Chapter 4: The Inflammatory Response Study Mode

1. How many cases of severe sepsis occur in the United States each year?

A. 250,000

B. 500,000

C. 750,000

D. 1 million

2. Cytokines are:

A. Lipid mediators secreted by lymphocytes

B. Proteins that form the contractile elements of muscle cells

C. Toxins secreted by bacteria

D. Small hormone-like proteins secreted by individual cells

3. Which of the following mediators is a Th2 cytokine?

A. TNF

B. IL-1β

C. IL-10

D. IL-12

4. Which of the following receptors is essential for activation of macrophages by bacterial

lipopolysaccharide (LPS)?

A. TLR4

B. IL-1RI

C. IRAK

D. LBP

5. Treatment with a monoclonal anti-TNF antibody has been shown to be effective for the

treatment of selected cases of which of these diseases?

A. Asthma

B. Septic shock

C. Myocardial infarction

D. Crohn's disease

6. Which of the following agents has been approved by the FDA for the adjuvant

treatment of severe sepsis?

A. Recombinant human IL-6

B. Recombinant human activated protein C

C. Recombinant human growth hormone

D. Recombinant human IL-1RA

7. In critically ill victims of trauma, high circulating levels of IL-6 are:

A. Associated with an increased risk of death

B. Associated with a high likelihood of survival

C. Rarely detectable

D. A measurement artifact

8. Which of the following is the main cell type that is activated by IL-8?

A. Enterocytes

B. Macrophages

C. Monocytes

D. Neutrophils

9. HMGB1 is:

A. A late-acting proinflammatory cytokine

B. A nuclear protein that supports DNA transcription

C. A protein with high electrophoretic mobility

D. All of the above

10. Nitric oxide:

A. Is a widely used anesthetic gas

B. Is a potent endogenous vasoconstrictor

C. Is generated by cells from the amino acid L-arginine

D. Stimulates the aggregation of platelets

Chapter 06: Metabolism in Surgical Patients

1. A 5-year-old boy with an unresolved congenital umbilical hernia is admitted for

hernioplasty. After a moderate fasting period prior to surgery, the child is profoundly

asleep and unable to be roused. Marked hypoglycemia and ketonuria, accompanied by low

levels of alanine and insulin, are noted during workup. Administration of alanine produces

a rapid rise in his blood glucose level. The metabolic alteration most likely causing the

symptoms of this patient is expected in which of the following pathways?

A. Protein breakdown in muscle tissue

B. Mitochondrial β-oxidation of fatty acids by the liver

C. Lipolysis by desnutrin in adipose tissue

D. Glucagon secretion by alpha cells of the pancreas

2. A 52-year-old man is admitted with an episode of severe upper gastrointestinal bleeding.

The patient has a 25-year history of excessive alcohol consumption and was diagnosed with

cirrhosis 5 years ago. Because of recurrent and refractory bleeding from esophageal

varices, he consents to an emergency portocaval shunt. After surgery, the bleeding is

controlled and the patient seems to be improving until he subsequently falls into a deep

coma. The best next step in the diagnostic assessment of this patient is to order which of the

following tests?

A. Blood glucose level

B. Serum bilirubin level

C. Serum albumin level

D. Blood culture

E. Serum ammonia level

3. Indicate which of the following is not a contraindication to enteral nutrition.

A. Gastrointestinal ischemia

B. Severe short bowel syndrome

C. Distal high-output intestinal fistulas

D. Severe acute pancreatitis

4. In the management of enteral feeding associated diarrhea, which of the following is the

most appropriate initial action?

A. Change of antibiotics in use.

B. Change to an elemental-type formula (e.g., EleCare).

C. Change to an enteral formulation with fiber.

D. Start a small dose of loperamide.

5. In performing perioperative assessments, the most reliable biochemical predictors of

operative morbidity and mortality across surgical specialties include which of the

following?

A. Serum albumin level

B. Defects in cellular immunity and phagocytic function

C. Serum urea nitrogen level

D. Prothrombin time

6. A patient receives 2500 mL of Vivonex Pediatric/day, consisting of a total of 60 g of fat,

60 g of protein, and 325 g of carbohydrates. The daily caloric intake of this patient is best

represented by which of the following values?

A. 1600 kcal/day

B. 1700 kcal/day

C. 1900 kcal/day

D. 2200 kcal/day

7. A previously healthy, 18-year-old man is admitted to the ICU after sustaining multiple

injuries in a motorcycle accident. Multiple facial fractures, as well as ribs, pelvis, and right

femur fractures, were found in the initial scan. In addition, multiple deep dermal abrasions

affecting 40% of his body surface area were apparent. Nutritional support should be

initiated by which of the following?

A. Preferentially via the IV route

B. Only via enteral feeding tube to decrease the patient's high risk of aspiration

C. Immediately after resuscitation is complete (i.e., within the first 48 to 72

hours)

D. After definitive treatment of the injuries has been completed

8. This question concerns the same patient as in question 7.) Two months postinjury and

after operative procedures that included tracheostomy, open reductions with internal

fixation, exploratory laparotomy, and persistent ventilator support, a 20% loss of body

weight is noted as compared with admission. By simply considering weight loss, which of

the following can be accurately expected?

A. 50% increased risk of mortality

B. Reduced risk for pressure sores and pneumonia

C. 10% increased risk of mortality

D. Increased difficulty healing and weaning of ventilator support

9. A 9-year-old girl suffered an 86% TBSA, third-degree burn injury during a house fire.

She was found unconscious. The patient arrives to the burn unit with a heart rate (HR) of

130 beats/min, BP of 100/70 mm Hg, respiratory rate (RR) of 18 breaths/min, and

temperature (T) of 37.6° C. She receives standard care with adequate IV resuscitation,

thermoregulation of the room's thermostat to 33° C, and excision and grafting of her

wounds on postinjury day. What is the most reliable method to estimate caloric

requirements in this patient? (Questions 9 through 12 apply to this patient.)

A. Harris-Benedict equation

B. Curreri formula

C. Indirect calorimetry

D. Fick's equation

10. 7 days postinjury, HR = 165 beats/min, BP = 105/80 mm Hg, RR = 22 breaths/min, T =

38.5° C, plasma glucose level = 250 mg/dL, [Na] = 145 mEq/dL, [Cl] = 100 mEq/dL, and

[K] = 4.5 mEq/dL. You administer IV fluids, insulin, and potassium chloride. What should

be done to prevent mortality through the management of hyperglycemia in this critically ill

surgical patient?

A. Titrate patients to a glucose level goal between 80 and 110 mg/dL.

B. Consider starting the patient on an oral hypoglycemic.

C. Use insulin only if the plasma glucose level is >200 mg/dL

D. Minimize significant fluctuations of glucose and potassium carefully.

E. Request an endocrinology consultation.

11. Fifteen days following severe burns, excision, and autograft surgery, an increase of

>25% of insulin requirements is noted over the previous 24-hour period. What is the best

next step in the management of this patient?

A. Schedule further surgery to decrease hypermetabolic response.

B. Further increase the insulin drip until a glucose level of 140 to 180 mg/dL

is reached.

C. Order cultures and band neutrophil of peripheral blood.

D. Repeat blood glucose level testing and order a new metabolic panel.

12. Four weeks postinjury, during the daily abdominal examination, you palpate the lower

edge of the liver 4 cm below the edge of the ribs. No tenderness to palpation is reported and

there is no evidence of jaundice. Which of the following best explains the findings seen in

pathology?

A. Increased dietary intake of fats

B. Increased synthesis of fats from sugar-enriched diet

C. Excessive peripheral lipolysis.

D. Decreased β-oxidation of fat in liver mitochondria

Chapter 07: Wound Healing

1. Fetal wound healing is different from adult wound healing in that:

A. Fetal wounds heal without scarring and without dermal appendages.

B. Fetal wounds have increased amounts of TGF-β and FGF-2.

C. Fetal fibroblasts have decreased prolyl hydroxylase activity.

D. Fetal wounds have increased responses to inflammation and growth factor stimulation.

E. The ECM of the fetal wound has low levels of hyaluronic acid.

2. Elastin is:

A. Organized in mammalian skin in a basket weave pattern to resist

multidimensional tensile stress

B. Produced late in life; has a high turnover rate

C. An extremely hydrophilic molecule, which accounts for its functional

properties

D. An important component of the extracellular matrix of blood vessels;

mutations causing elastin protein deficiency result in intimal hyperplasia,

leading to arterial narrowing.

E. Affected in Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, which is characterized by fragile skin

3. The cells or cell components central to wound healing are:

A. B cells

B. T cells

C. Leukocytes

D. Macrophages

E. Platelets

4. Thromboxane causes:

A. Fibroblast chemotaxis

B. Vasoconstriction

C. Collagen cross linking

D. Endothelial proliferation

E. Bacterial lysis

5. Iron deficiency has an impact on wound healing by decreasing:

A. Early tensile strength

B. DNA synthesis

C. Conversion of hydroxyproline to proline

D. Tissue oxygenation

E. Fibroblast proliferation

6. Hypertrophic scar is:

A. Another term for keloids

B. More likely to occur on the face

C. Genetic in origin

D. Preventable

E. Worsened with glucocorticoids

7. The effects of diabetes on wound healing include:

A. Slowed epithelialization

B. Reduced phagocytosis

C. Glycosylated collagen

D. Thickened basement membrane

E. All of the above

8. Ionizing radiation causes hypoxia by:

A. Direct cellular injury to endothelium

B. Basal membrane injury

C. Release of histamine and serotonin

D. Preventing the hypoxic stimulus of angiogenesis

E. Increased dermal fibrosis and thickening

9. Nicotine ingestion affects wound healing by:

A. Increasing fibroblast proliferation

B. Increasing platelet adhesion

C. Competitively competing with oxygen

D. Inhibiting oxidative metabolism

E. Inhibiting oxygen transport

10. Which of the following events occurs in the proliferative phase of wound healing?

A. Histamine release

B. Collagen cross linking

C. Thromboxane release

D. Phagocytosis

E. Collagen synthesis

11.Chronic wounds characteristically have:

A. Tissue inflammation

B. Decreased tissue inhibitor of metalloproteinases levels

C. Increased gelatinase levels

D. Increased collagenase levels

E. All of the above

12. The wound healing impairment caused by corticosteroid administration can be

reversed by:

A. Vitamin A

B. Vitamin C

C. Zinc

D. Vitamin K

E. Vitamin B12

13. Which of the following glycosaminoglycans is not a component of skin?

A. Hyaluronic acid

B. Chondroitin sulfate

C. Dermatan sulfate

D. Heparin sulfate

E. Heparin

14. Most human collagen is:

A. Type I

B. Type III

C. Type IV

D. Type V

E. Type VII

15. Endothelial cells are induced to form tubules by:

A. Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)

B. Hypoxia

C. Tumor necrosis factor-α (TNF-α)

D. Transforming growth factor-β (TGF-β)

Chapter 08: Regenerative Medicine

1. Which of the following is not a primary cellular source currently being investigated for

use in tissue repair?

A. Embryonic stem cells

B. Somatic cell nuclear transfer

C. Circulating fetal stem cells

D. Stromal fraction of adult bone marrow and fat

E. Cancer stem cells

2. Adult mesenchymal stem cells can be characterized by:

A. Their ability to undergo clonal expansion, with the ability to differentiate

into fat, cartilage, and bone under appropriate conditions

B. Their low frequency in fat, but significantly higher frequency and ease of harvest in bone

marrow, with minimal morbidity

C. The disparate growth kinetics and gene transduction capacity between fat and bone marrow

sources

D. The inability for bone marrow–derived cells to undergo myogenic differentiation

E. A higher risk for whole blood contamination from fat-derived cells relative to bone marrow

sources

3. Which of the following is not true of fetal stem cells?

A. Fetal stem cells do not proliferate as fast as adult stem cells.

B. Fetal stem cells have been found to possess capacity for adipogenic, osteogenic, and

chondrogenic differentiation.

C. Xenogeneic transplantation has shown fetal stem cells to engraft and undergo site-specific

tissue differentiation.

D. The use of fetal stem cells is limited by ethical debate and attendant risks associated with

intrauterine procedures.

4. Which of the following is not one of the transcription factors used in cellular

reprogramming to create iPS cells?

A. Oct-4

B. Sox-9

C. Klf-4

D. Nanog

5. Which of the following is not true of ASCs?

A. ASCs can be differentiated into bone, fat, and cartilage.

B. The major advantage of ASCs is their relative abundance and ease of

isolation from subcutaneous adipose tissue through standard lipoaspirate

techniques.

C. ASCs represent a homogeneous cell line derived from lipoaspirate cells.

D. None of the above

6. Which of the following cell types is not pluripotent?

A. ESCs

B. iPS cells

C. ASCs

D. Cells derived by somatic cell nuclear transfer (SCNTs)

7. Induced pluripotent stem cells are characterized by:

A. Requirement for viral integration of defined transcription factors to dedifferentiate into

pluripotent state

B. Cells that are identical to embryonic stem cells

C. Cells that give rise to teratoma comprising all three germ layers when

injected into immunodeficient mouse

D. Inability to differentiate into neurons

8. In the skin, epidermal stem cells reside in:

A. Sweat glands

B. Bulge region along hair follicles

C. Superficial epidermis

D. Subcutaneous fat

Chapter 09: Evidence-Based Surgery: Critically

1. The difference between efficacy and effectiveness is:

A. The manner in which the outcome of interest is measured.

B. Efficacy is based on best case patient care and outcomes from research settings, whereas

effectiveness more closely approximates real-world results.

C. Effectiveness is based on best case patient care and outcomes from research settings, whereas

efficacy more closely approximates real-world results.

D. No difference.

2. In performing a health economic analysis, the author(s) must be certain to describe

which of the following?

A. The perspective being adopted

B. Discounting (to account for the future value of the dollar, usually 3% to 5%) and inflation

adjustment

C. The assessment of costs rather than charges

D. All of the above

3. Using observational data, causality can be inferred if:

A. Exposure precedes the outcome.

B. The exposure can plausibly and/or biologically lead to the outcome.

C. The magnitude of the association between exposure and outcome is large, with potentially

varying magnitudes of association between exposure dose and outcome.

D. All of the above.

4. In any study, both the hypothesis and plan of analysis should be stated a priori to

decrease the risk of:

A. A negative study.

B. A type I error.

C. A type II error.

D. Low statistical power.

5. A group of investigators perform a randomized trial comparing a control intervention

(A) to an experimental intervention (B). Their hypothesis is that intervention B is superior

to A with regard to the outcome of interest. The trial is adequately powered to identify a

difference if one truly exists. However, the results demonstrate no statistically significant

difference between these two interventions. The investigators conclude that the two

interventions are likely equivalent with regard to this outcome. What can safely be stated

about the result and the authors' conclusions?

A. The authors are correct; intervention B is equivalent to A in terms of the outcome of interest.

B. Intervention B would likely demonstrate a statistically significant improvement over A if the

sample size were larger.

C. The authors are incorrect because equivalence can only be ascertained using a noninferiority

trial design.

D. The conclusions depend on the manner in which the authors chose to control for confounding

factors.

6. Which of the following is true regarding the commonly used P value significance level of

.05?

A. This has been mathematically shown to be the cutoff for statistical significance.

B. It is commonly used and should therefore always be chosen as the cutoff for statistical

significance.

C. If a statistical test attains this level of significance, it definitively proves a difference exists.

D. It is arbitrary and a different level for statistical significance can be selected.

7. In analyzing data from a randomized trial, which of the following analytic approaches is

most appropriate?

A. Per-protocol

B. Case-complete

C. Intent to treat

D. Meta-analysis

8. Which of the following is true when comparing the odds with the probability of an

outcome?

A. The odds can overestimate the probability if the outcome of interest is common in the

underlying population.

B. The odds can underestimate the probability if the outcome of interest is common in the

underlying population.

C. The odds can overestimate or underestimate the probability if the outcome of interest is

common in the underlying population.

D. The two values are the same.

Chapter 13: Surgical Complications

1. Which of the following are mechanisms for heat loss that contribute to the development

of hypothermia?

A .Cool environment

B. Direct body contact to cooler materials

C. Heat loss with evaporated water vapor

D. Exhalation of warmed air

E. All the above

2. Which of the following is required to make a definitive diagnosis of malignant

hyperthermia?

A. Administration of an epidural anesthetic

B. Tachycardia

C. Cyanosis

D. Muscle biopsy

E. Muscle rigidity

3. Which of the following is not usually required for the clinical diagnosis of pneumonia?

A. Decreased breath sounds

B. Temperature that is usually greater than 38.5°C

C. Pleuritic chest pain with coughing

D. Elevated peripheral white blood cell count

E. Chest radiographic infiltrate

4. Which of the following criteria is indicative of the presence of acute lung injury (ALI)

rather than adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?

A. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure < 20 mm Hg

B. PaO2/FIO2 ratio < 300

C. PaO2/FIO2 ratio < 200

D. Bilateral infiltrates on chest radiography

E. An acute change in lung function

5. What is the expected reinfarction rate for patients undergoing noncardiac surgery after

a recent acute myocardial infarction (AMI)?

A. No difference compared with other myocardial infarction patients

B. 8% at less than 3 months, 3.5% at 3 to 6 months, then similar to other myocardial infarction

patients

C. 20% in the first 6 months and then similar to other myocardial infarction patients

D. 15% at less than 3 months, 10% at 3 to 6 months, 5% at more than 6 months

E. 50% at less than 3 months, 25% at 3 to 6 months, 15% at more than 6 months

6. Components of the syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone

(SIADH) include:

A. Hyponatremia

B. Hypernatremia

C. Peripheral edema

D. Serum hyperosmolality

E. Hypertension

7. Which of the following is not a common cause of a small bowel obstruction in an adult?

A. Hernia

B. Tumor

C. Volvulus

D. Adhesions

E. Ileocolic intussusception

8. An abdominal compartment syndrome produces all the following except:

A. Acute renal failure

B. Hypoxia

C. Intestinal obstruction

D. Elevated urinary bladder pressure

E. Hypercarbia

9. Intital treatment of acute gastrointestinal bleeding includes:

A. H2 receptor antagonists

B. Aggressive volume resuscitation

C. Gastrointestinal endoscopy

D. Sucralfate

E. Antibiotics

10. Surgical antibiotic prophylaxis is indicated:

A. In all emergency operations

B. For wounds classified as clean-contaminated

C. For wounds classified as contaminated

D. For wounds classified as dirty-infected

E. For all wounds

11. Postrenal causes of acute renal failure include all the following except:

A. Ureteral obstruction caused by stones

B. Bladder dysfunction caused by nerve injury

C. Urethral obstruction caused by prostatic enlargement

D. A blocked Foley catheter

E. Myoglobinuria

Chapter 14: Surgery in the Geriatric Patient

1. Which of the following statements is true?

A. Life expectancy of a patient 90 years old, who has no comorbid conditions, is 6 months.

B. The proportion of individuals 65 years old and older will remain constant over the next 50

years.

C. Age is frequently a risk factor in predicting postoperative morbidity and mortality.

D. There is a decline in physiologic function in all organ systems with aging.

E. It is estimated that approximately 25% of patients in most general surgical practices are older

than 65 years.

2. Which of the following statements is false?

A. Systolic cardiac function decreases with age at a constant rate.

B. Predictable decreases in renal function occur with age and relate specifically to the glomerular

filtration rate.

