1. Yeast is unicellular, eukaryote. It is included in

A. Mycobacteria

B. Monera

C. Mycetae

D. Protista

2. Chitin is cell wall component of

A. Ustilago

B. Riccia

C. Spirogyra

D. Cuscuta

3. In aquatic plants root caps are replaced by

A. Air bubbles

B. Root hairs

C. Dead tissue

D. Root pockets

4. Roots with symbiotic association are seen in

A. Cuscuta

B. Avicennia

C. Rhizobium

D. Arachis

5. Fruit like inflorescence is seen in

A. Capsule

B. Poinsettia

C. Ficus

D. Brassica

6. Cup like structure in Cyathium is

A. Involucel

B. Involucre

C. Peduncle

D. Bract

7. Smallest flowers are found in

A. Rafflesia

B. Colocasia

C. Wolfia

D. Mustard

8. Anterior side of the flower is

A. Ovary side

B. Bract side

C. Axis side

D. Stigma side

9. The fruit that dehisces along only one suture is

A. Achene

B. Nut

C. Follicle

D. Lomentum

10. Mericarps are

A. Single seeded pieces of schizocarps

B. Round dry fruits

C. Fruits with pappus hairs

D. Flat fruits which are wing like

11. The cell that degenerates after germination on stigma is

A. Generative cell

B. Protective cell

C. Both Vegetative and Generative cell

D. Vegetative cell

12. Stage at which pollen grain released from pollen sacs in angiosperms generally

A. Single celled

B. Four celled

C. Three celled

D. Two celled

13. Allergic pollen grains are seen in

A. Carrot grass

B. Hibiscus

C. Wheat

D. Rice

14. Pollen germination on stigma depends on

A. All the above

B. Temperature

C. Compatible stigma

D. Humidity

15. The longest dormancy ever recorded is in the seeds of

A. Martynia

B. Lupinus

C. Lodecia

D. Date plant

16. Production seeds without fertilization is

A. Parthenogenesis

B. Polyembryony

C. Apomixes

D. Parthenocarpy

17. In Passiflora self pollination is prevented by

A. Herkogamy

B. Pollen pre potency

C. Self sterility

D. Triheterostyly

18. In Lythrum plants flowers show

A. Male and female flowers

B. Three different lengths of styles

C. Wide angles between

D. Two different lengths of

19. Considering hundreds of characters and each character is given equal importance in

A. Numerical taxonomy

B. Phylogenetic system

C. Natural system

D. Omega taxonomy

20. Number of chromosomes is considered in

A. Chemotaxonomy

B. Numerical taxonomy

C. Cytotaxonomy

D. Phylogenetic system

21. Maximum transpiration is by

A. Stomata

B. Cuticle

C. Cuticle & Lenticels

D. Lenticels

22. Scotoactive stomata

A. Opens during Day & Night

B. Opens during night time

C. Never opens

D. Opens during day time

23. Accumulation of solutes in plants depends on

A. Photosynthesis

B. Porters and soil

C. Water potential

D. Membrane structure

24. Young leaves show the symptoms of deficiency with the deficiency of

A. Nitrogen

B. Magnecium

C. Sulphur

D. Phosphorus

25. Substrate for Transaminase enzyme is

A. Protein

B. Glucose

C. Lipids

D. Aspartic acid

26. In the Enzyme reactions when the free enzyme molecules are not available, then the rate of the reaction is

A. At equilibrium

B. Forward reaction is fast

C. Half of maximal value

D. Maximum

27. True statement regarding Photorespiration

A. ATP is synthesized

B. Starch forms

C. CO₂ is released

D. NADPH₂ is synthesized

