bone tumors, cancerThe correct answer is

a. 12b. 124c. 35d. 14e. 15

31.Ewing sarcoma1. Occurs more often in girls, preschool, more often black2. Occurs more often in boys, tennagers, blcks lss frequently

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3. Is a low differentiated tumor4. Address the soft tissue and the spread to the tumor is slow5. Working full time and soft tissue tumor is spreading rapidlythe correct answer is:

a. 134b. 235c. 234d. 14e. 15

32.rarest type of leukemia in children isa. CMLb. AMLc. ALLd. MDS???e. CLL

33.constant absolute contraindication for vaccination of live vaccines area. the immunosuppressive therapyb. diabetesc.

prematurity

d. down syndromee. splenectomy

34.18 year old patient reported ot the family doctor because over the last few daysof fever of up to 39 degree and a painful neck and head. The study found

pharyngitis and enlarged cervical lymph nodes significantly. In lab studies done

with the problem, showed increased levels of protein C- reactive leukocytosis and

the presence of atypical lymphocytes. Probable diagnosis is

a. Acute lymphocytic leukemiab. Hodgkins diseasec. Siphtheriad. Infectious mononucleosise. Scarlet fever

35.Giant cell tumor of bone is diabnosed on the basis ofa. Study rtgb. MRI

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c. The test result his pataspirate of the tumord. Physical examinatione. CT

36.The biggest value of exploratory nephroblastoma( wilms tumor) isa. Abdominal ultrasound giving 3 diamensional or CTb. The measurement metoksykatecholamin excertion in the uringc. The determination of tumor markersd. Bond scintigraphye. Rtg of chest

37.For the typical radiological signs of malignant bone tumors included:1. Spur sarcoma(codman triangle)2. Interrupt continuity of the periostenum3. Distension of the bone4. Bonfire destruction of bone5. Periosteum reactions6. Tumor in the soft tissuesThe correct answer is

a. 123b.

12

c. All thesed. 45e. Only 6

38.The use of low leukocytes concentrated RBC in patients with anemia in thecourse of cancer is contraindicated because immunization affiliated with the

transfusion may cause progression of cancer

a. Both statements are true, the causal.b. Both statements are true, no causal connectionc. The first assertion is false, the second is trued. The first statement is true, the second is false.e. Both statements are untrue.

39.In the course of Wilms tumor (nephroblastoma) may experience the symptomslisted below:

a. The increase in abdominal circumferenceb. Abdominal pain

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c. Hematouriad. High blood pressuree. All of these

40. Pneumocystic pneumonia occurring in children with ailing immune system isrecognize by

a. Results of physical examb. The result of PCRc. The result of the radiologic exam of the lungd. Elevatied rates of inflammatione. Bacteriological test result

41.Brain tumor is best diagnosed through the execution of puncture lumbar spinewith magnetic resonance(MR), because in children with tumors brain often finds.

Vomiting, headache an swelling of the optic disc

a. Both statements are true, but there is no causal connection between themb. Both statements are true and connects them to causal relationshipc. The first statement is true, the second is falsed. The first statement is false, the second is truee. Both statements are false

42.Factors of poor forecasts (affecting the choice of treatment, prognosis) in ? withacute lymphoblastic leukemia are the following, except:

a. Aged between 1 an 6 years oldb. The presence of the gene bcr/ablc. 20x103/ml leukocytosis aboved. More than 5% blasts in the bone marrow in 33days of therapye. Poor response to steroids over 1000 blasts in the peripheral blood in the 8th

day of therapy

43.For the diagnosis of ALL in order to correct qualify the child for appropriate riskgroups it is first necessary the following actions except

a. Bone marrow biopsyb. The immunological test in th cyto meterc. The bone marrow cytogenetic tests the evaluation of a flow cytometer type

of leukemia

d. Lymph node biopsye. Marrow molecular testing

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44.In 9 month old infant with ALL pneumonia was diagnosed, in the couth formysecretion was observed, and the radiological picture of the lung characterized by

the presence of scattered bilateral infiltrates( picture of the sa- calledmilk glass).