C. Insulin secretion from the beta cell decreases as a function of age.

D. Forced vital capacity (FVC) and forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) decrease

steadily with aging.

E. The synthetic capacity of the liver, as measured by standard liver function tests, remains

unchanged with age.

3. Which of the following is not a necessary part of the preoperative assessment in an older

adult?

A. Baseline cognitive evaluation

B. Exercise capacity testing

C. Determination of nutritional status

D. Advance directives and discussion of end-of-life wishes

E. Evaluation of ADLs and IADLs

4. In emergency surgery for perforated ulcer disease, a patient with preoperative shock,

more than 48 hours of perforation, and significant comorbid disease has a mortality rate

close to:

A. 0%

B. 25%

C. 50%

D. 75%

E. 100%

5. Which of the following is true regarding appendicitis in older adults ?

A. Most patients present with classic signs and symptoms of right lower quadrant pain, increased

white blood cell count, and fever.

B. Although there are typically delays in presentation to the hospital, the diagnosis is usually

made in a timely fashion.

C. Of these patients, 18% present with no abdominal pain.

D. Reported rates of perforated appendicitis in octogenarians are less than 50%.

E. The overall mortality in patients older than age 65 with appendicitis is approximately 18%.

6. In an older patient with suspected biliary disease, which of the following statements is

false?

A. The rate of gallstones is 30% to 40% of individuals older than 80 years.

B. There is an increased incidence of common bile duct stones in patients undergoing

cholecystectomy.

C. Gallbladder motility is typically normal.

D. The conversion rate from laparoscopic cholecystectomy to open procedures is higher than in

younger patients.

E. Biliary tract disease is a frequent cause of acute abdominal complaints in older adults.

7. Which of the following statements is not true?

A. Breast cancer in older women is more frequently associated with the presence of favorable

tumor markers.

B. Stage per stage, survival for older women with breast cancer is better than that seen in

younger women.

C. Breast cancer trials in the United States have a disproportionately low enrollment of older

women.

D. Advanced age is not a contraindication to breast-conserving surgery.

E. older women have an increased incidence of significant side effects from axillary lymph node

dissection (ALND).

8. Which of the following is not currently recommended for an older surgical patient?

A. Carotid endarterectomy

B. Carotid angioplasty and stenting

C. Open abdominal aortic aneurysm repair

D. Endovascular aneurysm repair

E. Peripheral arterial bypass

Chapter 15: Morbid Obesity

1. Hormones or peptides involved in satiety include:

A. Gastrin

B. Somatostatin

C. Glucagon

D. Ghrelin

E. Estrogen

2. Currently accepted guidelines from the National Institutes of Health for preoperative

selection of patients for weight reduction surgery include all the following except:

A. Patients with Prader-Willi syndrome

B. BMI > 35 kg/m2 with associated medical comorbidity worsened by obesity

C. Failed medical therapy

D. Psychiatrically stable

E. Motivated patient

3. Absolute contraindications for bariatric surgery include:

A. Cardiomyopathy

B. Pickwickian syndrome

C. Type 1 diabetes mellitus

D. Nonalcoholic steatotic hepatitis

E. None of the above

4. Laparoscopic sleeve gastrectomy has:

A. A higher leak rate than laparoscopic RYGB

B. A lower mortality rate for super obese BMI > 60 kg/m2 undergoing duodenal switch

C. A theoretical advantage over RYGB for iron absorption

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

5. One specific problem that may arise with persistent vomiting after any of the bariatric

operations is Wernicke's encephalopathy, which can be treated with parenteral:

A. Vitamin B12

B. Omeprazole

C. Thiamine (vitamin B1)

D. Ascorbic acid (vitamin C)

E. Scopolamine

6. Morbid obesity is defined as:

A. 1.5 times ideal body weight

B. BMI > 40 kg/mg2

C. 20% above ideal body weight for adolescents

D. A function of physical activity, comorbid conditions, and weight

E. Weight > 40 kg

7. Bariatric operative procedures that produce weight loss by a combination of restriction

of oral intake and malabsorption include all the following except:

A. Vertical banded gastroplasty

B. Duodenal switch

C. Biliopancreatic diversion

D. Roux-en-Y gastric bypass

E. None of the above

8. Long-term metabolic complications of Roux-en-Y gastric bypass include:

A. Hyperlipidemia

B. Vitamin C deficiency

C. Vitamin K deficiency

D. Lactic acidosis

E. Iron deficiency

9. Medical therapy that has proven to have significant long-term success in morbidly obese

patients includes:

A. Low-calorie diets

B. Sibutramine

C. Ghrelin

D. Orlistat

E. None of the above

10. Produced in the proximal stomach, levels of the hormone ghrelin:

A. When decreased, seem to produce increased food intake

B. Are suppressed in postoperative patients who have undergone gastric bypass

C. Are decreased in individuals on a low-calorie diet

D. Regulate release of insulin

E. Are decreased in patients after adjustable gastric banding.

Chapter 16: Anesthesiology Principles, Pain

1. Which of the following statements is true regarding isoflurane compared with

halothane?

A. Isoflurane is associated with smoother inhalational induction.

B. Isoflurane produces greater sensitization to the arrhythmogenic effects of catecholamines.

C. Isoflurane has greater potency, as reflected in a lower minimal alveolar concentration

(MAC).

D. Isoflurane is associated with more rapid emergence.

E. Isoflurane increases bronchoconstriction, whereas halothane decreases

bronchoconstriction.

2. Which of the following drugs is useful as a premedicant because of its potent amnesic

effects?

A. Glycopyrrolate

B. Etomidate

C. Midazolam

D. Ketamine

E. Thiopental

3. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the differences between

subarachnoid block and epidural block?

A. Subarachnoid block is associated with more rapid onset of hypotension.

B. Subarachnoid block is associated with greater risk of systemic local anesthetic toxicity.

C. Subarachnoid block is associated with less risk of post–lumbar puncture headache.

D. Subarachnoid block should not be performed with a mixture of local anesthetic and opioids.

E. Subarachnoid block is associated with a small risk of cardiac arrest for which resuscitation is

uncomplicated.

4. Essential monitors for all anesthetics include which of the following?

A. Direct arterial pressure

B. Exhaled volatile anesthetic concentration

C. Bioimpedance cardiac output

D. Electrocardiography

E. Anesthetic depth (bispectral index)

5. Which of the following muscle relaxants is largely metabolized by Hofman degradation

in plasma and is relatively independent of renal elimination?

A. Pancuronium

B. Vecuronium

C. Cisatracurium

D. Rocuronium

E. Atracurium

6. Which of the following statements is accurate regarding preoperative cardiac

evaluation?

A. Older patients undergoing cataract surgery require preoperative stress testing.

B. Patients who require major vascular surgery should undergo cardiac catheterization before

scheduling the vascular procedure.

C. Patients can be stratified for the need for cardiac evaluation based on symptoms and

magnitude of the anticipated surgery.

D. Patients with previous myocardial revascularization are at high risk for perioperative

myocardial infarction.

E. Ambulatory electrocardiography is sensitive and specific for the identification of patients at

high perioperative risk.

7. Which of the following guidelines is recommended for preoperative fasting?

A. Aspiration of gastric contents is not a problem; all patients can take food and liquids freely

until immediately before surgery.

B. A fasting period of 2 hours or more is recommended after ingestion of clear liquids.

C. All patients should not receive food or liquids after midnight before surgery the next day.

D. A fasting period of 6 hours or more is recommended after ingestion of solids.

E. Both B and D

8. Which of the following statements is accurate regarding local anesthetic toxicity?

A. The earliest symptoms are referable to the central nervous system.

B. At the first sign of local anesthetic toxicity, succinylcholine should be given.

C. When local anesthetics are used for regional block, adding epinephrine decreases the toxic

dose.

D. Bupivacaine is the least toxic of currently used local anesthetics.

E. Ester-type local anesthetic agents are more toxic than amide agents because of slow

metabolism.

9. Which of the following problems is commonly recognized in the postanesthesia care unit

(PACU)?

A. Delirium

B. Emesis

C. Hypoxemia

D. Hypertension

E. All of the above

10. Characteristics of moderate sedation include which of the following?

A. Absence of movement in response to a skin incision

B. Preserved airway reflexes

C. Motor response only to painful stimuli

D. Moderate respiratory depression

E. Moderate hypotension

11. Which four steps accurately describe the process of nociception?

A. Transduction, transmission, modulation, and perception

B. Recognition, registration, amplification, and interpretation

C. Perception, integration, orientation, and implementation

D. Description, analysis, formulation, and recognition

E. Deformation, translation, registration, and formulation

12. Which of the following opioids is partially converted to a metabolite that can

accumulate and cause seizures in patients with renal impairment?

A. Fentanyl

B. Hydromorphone

C. Codeine

D. Morphine

E. Meperidine

13 .What is the correct term for the physiologic process in which a previously effective dose

of an opioid fails to provide adequate analgesia?

A. Addiction

B. Psychological dependence

C. Physical dependence

D. Tolerance

E. Malingering

14. Compared with patients who receive conventional, intermittent, nurse-administered

opioid delivery, patients who receive intravenous patient-controlled analgesia experience

which of the following advantages?

A. Prompt analgesia

B. Smaller doses of opioids

C. Better maintenance of blood concentration of drugs in the analgesic range

D. Lower incidence of drug-related side effects

E. All of the above

Chapter 19: The Difficult Abdominal Wall

1. Abbreviated laparotomy is the initial phase of damage control surgery. The indications

are as follows:

A. Temperature less than 35° C

B. Medical bleeding

C. Arterial pH less than 7.20

D. Urine output less than 30 mL/kg/hr

E. A, B, and C are correct

2. The most common indications for the use of the open abdomen technique in general

surgery are as follows:

A. Abdominal compartment syndrome

B. Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm

C. Trauma-damage control

D. Acute pancreatitis

E. All of the above

3. If not recognized and treated, intra-abdominal hypertension can progress to abdominal

compartment syndrome. Which of the following clinical signs are hallmarks of abdominal

compartment syndrome?

A. Oliguria

B. Metabolic alkalosis

C. Increased peak inspiratory pressures

D. Intestinal ileus

E. A and C are correct

4. There are several techniques for creating a temporary abdominal closure for the open

abdomen. The key to all techniques must include the following:

A. Quick application

B. Seal in moisture and temperature

C. Quickly removable

D. High tensile strength

E. A, B, and C are correct

5. During the staged abdominal repair phase of damage control surgery, the surgeon has

several challenging questions to answer on return to the operating room. Which of the

following approaches can be used to address small and large bowel injuries?

A. Resection of devitalized tissue

B. Primary repair

C. Externalization with creation of a stoma

D. Primary bowel anastomosis

E. All of the above

6. The open abdomen technique has a high rate of nonclosure because of the following

complications:

A. Intra-abdominal abscess and intra-abdominal sepsis

B. Acute lung injury

C. Atmospheric intestinal fistula

D. Urinary tract infection

E. A and C are correct

7. Which of the following mesh products should not be used in the open abdomen setting

because they have very high rates of intestinal fistula formation and mesh infection?

A. Human dermal acellular dermis

B. PTFE

C. Porcine dermal matrix

D. Polypropylene

E. B and D are correct

8. The decision to close an open abdomen with visceral edema can be complicated. Which

of the following physiologic criteria can be used to guide abdominal closure in the

operating room?

A. Decrease in urine output by 10 mL/hr

B. Change in peak inspiratory airway pressure less than 10 cm H2O while attempting to bring the

fascia together

C. Increase in intracranial pressure by 5 cm H2O

D. Sustained increase in intra-abdominal pressure less than 20 mm Hg

E. B and C are correct

Chapter 20: Emergency Care of Musculoskeletal

1. Which of the following will increase the stiffness of an external fixation construct?

A. Using stainless steel instead of titanium pins

B. Using more pins

C. Placing the bars closer to the bone

D. Placing the bars in multiple planes

E. All of the above

2. A patient is found to have an isolated fracture of the medial malleolus on an ankle series

x-ray. What other imaging should be performed?

A. AP, lateral, and oblique views of the foot to look for a fifth metatarsal fracture.

B. CT scanning of the ankle to look for a tibial plafond fracture

C. AP and lateral views of the tibia and fibula to look for a proximal fibular fracture

D. AP and cross-table lateral views of the hip to look for a femoral neck fracture

E. PA and lateral views of the lumbar spine to look for a lumbar burst fracture

3. An absolute indication to perform a four-compartment fasciotomy of the leg for

compartment syndrome is:

A. Firm compartments on physical examination

B. ∆P < 30 mm Hg

C. Subjective complaints of paresthesias in the foot

D. Severe leg pain

E. Unconscious patient with a tibial shaft fracture

4. A 36-year-old man presents to the trauma bay after a motorcycle crash. His systolic

pressures remain in the 70s despite resuscitation with packed red blood cells and

crystalloid. His chest x-ray is normal. His pelvic x-ray is shown in Figure 20-30. What is the

next most appropriate treatment?

A. Application of a pelvic binder

B. Placement of a chest tube

C. CT of chest, abdomen, and pelvis

D. Emergent exploratory laparotomy

E. Arteriography

5. A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department with the fracture seen in

Figure 20-4A. A Hare traction splint was placed in the field. Traction on the injured limb

should be maintained. Which of the following is the most appropriate method of traction

for this patient?

A.Skin traction with a Buck boot

B. Distal femoral traction pin placed from medial to lateral

C.Proximal tibial traction pin placed from medial to lateral

D.Proximal tibial traction pin placed from lateral to medial

E. Hare traction splint left in place

6. A 47-year-old woman sustains the fracture shown in Figure 20-40. Which examination

tests the nerve most commonly injured with this fracture pattern?

A. Shoulder abduction

B. Elbow flexion

C. Wrist extension

D. Wrist flexion

E. Finger flexion

Chapter 21: Burns

1. The zone of stasis in a burn wound is associated with which of the following?

A. Direct thermal damage

B. Vasodilation

C. Neutrophil adherence

D. Platelet degranulation

E. Non-nutrient shunting

2. Deep second-degree wounds reepithelialize from retained keratinocytes in:

A.Rete ridges

B. Hair follicles

C. Moll glands

D. Reticular dermis

E. Meissner corpuscles

3. A patient with burns to the entire back, scalp (50% of the head and neck), and posterior

thighs has what percentage of his or her total body surface area (TBSA) burned?

A.40%

B.28%

C.20%

D.32%

E.36%

4. Severe burns are associated with which of the following immunodeficiencies in the acute

phase?

A. Neutropenia

B. Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor deficiency

C. Decreased cytotoxic T cell activity

D. Increased neutrophil apoptosis

E. Antibody overproduction

5. After major burn injury, the metabolic changes are characterized by an ebb and flow

phase. Changes consistent with the ebb phase include:

A. Increased oxygen delivery

B. Low cardiac output

C. Hypermetabolism

D. Hyperthermia

E. Hyperglycemia

6. Which of these therapeutic approaches to attenuate the hypermetabolic response can

lead to hyperglycemia?

A. Insulin

B. Growth hormone

C. Metformin

D. PPAR-γ agonists

E. Oxandralone

7. A 40-year-old, 100-kg man is involved in a house fire with burns to 45% of his TBSA.

He comes to the emergency department with two peripheral IV lines that are not being

used. It is 2 hours since his injury, and he has not received any resuscitation. His initial IV

fluid rate should be:

A. 250 mL/hr

B. 500 mL/hr

C. 1000 mL/hr

D. 1500 mL/hr

E. 2000 mL/hr

8. The relative surface area of regions of the body used in calculating burn surface area

differs in children from adults. Which of the following statements describes these

differences?

A. Children have relatively less surface area in the arms and legs and more in the trunk.

B. Adults have relatively more surface area in the trunk and less in the upper extremities.

C. Children have relatively more surface area in the head and neck and less in the lower

extremities.

D. Adults have more surface area in the head and neck and less in the lower extremities.

E. Children have relatively less area in the head and neck and more in the trunk

9. Which of the following synthetic and biologic dressings are currently used for burn

wound closure?

A. Allograft

B. Xenograft

C. Stem cells

D. Biobrane

E. Integra

10. Injury from smoke inhalation during a house fire occurs from which of the following?

A. Thermal injury

B. Excessive coughing

C. Splinting leading to atelectasis

D. Plugging of airways from concentration of soot

E. Toxic chemicals in smoke particles

11. What are the three zones of injury after burn?

A. Coagulation, stasis, necrosis

B. Fibrinolysis, stasis, injury

C. Coagulation, injury (stasis), hyperemia

D. Edema, injury, necrosis

12. What proinflammatory mediators are responsible for the postburn hypermetabolic

response?

A.TNF-α, IL-1, IL-6, catecholamines, glucagon, cortisol, endotoxin, nitric oxide

B. Cortisol, IL-5, IL-2, epinephrine, insulin

C. IL-10, CD4, insulin, TNF-α, glucosamine

D. Glucose, cortisol, norepinephrine, nitric oxide

13. One cause of multisystem organ failure after severe burn injury is:

A. Decreased intestinal permeability to macromolecules

B. Diminished blood volume and cardiac output

C. Decreased peripheral vascular resistance

D. Decreased presence of endotoxin

14. Severely burned patients with no other complications can lose 25% of total body mass

after acute burn injury. This loss is associated with:

A. Pneumonia and pressure ulcers

B. Pneumonia and decreased wound healing

C. Immune dysfunction and death

D. Decreased wound healing and immune dysfunction

15. Improvements in morbidity from severe burn injury stem from:

A. Decreased ambient temperature, late excision and grafting after resuscitation, and early

aggressive parenteral nutrition

B. Increased ambient temperature, early excision and grafting, and early enteral nutrition

C. Controlling sepsis and late excision and grafting

D. Selective beta blockers and high-fat and high-protein diets

Chapter 22: Bites and Stings

1. Which of the following statements regarding snakebite management in North America is

true?

A. Antivenom should be administered to any patient who presents to the hospital with a bite

from a definitively identified rattlesnake.

B. Skin testing for possible allergy should be performed before the administration of CroFab.

C. CroFab is effective for reversing venom poisoning by all North American pit vipers and coral

snakes.

D. Fasciotomy should be performed only in the setting of objectively measured elevation of

pressures in involved muscle compartments.

2. Which of the following injuries is considered low risk for becoming infected and can be

repaired by primary closure?

A. Dog bite to the face

B. Cat bite to the upper arm

C. Human bite over the dorsum of the metacarpophalangeal joint

D. Primate bite to the foot

3. Which of the following statements is false regarding cat bites?

A. Pasteurella multocida is the primary organism involved in infections.

B. Puncture wounds are common.

C. Wound infection occurs in 10% to 20% of cat bites.

D. Most cat bites are considered high risk for infection and inappropriate for primary closure.

4. Which of the following statements is false regarding rabies?

A. Most patients acquiring rabies from a bat do not recall being in contact with the bat.

B. Rabies is caused by rhabdovirus found in the saliva of mammals.

C. Patients with preexposure rabies immunization need active immunization only.

D. If diagnosed early, rabies is usually treatable.

5. Prophylactic antibiotics should be administered for all of the following injuries except:

A. Cat bite to the foot

B. Human bite to the ear

C. Dog bite to the arm of a diabetic patient

D. Dog bite to the scalp of a child

6. Management of spider bites should include:

A. Prompt administration of antivenom for any victim of a black widow spider bite

B. Application of local cooling measures and conservative wound care

C. Empirical administration of dapsone for wounds believed to be consistent with brown recluse

spider bites

D. Early (≤1 hour) excision of the bite site to limit venom spread

7. Which of the following statements regarding Lyme disease is true?

A. Patients with early Lyme disease often present with a rash consistent with erythema

multiforme.

