022 – INSTRUMENTATION · 2018-09-20 · 5610. In case of accidental closing of an aircraft’s...

022 – INSTRUMENTATION

022-01 FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS

022-01-01 Air Data Instruments

2697. The error in altimeter readings caused by the variation of the static pressure near the source is known as:

A – instrument errorB – hysteresis effectC – position pressure errorD – barometric error

Ref: all

Ans: C

2698. VFE is the maximum speed:

A – with the flaps extended for each approved flap positionB – with the flaps extended in landing positionC – at which the flaps can be operated in turbulenceD – with the flaps extended in take-off position

Ref: all

Ans: A

2699. The airspeed indicator of a twin-engine aircraft comprises different sectors and colour marks. The blue line corresponds to the:

A – minimum control speed, or VMCB – maximum speed in operations, or VMOC – optimum climbing speed with one engine inoperative, or VyD – speed not to be exceeded, or VNE

Ref: all

Ans: C

5447. VLE is the maximum:

A – speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safetyB – flight speed with landing gear downC – speed with flaps extended in a given positionD – speed authorised in flight

Ref: all

Ans: B

5461. At a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS), the Mach number:

A – increases when the altitude increasesB – decreases when the altitude increasesC – remains unchanged when the outside temperature increasesD – remains unchanged when the outside temperature decreases

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: A

5477. The primary factor which makes the servo-assisted altimeter more accurate than the simple pressure altimeter is the use of:

A – combination of counters/pointersB – more effective temperature compensating leaf springsC – an induction pick-off deviceD – a sub-scale logarithmic function

Ref: all

Ans: C

5483. The reading of a Mach indicator is independent of:

A – the static pressureB – the outside temperatureC – the total pressureD – the differential pressure measurement

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: B

5485. The QNH is by definition the value of the:

A – altimeter setting so that the needles of the altimeter indicate the altitude of the location for which it is givenB – atmospheric pressure at the sea level of the location for which it is givenC – altimeter setting so that the needles indicate zero when the aircraft is on

ground at the location for which it is providedD – atmospheric pressure at the level of the ground over-flown by the aircraft

Ref: all

Ans: A

5494. VNO is the maximum speed:

A – which must never be exceededB – not to be exceeded except in still air and with cautionC – at which the flight controls can be fully deflectedD – with flaps extended in landing position

Ref: all

Ans: B

5499. A pitot tube covered by ice which blocks the ram air inlet will affect the following instrument(s):

A – altimeter onlyB – airspeed indicator onlyC – vertical speed indicator onlyD – airspeed indicator, altimeter and vertical speed indicator

Ref: all

Ans: B

5501. A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain hole with the static port open causes the airspeed indicator to:

A – react like an altimeterB – read a little highC – read a little lowD – freeze at zero

Ref: all

Ans: A

5504. At sea level, on a typical servo altimeter, the tolerance in feet from indicated is:

A - +/- 60 feetB - +/- 75 feetC - +/- 30 feetD - +/- 70 feet

Ref: all

Ans: C

5513. If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will:

A – continue to display the reading at which the blockage occurredB – gradually indicate zeroC – under-readD – indicate a height equivalent to the setting on the millibar subscale

Ref: all

Ans: A

5519. The advantages provided by an air data computer to indicate the altitude are:

1) Position/pressure error correction2) Hysteresis error correction3) Remote data transmission capability4) Capability of operating as a conventional altimeter in the event of a failure

The combination of correct statements is:

A – 1, 2, 3, 4B – 1, 3, 4C – 2, 3, 4D – 1, 2, 3

Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl

Ans: B

5546. The density altitude is:

A – the pressure altitude corrected for the density of air at this pointB – the temperature altitude corrected for the difference between the real temperature and the standard temperatureC – the pressure altitude corrected for the relative density prevailing at this pointD – the altitude of the standard atmosphere on which the density is equal to the actual density of the atmosphere

Ref: all

Ans: D

5547. The velocity of sound at the sea level in a standard atmosphere is:

A – 644 ktB – 1059 ktC – 661 ktD – 332 kt

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: C

5557. In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the calibrated airspeed (CAS) is:

A – higher than the true airspeed (TAS)B – independent of the true airspeed (TAS)C – equal to the true airspeed (TAS)D – lower than the true airspeed (TAS)

Ref: all

Ans: C

5562. VLO is the maximum:

A – flight speed with landing gear downB – speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safetyC – speed with flaps extended in a given positionD – cruising speed not to be exceeded except in still air with caution