The most likely etiological factor is:

a. Stayphylococcus aureusb. Mycoplasma pneumoniac. Streptococcus pneumoniad. RSVe. Pneumocystis jiroveci (formerly pneumocystis carini)

45.Painless testicular enlargement in a boy aged for several years usually includeda. Inflammationb. Cancerc. Traumad. Hydrocoelee. None of these

46.In the case of splenectomy in children with congenital spherocytosis or chronicthrombocytopenia, it is necessary recommendation of prophylactic vacciniation

against following infection, with the exception of infections caused by:a. Streptococcus pneumaniaeb. Neiserria meningitidesc. Haemophilus influenzad. HBVe. Bacillus TB

47.In a child with leukemia, the most common clinical signs are pallor, fever andsymptoms of hemorrhagic spot test blood counts are anemia and

thrombocytopenia. This is due to correct displacement of hematopoietic cells

bone marrow by tumor cells(blast)

a. Both statements are true and are together in causal connectionb. Both statements are true -no causationc. Both statements are falsed. The first statement is true, the second sentence is falsee. The second sentence is true, the first sentence is false

48.CMV:

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a. Causes severe interstitial pneumonia in people after bone marrow transplantb. Belongs to RNA virusc. Is sensitive to ribavirind. Is one of the factors causing chronic hepatitise. Is a virus with proven oncogenic properties

49.Full term baby was born with open spinal bifida and active hydrocephalus. Thetreatment of choice is:

a. Surgical treatment-shunting and plastic meninggomyelocele closing in first48hours of li ????

b. Surgical treatment only when there are no signs of flaccid low limb paresisc. Shunting onlyd. Plastic meningomyelocele closing onlye. None of them

50.Mc Burneys point is located on the line connecting:a. Right anterior superior iliac spine an umbilicusb. Right anterior inferior iliac spine an umbilicusc. Ischiadic tuber and umbilicusd. Costal angle and umbilicuse.

None of them is correct

51. The neurogenic bladder is :

A) dysfunction with no function at all

B) bladder with no function at all

C) an artificial bladder

D) bladder without any sphincter

52. Diagnosis of the vesicoureteral reflux is made on the base of:

A) gastroscopy

B) barium contrast enema

C) voiding cystourethrography

D) iv urography

53. The typical sign of duodenal atresia on x-ray examination is:

A) double-bubble sign

B) gasless abdomen

C) distended intestinal loops

D) football sign

54. Meconium ileus is the clinical manifestation of:

A) intestinal stenosis

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B) Hirschsprungs disease

C) cyctic fibrosis

D) meconium plug syndrome

55. The 2-year-old girl was operated on because of a posterior fossa tumor. A

Histopathological diagnosis was: Astrocytoma pilocyticum, 1-st degree stage in

WHO classification. The next procedures are:

A) ShuntingB) ChemotherapyC) Radio- and chemotherapyD) Only observationE) Radiotherapy

56. The most common congenital laryngeal anomaly and the most frequent cause of

xxxx in children is:A) LaryngomalaciaB) LaryngocelceC) Congenital bilateral vocal cord paralysisD) Congenital laryngeal web

57. Vocal fold nodules are the most common functional swelling of the true fold.

They are sometimes called screamers nodes, singers nodes, preachers nodes,

or teachers nodes depensing on who has acquired them. The nodes are located:

A)

At the junction of the anterior third and posterior two third of the false vocalcord

B) At the junction of the anterior third and posterior two third of the vocal cordC) At the anterior commissureD) At the posterior commissure

58. The triad of hyponasality, snoring, and mouth breathing almost always indicates:

A) allergic rhinitis

B) acute maxillar sinusitis

C) peritonsillar abscess

D) enlarged obstructing adenoids

59. Tympanostomy tube incersion is used for:

A) the treatment of confenital hearing loss

B) the treatment of chronic otitis media with effusion

C) the treatment of viral labyrinthitis

D) the treatment of cholesteatoma

60. Abnormal function of the Eustachian tube is the most important factor in the

pathogenesis otitis media. In infants and small children the Eustachian tube is :

A) Longer and more horizontal

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B) Shorter and more verticalC) Shorter and S-shapedD) Shorter and more horizontal

61. A 10-year-old boy presents with right-sided nasal obstruction. Endoscopic view of

Nasal cavity revealed pale mass extending from under the middle xxxxxxxxx

xxxxx xxx meatus and into the posterior inferior nasal cavity. CT scan shows right

maxillary xxxxxx extending in through the right middle meatus into the right nasal

cavity. More xxxxx showed extension through the choanal opening confirming the

clinical diagnosis of :