B. Neurologic involvement, neuroborreliosis, occurs in approximately 80% of untreated patients.

C. First-line treatment for early Lyme disease without neurologic involvement includes

doxycycline for 14 to 21 days.

D. Attempts to develop a safe effective vaccine for Lyme disease have so far proven

unsuccessful.

8. Treatment of Hymenoptera-induced anaphylactic shock should include:

A. Epinephrine

B. Antihistamines (H1 and H2 blockers)

C. Steroids

D. Referral to an allergist for possible desensitization therapy

E. All of the above

9. Treatment for a moray eel bite includes:

A. Antirabies immunization

B. Débridement and primary closure

C. Débridement and delayed primary closure

D. Administration of antivenin

10. Treatment for a sea urchin puncture includes:

A. Percussion and fragmentation of the spine

B. Rapid extraction of the spine, followed by wide excision

C. Exploration of any discolored skin marking

D. Ice water immersion

E. None of the above

Chapter 23: Surgical Critical Care

1. A patient is defined as having brain death if the patient has complete absence of cortical

brain function and which of the following?

A. Loss of pupillary reflex to light

B. Loss of the vestibulo-ocular reflex

C. Loss of oropharyngeal reflex (gag reflex)

D. Apnea on consecutive tests despite adequate stimulation (PaCO2 >60 mm Hg)

E. There is no one accepted definition of brain death nationally

2. The Confusion Assessment Method (CAM-ICU) is useful in determining the presence or

degree of which of the following in patients in the intensive care unit?

A. Chronic dementia

B. Adequacy of sedation regimens in mechanically ventilated patients

C. Adequacy of analgesia in postoperative surgical patients

D. Identifying, evaluating, and managing acute delirium

E. Managing alcohol withdrawal

3. In a mechanically ventilated patient with a traumatic brain injury or in a patient in a

coma (GCS <8) in whom there is suspected elevation of intracranial pressure (ICP), what is

an appropriate PaCO2 goal to maintain?

A. 25 to 30 mm Hg

B. 30 to 35 mm Hg

C. 35 to 40 mm Hg

D. 40 to 45 mm Hg

E. 45 to 50 mm Hg

4. Which of the following statements is true regarding measurement of central venous

pressure (CVP) in postoperative surgical patients as a guide for management of fluid

resuscitation?

A. Right-sided heart function is a reliable predictor of left-sided heart function.

B. It is inaccurate in assessing volume status in a diverse group of surgical patients.

C. Values can be interpreted regardless of the patient's degree of mechanical ventilation

requirements of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP).

D. It is a good guide for instituting and managing vasopressor agents in hypotensive patients.

5. A postoperative patient with new-onset unstable atrial fibrillation with systolic blood

pressure of 70 mm Hg should be treated with which of the following modalities?

A. Direct current cardioversion

B. Intravenous beta blocker

C. Intravenous calcium channel blocker

D. Digoxin

6. Which of the following modalities has been shown to reduce mortality in adult patients

with the acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) in prospective randomized trials?

A. Corticosteroid early in the course of ARDS (<7 days)

B. Surfactant replacement therapy

C. Nitric oxide

D. Maintenance of lower filling pressure with pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) less

than 8 mm Hg

E. Lung protective ventilation with low tidal volumes of 6 mL/kg of ideal body weight

7. Abdominal compartment syndrome (ACS) is best described by which of the following?

A. Intra-abdominal pressure greater than 15 mm Hg

B. Intra-abdominal pressure greater than 25 mm Hg and evidence of decreased end organ

perfusion (i.e., oliguria, renal dysfunction, hypotension)

C. Intra-abdominal pressure greater than 35 mm Hg with hypoxemia

D. Peak airway pressure greater than 40 cm H2O

8. Which of the following have been shown to be clinical advantages of enteral feeding

versus total parenteral nutrition (TPN) in critically ill surgical patients?

A. Preservation of gut mucosal integrity and barrier function

B. Secretory IgA production of the gut

C. Decreased rates of catheter-related bloodstream infections

D. Lower cost

E. All of the above

9. Which of the following are strict indications to guide the institution of renal replacement

therapy in the form of intermittent hemodialysis or continuous venovenous filtration or

hemodialysis in critically ill surgical patients?

A. Increasing oxygen requirement and chest x-ray findings of interstitial edema and engorged

pulmonary vasculature

B. Blood pH less than 7.25

C. Potassium level greater than 6.0 mEq/L

D. There are no specific or strict indications to start renal replacement therapy

E. CO2 level less than 16 mEq/L on chemistry profile

10. Which of the following is most appropriate regarding glycemic control in critically ill

surgical patients?

A. Goal glucose should be 80 to 110 mg/dL to improve outcomes in patients with traumatic brain

injury.

B. Stress-related hyperglycemia should be managed with longer acting forms of insulin such as

insulin glargine.

C. Maintaining glucose levels less than 180 mg/dL compared with maintaining a range of 81 to

110 mg/dL results in fewer episodes of hypoglycemia and lower mortality.

Chapter 27: Liver Transplantation

1.The most common indication for liver transplantation in the United States is:

A. EtOH

B. Sclerosing cholangitis

C. Hepatitis B virus

D. Hepatitis C virus

E. Hepatocellular carcinoma

2.An infant with extrahepatic biliary atresia, chronic liver insufficiency, and failure to thrive may be

served by:

A. Whole pediatric liver transplantation

B. Split orthotopic liver transplantation

C. Live donor liver transplantation

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

3.The current risk of death to the donor for live donor liver transplantation is:

A. About the same as the risk to a potential kidney donor

B. 1/100

C. 1/1,000

D. 1/10,000

E. 1/100,000

4.The current system of liver distribution is primarily based on:

A. Insurance

B. Medical necessity

C. Region

D. Recipient age

E. None of the above

5.The liver can be divided into segments based on

A. Portal vein inflow

B. Hepatic artery inflow

C. Biliary outflow

D. Hepatic vein outflow

E. All of the above

6.Which are appropriate treatment(s) for hepatocellular carcinoma and cirrhosis?

A.Whole liver transplantation

B. Liver resection

C. Live donor liver transplantation

D. Resection with salvage transplantation

E. All of the above

7.Which statement about immunosuppression medication is false?

A. Cellcept (mycophenolate) is an antiproliferation agent.

B. Calcineurin inhibitors have nephrotoxic and neurotoxic side effects.

C.Calcineurin inhibitors prevent expansion of the host response by inhibiting IL-10 production.

D. Immunosuppressive agents are optionally used in combination to maximize their effect and minimize

toxicity.

Chapter 28: Kidney and Pancreas Transplantation

1.A 50-year-old man arrives in the recovery room following an uneventful living donor kidney

transplantation. It was documented that there was good urine output in the operating room. When the

patient arrives, there is no urine output. The next best step would be to:

A. Order an ultrasound.

B. Perform an emergent biopsy to rule out hyperacute rejection.

C. Examine the patient.

D. Flush the Foley catheter.

2.A 50-year-old man arrives in the recovery room following an uneventful living donor kidney

transplantation. It was documented that there was good urine output in the operating room. When the

patient arrives, there is no urine output. The physical exam reveals BP, 134/70 mm Hg, HR, 76

beats/min, RR, 14 breaths/min, O2 saturation, 100%, Foley is intact. An inspection of the abdomen

reveals a distended right lower quadrant. The incision is dry. The next best step is to:

A. Order an ultrasound.

B. Open the wound at the bedside.

C. Flush the Foley catheter.

D. Return to the operating room.

3.A 50-year-old man arrives in the recovery room following an uneventful living donor kidney

transplantation. It was documented that there was good urine output in the operating room. When the

patient arrives, there is no urine output. The most likely diagnosis in this case is:

A. Lymphocele

B. Urine leak

C. Hyperacute rejection

D. Wound dehiscence

E. Arterial thrombosis

4.A 35-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes wishes to be evaluated for a kidney pancreas

transplantation. She has a history of hypertension and has recently started dialysis. There is no family

history of cardiac disease.

Her initial workup should include:

A. C-peptide level

B. Cardiac stress test

C. Pap smear

D. All of the above

5.A 35-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes wishes to be evaluated for a kidney pancreas

transplantation. She has a history of hypertension and has recently started dialysis. There is no family

history of cardiac disease. The patient presents at 3 weeks post-transplantation with an elevated amylase

level and her creatinine level is also somewhat elevated at 1.4 mg/dL, from a baseline of 1.0 mg/dL. Her

glucose level is normal and her urine output has been normal. Diagnostic tests should include:

A. Abdominal and pelvic CT scan

B. Urinalysis

C. CMV polymerase chain reaction assay

D. Ultrasound and kidney biopsy

E. C-peptide level

Chapter 29: Small Bowel Transplantation

1. Which of the following patients would be considered an appropriate candidate for intestinal

transplantation?

A. A 2-year-old boy with long-segment Hirschsprung disease extending into the jejunum with an end

jejunostomy. He receives a combination of continuous tube feeds via a gastrostomy tube and supplemental

intravenous fluids via a tunneled central venous catheter. He has had the central venous line replaced once

because of a break in the line but has not had a known central venous line infection.

B. A 23-year-old woman with a history of Crohn disease who has had multiple bowel resections because of

strictures. She is currently dependent on TPN, although she can tolerate small amounts of oral intake. Her liver

function is normal. She has had one central venous line infection owing to Staphylococcus epidermidis, which

was successfully treated with antibiotics.

C. A 1-year-old girl who was born prematurely and lost most of her small intestine secondary to necrotizing

enterocolitis. She is currently dependent on TPN and has been hospitalized five times for central venous line

infections, two of which were due to Candida albicans.

D. A 10-year-old boy with pseudo-obstruction who has recurrent episodes of abdominal pain and distention.

He has recently had to begin TPN because of failure to maintain adequate growth.

2. A 2-year-old boy with intestinal failure secondary to gastroschisis and parenteral nutrition–associated

liver disease (PNALD) is on the waiting list for a combined liver-intestine transplant. His blood type is

A, and he weighs 13 kg. Which of the following potential donors would be most appropriate?

A. A 1-year-old donor who sustained head traumas as a result of child abuse; the donor is blood type A and

weighs 8 kg

B. An 8-year-old donor who sustained head trauma as a result of a bicycle versus motor vehicle accident; the

donor is blood type A and weighs 25 kg

C. A 20-year-old donor who sustained head trauma as a result of a motorcycle accident; the donor is blood

type A and weighs 60 kg

D. A 2{1/2}-year-old donor who sustained head trauma as a result of a motor vehicle accident; the donor is

blood type A and weighs 14 kg

3.For patients who require a liver transplant in addition to an intestinal transplant owing to intestinal

failure and parenteral nutrition–associated liver disease (PNALD), what is the advantage of including

the pancreas en bloc with the other organs?

A. Most patients with intestinal failure and PNALD also have diabetes.

B. Including the pancreas avoids having to perform any hilar dissection in the donor organs and avoids having

to perform separate vascular anastomoses for the liver and the intestine during implantation in the recipient.

C. The native pancreas is removed from the recipient with the recipient's liver and remnant small intestine and

needs to be replaced.

D. Including the pancreas has been shown to decrease the incidence of rejection.

4. Which of the following is the most effective induction agent for intestinal transplantation?

A. Alemtuzumab (Campath)

B. Basiliximab (Simulect)

C. Daclizumab (Zenapax)

D. Rabbit antithymocyte globulin (Thymoglobulin)

E. No agent has been proven superior to the others

5.The most effective method of monitoring an intestinal allograft for rejection is:

A. Serum liver function tests

B. Endoscopically obtained mucosal biopsy specimens reviewed by a pathologist

C. Measuring stoma or stool output

D. Clinical signs such as abdominal pain and distention

6.Infection with which of the following pathogens may mimic rejection in intestinal transplant

recipients?

A. Epstein-Barr virus

B. Escherichia coli

C. Cytomegalovirus

D. Enterobacter species

E. Klebsiella species

7.Recipients of which transplanted organ are at the highest risk of developing post-transplant

lymphoproliferative disorder (PTLD)?

A. Kidney

B. Intestine

C. Heart

D. Liver

8.The most common cause of death after intestinal transplantation is:

A. Infection

B. Post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder (PTLD)

C. Graft-versus-host disease (GVHD)

D. Chronic rejection

Chapter 30: Tumor Biology and Tumor Markers

1.Which of the following genetic changes may be involved in tumorigenesis?

A. Activation of a proto-oncogene

B. Loss of a tumor suppressor gene

C. Activation of a growth factor receptor–encoding gene

D. All of the above

2.Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. Cancer is the second most common cause of death in the United States.

B. Cancer disproportionally affects people 65 years and older.

C. It is estimated that 15% to 50% of all cancer deaths in the United States can be attributed to overweight and

obesity.

D. Cancer incidence is the number of cancer patients in the population.

3.Which type of adjuvant therapy may provide the best strategy for the postoperative eradication of

residual microscopic disease?

A. Chemotherapy

B. Radiation therapy

C. Immunotherapy

D. Combination therapy

4.Germline mutations have been postulated to be associated with several tumors. Which of the following

is an example?

A. p53

B. APC

C. KRAS

D. All of the above

5.Tumor growth is dependent on:

A. Paracrine factors

B. Autocrine and paracrine factors

C. Immune cell infiltrate

D. Autocrine factors

6.Which early events in the primary tumor are characteristic for the formation of metastases?

A. Angiogenesis

B. Intravasation and extravasation

C. Evasion of cell death

D. Detachment from extracellular matrix and intravasation.

7. What is most essential for the development of a tumor?

A. Successive genetic alterations

B. The ability to produce growth factors

C. Deletion of p53

D. Immunosuppressed or immunodeficient host

8.An ideal tumor marker is

A. Detectable early with a high degree of false-negative findings

B. Detectable only when tumors metastasize

C. Characterized by a high specificity and low sensitivity

D. exclusively by the particular tumor

9.CA 19-9 levels may be elevated in which of the following conditions?

A. Pancreatic adenocarcinoma

B. Benign biliary stricture

C. Malignant biliary stricture

D. Colon cancer

E. All of the above

10.A false-positive CEA test can occur in which of the following benign conditions?

A. Ulcerative colitis

B. Cirrhosis

C. COPD

D. Gallstone pancreatitis

E. All of the above

11.Which of the following is not correct regarding the use of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) as a tumor marker

for hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)?

A. AFP levels may be elevated in other gastrointestinal malignancies.

B. The combination of ultrasound with AFP improves the sensitivity of screening for HCC.

C. Following complete resection, AFP levels should fall below 10 ng/mL.

D. The rate at which the AFP level rises is not associated with a worse prognosis.

E. None of the above.

12.Which of the following is correct regarding prostate-specific antigen (PSA)?

A. PSA levels do not rise after digital rectal examination.

B. PSA level > 4 ng/mL is diagnostic of prostate cancer.

C. After complete resection, the PSA level should normalize after 2 to 3 weeks.

D. An elevated but stable PSA level after radiotherapy does not portend clinical relapse.

13..A highly specific test for a tumor marker may still yield a large number of false-positive test results:

A. When the test has low sensitivity

B. When the prevalence of the disease tested for is low in the tested population

C. When the test is done with urine samples instead of serum samples

D. When the assay is a radioimmunoassay

E. When the test has to be done on fresh tumor samples instead of preserved samples

14..Breast cancer specimens are now routinely tested for which of the following tumor markers?

A. Estrogen receptor

B. Progesterone receptor

C. Her2/neu expression

D. A and B

E. A, B, and C

15.Her2/neu expression status of a breast tumor is important for:

A. Monitoring the efficacy of therapy

B. Determining treatment for recurrent cancer

C. Diagnosis

D. Timing of second-look procedures

E. All of the above

16.Patients with metastatic colorectal cancer who lack a KRAS mutation in codon 12 or 1:

A. Are more likely to respond to anti-EGFR antibody therapy

B. Are less likely to respond to anti-EGFR antibody therapy

C. Have improved disease-free survival when treated with anti-EGFR antibody therapy

D. Have no change in overall survival when treated with anti-EGFR antibody therapy

E. A and C

F. A and D

17.Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the use of the 21-gene assay, Oncotype DX,

in breast cancer?

A. Predicts likelihood of local tumor recurrence

B. Was designed for patients with node-negative, tamoxifen-treated breast cancer

C. Cannot be used in ER-negative tumors

D. Alters treatment choice in approximately 25% of cases

E. Assays 16 tumor-associated gene

Chapter 32: Melanoma and Cutaneous Malignancies

1.What percentage of patients with BCC or SCC develop a second skin cancer within 5 years of the first

skin cancer?

A. 10%

B. 25%

C. 50%

D. 80%

E. 100%

2.After 10 years of immunosuppression, what percentage of transplantation patients develop

malignancies?

A. 1%

B. 10%

C. 25%

D. 50%

E. 80%

3.Which form of skin cancer is associated with the highest risk of simultaneous internal malignancies?

A. BCC

B. SCC

C. Melanoma

D. Extramammary Paget's disease

E. Bowen's disease

4.Which of the following skin malignancies causes the highest number of deaths each year?

A. Squamous cell carcinoma

B. Basal cell carcinoma

C. Merkel cell carcinoma

D. Melanoma

Chapter 34: Bone Tumors

1.Factors that limit local recurrence in low-grade extremity soft tissue sarcoma include all of the

following except:

A.Complete local resection

B. Histologically negative margins

C. Adjuvant external beam radiation therapy

D. Adjuvant brachytherapy

E. Primary presentation

2.Risk factors for local recurrence in extremity soft tissue sarcoma include all of the following except:

A. Positive microscopic margin

B. Fibrosarcoma histopathology

C. Deep location

D. High histologic grade

E. Previous recurrence

3.Risk factors for distant metastasis in extremity soft tissue sarcoma include all of the following except:

A. Recurrent presentation

B. Size = 10 cm

C. Deep location

D. Fibrosarcoma histopathology

E. High histologic grade

4.True statements about soft tissue sarcomas include the following:

A. Approximately 50% occur in the extremities.

B. Prior radiation therapy is a causative agent.

C. Lymphedema is a predisposing factor.

D. Liposarcoma is the most common histopathology

E. All of the above

5.Which one of the following is an important factor indicating poor prognosis in extremity soft tissue

sarcoma?

A. High histologic grade

B. Liposarcoma histopathology

C. Size < 8 cm

D. Distal limb site

E. Prior incisional biopsy

6.Biopsy of a primary bone tumor should be done:

A. As soon as the lesion is discovered

B. After thorough staging studies are completed

C. In the operating room

D. At the same time that a venous access port is placed

7.Which of the following bone tumors are radiographic diagnoses and do not require biopsy?

A. Chondrosarcoma

B. Metastasis

C. Giant cell tumor

D. Osteochondroma

8.Impending fractures should be treated by:

A. Radiation therapy

B. Chemotherapy

C. Internal fixation

D. Bisphosphonates

9.Preoperative chemotherapy for osteogenic sarcoma is:

A. Needed to perform limb-preserving surgery

B. Predictive of disease-free survival

C. Useful to tailor postoperative chemotherapy

D. Determined by the translocation type causing the tumor

10.Joint replacement to reconstruct defects after a tumor resection is:

A. As successful as after removal of an arthritic joint

B. Not possible in children younger than 10 years old

C. Best for benign tumor cases

D. Can be combined with allograft bone transplantation

Chapter 35: Head and Neck

1.Which of the following statements regarding aerodigestive tract cancer associated with human

papillomavirus (HPV) is false?