Ref: all

Ans: B

5566. The limits of the green scale of an airspeed indicator are:

A – VS1 for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limitB – VS0 for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limitC – VS1 for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limitD – VS1 for the lower limit and VLO for the upper limit

Ref: all

Ans: C

5569. If an aircraft is equipped with one altimeter which is compensated for position error and another altimeter which is not, and all other factors being equal:

A – there will be no difference between them if air the data computer is functioning normallyB – at high speed, the non-compensated altimeter will indicate a higher altitudeC – At high speed, the non-compensated altimeter will indicate a lower altitudeD – ATC will get an erroneous altitude report SSR

Ref: all

Ans: B

5571. When climbing at a constant Mach number below the tropopause, in ISA conditions, the Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) will:

A – remain constantB – increase at a linear rateC – decreaseD – increase at an exponential rate

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: C

5576. The limits of the yellow scale of an airspeed indicator are:

A – VFE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limitB – VLO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limitC – VLE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limitD – VNO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit

Ref: all

Ans: D

5579. During a straight and uniform climb, the pilot maintains a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS):

A – the Mach number is constant and the true airspeed (TAS) decreasesB – The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS) is constantC – The Mach number is constant and the true airspeed (TAS) is constantD – The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS) increases

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: D

5581. The purpose of the vibrating device of an altimeter is to:

A – reduce the hysteresis effectB – inform the crew of a failure of the instrumentC – allow damping of the measurement in the unitD – reduce the effect of friction in the linkages

Ref: all

Ans: D

5585. If the outside temperature at 35000 feet is -40oC, the local speed of sound is:

A – 307 ktB – 247 ktC – 396 ktD – 686 kt

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: C

5588. The calibrated airspeed (CAS) is obtained by applying to the indicated airspeed (IAS):

A – and instrument and density correctionB – an antenna and compressibility correctionC – an instrument and position/pressure error correctionD – a compressibility and density correction

Ref: all

Ans: C

5598. Machmeter readings are subject to:

A – temperature errorB – density errorC – position pressure errorD – setting error

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: C

5603. The pressure altitude is the altitude corresponding:

A – in ambient atmosphere, to the pressure Ps prevailing at this pointB – in ambient atmosphere, to the reference pressure PsC – in standard atmosphere, to the reference pressure PsD – in standard atmosphere, to the pressure Ps prevailing at this point

Ref: all

Ans: D

5604. The Mach number is the:

A – equivalent airspeed (EAS) divided by the local speed of soundB – corrected airspeed (CAS) divided by the local speed of soundC – indicated airspeed (IAS) divided by the local speed of soundD – true airspeed (TAS) divided by the local speed of sound

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: D

5606. When descending through an isothermal layer at a constant Calibrated Airspeed (CAS), the True Airspeed (TAS) will:

A – increase at a linear rateB – decreaseC – increase at an exponential rateD – remain constant

Ref: all

Ans: B

5610. In case of accidental closing of an aircraft’s left static pressure port (rain, birds) the altimeter:

A – keeps on providing reliable reading in all situationsB – over-reads the altitude in case of a side-slip to the right and displays the correct information during symmetric flightC – over-reads the altitude in case of a side-slip to the left and displays the correct information during symmetric flightD – under-reads the altitude

Ref: all

Ans: C

5616. The airspeed indicator of an aircraft is provided with a moving red and white hatched pointer. This pointer indicates the:

A – maximum speed in VMO operation, versus temperatureB – maximum speed in VMO operation, versus altitudeC – speed indicated on the auto-throttle control box, versus temperatureD – speed indicated on the auto-throttle control box versus altitude

Ref: all

Ans: B

5618. With a pitot probe blocked due to ice build up, the aircraft airspeed indicator will indicate in descent a:

A – decreasing speedB – constant speedC – increasing speedD – fluctuating speed

Ref: all

Ans: A

5619. Given:Ts = the static temperature (SATTt = the total temperature (TAT)Kr = the recovery co-efficientM = the Mach number

The total temperature can be expressed approximately by the formula:

A – Tt = Ts (1-0.2M^2)B – Tt = Ts (1+0.2M^2)C – Tt = Ts (1+0.2 Kr.M^2)D – Tt = Ts (1+0.2 Kr.M^2)

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: B

5624. The operating principle of the vertical speed indicator (VSI) is based on the measurement of the rate of change of:

A – Kinetic pressureB – Dynamic pressureC – Total pressureD – Static pressure

Ref: all

Ans: D

5635. The response time of a vertical speed detector may be increased by adding a:

A – return springB – bimetallic stripC – correction based on an accelerometer sensorD – second calibrated port