28. Percentage of full sunlight at witch light saturation occurs is

A. 10

B. 50

C. 30

D. 60

29. Disruption of ATP synthase affects A. Water formation B. ATP synthesis C. Proton gradient D. Electron transport

A. B & C

B. A & D

C. A & B

D. C & D

30. When fumaric acid is introduced into Kreb’s cycle

A. One molecule of water is utilized and one molecule of NADH₂ is released

B. One NADH₂ is released

C. One FADH₂ and one NADH₂ is released

D. One molecule of H₂O and one molecule of NADH₂ are released

31. Cancer causing viruses in humans are

A. Polio virus

B. Herpes virus

C. Ebola virus

D. Epstein – Barr virus

32. Viruses are

A. Obligate endoparasites

B. Heterotrophs

C. Obligate ectoparasites

D. Facultative parasites

33. Mutations are noticed by Hugo de Vries in

A. Pisum

B. Maize

C. Drosophila

D. Evening primerose

34. True statement regarding codominance in Lens culinaris for seed coat is

A. One fourth of F₂ generation shows both traits

B. Half of the F₂ generation shows dominant traits.

C. Half of the F₂ generation shows both traits.

D. All F₁ hybrids show dominant traits

35. Number of nucleotides in the genome of ɸ x 174 is

A. 6000 nucleotides

B. 3.3 x 10⁹ nucleotides

C. 5386 nucleotides

D. 9.2 x 10⁶ nucleotides

36. Tayer performed his experiments of semiconservation of DNA on

A. E.coli

B. Drosophila

C. Tailing

D. Vicia faba

37. Sticky ends always

A. Palindromes

B. Identical

C. Single strands

D. Complementary

38. ‘Flavr Savr’ is

A. A gene for flavour

B. Bruise resistant tomato variety

C. Technique in genetic engineering

D. Fungus resistant potato variety

39. True statement regarding SCP is

A. Torula yeast is Saccharomyces.

B. SCP is produced for its by-products.

C. Mushrooms are microbes

D. Spirulina is rich in minerals, fats carbohydrates etc

40. Temparature in autoclave is

A. 100⁰C

B. 15⁰C.

C. 121⁰C

D. 120⁰C

ZOOLOGY

41. The caudal vertebrae of amphibians are fused to form

A. Pygostyle

B. Coccyx

C. Telson

D. Urosytle

42. Three chambered cloaca is present in all

A. terrestrial vertebrates

B. oviparous vertebrates

C. amniotes

D. sauropsidans

43. Which epithelial tissue exists in the walls of blood vessels, and sacs of lungs?

A. ciliated columnar

B. columnar

C. squamous

D. cuboidal

44. Which of the following epithelium lines the moist surface of the buccal cavity?

A. stratified non-keratinized squamous

B. cuboidal

C. stratified columnar

D. Stratified keratinized squamous

45. Male cockroach can be identified by the presence of

A. Broad abdomen

B. Green glands

C. Anal style

D. Collateral glands

46. Glossae and para glossae together constitute the ——-

A. Protopodite

B. Ligula

C. Lingua

D. Exopodite

47. Reservoir of blood

A. Lymph nodes

B. Spleen

C. Liver

D. Red bone marrow

48. Products produced by the break down of hemoglobin

A. Albumin, globulin

B. fibrinogen, prothrombin

C. heparin, histamine

D. bilirubin, biliverdin

49. The preparation of the mammary glands for secretion of milk requires the action of

A. Progesterone

B. Prolactin

C. Human chorionic gonadotropin

D. Estrogen

50. Cells involved in the immune response communicate with each other through a large group of polypeptide hormones called