A. The incidence of HPV-associated aerodigestive tract cancer specific to the tonsil and tongue base subsites is

increasing in North America.

B. HPV-related aerodigestive tract cancer tends to occur in older patients compared with non—HPV-related

aerodigestive tract cancers.

C. The incidence of HPV-related aerodigestive tract cancers is increasing at a higher rate in nonsmokers

compared with smokers.

D. Theincidence of HPV-related aerodigestive tract cancers is increasing at a higher rate in non—alcohol

abusers compared with alcohol abusers.

2.A neck dissection that resects nodal levels I through V but preserves the sternocleidomastoid muscle,

the spinal accessory nerve, and the internal jugular vein is referred to as a:

A. Selective neck dissection

B. Modified neck dissection

C. Radical neck dissection

D. Functional neck dissection

3.To reduce the chance of a vocal fold paralysis postoperatively, the preferred approach to the cervical

spine should be:

A. Left-sided because it reduces the tension on the recurrent laryngeal nerve during the exposure

B. Left-sided because of the incidence of nonrecurrent recurrent laryngeal nerve on the right side

C. Right-sided because it reduces the tension on the recurrent laryngeal nerve during the exposure

D. Right-sided because of the incidence of nonrecurrent recurrent laryngeal nerve on the left side

4.Why should percutaneous tracheotomy performed in the ICU be avoided in patients with prolonged

transoral intubation secondary to ventilator dependence?

A. Percutaneous tracheotomy has a higher incidence of postdecannulation stenosis in patients undergoing

tracheotomy owing to failure to wean from mechanical ventilation.

B. Percutaneous tracheotomy has a higher incidence of complications from accidental decannulation because

an inferiorly based trachea-to-skin flap specific to this procedure is not created.

C. Percutaneous tracheotomy has a higher incidence of "false lumen" creation than traditional open

tracheotomy performed in the operating room.

D. Percutaneous tracheotomy does not have a higher incidence of intraoperative or postoperative

complications and is as safe to perform in ventilator-dependent patients as traditional open tracheotomy

5.An adult patient presents with an asymptomatic, solitary 4-cm neck mass that has been present for 1

month. Physical examination and history are otherwise unremarkable. The initial step in the workup for

this mass would be:

A. CT scan with intravenous contrast agent

B. Open incisional biopsy

C. Fine-needle aspiration

D. Open excisional biopsy with conversion to neck dissection depending on intraoperative frozen section

diagnosis

6.A patient presents with a glottic squamous cell carcinoma involving both anterior true vocal cords but

not either of the arytenoid cartilages, and is not a candidate for endoscopic surgical treatment because

of the inability to expose the larynx for laser excision. A viable conservation surgical therapy would be:

A. Supraglottic laryngectomy

B. Supracricoid laryngectomy with cricohyoidoepiglottopexy

C. Vertical partial laryngectomy

D. Total laryngectomy with tracheoesophageal puncture

7. A 30-year-old woman presents with a slowly growing, asymptomatic, 3-cm parotid mass. Office fine-

needle aspiration is inconclusive. Assuming that the intraoperative frozen section shows this mass to be a

benign salivary neoplasm, the most appropriate surgical plan would be to perform:

A. Incisional biopsy without the need for further surgery

B. Total parotidectomy with facial nerve dissection and preservation

C. Excisional biopsy without the need for further surgery

D. Superficial parotidectomy with facial nerve dissection and preservation

8.A patient has a recurrent laryngeal nerve resection as part of removal of an aggressive thyroid

malignancy. Postoperatively, her voice is breathy and weak and is insufficient for performing at her

profession. The goal of subsequent voice restoration surgery is to:

A. Create volitional abduction and adduction of the affected vocal cord to preserve both voice and airway

patency

B. Create volitional abduction and adduction of the affected vocal cord to preserve both voice and airway

protection from aspiration during swallowing

C. Medialize the affected vocal cord to create static contact with the opposite, mobile cord

D. Place a Silastic implant that is capable of directly contacting the opposite, mobile cord

9.An adult patient presents with a right-sided, 3-cm asymptomatic neck mass deep to the

sternocleidomastoid muscle at the level of the hyoid bone that has been growing over the past 3 months.

The most likely etiology in this patient is:

A. Branchial cleft cyst

B. Malignant lymphadenopathy

C. Lipoma

D. Carotid body tumor

10.The level of the neck nodes bounded by the laryngeal strap muscles anteriorly, the posterior border

of the sternocleidomastoid muscle posteriorly, a horizontal plane at the level of the cricoid cartilage

inferiorly, and the level of the hyoid bone superiorly is referred to as level:

A. Ia

B. II

C. III

D. IV

Chapter 37: Breast Reconstruction

1.A 43-year-old woman is scheduled for reconstruction of the right breast with a latissimus dorsi flap.

She is at greatest risk for which of the following complications?

A. Chronic chest wall pain

B. Dorsal wound dehiscence

C. Partial flap necrosis

D. Seroma

E. Stiffness in the ipsilateral shoulder

2.A 58-year-old nulligravid woman who is scheduled to undergo bilateral prophylactic mastectomy

comes to the office for consultation regarding immediate breast reconstruction. She works full time as a

fitness instructor. The patient currently wears a size 34B brassiere and wants her bra size to be

increased to a C cup, but she wants to make sure that scarring is minimized. Her height is 5 feet, 5

inches and weight is 120 lb. Physical examination of the abdomen shows a paucity of extra tissue. Which

of the following is the most appropriate breast reconstruction procedure for this patient?

A. Bilateral autogenous reconstruction

B. Bilateral tissue expansion followed by implantation of prostheses

C. Delayed breast reconstruction after pathology is confirmed

D. Single-stage reconstruction with prostheses

E. TRAM flap followed by implantation of prostheses

3.A 55-year old woman undergoes a modified radical mastectomy with immediate first-stage

reconstruction of the right breast with a tissue expander. Before beginning the second stage, to exchange

the tissue expander with a permanent prosthesis, pathology results from analysis of tissue from the right

breast indicate metastatic carcinoma of four axillary lymph nodes. Radiation therapy is recommended.

Which of the following interventions will result in the best long-term appearance of the reconstructed

breast?

A. Complete the tissue expansion before radiation and exchange the tissue expander with a prosthesis after

radiation.

B. Deflate the tissue expander before radiation; reinflate the tissue expander and exchange with a prosthesis

after radiation.

C. Remove the tissue expander and reconstruct the breast with a TRAM flap before radiation.

D. Remove the tissue expander before radiation; after radiation, reinsert and expand a tissue expander and then

exchange with a prosthesis.

E. Remove the tissue expander before radiation and reconstruct the breast with a TRAM flap after radiation

4.The skin-sparing mastectomy involves the preservation of the:

A. Areola

B. Nipple

C. Inframammary crease

D. Skin

E. Skin and areola

5.A 45-year-old woman with T3N0 invasive ductal carcinoma in the inferior pole of the left breast is

scheduled to undergo segmental mastectomy and subsequent radiation therapy. She currently wears a

size 36DDD bra and is willing to accept any cup size from C to DDD. Which of the following

interventions will yield the best cosmetic result in this patient?

A. Bilateral reduction mammaplasty

B. Implantation of a prosthesis in the left breast and mastopexy of the right breast

C. Latissimus dorsi musculocutaneous flap reconstruction of the left breast and mastopexy of the right breast

D. TRAM reconstruction of the defect

E. No reconstruction

6.A 40-year-old woman is scheduled to undergo reconstruction of the right breast via a free TRAM flap.

She has smoked two packs of cigarettes daily for the past 8 years. This patient's smoking history

increases her risk of which of the following postoperative complications?

A. Hematoma

B. Mastectomy flap necrosis

C. Seroma

D. TRAM flap loss

E. Vessel thrombosis

7.A 48-year-old woman comes to the office for consultation regarding reconstruction of her right breast

after mastectomy because of cancer. The patient is concerned about maximizing the aesthetic result and

minimizing any donor site deformity. Physical examination shows a well-healed chest wall and a B cup

left breast with grade 3 ptosis. Soft tissue reconstruction with an SGAP free flap is planned. Which of

the following is a disadvantage of this procedure?

A. Difficulty molding the gluteal fat

B. Gait dysfunction

C. Inability to hide the donor scar completely

D. Inability to provide a sensate flap

E. Lack of abundant soft tissue

8.A healthy 27-year-old woman comes to the office for follow-up examination 3 months after undergoing

bilateral prophylactic mastectomy and reconstruction with saline prostheses. She is concerned about the

incision on her left breast because it is slightly swollen and warm to the touch. Physical examination

shows mild erythema of the left breast and normal healing of the right breast. Which of the following is

the most appropriate initial management?

A. Observation

B. Oral antibiotic therapy

C. Open lavage of the implant pocket

D. Removal of the prosthesis

E. Exchange of the prosthesis

9.A 36-year-old woman comes to the office for consultation regarding breast reconstruction 1 year after

undergoing a right modified radical mastectomy. The procedure was followed by 6 weeks of radiation

therapy. She has no history of other surgical procedures or serious medical illnesses. She is 5 feet. 4

inches in height and weighs 135 lb. She wears a size 32B brassiere. Which of the following is the least

appropriate breast reconstruction procedure for this patient?

A. Extended latissimus dorsi flap

B. Latissimus dorsi flap with saline-filled prosthesis

C. SGAP flap

D. TRAM flap

E. Two-stage reconstruction with a tissue expander and saline-filled prosthesis

10.Secondary breast reconstruction procedures such as nipple reconstruction and areolar tattooing are

considered:

A. At time of mastectomy and immediate breast reconstruction

B. Prior to the patient receiving chemotherapy

C. Prior to the patient receiving radiotherapy

D. After chemotherapy and radiation therapy

E. Prior to flap or expander placement

Chapter 38: Thyroid 1.The recurrent laryngeal nerve provides motor innervation to all muscles of the larynx. A. The recurrent laryngeal nerve provides motor innervation to all muscles of the larynx.

B. The thyroid forms as two lateral projections from the developing alimentary tract that fuse in the midline

during development.

C. Unilateral vocal cord paralysis may have minimal clinical symptoms.

D. All cells in the adult thyroid are of endodermal origin.

2.You evaluate a 35-year-old woman with a palpable nodule in the right lateral neck. No other lateral

neck masses are appreciable on examination. Fine-needle aspiration biopsy of this mass reveals thyroid

cells. Which of the following statements is true?

A. In the absence of a palpable thyroid nodule, this likely represents lateral aberrant thyroid, which is a normal

embryologic variant.

B. When found in the setting of the most common pathologic type of thyroid cancer, this finding does not

significantly alter the expected survival for this patient.

C. Given the pathologic finding, the appropriate surgical approach is total thyroidectomy and selective

excision of all lymph nodes that appear suspicious on operative evaluation.

D. In the absence of palpable adenopathy, it would be unlikely to find pathologic evidence of metastasis to

regional lymph nodes from the most common type of thyroid cancer.

3.You evaluate a 27-year-old woman with a thyroid nodule. Fine-needle aspiration biopsy is consistent

with medullary thyroid cancer. Which of the following statements is true?

A. Most cases of medullary thyroid cancer are sporadic and not associated with a familial syndrome.

B. The next appropriate step in management is to proceed directly to total thyroidectomy with bilateral central

compartment lymph node dissection.

C. In a case of the finding of RET proto-oncogene mutation in a patient with no palpable or ultrasound-

detectable thyroid nodule, annual observation is indicated, and thyroidectomy should be performed when a

nodule is first appreciated on examination or imaging.

D. After resection for medullary thyroid cancer and recovery from surgery, radioiodine ablation with either

thyroid hormone withdrawal or thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) administration is the next therapeutic

intervention.

4.All of the following statements regarding the treatment of papillary thyroid cancer are true except

which one (which is false)?

A. Total thyroidectomy is indicated for cancers greater than 1 cm in greatest dimension and for smaller cancers

with adverse features such as a history of radiation exposure.

B. Reoperation is indicated for completion thyroidectomy for patients who have a papillary thyroid cancer

greater than 1 cm discovered on permanent section pathology after thyroid lobectomy.

C. Prophylactic lateral compartment neck dissection (ipsilateral modified radical neck dissection) is indicated

in most cases.

D. After resection, exogenous thyroid hormone should be titrated to achieve a subnormal thyroid-stimulating

hormone (TSH).

5.All of the following statements are characteristic of hormones produced by the thyroid gland except

which one (which is false)?

A. Iodine is essential for the production of thyroid hormones.

B. The enzyme thyroid peroxidase is an integral part of thyroid hormone production.

C. Thyroglobulin (Tg) is the storage form of thyroid hormone.

D. Thyroid hormone production and release are predominantly regulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone

(TSH) from the pituitary gland.

E. Most hormone released by the thyroid is triiodothyronine (T3).

6.Which of the following statements is true?

A. Thyroglobulin (Tg) has predictive value for the recurrence of well-differentiated thyroid cancer.

B. After surgery, calcitonin is replaced by a once-daily oral regimen to maintain calcium homeostasis.

C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels should be maintained in the high to normal range after surgery

for well-differentiated thyroid cancer.

D. Corticosteroids stimulate thyroid hormone release and enhance peripheral conversion of thyroxine (T4) to

triiodothyronine (T3).

E. All statements are true.

7.Complete surgical resection (thyroidectomy) is first-line therapy for which one of the following?

A. Riedel thyroiditis (struma)

B. Toxic nodular goiter with marked compressive symptoms

C. Acute suppurative thyroiditis

D. Uncomplicated Graves disease (diffuse toxic goiter)

E. Hashimoto thyroiditis

8.You are preparing a patient for total thyroidectomy for treatment of Graves disease (diffuse toxic

goiter). To attempt to avoid complications from severe thyrotoxicosis, including life-threatening thyroid

storm, you could employ any of the following therapies except which one (which is not appropriate)?

A. Beta blockade with an agent such as propranolol

B. Large doses of thionamides such as propylthiouracil (PTU) and methimazole

C. Large doses of iodine after a thionamide

D. Rapid fluid replacement along with corticosteroids

E. Large doses of amiodarone

9.Which of the following is associated with an aberrant takeoff of the right subclavian artery?

A. Nonrecurrent left laryngeal nerve

B. Absence of the right thyroid lobe

C. Absence of the thyroid isthmus

D. Nonrecurrent right laryngeal nerve

E. Nonrecurrent right external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve

10.A palpable lymph node is found along the posterior-lateral border of the anterior belly of the

digastric muscle. This node lies in which anatomic lymph node basin?

A. IA

B. IB

C. IIA

D. IIB

E. VI

Chapter 39: The Parathyroid Glands

1.Embryologic aspects of the superior parathyroid gland include which of the following?

A. Origin from branchial pouch III

B. Origin from branchial pouch V

C. Typically associated with the thyroidal tubercle of Zuckerkandl

D. Frequent ectopic location within thyroid parenchyma

2.Normally embedded in fat and located within a 2-cm circumscribed area that is cranial to the

intersection of the inferior thyroid artery and recurrent laryngeal nerve is a description that applies to

the:

A. Superior parathyroid gland

B. Inferior parathyroid gland

C. Pyramidal lobe of thyroid gland

D. Thymus

3.Which of the following is true regarding human parathyroid hormone?

A. Intact parathyroid hormone is 92 amino acids long.

B. Parathyroid hormone is principally metabolized in the kidney.

C. Biologically active parathyroid hormone fragments include the C-terminal sequence of the intact molecule.

D. Parathyroid hormone secretion is closely linked with the intracellular concentration of ionized calcium.

4.An adult with a serum calcium concentration of 10.6 mg/dL (normal, 8.6 to 10.2 mg/dL), serum intact

PTH level of 90 pg/mL (normal, 10 to 65 pg/mL), and a 24-hour urinary calcium value of 25 mg/day has:

A. Secondary hyperparathyroidism

B. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism

C. A defect in the calcium-sensing receptor gene

D. A syndrome successfully treated with surgery

5.Parathyroid carcinoma:

A. Is most common at the extremes of age

B. Is often associated with mild hypercalcemia

C. Is optimally treated with en bloc resection of the ipsilateral thyroid lobe at the initial operation

D. Is always easy to recognize at the time of operation

6.Patients with asymptomatic primary hyperparathyroidism should undergo parathyroidectomy when:

A. The serum calcium concentration is 1 mg/dL above the upper limit of normal.

B. They are unwilling to undergo medical surveillance.

C. They are younger than 50 years.

D. The T-score is less than –2.5 on bone mineral density measurement.

E. All of the above

7.Ectopic locations for superior parathyroid adenomas include:

A. In the tracheoesophageal groove near the esophagus

B. In a retroesophageal plane in the upper posterior mediastinum

C. Undescended near the submandibular gland

D. All of the above

8.Which of the following is correct about intraoperative parathyroid hormone monitoring?

A. Quick intraoperative chemiluminescent assays measure only the N-terminal fragment of PTH.

B. The most commonly used criterion for cure is a 25% decrease from baseline at 10 minutes postexcision.

C. Monitoring is practical because intact PTH has a very short half-life.

D. The value is never affected by aggressive dissection of the adenoma.

9.Common reasons for persistent hyperparathyroidism after initial parathyroidectomy include:

A. Failure to find the causative adenoma at the initial operation

B. Failure to detect or recognize a second adenoma (double adenoma)

C. Failure to recognize and aggressively treat multigland hyperplasia

D. All of the above

10.Parathyroidectomy for secondary hyperparathyroidism is indicated when:

A. Patients have refractory bone or joint pain and muscular weakness.

B. Calciphylaxis occurs.

C. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism is evident.

D. All of the above

Chapter 40: Endocrine Pancreas

1. The endocrine tumor of the pancreas with the lowest rate of malignancy is:

A. Glucagonoma

B. Somatostatinoma

C. Gastrinoma

D. Insulinoma

2. Which of the following actions is not performed by insulin?

A. Decreasing blood sugar level

B. Decreasing protein synthesis

C. Decreasing glycogenolysis

D. Decreasing lipolysis

E. Increasing glucose transport

3. The best means to localize a gastrinoma preoperatively is:

A. Enhanced MRI

B. Selective portal venous sampling

C. Calcium angiography

D. Somatostatin receptor scintigraphy

E. Endoscopic ultrasound

4. In patients with severe diarrhea, continuous nasogastric aspiration may provide a

diagnostic clue for:

A. Sprue

B. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

C. Cholera

D. Verner-Morrison (VIPoma) syndrome

E. Glucagonoma

5. Which of the following endocrine tumors of the pancreas has the best prognosis for cure?

A. Insulinoma

B. Somatostatinoma

C. VIPoma

D. Glucagonoma

E. Gastrinoma

6. The most effective intraoperative technique for localizing a pancreatic gastrinoma

involves palpation plus:

A. Intraoperative endoscopy with transillumination

B. Selective venous sampling

C. Intra-arterial injection of vital blue dye

D. Intraoperative ultrasonography

E. Caudal pancreatectomy

7. MEN1 syndrome is usually associated with tumors in all but which of the following

glands?