Ref: all

Ans: C

5653. The vertical speed indicator VSI is fed by:

A – differential pressureB – total pressureC – dynamic pressureD – static pressure

Ref: all

Ans: D

5654. The airspeed indicator circuit consists of pressure sensors. The pitot tube directly supplies:

A – the total pressureB – the total pressure and the static pressureC – the static pressureD – the dynamic pressure

Ref: all

Ans: A

5656. The Mach number is:

A – the ratio of the aircraft conventional airspeed to the sonic velocity at the altitude consideredB – a direct function of temperature – it varies in proportion to the square root of the absolute temperatureC – the ratio of the indicated airspeed to the sonic velocity at the altitude consideredD – the ratio of the aircraft true airspeed to the sonic velocity at the altitude considered

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: D

5662. The pressure measured at the forward facing orifice of a pitot tube is the:

A – static pressureB – total pressureC – total pressure plus static pressureD – dynamic pressure

Ref: all

Ans: B

5668. The hysteresis error of an altimeter varies substantially with the:

A – mach number of the aircraftB – time passed at a given altitudeC – aircraft altitudeD – static temperature

Ref: all

Ans: B

5671. The velocity maximum operating (VMO) is a speed expressed in:

A – computed airspeed (COAS)B – equivalent airspeed (EAS)C – true airspeed (TAS)D – calibrated airspeed (CAS)

Ref: all

Ans: D

5678. If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI) becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will:

A – under-readB – read zeroC – continue to indicate the speed applicable to that at the time of the blockageD – over-read

Ref: all

Ans: D

5679. All the anemometers are calibrated according to:

A – Bernoulli’s limited formula which takes into account the air compressibilityB – St-Venant’s formula which takes into account the air compressibilityC – St-Venant’s formula which considers the air as an uncompressible fluidD – Bernoulli’s limited formula which considers the air as an uncompressible fluid

Ref: all

Ans: B

5683. If the static sourced to an altimeter becomes blocked during a climb, the instrument will:

A – under-read by an amount equivalent to the reading at the time that the instrument became blockedB – continue to indicate the reading at which the blockage occurredC – which must never be exceededD – with flaps extended in landing position

Ref: all

Ans: B

5686. VNE is the maximum speed:

A – at which the flight controls can be fully deflectedB – not to be exceeded except in still air and with cautionC – which must never be exceededD – with flaps extended in landing position

Ref: all

Ans: C

5698. The advantages of an ADC over a traditional pitot – static system are:

1) position and compressibility correction2) reduced lag3) ability to supply many instruments4) ability to act as an altimeter following failure

A – 1, 2 & 3B – 1, 2 & 4C – 2, 3 & 4D – 1, 3 & 4


Ans: A

5702. At a constant Mach number, the calibrated air speed (CAS):

A – remains unchanged when the outside temperature increasesB – increases when the altitude increasesC – decreases when the altitude increasesD – remains unchanged when the outside temperature decreases

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: C

5703. On board an aircraft the altitude is measured from the:

A – density altitudeB – pressure altitudeC – temperature altitudeD – standard altitude

Ref: all

Ans: B

5708. Sound propagate through the air at a speed which only depends on:

A – temperature and the pressureB – temperatureC – pressureD – density

Ref: all

Ans: B

5715. In an Air Data Computer (ADC), aeroplane altitude is calculated from:

A – Measurement of elapsed time for a radio signal transmitted to the ground surface and backB – The difference between absolute and dynamic pressure at the fuselageC – Measurement of outside air temperature (OAT)D – Measurement of absolute barometric pressure from a static source on the fuselage


Ans: D

5717. With a constant weight, irrespective of the airfield altitude, an aircraft always takes off at the same:

A – ground speedB – calibrated airspeedC – true airspeedD – equivalent airspeed

Ref: all

Ans: B

5722. The static pressure error of the static vent on which the altimeter is connected varies substantially with the:

A – deformation of the aneroid capsuleB – Mach number of the aircraftC – aircraft altitudeD – static temperature

Ref: all

Ans: B

5730. Indication of Mach number is obtained from:

A – Indicated speed (IAS) compared with true air speed (TAS) from the air data computerB – An ordinary airspeed indicator scaled for Mach numbers instead of knotsC – A kind of echo sound comparing velocity of sound with indicated speedD – Indicated speed and altitude using a speed indicator equipped with an altimeter type aneroid

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: D

5745. When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder air, the altimeter will:

A – be just as correct as beforeB – under-readC – over-readD – show the actual height above ground