A. Prostaglandins

B. Cytokines

C. Endorphins

D. Growth hormones

51. The hormone which is produced by kidney to stimulate the production of erythrocytes is

A. heparin

B. renin

C. erythroclastin

D. erythropoietin

52. The character of producing more concentrated urine in vertebrates generally depends on

A. length of Henle’s loop

B. length of proximal convoluted tubule

C. Capillary network in glomerulus

D. Area of Bowman’s capsule

53. The two sarcomeres are separated by

A. M-lines

B. Krause’s membranes

C. Isotropic bands

D. Henson’s discs

54. Krause’s membrane is a bisecting

A. Dense line of two I-bands

B. Dense line of two A-bands

C. dense line of one H-zone

D. dense line of one I-band

55. Which are not areas of the cerebrum?

A. Sensory signal receiving areas

B. Logic and language areas

C. Heart rate and breathing rate control areas

D. Motor signal generating areas

56. Sensations from the skin are converted to perceptions in which part of the cerebrum?

A. Wernicke’s area

B. the primary motor area

C. the primary sensory area

D. Broca’s area

57. Animals with radial symmetry in adult and bilateral symmetry in larva are

A. platyhelminthes

B. echinoderms

C. Annelids

D. coelenterates

58. All diploblastic animals are

A. eucoelomates

B. bilaterally symmetrical

C. enterocoelomates

D. radially symmetrical

59. Saddle joint is similar to

A. Hinge joint

B. condyloid joint

C. pivot joint

D. Ball and socket joint

60. Immovable joints are

A. synarthroidial joints

B. arthrodial joints

C. amphiarthroidal joints

D. diarthroidial joints

61. Cryptorchidism is

A. Non descent of testes into scrotum

B. Non development of uterus

C. Removal of scrotum

D. Non development of testes

62. Each testicular lobule contains

A. One to three highly coiled uriniferous tubules.

B. One to three uncoiled vasa deferes

C. One to three highly coiled seminiferous tubules

D. One to three uncoiled seminal vesicle

63. Interstitial cells in male humans are also called as

A. Leyding cells

B. sperms

C. Sertoli cells

D. male germcells

64. Seminiferous tubules of the testis opens into

A. Rete testis

B. Vasa efferentia

C. Epididymis

D. Epididymis

65. Which of the following structure in female humans helps in collection of ovum after ovulation

A. Fimbriae

B. isthmus

C. Uterus

D. Infundibulum

66. The uterus opens into vagina through

A. Wide cervix

B. Urethra

C. A narrow cervix

D. isthmus

67. All are medical intrauerine devices except

A. CuT-380A

B. CuT – 200

C. Multiload 375

D. Lippe’s loop

68. Multiload device contains

A. Zinc

B. Iron

C. Copper

D. Silver

69. DNA finger printing works on which principle in DNA sequence.

A. Translation

B. Polymorphism

C. Transcription

D. Transformation

70. Which of the following provide flatform for joining of aminoacids in translation?

A. Ribosomes

B. Endoplasmic reticulum

C. Mitochondria

D. Nucleus

71. Type of speciation due to polyploidy is-

A. Peripatric

B. Sympatric

C. Allopathic

D. Parapatric

72. When the two species are morphologically almost identical but reproductively isolated,are termed as-

A. Taxonomic species

B. Ecotypes

C. Morphospecie

D. Sibling species

73. In animals Totipotency is exhibited by

A. Meristematic cells

B. cancer cell

C. Zygote

D. Gametes

74. The scientific name of “Scampy”

A. Penaeus monodon

B. Macrobrachium malcomsoni

C. Penaeus indicus

D. Macrobrachium rosenbergii

75. A person with sickle cell anemia is

A. less prone to typhoid

B. more prone to typhoid

C. more prone to malaria

D. less prone to malaria

76. The number of classes of antibodies in human being is

A. 4

B. 6

C. 5

D. 3

77. The number of copulatory papillae and copulatory spicules in male Wuchereria are respectively

A. Two pairs, many

B. Two, many

C. Many, 1 pair

D. Many, Two pairs

78. Which of the following forms of plasmodium can invade two different types of cells in the host`s body

A. Micrometacryptozoites

B. Sporozoites

C. Macrometacryptozoites

D. Cryptozoites

79. The use of bioresources by multinational companies & other organisations without proper authorisation from the countries & people concerned without compensatory payment is called

A. Bioweapon

B. Bioethics

C. Bioterror

D. Biopiracy

80. Which biotechnology company is credited with the synthesis of genetically engineered human insulin for the first time?