A. Thyroid

B. Adrenal

C. Pituitary

D. Pancreas

E. Parathyroid

8. The most accurate method for localizing an insulinoma before operation is:

A.MRI

B. CT

C. Somatostatin receptor scintigraphy

D. Selective angiography

E. Intra-arterial calcium stimulation

9. Clinical clues to Zollinger-Ellison syndrome include all the following except:

A. Hypercalcemia

B. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

C. A positive corticotropin test

D. Diarrhea

E. High output of gastric acid

10. The most common site for gastrinomas is the:

A. Head of pancreas in gastrinoma triangle

B. Prepyloric area

C. Body and tail of pancreas

D. Duodenum

E. Gastroduodenal ligament

11. The salient clinical characteristic of the glucagonoma syndrome is:

A. Brittle hyperglycemia

B. High serum calcium

C. Necrolytic migrating erythema

D. Secretory diarrhea

E. Massive fatty infiltration of the liver

Chapter 43: Esophagus

1. Which of the following statements about esophageal anatomy is correct?

A. The esophagus has a poor blood supply, which is segmental in distribution and accounts for

the high incidence of anastomotic leakage.

B. The esophageal serosa consists of a thin layer of fibroareolar tissue.

C. The esophagus has two distinct muscle layers—an outer, longitudinal and an inner, circular

layer—that are striated in the upper third and smooth in the distal two thirds.

D. Injury to the recurrent laryngeal nerve results in vocal cord dysfunction, but does not affect

swallowing.

E. The lymphatic drainage of the esophagus is sparse, localized primarily to adjacent

paraesophageal lymph nodes.

2. Which of the following statements about achalasia is correct?

A. In most cases in North America, the cause is a parasitic infestation by Trypanosoma cruzi.

B. Chest pain and reflux are the usual symptoms.

C. Distal third esophageal adenocarcinomas may occur in 30% of patients within 5 years of

diagnosis.

D. Manometry shows failure of LES relaxation on swallowing and absent or weak simultaneous

contractions in the esophageal body after swallowing.

E. Endoscopic botulinum toxin injection of the LES, pneumatic dilation, and esophagomyotomy

can provide highly effective curative therapy for achalasia.

3. Which of the following statements regarding the pathology of esophageal carcinoma is

correct?

A. Worldwide, adenocarcinoma is the most common esophageal malignancy.

B. Squamous cell carcinoma is most common in the distal esophagus, whereas adenocarcinoma

predominates in the middle third.

C. Patients with Barrett's metaplasia are more likely than the general population to develop

adenocarcinoma.

D. Metastases from esophageal carcinoma are characteristically limited to regional mediastinal l

lymph nodes adjacent to the tumor.

E. Achalasia, radiation esophagitis, caustic esophageal stricture, and Plummer-Vinson syndrome

are premalignant esophageal lesions that predispose to the development of adenocarcinoma.

4. Which of the following statements about the surgical treatment of esophageal carcinoma

is correct?

A. The finding of severe dysplasia in association with Barrett's mucosa is an indication for an

antireflux operation to prevent subsequent development of carcinoma.

B. Long-term survival at all stages is improved by radical en bloc resection of the esophagus

with its contained tumor, adjacent mediastinal tissues, and regional lymph nodes.

C. The morbidity and mortality rates for cervical esophagogastric anastomotic leak are lower

than the rates associated with intrathoracic esophagogastric anastomotic leak.

D. The leading complications of transthoracic esophagectomy and intrathoracic esophagogastric

anastomosis are bleeding and wound infection.

E. Transhiatal esophagectomy without thoracotomy achieves better long-term survival than

transthoracic esophagectomy.

5. The best management for a 48-hour-old distal esophageal perforation is:

A. Antibiotics and drainage

B. Division of the esophagus and exclusion of the perforation

C. Primary repair with buttressing

D. Resection with cervical esophagostomy, gastrostomy, and jejunostomy

E. T-tube fistula and drainage

6. A 42-year-old man with a history of alcoholism and tobacco use is diagnosed by barium

swallow with an esophageal stricture 10 cm from the gastroesophageal junction.

Esophagoscopy confirms a moderate stricture, and biopsy reveals fibrosis. What is the next

step in treatment?

A. Diet alteration and acid suppression with H2 inhibitors

B. Endoscopic stricture dilation and acid supression with high-dose proton pump inhibitor (PPI)

therapy

C. Fluoroscopy-guided stent placement

D. Esophagectomy with gastric pull-through

E. Laparoscopic fundoplication

7. The most common cause of morbidity after esophagectomy is:

A. Postoperative hemorrhage

B. Pneumonia

C. Anastomotic leak

D. Recurrent laryngeal nerve injury

E. Chylothorax

8. A 54-year-old woman has severe chest pain intermittently after meals. An extensive

cardiac workup has been negative. Esophageal manometry before and after swallowing a

5-mL water bolus shows lower esophageal sphincter resting pressure of 30 mm Hg, length

of 3 cm, and residual pressure of 5 mm Hg. Peristaltic contractions have an amplitude of

204 mm Hg 5 cm above the lower esophageal sphincter and a duration of 7 seconds. These

measurements are most consistent with:

A. Nutcracker esophagus

B. Achalasia

C. Diffuse esophageal spasm

D. Nonspecific esophageal dysmotility

E. Hypertensive lower esophageal sphincter

9. The most crucial step in the management of a patient with Zenker's diverticulum is to:

A. Identify the underlying motility disorder preoperatively

B. Perform a complete cricopharyngotomy at operation

C. Resect the diverticulum at operation

D. Drain the surgical site postoperatively

E. Perform an antireflux procedure at the time of surgery

10.Leiomyomas of the esophagus:

A. Require esophagectomy for definitive treatment because of submucosal spread

B. Appear as a distinct rough-edged mass on barium swallow

C. Account for <25% of benign esophageal tumors

D. Do not require biopsy for preoperative diagnosis

E. Metastasize primarily to supraclavicular nodes

Chapter 44: Hiatal Hernia and Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease

1. Components of the lower esophageal sphincter include all of the following except:

A. Sling fibers of the cardia

B. Striated external sphincter muscle fibers

C. Diaphragm

D. Intrinsic muscle of the distal esophagus

E. Transmitted pressure of the abdominal cavity

2. A partial fundoplication (<360 degrees) should always be performed in patients with

ineffective esophageal motility (IEM).

A. True

B. False

3. After antireflux surgery:

A. Short-term bloating occurs in more than 60% of patients

B. Long-term dysphagia is present in 50% of patients

C. Dilation should be performed for any dysphagia in the first 2 months

D. Long-term bloating may be the direct result of vagal nerve injury

4. Which of the following statements concerning extraesophageal manifestations of GERD

is true?

A. In some patients, GERD is manifested only with extraesophageal symptoms (i.e., these

patients have no heartburn).

B. Diagnosing the association of GERD with extraesophageal symptoms is always possible if all

diagnostic tools are used.

C. Extraesophageal symptoms respond to medical and surgical antireflux therapy to the same

degree as heartburn.

D. In patients with GERD, extraesophageal symptoms are caused by vagal-mediated pathways.

5. Paraesophageal hernias:

A. Have a high likelihood of acute strangulation, and all should be repaired when identified even

if asymptomatic

B. Are rarely associated with chronic gastrointestinal blood loss

C. Should be repaired only in patients with symptoms

D. Are best diagnosed by endoscopy

Chapter 45: Abdominal Wall, Umbilicus, Peritoneum, Mesenteries, Omentum, and Retroperitoneum

1. Which of the following statements is true regarding the anatomy of the abdominal wall?

A. The inguinal or Poupart's ligament is the lower free edge of the aponeurosis of the transversus

abdominis muscle.

B. The rectus sheath is composed of aponeurotic fibers from the internal and external oblique

and transversus abdominis muscles.

C. The rectus sheath completely envelops the anterior and posterior surfaces of the rectus a

abdominis muscle from its origin in the costal cartilages to its insertion on the pubis.

D. The lymphatic vessels of the abdominal wall drain almost exclusively into the superficial and

deep inguinal lymph node chains.

E. The abdominal wall is innervated almost exclusively from branches of the first through fourth

lumbar spinal nerves.

2. By definition, a hernia results from a defect in which of the following structures?

A. Transversalis fascia

B. Peritoneum

C. Internal oblique fascia

D. Internal and external oblique fascia

E. Rectus sheath

3. Which of the following are not contained within the preperitoneal space?

A. The medial umbilical ligaments, which are the remnants of the obliterated umbilical arteries

B. The median umbilical ligament, which is the remnant of the obliterated allantoic stalk (or

urachus)

C. The inferior epigastric arteries and veins

D. The superior epigastric arteries and veins

E. The falciform ligament containing the round ligament of the liver, which is the remnant of the

obliterated umbilical vein

4. All the following are abnormalities related to persistence of the omphalomesenteric duct

except:

A. Meckel's diverticulum

B. Omphalocele

C. Enterocutaneous fistula

D. Umbilical sinus

E. Intestinal obstruction from volvulus

5. All the following factors have been related to the development of rectus sheath

hematomas except:

A. Pregnancy

B. Strenuous muscular exertion

C. Anticoagulation

D. Benign and malignant tumors of the abdominal wall

E. Trauma

6. All the following statements are true regarding the natural history of desmoid tumors of

the abdominal wall except:

A. Patients with familial adenomatous polyposis syndrome have a much higher incidence of

desmoid tumors than does the general population.

B. Tumors manifest as painless enlarging masses, often with a relatively rapid rate of growth.

C. Most patients have systemic metastases to the liver and lung at the time of presentation.

D. The development of abdominal wall desmoid tumors is often temporally related to a recent

childbirth or abdominal operation or trauma.

7. The clinical features of an abdominal wall mass that should suggest a malignant cause

include all the following except:

A. The occurrence of severe unrelenting pain in an abdominal wall mass

B. Nonreducible masses arising from below the superficial fascia

C. Size > 5 cm

D. A recent increase in size

E. Fixation to the abdominal wall or underlying organs

8. The peritoneum and peritoneal cavity respond to infection by all the following except:

A. The rapid clearance of particulate matter, including bacteria, via the normal circulation of

peritoneal fluid toward and ultimately into the diaphragmatic lymphatic channels and thoracic

duct.

B. The generation of potent anti-inflammatory mediators by peritoneal macrophages, which

prevent the movement of leukocytes into the peritoneal cavity from the surrounding

microvasculature

C. The release of histamine and other vasoactive products by degranulating peritoneal mast cells,

causing the extravasation of protein-rich fluid into the peritoneal space

D. The opsonization of bacteria by proteins within the fluid generated by the inflamed peritoneal

Membrane

E. The sequestration of bacteria within fibrin matrices, promoting abscess formation and limiting

the generalized spread of infection throughout the peritoneal cavity

9. Which of the following are important causes of ascites?

A. Cirrhosis

B. Peritoneal carcinomatosis

C. Traumatic injuries to the retroperitoneal lymphatic channels

D. Nephrotic syndrome

E. All of the above

10. All the following are valuable diagnostic measures in the evaluation of cirrhotics with

new-onset ascites except:

A. Physical examination showing a full bulging abdomen, with dullness of the flanks on

percussion

B. Paracentesis with measurement of ascitic fluid cell count and differential

C. Paracentesis with measurement of ascitic fluid albumin concentration

D. Determination of the serum-albumin to ascites-albumin gradient (SAAG)

E. Paracentesis with Gram staining of the ascitic fluid

11. All the following statements are true regarding spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP)

except:

A. SBP occurs almost exclusively in patients with high protein concentrations in the ascitic fluid

(i.e., SAAG < 1.1 g/dL).

B. The most common pathogens in adults are Escherichia coli and Klebsiella pneumoniae,

whereas in children streptococcal species and Staphylococcus aureus play a greater role.

C. The diagnosis of SBP is made initially by showing >250 neutrophils/mm3 of ascitic fluid in

the setting of abdominal pain, fever, or peripheral leukocytosis or some combination of these.

D. Gram staining of ascitic fluid usually does not show bacterascites.

12. All the following statements are true regarding intra-abdominal hernias except:

A. Mesocolic (or paraduodenal) hernias result from abnormalities of embryonic midgut rotation.

B. The superior mesenteric artery and vein course along the medial border of the neck of right

and left mesocolic hernias.

C. Patients with intra-abdominal hernias present most commonly with signs and symptoms of

intestinal obstruction.

D. Internal hernias may result from the creation of mesenteric windows at the time of bowel

resections.

E. All of the above are true.

13. All the following are advantages to a retroperitoneal operative approach compared

with a transabdominal approach to retroperitoneal organs except:

A. Less postoperative ileus with a more rapid resumption of a normal diet

B. Less operative time and blood loss

C. No intra-abdominal adhesions, reducing the likelihood of subsequent small bowel

obstructions

D. Less intraoperative evaporative fluid losses with less dramatic intravascular fluid shifts

E. Fewer respiratory complications, such as atelectasis or pneumonia

Chapter 46: Hernias

1. The best outcome for recurrent inguinal hernia repair is achieved by:

A. Selecting the same approach used for the initial repair

B. Experienced hernia surgeons at hernia centers

C. Cooper ligament repair

D. Using prosthetic mesh

E. Bassini repair

2. Which of the following is not a common cause of inguinal hernia recurrence?

A. Excessive suture line tension

B. Failure to recognize an indirect hernia

C. Increased intra-abdominal pressure

D. Failure to a use tension-free or mesh repair

E. Poor collagen formation

3. Failure to recognize which of the following during repair of a sliding inguinal hernia is

associated with increased complications?

A. The colon usually constitutes part of the hernia sac.

B. Sliding hernias are usually direct hernias.

C. A separate incision is necessary for reduction.

D. Tension-free repair should be avoided.

E. High ligation of the sac is usually necessary.

4. Femoral hernias are:

A. The most common type of hernia in women

B. Usually bilateral

C. Strangulated in 15% to 20% of cases

D. More common on the left side

E. Associated with an inguinal hernia in >50% of patients

5. Nerve injury during laparoscopic hernia repair is best avoided by not placing tacks:

A. Medial to the pubic tubercle

B. Superior to the lateral iliopubic tract

C. Inferior to the lateral iliopubic tract

D. In the Cooper ligament

E. In the peritoneum

6. The most common causative factor in the development of incisional hernias is:

A. Obesity

B. Malnutrition

C. Steroids

D. Postoperative incisional infection

E. Advanced age

7. Most surgeons agree that laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair is best for:

A. Obese patients

B. Male patients

C. Recurrent hernias

D. Type II groin hernias

E. Strangulated hernias

8. Spigelian hernias are usually:

A. Prone to recurrence

B. Located above the arcuate line

C. More common in adolescents

D. Interparietal hernias

E. Very large

9. Umbilical hernias should be repaired:

A. During infancy

B. Regardless of size

C. Using primary suture repair

D. Even when asymptomatic

E. In patients with leaking ascites

10. Perioperative antimicrobial prophylaxis is indicated for elective hernia repair in which

of the following situations?

A. ASA score ≥ 3

B. Use of prosthetic mesh

C. Recurrent hernias

D. Laparoscopic approaches

Chapter 47: Acute Abdomen

1. A common organism responsible for primary peritonitis in children is:

A. Candida albicans

B. Streptococcus pneumoniae

C. Clostridium perfringens

D. Escherichia coli

E. Epstein-Barr virus

2. A common organism responsible for primary peritonitis in adults with cirrhosis is:

A. Candida albicans

B. Streptococcus pneumoniae

C. Clostridium perfringens

D. Escherichia coli

E. Epstein-Barr virus

3. Vomiting induced by the pain of an acute surgical abdomen is induced by:

A. Medullary efferent fibers

B. Splanchnic afferent fibers

C. The hypogastric plexus of S2-4

D. Unmyelinated C fibers

E. Lumbar dorsal root ganglia

4. Referred pain to the right lower abdomen when compressing the left lower abdomen is:

A. McBurney sign

B. Obturator sign

C. Rovsing sign

D. Cullen sign

5. Right lower quadrant pain induced by gentle traction of the right testicle in the setting of

acute appendicitis is an example of:

A. Cruveilhier sign

B. Danforth sign

C. Carnett sign

D. Kehr sign

E. Ten horn sign

6. Upright chest radiographs can detect as little as:

A. 1 cc of free air

B. 10 cc of free air

C. 20 cc of free air

D. 50 cc of free air

E. 100 cc of free air

7. Which of the following pathologic stones are most likely to be visible on plain

radiographs of the abdomen?

A. Appendicoliths

B. Phleboliths

C. Gallstones

D. Renal stones

E. Primary common duct stones

8. Which of the following modalities would not be helpful in reducing mild to moderate

intra-abdominal hypertension?

A. Nasogastric decompression

B. Elevation of the head of bed 30 degrees

C. Bladder cannulation with a Foley catheter

D. Enemas

E. Pharmacologic muscle relaxation

9. Surgical decompression of abdominal hypertension should be considered for:

A. Grade 1 hypertension

B. Grade 2 hypertension

C. Grade 3 hypertension

D. Grade 4 hypertension

E. Both C and D

10. The most common nonobstetric disease requiring surgical intervention during

pregnancy is:

A. Biliary colic

B. Cholecystitis

C. Appendicitis

D. Small bowel obstruction

E. Tubo-ovarian abscess

11. Which of the following statements is true regarding patients with rebound tenderness

and free air seen on plain radiographs?

A. Parenteral steroids are helpful in treating peritoneal inflammation.

B. CT scanning is important in surgical planning.

C. Narcotic analgesics are contraindicated because they may mask changes in the abdominal

examination.

D. Abdominal ultrasound is superior to CT scanning in localizing an intra-abdominal abscess.

E. No further imaging studies are indicated.

12. A common electrolyte abnormality seen at presentation with acute abdomen is:

A. Hyponatremia

B. Hypernatremia

C. Hypokalemia

D. Hyperchloremia

E. Hypermagnesemia

13. A 60-year-old man presents with an 8-hour history of severe diffuse abdominal pain

with rebound tenderness. His blood pressure is 96/60 mm Hg, pulse is 116 beats/min, and

respiratory rate is 22/min. Oxygen saturation by pulse oximetry is 93% on room air. Plain

abdominal radiographs show subdiaphragmatic free air. The next step in preparation for

surgical intervention is:

A. CT scanning of the abdomen with intravenous contrast agent

B. Administration of 2 liters of isotonic crystalloid via peripheral IV

C. Placement of a central venous catheter for monitoring of central venous pressure

D. Endotracheal intubation

E. Broad-spectrum antibiotic administration

14. In the setting of abdominal pain, which of the following is not suggestive of abdominal

catastrophe?

A. Pallor

B. Hypotension

C. Jaundice

D. Confusion

E. Diaphoresis

Chapter 49: Stomach

1. Which of the following groups represents the major vascular supply of the stomach?

A. Celiac, left gastric, short gastrics

B. Celiac, proper hepatic, splenic

C. SMA, right gastric, short gastrics

D. SMA, left gastric, right gastric

2. Which of the following statements regarding gastric acid secretion is true?

A. Antihistamine drugs have the longest half life because of their irreversible covalent binding to

the target receptor.

B. The gastric phase of acid secretion is the shortest and provides only 20% of total prandial

gastric acid output.