Ref: all

Ans: C

5753. The principle of the Mach indicator is based on the computation of the ratio:

A – (Pt + Ps) / PsB – (Pt – Ps) / PsC – Pt / PsD – (Pt – Ps) / Pt

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: B

5755. (Refer to figure 022-44)The atmospheric pressure at FL 70 in a STANDARD + 10 atmosphere is:

A – 942.85 hPaB – 781.85 hPaC – 1013.25 hPaD – 644.41 hPa

Ref: all

Ans: B

5757. The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all the atmosphere layers below the aircraft are cold is:

A – equal to the standard altitudeB – the same as the real altitudeC – lower than the real altitudeD – higher than the real altitude

Ref: all

Ans: C

5758. A leak in the pitot total pressure line of a non-pressurised aircraft to an airspeed indicator would cause it to:

A – over-readB – under-readC – indication will drop to zeroD – freeze on the value it indicated at the time of failure

Ref: all

Ans: B

5763. Today’s airspeed indicators (calibrated to the Saint-Venant formula), indicate, in the absence of static (and instrumental) error:

A – The conventional airspeed (CAS) in all caseB – The airspeed, whatever the altitudeC – The equivalent airspeed, in all caseD – The true airspeed

Ref: all

Ans: A

5766. The limits of the white scale of an airspeed indicator are:

A – VSO for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limitB – VS1 for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limitC – VSO for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limitD – VS1 for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit

Ref: all

Ans: A

5782. The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all atmosphere layer below the aircraft are warm i:

A – higher than the real altitudeB – lower than the real altitudeC – equal to the standard altitudeD – the same as the real altitude

Ref: all

Ans: A

5783. The altimeter consists of one or several aneroid capsules located in a sealed casing. The pressures in the aneroid capsule (i) and casing (ii) are respectively:

A – (i) static pressure (ii) total pressureB – (i) static pressure at time t (ii) static pressure at time t-tC – (i) total pressure (ii) static pressureD – (i) vacuum (or a very low pressure) (ii) static pressure

Ref: all

Ans: D

5793. After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud which has blocked the total pressure probe inlet of the airspeed indicator, the pilot begins a stabilised descent and finds that the indicated airspeed:

A – decreases steadilyB – increases steadilyC – decreases abruptly towards zeroD – increases abruptly towards VNE

Ref: all

Ans: A

5970. In a non-pressurised aircraft, if one or several static pressure ports are damaged, there is an ultimate emergency means for restoring a practically correct static pressure intake:

A – calculating the ambient static pressure, allowing for the altitude and QNH and adjusting the instrumentsB – descending as much as possible in order to fly at a pressure as close to 1013.25 hPa as possibleC – slightly opening a window to restore the ambient pressure in the cabinD – breaking the rate-of-climb indicator glass window

Ref: all

Ans: D

12027. During a climb after take-off from a contaminated runway, if the total pressure probe of the airspeed indicator is blocked, the pilot finds that indicated airspeed:

A – decreases, abruptly towards zeroB – increases steadilyC – increases abruptly towards VNED – decreases steadily

Ref: all

Ans: B

12029. The vertical speed indicator of an aircraft flying at a true airspeed of 100 kt, in a descent with a slope of 3o indicates:

A - - 300 feet/minB - - 150 feet/minC - - 250 feet/minD - - 500 feet/min

Ref: all

Ans: D

12035. An Air Data Computer (ADC):

A – Measures position error in the static system and transmits this information to ATC to provide correct altitude reportingB – Transforms air data measurements into electric impulses driving servo motors in instrumentsC – Is an auxiliary system that provides altitude information in the event that the static source is blockedD – Converts air data measurements given by ATC from the ground in order to provide correct altitude and speed information


Ans: B

12037. Considering the maximum operational Mach number (MMC) and the maximum operational speed (VMO), the captain of a pressurised aircraft begins his descent from a high flight level. In order to meet his scheduled time of arrival, he decides to use the maximum ground speed at any time of the

descent. He will be limited:

A – initially by the VMO, then by the MMO below a certain flight levelB – by the MMOC – by the VMO in still airD – initially by the MMO, then by the VMO below a certain flight level

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: D

12043. The altimeter is fed by:

A – differential pressureB – static pressureC – dynamic pressureD – total pressure

Ref: all

Ans: B

12898. Calibrated air speed is:

A – IAS plus the pressure errorB – IAS plus density error correctionC – IAS plus compressibility correctionD – IAS plus instrument error correction

Ref: all

Ans: D

12992. An aircraft is flying at an indicated altitude of 16,000 ft. The outside air temperature is -30oC. What is the true altitude of the aircraft?