A. Ranbaxy

B. Cipla

C. Celera genomics

D. Eli Lily

PHYSICS

81. What is the discovery of CV. Raman?

A. Inelastic scatting of light by molecules

B. Propagation of EM Waves

C. Steam engine

D. Refelection of Ultrasonic waves

82. The dimensional formula for Areal velocity is?

A. [MºL⁻²T⁻¹]

B. [MºL²T⁻¹]

C. [MºL⁻²T¹]

D. [MºL²T¹]

83. In a measurement both positive and negative errors are found to occur with equal probability. The type of errors responsible for this is

A. systematic errors

B. determinate errors

C. random errors

D. Proportional errors

84. Correct statement among the following is

A. When displacement is zero, distance travelled is not zero.

B. When displacement is zero, distance travelled is also zero.

C. Distance travelled and displacement are always equal.

D. When distance is zero, displacement is not zero.

85. Which of the following options is correct for having a straight line motion represented by t – s graph

A. Average velocity is zero.

B. The object moves with constantly increasing velocity from O to A then it moves

with constant velocity.

C. Velocity of the object increases uniformly.

D. The graph shown is impossible.

86. If are two vectors, then the wrong statement out of the following is

A.

B.

C.

D.

87. If the angle between two forces each equal to p is , then the resultant is equal

to

A. 2p cos (θ/2)

B. 2p sin (θ/2)

C.

D. p

88. A shower of rain appears to fall vertically down wards with a velocity 12 kmph on a person walking west wards with a velocity of 5 kmph. The actual velocity and direction of the rain is

A. 13 kmph, clock-wise to vertical

B. 13 kmph, anticlock-wise to vertical

C. 8.5 kmph clock-wise to vertical

D. 8.5 kmph, vertically downwards

89. A body is projected from a point with different angles of projections 20°, 35°, 45°, 60° with the horizontal but with same initial speed. Their respective horizontal ranges are R₁, R₂, R₃ and R₄. Identify the correct order in which the horizontal ranges are arranged in increasing order

A. R₁, R₄, R₂, R₃

B. R₁, R₂, R₃, R₄

C. R₄,R₁, R₂, R₃

D. R₂,R₁,R₄, R₃

90. A): If a bomb is dropped from an aeroplane moving horizontally with constant velocity then the bomb appears to move along a vertical straight line for the pilot of the plane. R): Horizontal component of velocity of the bomb remains const and same as the velocity of the plane during the motion under gravity.

A. (A) is true but (R) is false

B. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

C. (A) is false but (R) is true

D. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

91. Two weights w₁ and w₂ are suspended from the ends of a light string passing over a smooth fixed pulley. If the pulley is pulled at an acceleration g, the tension in the string will be

A.

B.

C.

D.

92. Two 10 kg bodies are attached to a spring balance as shown in figure. The reading of

the balance will be

A. 5 kg-wt

B. 20 kg-wt

C. 10 kg-wt

D. Zero

93. If are the coefficient of static, kinetic and rolling frictions between two surfaces, then

A.

B.

C.

D.

94. A given object takes n times as much time to slide down a 45° rough inclined plane as it takes to slide down a perfectly smooth 45° incline. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the object and the incline is

A.

B.

C.

D.

95. In the figure shown, a block of weight 10 N resting on a horizontal surface. The

coefficient of static friction between the block and the surface = 0.4 . A force of 3.5 N will keep the block in uniform motion, once it has been set in motion.A horizontal force of 3 N is applied to the block, then the block will

A. Move having accelerated motion over the surface

B. Not move

C. First it will move with a constant velocity for some time and then will have

accelerated motion

D. Move over the surface with constant velocity

96. A particle of mass m is tied to a light string and rotated with a speed v along a circular path of radius r. If T is tension in the string and mg is gravitational force on the particle then, the actual forces acting on the particle are

A. mg.T and an additional force of directed outwards

B. only a force directed outwards

C. mg, T and an additional force of directed inwards

D. mg, and T only

97. For conservative force

A. Work done in a closed loop is zero

B. All the above

C. Work done against conservative force is stored is the form of potential energy

D. Work done is independent of the path

98. When a body is whirled in a vertical circle such that its total mechanical energy is constant with critical velocities then tension in the string changes with time. Arrange the following in increasing order of tension when i) String is horizontal ii) String makes an angle 0° with downward vertical iii) String makes an angle of 180° with downward vertical iv) String makes an angle 120° with downward vertical