C. The final common pathway of all acid secretion is an ATP-independent process.

D. Acetylcholine contributes to acid secretion in both the cephalic and the gastric phases.

3. A 35-year-old man presents with a history of gnawing epigastric pain that worsens with

eating. He has no early satiety, no history of bleeding, and no weight loss. Which of the

following diagnostic and treatment options would be the most appropriate?

A. Endoscopy without biopsy followed by 2 weeks of proton pump inhibitor

B. H. pylori serology followed by 2 weeks of antisecretory medication, amoxicillin, and

metronidazole

C. Empirical triple therapy

D. Proton pump inhibitor and sucralfate

E. Endoscopy with multiple biopsies followed by antrectomy and highly selective vagotomy

4. A 65-year-old woman presents 4 hours after sudden onset of severe epigastric pain. An

upright chest radiograph shows air under the diaphragm. Her only medication is an

antihypertensive, and she has no prior history of ulcer disease. On exploration, there is a 2-

cm perforation on the anterior aspect of the first portion of the duodenum. What is the

most appropriate management of this patient is?

A. Omental buttress of the perforated ulcer, testing for H. pylori, and medical treatment of H.

pylori with triple therapy

B. Omental buttress of the perforated ulcer with highly selective vagotomy

C. Antrectomy

D. Antrectomy with truncal vagotomy

5. A patient with epigastric pain is found to have a 2.5-cm ulcer on the lesser curvature of

the stomach near the incisura. The most appropriate management of this patient includes:

A. Biopsy of the ulcer followed by long-term proton pump inhibitor therapy

B. Multiple biopsies followed by triple therapy and repeat endoscopy

C. Antrectomy with highly selective vagotomy

D. Distal gastrectomy with D2 lymph node resection

6. A 53-year-old man who underwent distal gastrectomy with Billroth II gastrojejunostomy

for cancer complains of bloating, nausea, and severe diarrhea approximately 20 minutes

after meals. Initial treatment for these symptoms is:

A. Smaller meals with increased protein

B. Amoxicillin, metronidazole, and proton pump inhibitor

C. Conversion of Billroth II to a Roux-en-Y gastrojejunostomy

D. Postprandial serum insulin and glucose levels

7. Which of the following statements relating to risk factors for gastric cancer is true?

A. H. pylori may play a role but is not considered a definite carcinogen.

B. Nitrates are thought to contribute to gastric cancer by inhibiting natural gastric flora.

C. H. pylori is synergistic with nitrates in contributing to gastric cancer.

D. Adenomatous polyps have an 80% risk of becoming adenocarcinoma.

8. On upper endoscopy, an adenocarcinoma on the greater curvature of the stomach is

found in a 76-year-old man. Which of the following would be suitable to endoscopic

mucosal resection?

A. Tumor limited to the mucosa, 1.5 cm, no ulceration, liver lesions on CT

B. Tumor invades the submucosa by 750µ, no ulceration, 0.5 cm

C. Tumor limited to mucosa, no ulceration, no lymphovascular invasion, 1.5 cm

D. Tumor limited to mucosa, no ulceration, 1.5 cm, enlarged perigastric nodes on endoscopic

ultrasound

9. Which of the following statements regarding systemic therapy for gastric cancer are

true?

A. A limitation of the SWOG trial of adjuvant chemoradiotherapy was a relatively high rate of

D0 resection.

B. The MAGIC trial of perioperative therapy showed that patients tolerate adjuvant therapy and

neoadjuvant therapy equally.

C. Both the MAGIC trial and the SWOG trial stratified patients into early and advanced gastric

cancer and showed a benefit in both groups

D. Adjuvant therapy has been shown to decrease recurrence but not overall survival.

10. A patient whose GIST has which of the following characteristics is most likely to have

metastatic disease?

A. 7 cm, 10 mitoses/50 HPF

B. 12 cm, 3 mitoses/50 HPF

C. 3 cm, 7 mitoses/50 HPF

D. 4 cm, 5 mitoses/50 HPF

Chapter 51: The Appendix

1. The best antibiotic management of appendicitis should include agents targeted against:

A. Aerobic gram-negative rods and anaerobes

B. Anaerobes

C. Aerobic gram-negative rods

D. Aerobic gram-positive cocci and anaerobes

2. Patients with acute appendicitis typically have a white blood cell count > 20,000/µL.

A. True

B. False

3. In evaluating patients with acute abdominal pain, the most effective tools for diagnosing

appendicitis are:

A. Computed tomography

B. Ultrasound

C. Complete blood cell count

D. History and physical examination

4. Perioperative antibiotic therapy for gangrenous appendicitis should be:

A. A single preoperative dose

B. Three doses (24 hours) of a single agent

C. Directed against gram-negative aerobes and anaerobes until defervescence and resolution of

leukocytosis

D. None of the above

5. A 1.5-cm carcinoid tumor located at the base of the appendix should be treated with:

A. Appendectomy

B. Right hemicolectomy

C. Subtotal colectomy

D. Chemotherapy alone

6. The initiating pathophysiologic event in appendicitis is best characterized as:

A. Infectious

B. Congenital

C. Obstructive

D. None of the above

7. A large appendiceal abscess is best managed by:

A. Appendectomy

B. Preoperative antibiotics then appendectomy

C. Percutaneous drainage

D. Percutaneous drainage, antibiotics, and interval appendectomy

8. The most common postoperative complication after appendectomy is:

A. Infection

B. Death

C. Deep vein thrombosis

D. Colocutaneous fistula

9. A surgeon's negative appendectomy rate should be no higher than:

A. 2%

B. 10% to 15%

C. 30%

D. 50%

Chapter 52: Colon and Rectum

1. The most prevalent species of bacteria in the colon are:

A. Proteus spp.

B. Escherichia spp.

C. Bacteroides spp.

D. Campylobacter spp.

2. The short-chain fatty acid produced in the greatest quantity by colonic bacterial

fermentation that is used in cholesterol synthesis is:

A. Butyrate

B. Acetate

C. Propionate

D. Linolenic acid

3. The principal secretory cation in the colon is:

A. Sodium

B. Potassium

C. Hydrogen

D. Chloride

4. The most appropriate management of diverticulitis with an associated 3-cm pelvic

abscess is:

A. Hartmann procedure

B. Sigmoid resection with primary anastomoses

C. Parenteral antibiotics

D. Percutaneous drainage

5. The best modality to detect the most common fistula complicating diverticulitis in

women is:

A. Cystoscopy

B. Tampon detection with rectal methylene blue

C. CT scan

D. Physical examination

6. The most common cause for recurrent diverticulitis after sigmoid resection is believed to

be due to:

A. Pancolonic diverticular disease

B. Inadequate distal resection margin

C. Use of a side-to-end stapled technique

D. Dietary indiscretion

7. The internal anal sphincter is most closely related embryologically to:

A. Embryologic ectoderm

B. Embryologic endoderm

C. Longitudinal muscle layer of the rectum

D. Circular muscle layer of the rectum

8. What are the most common location and position of the tip of the appendix?

A. Retroperitoneally; retrocecal

B. Retroperitoneally; retroileal

C. Intraperitoneally; pelvic

D. Intraperitoneally; pericecal

9. The primary blood supply to the midtransverse colon derives from the:

A. Celiac axis

B. Superior mesenteric artery

C. Ileocolic artery

D. Marginal artery of Drummond

10. Which pelvic floor muscle provides an important function in maintaining the rectal

angle?

A. Pubococcygeus

B. Iliococcygeus

C. Puboiliacus

D. Puborectalis

11. The most common neurologic complication that may be caused during IMA ligation is:

A. Sympathetic dysfunction—bladder dysfunction and retrograde ejaculation

B. Sympathetic dysfunction—bladder dysfunction and impotence

C. Parasympathetic dysfunction—cutaneous anesthesia and retrograde ejaculation

D. Sympathetic dysfunction—cutaneous anesthesia and impotence

12. A 70-year-old man from a nursing home admitted with obstructive symptoms is found

to have a cecal volvulus. The most appropriate management of this entity includes:

A. Right colectomy with end ileostomy

B. Right hemicolectomy with primary anastomosis

C. Cecopexy

D. Tube cecostomy

13. A 63-year-old woman is postoperative day 3 after a total knee arthroplasty and has

symptoms of large bowel obstruction. She is in minimal distress, and her WBC count is 7.8.

The most appropriate initial step in management is:

A. Neostigmine

B. Hartmann procedure

C. Epidural anesthesia

D. Gastrografin enema

14. A 50-year-old man with a 20-year history of quiescent ulcerative colitis undergoes

surveillance endoscopy and is found to have a focus of low-grade dysplasia on random

colonic biopsy in the transverse colon. The most appropriate next step in management is:

A. Transverse colectomy

B. Extended right hemicolectomy

C. Total proctocolectomy with end ileostomy

D. Total proctocolectomy with immediate J-pouch construction

15. A 55-year-old woman with a prior diagnosis of quiescent ulcerative colitis, who is

receiving no medication, undergoes a surveillance colonoscopy. She has had no prior

operations, and she has never been pregnant. She is found to have a normal rectum to 25

cm and moderate colitis extending from 25 cm to the mid-descending colon. She had a cecal

polyp removed, which showed a 0.2-cm focus of intramucosal carcinoma. She desires to

avoid an ostomy. The most appropriate step in operative management is:

A. Right hemicolectomy

B. Subtotal colectomy

C. Total proctocolectomy with end ileostomy

D. Total proctocolectomy with J-pouch reconstruction

16. A 70-year-old man with significant coronary artery disease undergoes an abdominal

aortic reconstruction. On postoperative day 2, he presents with worsening abdominal pain

and bloody diarrhea. He is hemodynamically stable and has a serum lactate level of 0.7. He

undergoes flexible endoscopy, which shows mucosal sloughing of the sigmoid colon. The

most appropriate next step in management is:

A. Emergent laparotomy with sigmoid resection and primary anastomoses

B. Emergent laparotomy with sigmoid resection and end colostomy

C. Angiography with intravascular papaverine injection

D. Angiography with sigmoid arterial embolization

E. Fluid resuscitation and expectant management.

17. A 55-year-old healthy man with rectal bleeding undergoes colonoscopy, which shows an

ulcerated mass in the midrectum, 10 cm from the anal verge. A 2-cm cecal polyp is

removed en bloc with snare polypectomy, which shows a 0.4-cm focus of high-grade

dysplasia. The margins are grossly negative, with the closest margin being 4 mm.

Endorectal ultrasound shows focal invasion through the submucosa with focal invasion of

the muscularis propria. No enlarged lymph nodes are seen. The most appropriate next step

in surgical management is:

A. Synchronous right colectomy and low anterior resection

B. Low anterior resection

C. Total proctocolectomy with J-pouch reconstruction

D. Neoadjuvant chemoradiation

18. A 60-year-old woman undergoes a left colectomy for a near-obstruction descending

colon cancer. Pathology shows a poorly differentiated tumor invading through the wall of

the colon into the serosa. Six lymph nodes are identified in the specimen, none of which

contain metastatic tumor. Microscopic evaluation of the specimen reveals lymph vascular

invasion. The most appropriate next step in management is:

A. No adjuvant treatment; serial CEA every 3 months for 2 years

B. No adjuvant treatment; serial CT scans every 3 months

C. Adjuvant radiation; serial colonoscopy every 6 months for 2 years

D. Adjuvant chemotherapy; serial CEA every 3 months for 2 years

19. A 73-year-old woman is admitted with a high-grade large bowel obstruction. CT scan

indicates a proximal rectal cancer with invasion into the pelvic sidewall and left

hydroureter. The most appropriate operation is:

A. Proctectomy and primary anastomoses

B. Proctectomy and end colostomy (Hartmann procedure)

C. Loop ileostomy

D. Diverting loop sigmoid colostomy

Chapter 53: Anus

1. Optimal results for rectocele treatment can be expected from:

A. Biofeedback and medical management of constipation

B. Surgical correction of rectoceles <2 cm

C. Surgical correction of rectoceles requiring digital evacuation

D. Medical plus surgical management of rectoceles associated with anismus

2. All of the following statements are true regarding acute anal fissures except:

A. They produce pain and bleeding with defecation.

B. Women typically have anterior fissures.

C. They result from sphincter hypertonia and mucosal ischemia.

D. They can be treated successfully with medical therapies.

3. Anorectal abscesses are infections that typically:

A.Originate within anal crypt glands

B. Resolve completely without sequelae after incision and drainage

C. Form horseshoe extensions

D. Occur in patients who are immunocompromised

E. Can be treated early with antibiotics

4. Which of the following statements is true regarding fistula in ano?

A. Most are intersphincteric.

B. They usually follow a curvilinear course to the midline if arising in the anterior anal crypts.

C. Persistent drainage after fistulotomy indicates the presence of Crohn's disease.

D. Seton placement should rarely be required.

5. Which of the following statements is true regarding pilonidal infections except:

A. Acute drainage should be over the point of maximal fluctuance.

B. Removal of the entire cyst is required for complete healing.

C. Midline congenital defects are the basis of the disease.

D. The presence of hair perpetuates the infection.

6. All the following are true regarding rectovaginal fistula except:

A. Causes include congenital and acquired conditions.

B. They are often diagnosed based on symptoms alone.

C. For a high rectovaginal fistula, rectal resection is almost always necessary.

D. Successful repair of a low rectovaginal fistula requires maximal resolution of inflammatory

diseases

7. When a patient with Crohn's disease presents with anorectal problems:

A. Usually a proctectomy is required.

B. Conservative management is best.

C. The anal conditions are always related to Crohn's disease.

D. The patient should not be considered for sphincterotomy.

8. Wide local excision is least likely to be indicated in which of the following?

A.Bowen's disease

B. Paget's disease

C. Squamous cell of the anal margin

D. Squamous cell of the anal canal

E. Basal cell of the anus

9. Verrucous carcinomas are:

A. Often fast-growing

B. Are always invasive

C. Rarely metastasize

D. Are essentially the same as squamous cell carcinomas

10. For melanoma of the anal canal, all of the following statements are true except:

A. They are often amelanotic.

B. Abdominoperineal resection is the procedure of choice.

C. Five-year survival rates are poor, at 10% to 17%.

D. Survival rates are stage-dependent.

Chapter 54: The Liver

1. The plane that divides the liver into right and left hemilivers contains which structure?

A. Left portal vein

B. Right hepatic vein

C. Umbilical fissure

D. Middle hepatic vein

E. Falciform ligament

2. A replaced right hepatic artery describes which of the following situations?

A. Standard hepatic arterial anatomy, with an additional right hepatic artery originating from the

left gastric artery.

B. Missing standard right hepatic artery, with the only right hepatic artery originating from the

left gastric artery.

C. Missing standard right hepatic artery, with the only right hepatic artery originating from the

superior mesenteric artery.

D. Standard hepatic arterial anatomy, with an additional right hepatic artery originating from the

superior mesenteric anatomy.

3. In how much time of fasting is hepatic glycogen depleted and how does the liver produce

glucose in the absence of glycogen?

A. 48 hours; gluconeogenesis

B. 24 hours; glycogenolysis

C. 48 hours; glycolysis

D. 24 hours; gluconeogenesis

E. 12 hours; glycolysis

4. Liver regeneration is best characterized by which statement?

A. It is a hypertrophic response of all cell types in which normal architecture is restored and the

original volume is restored.

B.It is a hyperplastic response of hepatocytes only in which normal architecture is disrupted and

the original volume is restored.

C. It is a hyperplastic response of all cell types in which normal architecture is restored and the

original volume is restored.

D.It is a hyperplastic response of all cell types in which normal architecture is restored and 75%

of the original volume is restored.

5. When unable to differentiate a pyogenic from an amebic abscess based on clinical data,

and amebic serologic studies are inconclusive, what is the next diagnostic step?

A. Three-month course of metronidazole

B. Laparotomy

C. Diagnostic aspiration

D. Therapeutic trial of metronidazole and, if no improvement in a few days, diagnostic aspiration

E. C or D

6. Free rupture of a hydatid cyst can result in which of the following clinical outcomes?

A. Anaphylactic shock

B. Disseminated echinococcosis

C. Nothing

D. A and B

E. A, B, and C

7. A patient with recurrent pyogenic cholangitis is best characterized as which of the

following?

A. Young Asian patient of lower socioeconomic status with recurrent bouts of cholangitis and

multiple biliary strictures involving the intrahepatic bile ducts

B. Young, Asian patient of lower socioeconomic status with recurrent bouts of cholangitis and

multiple biliary strictures involving the intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts

C. Patient of any ethnic background with recurrent bouts of cholangitis and biliary strictures

involving the intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts

D. Young Asian patient of lower socioeconomic status with recurrent bouts of cholangitis and no

demonstrable biliary strictures

8. The risk(s) of observing liver cell adenomas is (are):

A. Misdiagnosis

B. Rupture and hemorrhage

C. Malignant degeneration

D. All of the above

E. A and C

F. B and C

9. Potentially curative treatments for hepatocellular carcinoma include:

A. Total hepatectomy with transplantation

B. Partial hepatectomy

C. Transarterial chemoembolization

D. Transarterial chemotherapy

E. All of the above

F. A and B

10. Of the 50,000 cases of hepatic colorectal metastases seen annually in the United States,

what percentage of these patients are candidates for a potentially curative liver resection?

A. 1%

B. 5% to 10%

C. 25%

D. 50%

11. What is the expected 5-year survival of a patient who presents 2 years after a right

hemicolectomy for a node-negative colon cancer with a single, small (<5 cm) liver

metastasis and a carcinoembryonic antigen level less than 200 ng/mL who undergoes

complete resection of this lesion?

A. 50%

B. 35%

C. 25%

D. 10%

12. The most common cause of hemobilia is:

A. Accidental trauma

B. Gallstones

C. Iatrogenic trauma

D. Malignant hepatobiliary neoplasms

13. The test of choice for the diagnosis and potential treatment of hemobilia is:

A. Laparotomy and ligation of hepatic artery on affected side

B. Liver resection

C. Endoscopic retrograde pancreatocholangiography

D. Arteriography and transarterial embolization

14. The most common cause of chronic liver disease in the United States is:

A. Alcohol abuse

B. Hepatitis C

C. Hepatitis B

D. Hemochromatosis

E. α1-Antitrypsin deficiency

15. In recent trials of pegylated IFN-α and ribavirin for chronic hepatitis C, what was the

rate of viral clearance?