A – 16,200 ftB – 15,200 ftC – 18,600 ftD – 13,500 ft

Ref: all

Ans: B

12996. An aircraft is flying straight and level, over a warm air mass. The altimeter reading will be:

A – correctB – greater than the real heightC – less than the real heightD – oscillating around the correct height

Ref: all

Ans: C

20177. A leak in the pitot total pressure line of a non-pressurised aircraft to an airspeed indicator would cause it to:

A – under-readB – over-readC – over-read in a climb and under-read in a descentD – under-read in a climb and over-read in a descent

Ref: all

Ans: A

20502. A blocked pitot head with a clear static source causes the airspeed indicator to:

A – read like a vertical speed indicatorB – react like an altimeterC – operate normallyD – freeze at zero

Ref: all

Ans: B

20505. A dynamic pressure measurement circuit is constituted of the following pressure probes:

A – total pressure and static pressureB – static pressure onlyC – total pressure onlyD – total pressure and standard pressure

Ref: all

Ans: A

20523. A vertical speed indicator measures the difference between:

A – the dynamic pressure and the static pressureB – the total pressure and the static pressureC – the total instantaneous pressure and the total pressure at a previous momentD – the instantaneous static pressure and the static pressure at a previous moment

Ref: all

Ans: D

20527. An air data computer

1) supplies the ground speed and the drift (angle)2) determines the total temperature and the true altitude3) receives the static pressure and the total pressure4) supplies the true airspeed to the inertial unit5) determines the aircraft altitude

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 3, 4 and 5B – 1 and 2C – 2 and 5D – 2, 3 and 4


Ans: A

20528. An aircraft is descending from FL 390 to ground level at maimum speed. The limits in speed will be:

A – the VMO onlyB – initially the VMO, then the MMO below a certain flight levelC – the MMO onlyD – initially the MMO, then the VMO below a certain flight level

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: D

20530. An aircraft is equipped with one altimeter that is compensated for position error and another one altimeter that is not. Assuming all other factors are equal, during a straight symmetrical flight:

A – the greater the speed, the greater the error between the two altimetersB – the greater the speed, the lower the error between the two altimetersC – the lower the speed, the greater the error between the two altimetersD – the error between the two altimeters does not depend on the speed

Ref: all

Ans: A

20533. An airplane is cruising at FL 190. The auto-throttle maintains a constant CAS. If the total temperature decreases, the Mach number:

A – remains constantB – increasesC – decreasesD – decreases if OAT is lower than standard temperature, increases in the opposite case

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: A

20534. An airplane is cruising at FL220. The auto-throttle maintains a constant CAS. If the total temperature increases, the Mach number:

A – remains constantB – increasesC – decreasesD – decreases if OAT is lower than standard temperature, increases in the opposite case

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: A

20535. An airspeed indicator displays:

A – IASB – EASC – CASD – TAS

Ref: all

Ans: A

20536. An airspeed indicator includes a capsule; inside this capsule is:

A – a very low residual pressure and outside is static pressureB – static pressure and outside is dynamic pressureC – a very low residual pressure and outside is static pressureD – static pressure and outside a very low residual pressure

Ref: all

Ans: D

20537. An altimeter contains one or more aneroid capsules. Inside these capsules is:

A – dynamic pressure and outside is static pressureB – static pressure and outside is dynamic pressureC – a very low residual pressure and outside is static pressureD – static pressure and outside a very low residual pressure

Ref: all

Ans: C

20538. An aneroid capsule:

1) measures differential pressure2) measures absolute pressure3) is used for low pressure measurement4) is used for very high pressure measurement


A – 1, 3B – 2, 3C – 2, 4D – 1, 4

Ref: all

Ans: B

20543. As a result of the failure of the central air data computer (CADC), the inertial navigation system (INS) will no longer provide information about:

A – the wind direction and speedB – the ground speedC – the time (TIME) at the next waypoint (WPT)D – the drift


Ans: A

20544. Assuming that the CAS remains constant, if the total pressure probe is blocked, the IAS:

A – remains constant during level flight, decreases during a climb and increases during a descentB – remains constant during level flight, increases during a climb and decreases during a descentC – increases during level flight, remains constant during a climb and a descentD – remains constant during all the phases of the flight

Ref: all

Ans: B

20545. Assuming the flight level and Mach number remain constant, when the OAT decreases:

A – IAS and TAS decreaseB – IAS increases and TAS decreasesC – IAS decreases and TAS increasesD – IAS and TAS increase