A. iii, i, ii, iv

B. iv, iii, ii, i

C. i, ii, iii, iv

D. iii, iv, i, ii

99. In head on elastic collision of two bodies of equal mass

A. both of the above

B. none of the above

C. the faster body speeds up further and the slower body slows down

D. the faster body slows down and the slower body speeds up

100. When no external force is acting on a system of particles, the centre of mass of the system

A. moves with variable velocity

B. moves with constant velocity only

C. remains at rest only

D. moves with constant velocity or will be at rest

101. Moment of inertia of a body is independent of

A. angular velocity of the body

B. mass of the body

C. distribution of mass of the body

D. temperature of the body

102. The plates of a parallel plate capacitor are charged upto 200 volts. A di -electric slab of thickness 4mm is inserted between the plates. Then to maintain the same potential difference between the plates of the capacitor, the distance between the plates is increased by 3.2mm. The di-electric constant of di-electric slab is

A. 4

B. 5

C. 6

D. 1

103. In the circuit shown below, a voltmeter of internal resistance R, when connected across

B and C reads 100/3 volts. Neglecting the internal resistance of the battery, the value of R is:

A. 50kΩ

B. 75kΩ

C. 100kΩ

D. 25kΩ

104. A bar magnet is cut into two equal halves by a plane parallel to the magnetic axis. Of the following physical quantities the one which remains unchanged is

A. Moment of inertia

B. Pole strength

C. Magnetic moment

D. Intensity of magnetization

105. A current is flowing due north along a power line. The direction of the magnetic field above it, neglecting the earth’s field is:

A. North

B. West

C. South

D. East

106. The power is transmitted from a power house on high voltage ac because

A. Chances of stealing transmission lines are minimized

B. It is more economical due to less power wastage

C. It is difficult to generate power at low voltage

D. Electric current travels faster at higher volts

107. A cylindrical bar magnet is kept along the axis of a circular coil. If the magnet is rotated along its axis, then

A. No current will be induced in the coi

B. A current will be induced in the coil

C. Only e.m.f will be induced in the coil

D. Both e.m.f and current will be induced in the coil

108. The range of wavelength of the visible light is:

A.

B.

C.

D.

109. The refractive index of a material of a plano concave lens is 5/3, the radius of curvature is 0.3m. The focal length of the lens in air is

A. -0.45m

B. -1.0m

C. -0.6m

D. -0.75m

110. The work function of a certain metal is 3.31×10‾¹⁹ J. Then the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted by incident radiation of wavelength 5000 A° is:

A. 0.41 eV

B. 2.07 eV

C. 2.48 eV

D. 0.82 ev

111. Let Fpp,Fpn and Fnn denote the magnitudes of the nuclear force by a proton on a proton, by a proton on a neutron and by a neutron on a neutron respectively when the separation is less than one fermi, then

A. Fpp>Fpn>Fnn

B. Fpp< f<="" span="" style="box-sizing: border-box; padding: 0px; margin: 0px;"><>

C. Fpp=Fpn=Fnn

D. Fpp>Fpn=Fnn

112. Current flowing in each of the following

circuits A and B respectively are:

A. 1A, 2A

B. 2A, 4A

C. 2A, 1A

D. 4A, 2A

113. Two identical spheres of gold are in contact with each other. The gravitational force of attraction between them is

A. Directly proportional to the fourth power of their radius

B. Directly proportional to the square of their radius

C. Inversely proportional to the square of their radius

D. Directly proportional to the cube of their radius

114. A hydrogen balloon released on the moon

A. Falls with acceleration of 9.8 ms‾²

B. Falls with an acceleration of 98/6 ms‾²

C. Falls down with an acceleration of 9.8x6ms‾²

D. Climbs up with an acceleration of 6×9.8ms-²

115. A space-ship entering the earths atmosphere is likely to catch fire, this is due to

A. viscosity of air

B. greater proportional of O₂ in the atmosphere at higher height

C. high temperature of upper atmosphere

D. surface tension of air

116. What is the contribution of S.Chandra Sekhar to physics?

A. Cosmic Radiation

B. Structure and Evulution of stars

C. LASER

D. Nuclear model & Atom

117. If P is the X-ray unit and Q is micron then P/Q is?

A. 10⁵

B. 10‾⁵

C. 10⁷

D. 10‾⁷

118. By repeating the same measurement several times, the error that can be reduced is

A. Determinate error

B. instrumental error

C. systematic error

D. random errors

119. A body starts from rest and moves with a uniform acceleration. The ratio of distance covered in the nth second to the distance covered in n seconds is

A.

B.

C.

D.

120. The displacement of a particle as a function of time is shown in the figure. The figure shows that

A. The particle starts with constant velocity, then motion is accelerated and finally the

particle moves with another constant velocity

B. The velocity of the particle is constant throughout

C. The acceleration of the particle is constant throughout

D. The particle starts with certain velocity but the motion is retarded and finally the

particle stops

CHEMISTRY

121. The weight percentage of oxygen in NaOH is

A. 8

B. 10

C. 60

D. 40

122. 60 g of a compound on analysis gave 24 g ‘C’, 4g ‘H’ & 32 g ‘O’. The empirical formula of the compound is

A. C₂HO₂

B. CH₂O₂

C. CH₂O

D. C₂H₂O₂

123. A balanced chemical equation obeys

A. Law of reciprocal proportion

B. Law of conservation of mass

C. Law of definite proportions

D. Law of multiple proportions

124. In an experiment 10 g of CaCO₃ on heating gave 4.6 g of CaO & 2.24lt of CO₂ at STP. These results show the law of

A. Reciprocal proportions

B. Gaylussac’s

C. Conservation of mass

D. Constant proportions

125. How many grams of 80% pure marble stone on calcinations can give 14 grams of quick lime?

A. 20gm

B. 11.2gm

C. 31.25gm

D. 25gm

126. The percent weight loss suffered by sodium bicarbonate on strong heating is

A. 25.68%

B. 73.80%

C. 36.90%

D. 63.1%

127. The maximum probability of finding an electron of a particular energy in an orbital is about

A. 80%

B. 99%

C. 85%

D. 95%

128. Radial part of the wave function depends on quantum numbers

A. n and l

B. l and s

C. n and s

D. l and m

129. Number of photons of wavelength J of energy is

A. 42

B. 39

C. 14

D. 28

130. The frequency of a light is 6X 10¹⁴Hz. its wavelength is

A. 500A⁰

B. 500

C. 5000A⁰

D. 60000

131. When compared to a neutral atom its anion is

A. smaller in size

B. may be smaller and larger in size

C. larger in size

D. none of these

132. In a period of representative elements, the decrease in ionic radius when compared with the corresponding decrease in atomic radius

A. is more

B. Cannot be predicted

C. is less

D. is equal

133. In a period from left to right, electron affinity

A. increases regularly

B. Decreases

C. Remains constant

D. Increases with exceptions

134. Configuration that shows the highest energy released when an electron is added to the atom is

A. 1s² 2s² 2p⁶

B. 1s² 2s² 2p⁴

C. 1s² 2s² 2p³

D. 1s² 2s² 2p⁵

135. The study of discharge of electricity through gases at low pressures led to the discovery of

A. Nucleus

B. neutron

C. Electron

D. proton

136. Electron is a particle having a

A. positive charge of one unit and zero mass

B. egative charge of one unit and a mass of about 1.67 × 10⁻²⁷ kg .

C. negative charge of one unit and zero mass

D. negative charge of one unit and a mass of about 9.1 × 10⁻³¹ kg

137. A hydrogen molecule and helium atom are moving with the same velocity. Then the ratio of their de Brogile wavelength is