A. 10%

B. 20%

C. 35%

D. 55%

Chapter 55: Biliary System

1. All of the following are associated with development of cholesterol stones except:

A. Weight loss

B. Prolonged fasting

C. Vagotomy

D. Sickle cell anemia

2. A 36-year-old woman presents to your office after the delivery of a healthy baby. During

her pregnancy, she underwent an ultrasound to assess fetal growth and incidental

gallstones 5 mm in size were noted. The appropriate treatment for this presentation is:

A. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy

B. Repeat ultrasound in 6 months

C. Observation

D. Medical dissolution of the gallstones

3. A 45-year-old patient presents with recurrent right upper quadrant pain after eating

high fat meals. His ultrasound shows a common bile duct of 4 mm and no stones. The next

appropriate step is:

A. HIDA scan

B. ERCP with sphincterotomy

C. Observation

D. Transduodenal sphincteroplasty

4. During the performance of a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, a nodule is found in the

gallbladder wall. Frozen section suggests T1 adenocarcinoma. The next step in treatment

is:

A. Convert to open operation

B. Extended cholecystectomy with lymph node dissection

C. Excise the trocar sites

D. No further therapy

5. A 78-year-old man who has been in the intensive care unit (ICU) requiring mechanical

ventilation for pneumonia develops abdominal pain, aspartate aminotransferase (AST)

level of 50 IU/liter, alanine aminotransferase (ALT) level of 70 U/liter, and bilirubin level of

2.2 mg/dL. He has a palpable tender mass in his right upper quadrant. Possible

appropriate steps include all the following except:

A. Ultrasound

B. ERCP

C. HIDA scan

D. Percutaneous cholecystostomy

6. A 50-year-old man develops gallstone pancreatitis. His ultrasound shows cholelithiasis.

He is taken to the operating room for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Intraoperatively,

three small stones are found in his distal bile duct. The next appropriate step is:

A. Administration of IV glucagon with flushing of the duct

B. Intraoperative ERCP

C. Postoperative MRCP

D. PTC for drainage

7. A patient returns 5 days after cholecystectomy with right upper quadrant pain, normal

liver function test results, and fluid in the gallbladder fossa. A percutaneous drain is placed

and shows bile. The next appropriate step is:

A. Observation

B. Laparoscopic reexploration

C. ERCP

D. PTC

8. During a routine cholecystectomy, while incising the cystic duct for the performance of a

cholangiogram, a surgeon determines that he or she has inadvertently incised 30% of the

circumference of the common bile duct. After converting to an open operation, the

appropriate next step is to:

A. Débride the duct and perform a Roux-en-Y hepaticojejunostomy.

B. Close the duct primarily.

C. Close the duct over a T tube.

D. Perform an intraoperative ERCP

9. A 70-year-old woman with gallbladder cancer presents to your office with painless

jaundice. Her CT scan shows a mass in the gallbladder, infiltrating segment IVB of the

liver and compressing the common bile duct. She also has intrahepatic and pulmonary

metastatic disease. The appropriate management of this patient is:

A. Palliative cholecystectomy with Roux-en-Y hepaticojejunostomy

B. External beam radiation to relieve the jaundice

C. ERCP with stenting

D. Cholecystostomy tube to alleviate the compression

Chapter 56: Exocrine Pancreas

1. Cyst fluid analysis reveals CEA of 500, mucin positive, low amylase, and no

communication with the pancreatic duct. The most likely diagnosis based on these imaging

and fine-needle aspiration results is:

A. Mucinous cystic neoplasm

B. Serous cystic neoplasm

C. Intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm

D. Pseudocyst

2. Cyst fluid analysis reveals CEA of 3, mucin negative, high amylase, and communication

with pancreatic duct present. The most likely diagnosis based on these imaging and fine-

needle aspiration results is:

A. Mucinous cystic neoplasm

B. Serous cystic neoplasm

C. Intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm

D. Pseudocyst

3. Cyst fluid analysis reveals CEA 400, mucin positive, high amylase, and communication

with pancreatic duct present. The most likely diagnosis based on these imaging and fine-

needle aspiration results is:

A. Mucinous cystic neoplasm

B. Serous cystic neoplasm

C. Intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm

D. Pseudocyst

4. Cyst fluid analysis reveals CEA 2, mucin negative, low amylase, and no communication

with pancreatic duct. The most likely diagnosis based on these imaging and fine-needle

aspiration results is:

A. Mucinous cystic neoplasm

B. Serous cystic neoplasm

C. Intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm

D. Pseudocyst

5. Which of the following statements regarding neoadjuvant therapy for locally advanced

pancreas cancer is true?

A. Radiologic response to neoadjuvant therapy is common, occurring in more than 50% of cases.

B. Overall survival is improved in patients who receive neoadjuvant therapy compared with

patients who receive adjuvant therapy after resection.

C. Neoadjuvant therapy should be considered for a patient with a solitary liver metastasis from

pancreatic cancer in hopes of downstaging the disease for future resection.

D. Neoadjuvant therapy should be considered for a patient with borderline resectable pancreas

cancer with isolated portal vein involvement.

6. The most important stimulus that induces pancreatic secretion during the intestinal

phase is:

A. Gastric distention after the ingestion of food

B. Release of secretin by S cells in response to acidification of the duodenal lumen

C. Release of secretin by S cells in response to acidification of the stomach

D. Release of acetylcholine in response to the sight, smell, or taste of food

7. Randomized trials have shown that endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography

(ERCP) in the setting of acute pancreatitis is indicated only in:

A. Patients with severe acute biliary pancreatitis or coexistence of cholangitis

B. Patients with mild acute biliary pancreatitis

C. Patients with acute biliary pancreatitis and alcohol-induced pancreatitis

D. Patients with severe pancreatitis regardless of the etiology

8. The best surgical treatment for a 55-year-old man who presents with multiple areas of

stenosis and dilation of the pancreatic duct in the body and tail of the pancreas and no

evidence of malignancy is:

A. Duval procedure

B. Beger procedure

C. Non–pylorus-preserving pancreaticoduodenectomy

D. Side-to-side Roux-en-Y pancreaticojejunostomy (modified Puestow procedure)

9. A 60-year-old woman with a history of chronic pancreatitis presents with jaundice.

ERCP and EUS show long symmetric narrowing involving the intrapancreatic portion of

the common bile duct in which malignancy cannot be excluded. The best surgical treatment

is:

A. Duval procedure

B. Roux-en-Y hepaticojejunostomy and no pancreatic resection

C. Pancreaticoduodenectomy

D. Side-to-side Roux-en-Y pancreaticojejunostomy (modified Puestow procedure)

Chapter 59: Congenital Heart Disease

1. You are a general surgeon in consultation with a patient for a laparoscopic

cholecystectomy. During your examination, you notice a previous midline sternotomy. The

patient tells you that she has tricuspid atresia and has had a Fontan operation. Your next

step is to:

A. Proceed with elective surgery because her cardiac defect has been cured.

B. Consult with an adult cardiologist before scheduling surgery.

C. Consult with a pediatric cardiologist before scheduling surgery.

D. Consult with an adult and pediatric cardiologist and ensure that the anesthesia and intensive

care team understand the cardiac lesion and its implications for perioperative and postoperative

management.

2. Which of the following statements is true about ventricular septal defects (VSDs)?

A. In the setting of otherwise normal cardiac morphology and normal pulmonary vascular

esistance, the net shunt in patients with a VSD is right to left.

B. Newborns diagnosed with a VSD should always have surgical closure delayed until they are

older, when the surgery is less risky.

C. Aortic valve prolapse is associated with muscular VSDs.

D. Device closure is a widely applicable mode of therapy for most VSDs because VSDs are

located far from any intracardiac structures.

E.Surgical closure of VSDs can be achieved with a patch of autologous pericardium, Dacron, or

homograft material.

3. Patients with tetralogy of Fallot (TOF):

A. Can have hypercyanotic spells requiring immediate treatment with sedation, hydration,

systemic afterload augmentation, beta blockade, supplemental oxygenation, or endotracheal

intubation

B. Are always cyanotic

C. Require surgical correction to close the VSD and relieve all levels of right ventricular outflow

tract obstruction and pulmonary artery stenosis

D. A and C

E. All of the above

4. In D-transposition of the great arteries (D-TGA), which of the following statements is

correct?

A. Ventriculoarterial discordance and atrioventricular discordance are present.

B. Surgical intervention is not always required.

C. The procedure of choice is the neonatal atrial switch operation.

D. The atrial switch operation provides physiologic and anatomic correction of the lesion by

aligning the morphologic left ventricle to the aorta and the morphologic right ventricle to the

pulmonary artery.

E. Surgical repair includes transection and translocation of the malposed great arteries and

transfer of the coronary arteries to the pulmonary root (the neoaorta).

5. Which of the following statements about aortic coarctation is true?

A. A patient with ductal dependent aortic coarctation does not require a PGE1 infusion because

the duct is already open.

B. Echocardiography is the primary diagnostic modality.

C. MRI is the primary diagnostic modality.

D. Isolated coarctation repair is usually through a median sternotomy using resection of the

coarctation and primary anastomosis.

E. Balloon dilation is a durable treatment modality for newborns with aortic coarctation.

6. Which of the following statements about hypoplastic left heart syndrome (HLHS) is not

true?

A. Patients with HLHS have inadequate or almost completely absent left heart structures.

B. Balancing the systemic and pulmonary circulations becomes less challenging with the normal

decline in neonatal PVR because a more homeostatic physiology is approached.

C. Ductal patency must be maintained before surgery.

D. Treatment of HLHS requires a staged surgical approach.

E. The Norwood procedure is the primary mode of therapy for HLHS and includes aortic arch

reconstruction and establishment of a controlled source of pulmonary blood flow.

Chapter 60: Acquired Heart Disease: Coronary Insufficiency

1. The blood supply to the anteroseptal wall of the left ventricle is via the

A.Left coronary artery (LCA)

B. Left anterior descending (LAD)

C. Diagonal branches of the LAD

D.Left circumflex arteries

E. Posterior descending artery (PDA)

2. What vessel or vessels play a crucial role in oxygen and nutrient exchange with the

myocardium?

A. Resistance vessels

B. Epicardial conductance vessels

C. Septal perforators from LAD

D. Ramus intermedius

E. Dominant epicardial coronary vessel

3. The coronary sinus receives:

A. 65% of the coronary venous blood

B. 75% of the coronary venous blood

C. 85% of the coronary venous blood

D. 90% of the coronary venous blood

E. 80% of the coronary venous blood

4. Which one of the following metabolic substances plays a leading role in the

autoregulatory mechanism to increase the blood flow in the resistance coronary vessels?

A. CO2

B. O2 tension

C. Hydrogen ions

D. Potassium ions

E. Adenosine

5. Normal coronary blood flow averages about:

A.0.7 to 0.9 mL/g of myocardium per minute

B. 0.5 to 0.7 mL/g of myocardium per minute

C. 0.6 to 0.8 mL/g of myocardium per minute

D. 0.9 to 1.0 mL/g of myocardium per minute

E. 0.8 to 0.9 ml/g of myocardium per minute

6. Successful use of a heart-lung machine was first demonstrated by:

A. Sones

B. DeBakey

C. Gibbon

D. Buckberg

E. Vineberg

7. All of the following are risk factors for atherosclerosis except:

A. Elevated levels plasma of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs)

B. Cigarette smoking

C. Hypertension

D. Diabetes

E.High plasma levels of high-density lipoprotein (HDL)

8. Lipid-lowering statin therapy modifies the lipid composition within atherosclerotic

plaques not only by lowering the amount of LDL cholesterol but also by stabilizing the

plaques through which mechanism or mechanisms?

A. Reduction in macrophage accumulation

B. Preventing collagen degradation

C. Reduction in smooth muscle cell protease expression

D. Decrease in tissue factor expression

E. All of the above

9. Which vessel is considered the most important surgical vessel?

A. Right coronary artery (RCA)

B. LCA

C. LAD

D. Ramus intermedius

E. PDA

10. What vessel or vessels are most susceptible in coronary atherosclerosis?

A. Intramyocardial arteries

B. Epicardial conductance vessel

C. Septal perforators

D. Sinoatrial nodal artery

E. LAD

11. Patients can have resting angina when there is:

A. 60% reduction in luminal diameter

B. 90% reduction in luminal diameter

C. 75% reduction in cross-sectional area of the vessel

D. Concentric type of atherosclerotic plaque

E. Eccentric type of atherosclerotic plaque

12. Which of the following symptoms indicates severe ischemia and impending myocardial

infarction?

A.Resting angina

B. Accelerated angina

C. New-onset angina

D. Unstable angina

E. Dyspnea

13. An exercise stress electrocardiogram (ECG) is helpful in unmasking underlying

coronary artery disease (CAD) and is a more reliable screening test than a resting ECG.

With reference to exercise stress ECG:

A. The Bruce protocol involves about 30 minutes of nonstop exercise activity

B. About 24 metabolic equivalents of energy expenditure is a minimal requirement for executing

a stress ECG

C. Clinical evaluation of the patient to determine fitness to undergo an exercise stress test is

necessary

D. Sensitivity is 92% and specificity is 97%

E. Ventricular arrhythmias occur in about 20% of cases and are clinically irrelevant

14. The most influential trials that established superiority of coronary artery bypass

grafting (CABG) as a treatment modality for CAD were the Veterans Administration

Study of Chronic Stable Angina (VA Study), the European Coronary Surgery Study

(ECAS), and the Coronary Artery Surgery Study (CASS). Which of the following

statements is true about these trials?

A. Women and young patients were included in the trial causing contamination of results owing

to the potentially confounding factors.

B. These trials have been designed with very stringent quality control measures and have stood

the test of time and continue to support the superiority of CABG for symptomatic CAD in any

location.

C. About 75% of patients who underwent CABG received a bypass using a left internal

mammary artery (LIMA) conduit, and all patients were receiving either angiotensin-converting

enzyme (ACE) inhibitors or a combination of calcium channel blockers and lipid-lowering

pharmacotherapy.

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

15.With reference to neurologic sequelae or complications that occur during CABG, which

of the following statements is true?

A. Although the incidence of stroke is 2.5%, neurocognitive deficits are virtually nonexistent

because of advances in hemofiltration protocols, silicone–coated membrane oxygenators, and

Carmeda BioActive Surface–coated bypass circuits.

B. Hypothermic circulatory arrest at 18° C is the best strategy for myocardial protection and

preservation of cerebral neurocognition in patients with multivessel CAD undergoing surgical

revascularization.

C. The use of spinal drains has been shown to decrease the incidence of paraplegia in patients

who undergo total cardiopulmonary bypass.

D. The development of advanced micropore arterial filters has eliminated the incidence of

cerebral microemboli, favoring cardiotomy suction as the most effective strategy for blood

conservation.

E. None of the above

16. Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of conduits for coronary

artery bypass surgery?

A. The gastroepiploic artery cannot be used as a pedicle graft because it would not reach the

mediastinum and is likely to be compressed by the diaphragm.

B. Saphenous vein grafts are the primary graft conduits of choice for patients with isolated

disease involving the LAD.

C. Subclavian artery stenosis can affect the long-term function of a LIMA graft owing to steal

syndrome from the axillary and vertebral arteries.

D. Radial artery conduits are unique in that they are quite resistant to spasm and are preferred in

patients with Prinzmetal angina.

E. The right internal mammary artery should not be used as a bypass conduit because most

patients are right-handed and steal syndromes can compromise flow into the right subclavian

artery affecting the performance of the dominant hand.

17. Approximately 15% of patients with CAD do not present with angina.

A. True

B. False

18. Patients with myocardial infarction often present with crushing chest pain associated

with nausea, diaphoresis, anxiety, and dyspnea.

A. True

B. False

19. At least 40% of ventricular mass has to be affected for cardiogenic shock to occur.

A. True

B. False

20. Total cardiopulmonary bypass is commonly established by cannulating the main

pulmonary artery and the ascending aorta.

A. True

B. False

21. Before planning for coronary artery bypass surgery, the extremities should be

evaluated for previous scar or fracture.

A. True

B. False

22. Risk reduction strategies should be used in all patients with chronic stable angina

regardless of the type of intervention planned on the coronary artery.

A. True

B. False

23. When an ECG is performed during chest pain at rest, 50% of the test is normal.

A. True

B. False

24. An exercise stress ECG is not helpful in unmasking underlying CAD and is not a more

reliable screening test than a resting ECG in patients older than 40 years.

A. True

B. False

25. Multidetector computed tomography (CT) is especially useful for imaging proximal

CAD and for imaging coronary artery bypass grafts.

A. True

B. False

Chapter 61: Acquired Heart Disease: Valvular

1. A patient with mitral stenosis is most likely to become symptomatic with which of

the following heart rhythms?

A. Sinus bradycardia at a rate of 55 beats/min

B. Atrial fibrillation with a ventricular response of 110 beats/min

C. Sinus rhythm at a rate of 100 beats/min

D. First-degree heart block

2. A 45-year-old woman requires surgery for severe mitral regurgitation secondary to

a ruptured chord supporting the midportion of the posterior leaflet of the mitral

valve. Her operative mortality will be lowest with which of the following?

A. Mitral valve replacement with a mechanical valve

B. Mitral valve replacement with a bioprosthetic valve

C. Mitral valve repair

D. Balloon mitral valvuloplasty

3. A 72-year-old asymptomatic man has a murmur of aortic stenosis. Using Doppler

echocardiography, the severity of his aortic stenosis may be determined by the:

A. Velocity across the valve

B. Amount of calcium on the valve

C. Left ventricular ejection fraction

D. Size of the left atrium

4. Which of the following is an indication for aortic valve replacement for aortic

stenosis?

A. Atrial fibrillation

B. Heart failure

C. Stroke

D. Valve area of 1.1 cm2

5. Systemic vasodilation may improve the cardiac output in patients with:

A. Mitral regurgitation

B. Tricuspid stenosis

C. Pulmonary regurgitation

D. Aortic stenosis

6. An otherwise healthy 56-year-old woman has undergone an aortic valve

replacement with a mechanical valve. She is most like to die from which of the

following valve-related complications?

A. Endocarditis

B. Thromboembolism

C. Bleeding

D. Valve failure

Chapter 65: Venous Disease

1. Symptoms of varicose veins are commonly aching pain and fatigue. These are greatest in

which of the following?

A. Telangiectasia

B. Reticular varicosities

C. Large subcutaneous varicosities

D. Symptoms unrelated to size

E. Symptoms may be equal in all of the above.

2. Venous leg ulcer may be caused by:

A. Saphenous reflux and varicose veins

B. Deep venous reflux without superficial reflux

C. Incompetent ankle perforating veins

D. All of the above

3. Severe venous dysfunction is characterized by ankle hyperpigmentation, induration, and

open leg ulcers. The most appropriate name for this condition is:

A. Stasis ulceration

B. Postphlebitic state

C. Chronic venous insufficiency

D. Marjolin's ulcer

3. Conservative treatment of severe venous dysfunction includes:

A. Induced hyperthermia

B. Intermittent pneumatic compression

C. Fitted support

D. All of the above

4. Which of the following statements is true regarding venous thrombosis?

A. The type of operation rather than its length increases the risk for deep venous thrombosis.

B. Contrast medium can be seen pooling in the soleal sinuses during any type of anesthesia.

C. Thrombus in a vein produces typical pain and swelling.

D. Coagulation studies can identify the postoperative acquired prothrombotic state.

5. A 28-year-old woman in the second trimester of pregnancy is found to have a painful,

swollen, and pale leg. Which of the following statements is true?

A. The ideal initial diagnostic test is a duplex examination of the venous system.

B. Venography is essential because of the pallor of the leg.

C. The finding of a deep vein thrombus should prompt the institution of heparin and warfarin

therapy.

D. An immediate vena cava filter should be placed.

6. A 45-year-old man with a 2-day history of calf pain without swelling and without

antecedent trauma presents to the emergency department. What is your initial impression?