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: A

20546. Assuming the flight level and Mach number remain constant, when the OAT increases:

A – IAS and TAS decreaseB – IAS and TAS increaseC – IAS increases and TAS decreasesD – IAS decreases and TAS increases

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: B

20547. At flight level and Mach number constant, if total temperature decreases, the CAS:

A – decreases if OAT is lower than standard temperature, increases in the opposite caseB – increasesC – decreasesD – remains constant

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: D

20548. At flight level and Mach number constant, if total temperature increases, the CAS:

A – decreases if OAT is lower than standard temperature, increases in the opposite caseB – increasesC – decreasesD – remains constant

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: D

20551. Below the tropopause in standard conditions, when climbing at a constant Mach number:

A – TAS decreasesB – TAS increasesC – TAS remains constantD – the difference between surrounding conditions and ISA must be known to deduce the TAS variation

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: A

20552. Below the tropopause in standard conditions, when descending at a constant CAS:

A – Mach number and the velocity of sound decreaseB – Mach number increases and the velocity of sound decreasesC – Mach number and the velocity of sound increaseD – Mach number decreases and the velocity of sound increases

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: D

20553. Below the tropopause in standard conditions, when descending at a constant mach number:

A – TAS remains constantB – TAS decreasesC – TAS increasesD – the difference between surrounding conditions and ISA must be known to deduce the TAS variation

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: C

20554. Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) is obtained from Indicated Air Speed (IAS) by correcting for the following errors:

1) position2) compressibility3) instrument4) density


A – 2, 3, 4B – 3, 4C – 1, 3, 4D – 1, 3

Ref: all

Ans: D

20555. Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) is obtained from Indicated Air Speed (IAS) by correcting for the:

A – instrument errorB – position and instrument errorsC – density errorD – position and density errors

Ref: all

Ans: B

20556. Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) is:

A – Indicated Air Speed (IAS) corrected for compressibility errorB – Indicated Air Speed (IAS) corrected for position and instrument errorsC – Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) corrected for density errorD – Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) corrected for compressibility and density errors

Ref: all

Ans: B

20557. CAS can be obtained from the following data:

A – TAS and pressure altitudeB – EAS and density altitudeC – EAS and pressure altitudeD – TAS and density altitude

Ref: all

Ans: C

20561. Concerning the airspeed indicator, IAS is:

A – the indicated reading on the instrumentB – the indicated reading on an instrument presumed to be perfectC – the indicated airspeed corrected for instrument and position errorsD – the indicated airspeed corrected for instrument error only

Ref: all

Ans: A

20576. Considering an airspeed indicator, a second stripped needle, if installed, indicates:

A – never-exceed speed (VNE) or maximum operating speed (VMO), depending on which is the higherB – never-exceed speed (VNE)C – never-exceed speed (VNE) or maximum operating speed (VMO), depending on which is the lowestD – maximum operating speed (VMO)

Ref: all

Ans: D

20577. Considering the relationship between CAS and EAS:

A – EAS may be lower or greater than CAS, depending on density altitudeB – EAS is always greater than or equal to CASC – EAS may be lower or greater than CAS, depending on pressure altitudeD – EAS is always lower than or equal to CAS

Ref: all

Ans: D

20578. Due to its conception, the altimeter measures a:

A – temperature altitudeB – density altitudeC – pressure altitudeD – true altitude

Ref: all

Ans: C

20583. During a climb at a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS) below the tropopause in ISA conditions:

A – the Mach number decreases and the speed of sound increasesB – the Mach number increases and the speed of sound decreasesC – the Mach number and the speed of sound increasesD – the Mach number and the speed of sound decreases

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: B

20584. During a climb at a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS) below the tropopause in standard conditions:

A – TAS increases and Mach number decreasesB – TAS and Mach number decreaseC – TAS and Mach number increaseD – TAS decreases and Mach number increases

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: C

20585. During a climb at a constant IAS below the tropopause in ISA conditions:

A – the Mach number increases and the true airspeed decreasesB – the Mach number and the true airspeed decreaseC – the Mach number and the true airspeed increaseD – the Mach number decreases and the true airspeed increases

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: C

20586. During a climb at a constant Mach number below the tropopause in ISA conditions:

A – CAS and TAS decreaseB – CAS increases and TAS decreasesC – CAS decreases and TAS increasesD – CAS and TAS increase