A. 1:27

B. 2:01

C. 1:01

D. 2:03

138. Wavelength of an electron is 5A⁰.Velocity of the electron is

A. 3.2 × 10²⁷cm/s

B. 3.2 × 10⁻²⁷cm/s

C. 1.6 × 10-⁸cm/s

D. 1.45 × 10⁸ cm/s

139. Two successive elements belonging to the 3d-series have the same number of electrons in the d-sub-shell. Their atomic numbers are

A. 23 and 24

B. 22 and 23

C. 24 and 25

D. 27 and 28

140. Transition metal “X” has a configuration [Ar]3d⁴ in its +3 oxidation state. The atomic number of the metal is

A. 25

B. 26

C. 22

D. 19

141. Which of the following may be used as antipyretic as well as analgesic?

A. Alkaloid codeine

B. Morphine

C. Aspirin

D. Chlorofoine

142. A high molecular weight molecule built from a large number of simple molecules is called a

A. Tautomer

B. Isomer

C. Monomer

D. Polymer

143. Glucose on treatment with Tollen’s reagent produces

A. None of these

B. Saccharic acid

C. Gluconic acid

D. Glucaric acid

144. The correct order of second ionization potential of C, N, O and F is

A. O > N > F > C

B. C > N > O > F

C. O > F > N > C

D. F > O > N > C

145. The order HF < HCl < HI corresponds to which of the following properties

A. Dipole moment

B. Thermal stability

C. Bond length

D. Ionic character

146. Ionic solids are characterised by

A. Low melting point

B. Solubility in polar solvents

C. Good conductivity in solid state

D. High vapour pressure

147. An aqueous solution of 6.3g oxalic acid dihydrate is made upto 250 ml. Volume of 0.1N NaOH required to completely neutralize 10ml of this solution is

A. 40 ml

B. 4 ml

C. 20 ml

D. 10 ml

148. The correct match is

A. 4 ,1, 2 ,3

B. 1 ,3 ,4 ,2

C. 3, 2, 1, 4

D. 3 ,1 ,2, 4

149. The basis for the classification of elements in the Mendeleeff periodic table is

A. Atomic weight

B. Atomic volume

C. Electronic configuration

D. Equivalent wieght

150. Which pairs of atomic numbers in the following represents elements of the same group?

A. 9, 35

B. 11, 20

C. 18, 26

D. 12, 28

151. Vander waal’s radius is used for

A. Molecular substances in any state

B. Molecular substances in solid state only

C. Molecular substances in liquid state only

D. Molecular substances in gaseous state only

152. Ionisation energy of F⁻ is equal in magnitude with the electron affinity of

A. F⁺

B. F⁻

C. F

D. F²⁺

153. The peaks in ionisatoin potential curves are occupied by

A. halogens

B. transition metals

C. alkali metals

D. inert gases

154.

A. 5 1 2 3

B. 2 1 5 3

C. 2 5 1 4

D. 5 2 1 4

155. When salt bridge is removed, the voltage of Galvanic cell

A. Drops to zero

B. increase slowly

C. increase rapidly

D. Remains same.

156. The standard e.m.f. of a galvanic cell involving cell reaction with n = 2 is found to be 0.295 V at 25°C. The equilibrium constant of the reaction would be

A. 4.0 × 10¹²

B. 1.0 × 10¹⁰

C. 1.0 × 10²

D. 2.0 × 10¹¹

157. Which set of elements is transitional in character?

A. all the above

B. Os, Ir, Pt

C. Ru, Rh, Pd

D. Fe, Co, Ni

158. Bonds present in K₄ [Fe (CN)₆] are

A. Ionic and Covalent

B. Only ionic

C. Ionic, covalent and coordinate covalent

D. Only covalent

159. A sample of chloroform before using as an anaesthetic, is tested by:

A. Ammonical cuprous chloride

B. Ammonical silver nitrate solution

C. Silver nitrate solution after boiling with alcoholic KOH

D. Fehling’s solution

160. What are the products of the following reactions?

A. C₆H₅OH + BrCH₂CH₂OH

B. C₆H₅Br + HOCH₂CH₂OH

C. C₆H₅OH + HOCH₂CH₂OH

D. C₆H₅OH + BrCH₂CH₂Br