A. A positive Homan's sign should prompt anticoagulation.

B. A venogram is indicated for the diagnosis of DVT.

C. The absence of swelling speaks strongly against the diagnosis of DVT.

D. None of the above

7. Compared with unfractionated heparin, LMWH:

A. Carries a higher risk of hemorrhagic complication

B. Has more efficacy in anticoagulation, despite requiring more frequent monitoring of activated

PTT

C. Is contraindicated in a pregnant patient

D. Is administered subcutaneously

8. Indications of a vena cava filter include:

A. Recurrent thromboembolism despite adequate anticoagulation

B. Deep vein thrombosis in a patient with contraindications to anticoagulation

C. Chronic pulmonary embolism and resultant pulmonary hypertension

D. Complications of anticoagulation

E. Propagating iliofemoral vein thrombus in anticoagulation

F. All of the above

Chapter 66: The Lymphatics 1. Cystic hygromas are the product of:

A. Failure of lymphatic sacs to develop connections with the rest of the lymphatic system

B. Hypoplasia of drainage channels connecting the lymphatic systems of extremities to the main

primordial lymphatic system of the torso

C. Neoplastic growth of normal lymphatic structures

D. Inflammation of lymphatic ducts in the neck

2. Lymphatics are found in all of the following except:

A. Epidermis

B. Cornea

C. Brain

D. Muscle

E. None of the above tissues

3. What percentages of the intravascular proteins are filtered in the interstitial space daily?

A. 1% to 3%

B. 5% to 10%

C. 10% to 30%

D. 50% to 100%

4. Lymph is propelled centripetally primarily by:

A. Intrinsic contractility of the individual lymphatic vessels

B. Muscle pump phenomenon

C. Negative pressure secondary to breathing

D. Transmitted arterial pulsations

E. Forward motion from the action of the heart

5. All of the following are characteristics of lymphedema except:

A. Firm and hard consistency of edema

B. Loss of the normal perimalleolar shape resulting in a "tree trunk" pattern

C. Sparing of the foot

D. Skin changes such as lichenification, development of peau d'orange and hyperkeratosis

6. The most common cause of bilateral lower extremity edema is:

A. Hypomagnesemia

B. Cardiac failure

C. Lipedema

D. Renal failure

E. Hepatic failure

7. The most common cause of chronic unilateral lower extremity edema is:

A. Lymphatic disorder

B. Tendinitis

C. Venous insufficiency

D. Lipedema

E. Myositis

8. For patients with edema of unknown etiology and suggested lymphedema, the most

specific test to confirm the diagnosis is:

A. Computed tomography

B. Duplex ultrasound

C. Lymphoscintigraphy

D. Magnetic resonance imaging

E. Conventional contrast lymphangiography

9. General therapeutic measures that should be employed for lymphedema include all of

the following except:

A. Meticulous skin care

B. Avoidance of injuries

C. Continuous long-term antibiotic therapy

D. Range-of-motion exercises of the extremities

E. Maintenance of ideal body weight.

10. In regard to complex decongestive physical therapy:

A. Massage starts on the lymphedematous limb

B. Massage starts at the foot and progresses to the leg and thigh

C. The technique is effective in reducing the volume of the lymphedematous limb

D. Compression garments are not required

11. Which of the following medications is reported to be effective in the management of

lymphedema?

A. Aspirin

B. Coumadin

C. Coumarin

D. Corticosteroids

E. Unfractionated heparin

12. Best results from reconstructive operations are expected in patients with:

A. Lymphedema secondary to filariasis

B. Proximal obstruction of the lymphatic circulation with dilated lymphatics distal to the

obstruction

C. Lymphedema praecox

D. Lymphedema tarda

E. Stage III lymphedema

13. The Kontoleon or Homans operation involves:

A. Primary lymphatic-to-nearby vein anastomosis

B. Primary lymphatic-to-lymphatic anastomosis

C. Transfer of tissue bearing lymphatics into the affected limb

D. Staged subcutaneous excision underneath flaps

E. Complete and circumferential excision of the skin, subcutaneous tissue, and deep fascia of the

involved leg and dorsum of the foot followed by skin grafting

14. The Charles operation involves:

A. Primary lymphatic-to-nearby vein anastomosis

B. Primary lymphatic-to-lymphatic anastomosis

C. Transfer of tissue bearing lymphatics into the affected limb

D. Staged subcutaneous excision underneath flaps

E. Excision of skin, subcutaneous tissue, and deep fascia followed by skin grafting

15. The diagnosis of chylothorax can be established by the presence of which of the

following elements in the pleural effusion fluid?

A. White blood cells

B. Chylomicrons

C. High protein concentration

D. Lactate dehydrogenase

E. Amylase

Chapter 68: Neurosurgery

1. A patient presents to the emergency department with a sudden severe headache and stiff

neck without evidence of head trauma. The CT scan does not show acute blood. What is the

next step?

A. MRI of the brain

B. Lumbar puncture

C. Cerebral angiogram

D. Discharge home with follow-up

E. Exploratory surgery

2. All the following are potential treatments for vasospasm except:

A. Calcium channel blocker

B. Balloon angioplasty

C. Mild hypertension

D. Hemodilution

E. Phenytoin (Dilantin)

3. All the following statements regarding astrocytomas are true except:

A. Glioblastoma multiforme is the highest grade.

B. Astrocytomas are often associated with p53 gene mutations.

C. Low-grade tumors may not enhance.

D. Radiation treatments are not indicated for high-grade tumors.

E. Astrocytomas tend to infiltrate into normal brain.

4. All the following statements regarding hemangioblastoma are true except:

A. Hemangioblastoma is most commonly present in children.

B. Hemangioblastoma is usually found in the cerebellum, brainstem, or spinal cord.

C. Hemangioblastoma may be associated with von Hippel-Lindau disease.

D. Surgical excision is the preferred treatment.

E. Hemangioblastomas are histologically benign.

5. Which statement regarding meningiomas is false?

A. Surgical resection is the primary treatment.

B. Recurrence can occur even after a gross total resection.

C. Chemotherapy is usually given to patients after a partial resection.

D. Radiosurgery can stop the growth of this tumor.

E. The dural attachment should be removed when possible.

6. Which type of tumor is least likely to metastasize to the brain?

A. Breast

B. Prostate

C. Lung

D. Melanoma

E. Renal cell

7. The Glasgow Coma Scale evaluates which of the following?

A. Eye opening

B. Verbal response

C. Motor response

D. All of the above

8. All the following can be used to treat elevated intracranial pressure except:

A. Elevate the head of the bed.

B. Place a ventricular catheter.

C. Mannitol bolus IV

D. Hypertonic saline IV

E. Glutamate antagonists

9. An L5-S1 herniated disc compressing the S1 nerve root causes which of the following?

A. Loss of the ankle jerk reflex

B. Quadriceps weakness

C. Increased knee jerk reflex

D. Sensory loss over the thigh

E. Pain in the back only

10. Stereotactic radiosurgery is used to treat all of the following except:

A. Metastatic brain tumor

B. Trigeminal neuralgia

C. Cerebral aneurysm

D. Arteriovenous malformation

E. Meningioma

11. Children with a myelomeningocele usually have which associated malformation?

A. Chiari malformation I

B. Chiari malformation II

C. Dandy-Walker syndrome

D. Corpus callosum agenesis

E. Neurofibromatosis type 1

12. All of the following statements regarding brain abscesses are true except:

A. Brain abscesses may present as a seizure.

B. MRI shows a ring-enhancing mass.

C. Brain abscesses may be excluded in patients with a normal peripheral white blood cell count.

D. Brain abscesses should be drained surgically when causing significant mass effect.

E. Brain abscesses may be confused with a glioma on MRI.

Chapter 69: Plastic Surgery

1. A 35-year-old man is scheduled for soft tissue coverage with an anterior-lateral

thigh free flap to treat an open, complex, traumatic wound involving the distal third

of the left lower extremity. Which of the following is most likely to have the greatest

effect on anastomotic patency?

A. Anastomotic type

B. Anticoagulation

C. Magnification equipment

D. Surgical skill

E. Suture technique

2.What is the main disadvantage of reduction mammaplasty by liposuction alone?

A. Dissemination of occult cancer

B. Inability to breastfeed

C. Inadequate correction of ptosis

D. Increased hematoma formation

E. Persistence of back pain

3.A 45-year-old woman with rectal cancer is scheduled to undergo abdominoperineal

resection and posterior vaginectomy after neoadjuvant chemotherapy and radiation

therapy. What is the most appropriate method of reconstruction of the posterior

vaginal defect?

A. Free anterior-lateral thigh fasciocutaneous flap

B. Primary repair of the perineal and vaginal defects

C. Pudendal thigh (Singapore) flap

D. Skin grafting

E. Vertical rectus abdominis myocutaneous flap

4. A mildly obese, otherwise healthy 47-year-old man who had a Roux-en-Y gastric

bypass 3 years ago has a recurrent ventral hernia. Physical examination shows

"Swiss cheese–type" defects, which are confirmed by CT scan. He desires

reconstruction. What is the most appropriate surgical technique?

A. Component separation with mesh placement

B. Laparoscopic hernia repair with mesh placement

C. Open hernia reduction with bridging mesh placement

D. Open reduction with free tensor fascia lata flap

E. Primary repair of the hernia defects.

5.An 84-year-old man has purulent drainage from a left groin incision site after a left

common iliac artery-to-common femoral artery bypass procedure performed for

critical stenosis of the iliac artery 3 weeks ago. His temperature is 38.8° C (101.8° F),

blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, and pulse rate is 100 beats/min. Physical

examination shows an exposed vein graft at the groin incision site. Magnetic

resonance angiography shows a patent bypass graft; the superficial femoral artery is

patent, but a profundus branch is occluded. After débridement, wound coverage

with which of the following flaps is the most appropriate next step?

A. Anterior lateral thigh

B. Gracilis muscle

C. Rectus femoris muscle

D. Sartorius muscle

E. Vastus lateralis muscle

6. A frail 89-year-old man has had a large pressure sore on the sacrum for the past 2

months. Medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus and multi-infarct

dementia. He is incontinent of stool and urine. Which of the following factors is the

most important contributor to the development of the pressure ulcer in this patient?

A. Fecal and urinary incontinence

B. Inadequate cushioning on the wheelchair

C. Malnutrition

D. Poorly controlled diabetes mellitus

E. Prolonged bed rest

7. A 17-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department after sustaining a

traumatic injury to the left lower extremity in a motor vehicle collision. Physical

examination shows a large area of crush injury, loss of soft tissue, and open fracture

of the tibia with exposed bone. The lower leg is cool to touch and pale. No distal

pulses are palpable. Angiography shows transection of the popliteal artery. What is

the most appropriate Gustilo classification of this patient's fracture?

A. Type I

B. Type II

C. Type IIIA

D. Type IIIB

E. Type IIIC

8. A 12-year-old boy is struck in the face with a baseball and is brought to the

emergency department. He reports blurry vision and pain around the orbit, where

physical examination shows swelling and ecchymosis. All of the following symptoms

or physical examination findings may suggest extraocular muscle entrapment and

should prompt urgent CT scan followed by surgical intervention within 24 hours if

entrapment is confirmed except:

A. Pain with movement of the eye

B. Enophthalmos

C. Nausea or vomiting

D. Lagging excursion of the affected eye with superior gaze

E. Worsened diplopia when gazing in one particular direction

9. An infant boy is diagnosed with synostosis (premature fusion) of one of the coronal

sutures. What is the primary indication for surgical correction within the first year

of life in most patients with synostosis of a single cranial suture?

A. To promote normal growth of the brain

B. To decrease the risk of increased intracranial pressure

C. To correct the deformity of the forehead and orbit

D. To promote normal flow of cerebrospinal fluid

E. To prevent developmental delay

10.A child is born full-term with a wide bilateral cleft of the lip and palate. She is

undergoing evaluation by a craniofacial team, surgery is planned, and the family is

being educated regarding management of their child's condition. In counseling the

family, which of the following is not generally associated with this condition?

A. Physical deformity

B. Speech difficulty

C. A need for multiple operations during childhood and teenage years

D.Developmental delay

E. Chronic fluid buildup in the middle ear

Chapter 70: Hand Surgery

1. Which of the following muscles of the hand is innervated by the median nerve?

A.Abductor pollicis brevis

B. First dorsal interosseous

C. Adductor pollicis

D. Abductor digiti minimi

E. Ring finger lumbrical

2. When exploring a volar laceration of the midforearm, the median nerve is

identified immediately deep to:

A.Flexor digitorum profundus

B. Flexor carpi radialis

C. Deep head of pronator teres

D. Flexor digitorum superficialis

E. Flexor carpi ulnaris

3.A patient has a transverse laceration just proximal to the volar wrist flexion crease.

When attempting to grasp a piece of paper by thumb adduction, the examiner notes

that the patient has to flex the thumb interphalangeal joint (Froment paper sign) to

accomplish this. The patient almost certainly has a laceration of what nerve?

A. Anterior interosseous

B. Ulnar

C. Median

D. Posterior interosseous

E. Radial

4.Replantation of amputated parts would generally be contraindicated in which of

the following circumstances?

A.Multiple digits

B. Child younger than 5 years old

C. Thumb with long flexor tendon avulsion

D. Index finger proximal to flexor digitorum superficialis insertion

E. Through the wrist

5.A 36-year-old woman experiences frequent nocturnal deep wrist aching that keeps

her awake. This pain is best relieved by nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications.

A radiograph of the wrist reveals a 3-mm round lucency with sclerotic edges in the

capitate bone. This patient most likely has:

A. Enchondroma

B. Aneurysmal bone cyst

C. Metastatic bone tumor

D. Exostosis

E. Osteoid osteoma

Chapter 71: Gynecologic Surgery

1.The embryologic origin of the uterus is the:

A. Wolffian duct system

B. Urogenital sinus

C. Müllerian duct system

D. Primordial germ cells

2. Where does the primary blood supply to the uterus originate?

A. The aorta

B. The internal iliac artery

C. The external iliac artery

D. The pudendal artery

3. Menstruation is initiated by:

A. Estrogen secretion

B. Progesterone secretion

C. Estrogen withdrawal

D. Progesterone withdrawal

4. Amenorrhea occurs because of:

A. Pregnancy

B. Anovulation

C. Pituitary failure

D. All of the above

5. A 22-year-old woman presents in the emergency department with 6 weeks of

amenorrhea and abdominal pain. Her urine qualitative pregnancy test is positive.

What is the next step in the evaluation?

A. Quantitative serum β-hCG level determination

B. Transvaginal ultrasound

C. CT scan

D. Serum progesterone level determination

6.Injury to the ureter at the time of hysterectomy is a significant risk at all but one of

the following steps:

A. Division and ligation of the infundibulopelvic ligament

B. Division and ligation of the uterine arteries

C. Division and ligation of the utero-ovarian anastomosis

D. Suture closure of the vaginal cuff

7.A 20-year-old woman presents in the emergency department with pelvic pain,

temperature of 101° F, white blood count of 18,000/mm3 with left shift, and nausea

but no vomiting. Pelvic examination is remarkable for purulent cervical discharge

and exquisite tenderness, with fullness in the posterior vaginal fornix. On ultrasound

examination, there is a complex 8-cm pelvic mass in the cul-de-sac of Douglas. The

appendix is seen and appears normal. What is the most appropriate initial

management plan?

A. Laparotomy and excision of the mass

B. Laparoscopy with drainage of the mass

C. Transvaginal drainage of mass

D. IM administration of antibiotics with prescribed oral antibiotics for home care

E. Admission for IV antibiotics

8.During the course of a laparoscopy, you inspect the pelvis and note a 1- to 2-cm

cyst with apparent clear fluid in it on one of the ovaries. The patient is 30 years old

and asymptomatic. What should you do to the ovary?

A. Perform an ovarian oophorectomy to avoid any problems with that ovary.

B. Perform an ovarian cystectomy because she has undergone the risk of anesthesia, and you

do not want to have to come back at a later time when the cyst becomes symptomatic.

C. Aspirate cyst fluid for cytology.

D. Do not perform any operation on the ovary and observe.

9. A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with heavy vaginal

bleeding and a hematocrit of 21%. On examination, she has a bleeding cervical

lesion, but the extent is difficult to determine. Which of the following would be

appropriate management?

A. Immediate simple hysterectomy

B. Radical hysterectomy, bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, and pelvic and para-aortic

lymphadenectomy

C. Packing the vagina, transfusion, transfer to a center with gynecologic oncologist for

evaluation

D. Cervical biopsy

10.A 65-year-old woman presents with increased abdominal girth and a pelvic mass.

On examination, she has evidence of ascites and a 15-cm pelvic mass. Appropriate

management would be:

A. Laparoscopy to make the diagnosis

B. Laparotomy with biopsy to confirm the diagnosis

C. Exploratory laparotomy, bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, total hysterectomy, debulking

surgery

D. Paracentesis for cytology

11.A patient presents at 32 weeks' gestation with complaints of nausea, vomiting, and

right upper quadrant pain. On examination, her blood pressure is elevated. Liver

transaminase levels also are increased. The most likely diagnosis is:

A.HELLP syndrome

B. Cholelithiasis

C. Appendicitis

D. Intestinal obstruction

12.A patient presents at 12 weeks' gestation with complaints of left lower quadrant

pain. Ultrasound reveals a 3- × 4-cm ovarian cyst without evidence of torsion. There

is a small amount of fluid in the cul-de-sac. What is the most appropriate

intervention?

A. Immediate surgical exploration

B. Admit to the hospital for observation

C. Patient reassurance and pain control

D. Culdocentesis

E. CT

Chapter 72: Surgery in the Pregnant Patient

1.Which of the following hormones mediate smooth muscle relaxation in the

gastrointestinal tract?

A. Estrogen

B. Progesterone

C. Luteinizing hormone

D. All of the above

2.All of the following increase during pregnancy except:

A. Leukocyte count

B. Plasma volume

C. Hemoglobin

D. Cardiac output

3.The fetus is at highest risk from the teratogenic effects of radiation during the:

A. First trimester

B. Early second trimester

C. Late second trimester

D. Third trimester

E. A and B

4.The safest time to perform elective or semielective surgery during pregnancy is:

A. First trimester

B. Second trimester

C. Third trimester

D. Surgery is unsafe in all trimesters and should be avoided.

5.The major concerns of laparoscopy during pregnancy include:

A. Uterine injury

B. Decreased uterine perfusion

C. Fetal acidosis

D. Preterm labor from increased intra-abdominal pressure

E. All of the above

6.Compared with nonpregnant patients, women diagnosed with breast cancer during

pregnancy have:

A. A larger primary tumor

B. A higher risk of positive nodes

C. A higher incidence of estrogen receptor–positive tumors

D. All of the above

E. A and B

7.Oral contraceptive use is associated with:

A. Hepatic adenoma

B. Cholelithiasis

C. Splenic artery aneurysm

D. Hemangioma

E. None of the above

8.The timing for cholecystectomy for biliary colic during pregnancy is determined

by:

A. Patient age

B. Severity of symptoms

C. Gestational age

D. Effectiveness of medical management

E. B and C

9. In a pregnant patient with unexplained hypertension or fever within 48 hours after

delivery, the diagnosis of pheochromocytoma is best made by:

A.Metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG) imaging

B. Urinalysis

C. Urinary catecholamines

D. All of the above

10. In suspected acute appendicitis during pregnancy, the accepted negative

exploration rate is:

A. 10%

B. 20%

C. 30%

D. 50%

11.A 28-year-old woman at 30 weeks' estimated gestational age presents with trauma after

a motor vehicle crash. The patient is hypotensive on arrival and, after being given 2 liters

of crystalloid, she remains hypotensive. The appropriate next step is to:

A. Transfuse 2 U of packed red blood cells.

B. Place the patient in a left lateral decubitus position.

C. Administer 2 more liters of crystalloid.

D. Start dopamine at 5 µg/kg/min.