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: A

20587. During a climb at a constant Mach number below the tropopause in ISA conditions:

A – IAS and TAS decreaseB – IAS increases and TAS decreasesC – IAS decreases and TAS increasesD – IAS and TAS increase

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: A

20588. During a climb, the total pressure probe of the airspeed indicator becomes blocked: if the pilot maintains a constant indicated airspeed, the true airspeed:

A – increases until reaching VMOB – decreases until reaching the stall speedC – decreases by 1% per 600 ftD – increases by 1% per 600 ft

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: B

20590. During a descent at a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS) below the tropopause in ISA conditions:

A – Mach number and TAS decreaseB – Mach number and TAS increaseC – Mach number decreases and TAS increasesD – Mach number increases and TAS decreases

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: A

20591. During a descent at a constant IAS below the tropopause in ISA conditions:

A – Mach number increases and TAS decreasesB – Mach number and TAS increaseC – Mach number and TAS decreaseD – Mach number decreases and TAS increases

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: C

20592. During a descent at a constant Mach number below the tropopause in ISA conditions:

A – CAS and TAS increaseB – CAS increases and TAS decreasesC – CAS and TAS decreaseD – CAS decreases and TAS increases

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: A

20593. During a descent at a constant Mach number below the tropopause in ISA conditions:

A – IAS and TAS increaseB – IAS and TAS decreaseC – IAS increases and TAS decreasesD – IAS decreases and TAS increases

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: A

20599. During descent, the total pressure probe of the airspeed indicator becomes blocked. In this case:

1) IAS becomes greater than CAS2) IAS becomes lower than CAS3) Maintaining IAS constant, VMO may be exceeded4) Maintaining IAS constant, aircraft may stall


A – 2, 4B – 2, 3C – 1, 3D – 1, 4

Ref: all

Ans: B

20602. Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) is obtained from Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) by correcting for the following errors:

1) position2) compressibility3) instrument4) density


A – 2, 4B – 4C – 2D – 1, 2, 3, 4

Ref: all

Ans: C

20603. Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) is obtained from Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) by correcting for:

A – compressibility errorB – position errorC – instrument errorD – density error

Ref: all

Ans: A

20604. Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) is obtained from Indicated Air Speed (IAS) by correcting for the following errors:

1) instrument2) position3) density4) compressibility


A – 1, 2, 3B – 1, 2, 4C – 1, 2D – 1, 2, 3, 4

Ref: all

Ans: B

20605. Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) is:

A – True Air Speed (TAS) corrected for compressibility errorB – Indicated Air Speed (IAS) corrected for compressibility errorC – Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) corrected for density errorD – Indicated Air Speed (IAS) corrected for position, instrument and compressibility errors

Ref: all

Ans: D

20606. Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) is:

A – Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) corrected for compressibility errorB – Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) corrected for density errorC – True Air Speed (TAS) corrected for compressibility errorD – True Air Speed (TAS) corrected for compressibility and density errors

Ref: all

Ans: A

20617. For TAS calculations, the ADC uses the following parameters:

1) SAT2) TAT3) Static pressure4) Total pressure


A – 1, 2, 3, 4B – 2, 3, 4C – 3, 4D – 1, 3, 4

Ref: all

Ans: B

20619. Given:

Pt = total pressurePs = static pressurePd = dynamic pressure

A – Pd = Pt + PsB – Pt = Pd + PsC – Ps = Pt + PdD – Pd = Pt/Ps

Ref: all

Ans: B

20620. Given:

Pt = total pressurePs = static pressurePso = static pressure at sea level

Calibrated airspeed (CAS) is a function of:

A – Pt/PsB – Ps – PsoC – Pt – PsD – (Pt – Pso) / Ps

Ref: all

Ans: C

20621. Given:

Pt = total pressurePs = static pressurePso = static pressure at sea level

Dynamic pressure is:

A – (Pt – Ps) / PsB – Pt – PsoC – (Pt – Pso) / PsoD – Pt – Ps

Ref: all

Ans: D

20622. Given:

Pt = total pressurePs = static pressure

Dynamic pressure is:

A – Pt / PsB – (Pt – Ps) / PtC – (Pt – Ps) / PsD – Pt – Ps

Ref: all

Ans: D

20623. Given:Mach Number M = 0.70Measured impact temperature = -48oCThe recovery factor (Kr) of the temperature probe + 0.85

The OAT is:

A - -65oCB - -45oCC - -64oCD - -51oC

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: A

20624. Given:Pt = total pressurePs = static pressurePd = dynamic pressure

The airspeed indicator is fed by:

A – Ps – PtB – PdC – Pt – PdD – Pd – Ps

Ref: all

Ans: B

20626. If the total pressure intake on the pitot tube is rapidly clogged up by ice during flight, what effect will it have on the airspeed indication during a climb?