A) Ethmoid polyposisB) Nasopharyngeal carcinomaC) Antrochoanal polypD) Maxillary sinusitis

62. A unilateral nasal mass in an adolescent male with nasal obstruction and epistaxis

defines she clinical diagnosis of

A) rhabdomyosarcoma

B) angiofibroma

C) nasal polyposis

D) tetratoma

63. The most common cause of persistent unilateral rhinorrhea in young children is:

A) acute rhinosinusitisB) chronic rhinosinusitis

C) nasal polyposis

D) intranasal foreign body

64. a 2.5 year old boy comes to the outpatient suffering from inspiratory stridor

croupy cough, hoarse voice, and rhinorrhea. The history reveals this is the next

incidence of the disease. The larynx examination reveals normal epiglottis. What do

you suppect

a. epiglotitis

b. subglottic stenosis

c. subglottic laryngitis

d. subglottic cyst

65. secondary sinusitis of dental origin occurs mainly with:??

Streptoccocus viridans

66. Eisenmenger syndrome describes:

A) left to right shunt

B) right to left shunt

C) most common congenital cardiac defect

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D) right ventricular outflow left obstruction

E) none of above

67. Foramen ovale:

A) bacterial endocarditis prevention is advisiable

B) close itself immediately, sealed by 3-6 months

C) close in 10-15%

D) a and b

E) a and c

68. Compare cardiac defect with its characteristic:

a. ventricular septal defect (VSD) 1. Closed by indomethacin

b. atrial septal defect (ASD) 2. Most common

c. patient ductus arteriosus(PDA) 3. Most asymtomatic in children

A) a-1 b-3 c-2B) a-3 b-2 c-1

C) a-2 b-3 c-1

D) a-2 b-1 c-3

E) a-3 b-1 c-2

69. Bootshape cardiac silhouette in X-ray chest occurs in :

A) hypoplastic left heart syndrome

B) coarctation of aorta

C) aortic valve stenosisD) Fallots Tetralogy

E) ventricular septal defect

70. Treatment of TET SPELLSconsist of :

A) supplement of oxygen

B) morphine

C) knee-to-chest position

D) 0.9 NaCl

E) a and b and c

71. Which from below heart defects are duct dependent:

A) critical coarctation of aorta

B) critical aortic stenosis

C) transposition of great arteries

D) none

E) all

72. Systolic murmur occurs in:

A) mitral valve stenosis

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B) tricuspid valve insfficiency

C) mitral valve insfficiency

D) aortic valve insfficiency

E) pulmonary valve insfficiency

73. Patent ductus arteriosus can be closed by:

A) indometacine

B) oxygen

C) prostaglandin

D) a and b

E) a and c

74. Antibiotic prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx

A) single dose, 30-60 min before procedure

B) 2 weeks before and after procedureC) 2 weeks before, last dose 1 hour before procedure

D) 2 days before procedure

E) two doses before procedure

75. Fallots tetralogy not contains:

A) ventricular septal defect

B) aortic stenosis

C) right ventricular hypertrophy

D) overriding aortaE) pulmonary stenosis

76. Please indicate syndrome that is not characteristic for heart failure:

A) edema

B) hepatomegaly

C) tachycardia

D) cyanosis

E) difficult brearhing

77. Which of followed are the most common in Turner syndrome:

A) Fallots tetralogy

B) hypoplastic left heart syndrome

C) coarctation of aorta

D) aortic stenosis

E) a and b

78. Signs of rheumatic heart disease are:

A) temperature over 39 degrees for 2 weeks

B) swelling of knees

C) rash on face

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D) bradycardia

E) no murmur

79. Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) can be interrupt by:

A) valsalve maneuver

B) adenosine

C) amiodarone

D) cardioversion

E) all above

80. Rashkind procedure is:

A) opening a hole in atrial septal wall

B) opening a hole in ventricular septal wall

C) closing of PDA

D) shunt between pulmonary and subclavian arteryE) none of above

81. In grading of murmurs (Levin scale) thrill occurs in grade:

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

82. With reference to 12-lead ECG(1)E) the rhythm is ventricular tachycardia

83. With reference to 12-lead ECG(1)

A) intravenous amiodarone maybe appropriate

84. With reference to 12-lead ECG (2)

A) the supraventicular tachycardia (SVT) is present

B) P waves are clearly visible

C) the QRS rhythm is irregular

D) the atrial fibrillation is present

E) the rhythm is ventricular tachycardia

85. With reference to 12-lead ECG (2) which is false:

A) intravenous amiodarone maybe appropriate

B) atropine is an immediate treatment

C) electrical cardioversion is a treatment of choice for children is shock

D) intravenous adenosine is used in children

E) vagal maneuvers may be useful

Questions 86-87 are referring to the patient presented bellowed

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86. The most appropriate and predictable test in pregnant woman in a 3rd

trimester

risk of hyperthyroidism in a newborn should be:

A) TSHB) fT4C) fT3D) TRAbE) TPO-Ab

87. Which are the most likely laboratory finding in this patient if mother xxxxxxxxA) elevated TSH, elevated fT4

B) elevated fT4, elevated fT3

C) decreased TSH, decreased fT4

D) decreased fT4, decreased ft3

E) elevated TSH, decreased fT4

88. A 40-day-old infant presented with vomiting since 1 month, loose xxxxxxxx

feeds since 1 day and anuria since 1 hours. There were xxxxxxxxxxx

clitoromegaly with rugosity of fused labia majora. xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxThe S. sodium=124 mEq/L, S. Potassium= 7 mEq/L, S. chloride= 87 mEq/L.

What is the mostly diagnosis?

A) Congenital hypothyroidismB) Turner syndromeC) Congenital adrenal hyperplasiaD) XXY syndromeE) Precoclous puberty

89. On which laboratory results would you base your diagnosis for the case above?

A) urine catecholamine concentration

B) serium 17-OH-progesterone concentration

C) serium estradiol concentration

D) serium T4

E) urine cortisol

90. Insulin is used in treatment of ketoacidosis:

A) with subcutaneous injections of rapidly or short acting formula

B) with subcutaneous injections of long acting formula

C) with intravenous injections of the different types insulin

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D) as intravenous infusion of short acting insulin with temporary modified rate

E) with intramuscular injections of short acting insulin only

91. Insulin resistance appears in:

A) type 2 diabetes

B) type 1 diabetes therapy

C) acceleration of growth

D) sexual maturation

E) all mentioned above

92. Personal insulin pumps are not applied:

A) in children under 6, because high risk of hypoglyceria

B) in adolescents who are very active in sport

C) with long acting insulin analogues

D) when ketenes are detected in the urineE) in pregnancy because risk of fetus

93. Following are true for systemic-onset juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA), except:

A) mid-foot commonly involved

B) axillary lymph node involvement is a typical feature

C) hip joint involvement is seen in 50% pf patients

D) more common in females

E) hectic fever

94. Incorrect sentence about juvenile idiopathic arthritis is:A) most common pediatrics connective tissue disease

B) age of onset less than 16-year-old

C) nephritis affects 75-80% of child with JIA

D) symptoms of inflammation persist at least 6 weeks

E) may be mild or more persistent condition leading tp joint and tissue damage

95. It is not classification criteria for systemic lupus erythematosus:

A) malar rash

B) photosensitivity

C) gastric ulcers

D) arthritis

E) nephritis

96. Characteristic autoantibodues in systemic lupus erythematosus are:

A) p-ANCA

B) Scl- 70

C) Jo-1

D) ds-DNA

E) anti TG

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97. It is the most common type of Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA):

A) oligoarticular JIA

B) poliarticular JIA

C) systemic onset JIA

D) psoriatic arthritis

E) enthesitis-related arthritis

98. Choose correct answer xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx(about physical jaundice)

A) last no longer than 2 days

B) can begin in first day of life

C) peaks at day 3 of life

D) levels of bilirubin can be higher than 20 mg/dl

99. Which of the symptoms is not typical for intraxxxxxxx hemorrhage:

A) apnea and bradycardiaB) seizures

C) anemia

D) bloody stool

100. Which of sentences concerning ductus arteriosus is false:

A) it is muscular structure bridging the pulmonology artery and the decending

Aorta

B) indomethacin and lbuprofen are used to keep it open

C) it closes during the dirst 3 days of life in the most newbornsD) its constriction is promoted by oxygen