A – The total pressure is trapped while the static pressure decreases, implying an increasing indicated airspeedB – The total pressure is trapped while the static pressure decreases, implying a decreasing indicated airspeedC – As the total pressure in the pitot static system is trapped, the airspeed indicator will indicate a constant airspeedD – The total pressure is trapped while the static pressure increases, implying a decreasing indicated airspeed

Ref: all

Ans: A

20627. If an aircraft maintaining a constant CAS and flight level is flying from a cold air mass into warmer air:

A – Mach number increasesB – TAS decreasesC – TAS increasesD – Mach number decreases

Ref: all

Ans: C

20628. If an aircraft maintaining a constant CAS and flight level is flying from a warm air mass into colder air:

A – Mach number increasesB – TAS increasesC – TAS decreasesD – Mach number decreases

Ref: all

Ans: C

20632. If OAT decreases when at a constant Mach number:

A – TAS decreases only if the flight level remains constantB – TAS increasesC – TAS decreasesD – TAS remains constant only if the flight level remains constant

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: C

20633. If OAT decreases when at a constant TAS:

A – the difference between surrounding conditions and ISA must be known to deduce the Mach number variationB – Mach number decreasesC – Mach number remains constantD – Mach number increases

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: D

20634. If total temperature decreases whilst maintaining a constant CAS and flight level:

A – TAS increasesB – Mach number increasesC – TAS remains constantD – Mach number remains constant

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: D

20635. If OAT increases when at a constant Mach number:

A – TAS decreasesB – TAS increasesC – TAS decreases only if the flight level remains constantD – TAS remains constant only if the flight level remains constant

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: B

20636. If OAT increases when at a constant TAS:

A – the difference between surrounding conditions and ISA must be known to deduce the Mach number variationB – Mach number increasesC – Mach number remains constantD – Mach number decreases

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: D

20637. If total temperature increases whilst maintaining a constant CAS and flight level:

A – TAS decreasesB – Mach number decreasesC – TAS remains constantD – Mach number remains constant

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: D

20638. If the pitot tube becomes blocked during a descent, the airspeed indicator:

A – over-readsB – under-readsC – under-reads or over-reads depending on the air densityD – indicates a constant speed

Ref: all

Ans: B

20639. If the pitot tube ices up during a flight, the affected equipment(s) is (are):

1) the altimeter2) the variometer3) the airspeed indicator


A – 1, 2B – 1, 2, 3C – 1, 3D – 3

Ref: all

Ans: D

20640. If the static intakes are completely clogged up by ice during a climb, the VSI shows:

A – a descent if the outside static pressure is less than the pressure in the VSI- gaugeB – zeroC – a constant rate of climb, even if the aircraft is levelling outD – an increasing rate of climb if the ambient static pressure decreases

Ref: all

Ans: B

20641. If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked during a climb the instrument will:

A – indicate a height equivalent to the setting on the millibar sub-scaleB – gradually indicate zeroC – under-readD – continue to display the reading at which the blockage occurred

Ref: all

Ans: D

20645. If, during a descent:

- the pneumatic altimeter reading is constant- the VSI shows zero- the IAS is increasing

the most likely explanation is that:

A – the static intakes are completely clogged up by iceB – the total pressure intake is completely clogged up by iceC – there is a leakage in the static pressure lineD – the antenna of the radio altimeter is completely clogged up by ice

Ref: all

Ans: A

20658. In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the equivalent airspeed (EAS) is:

A – lower than the true airspeed (TAS)B – independent of the true airspeed (TAS)C – higher than the true airspeed (TAS)D – equal to the true airspeed (TAS)

Ref: all

Ans: D

20663. In standard atmosphere, when descending at constant CAS:

A – TAS remains constantB – TAS decreasesC – TAS increasesD – TAS first increases and then remains constant below the tropopause

Ref: all

Ans: B

20664. In the absence of position and instrument errors, CAS is equal to:

A – IASB – EASC – TASD – IAS and EAS

Ref: all

Ans: A

20665. In the absence of position and instrument errors, IAS is equal to:

A – CAS and EASB – EASC – TASD – CAS

Ref: all

Ans: D

20666. In the absence of position and instrument errors:

A – IAS = EASB – IAS = EASC – CAS = EASD – CAS = TAS

Ref: all

Ans: B

20667. In the absence of position and instrumental errors, IAS is equal to:

A – TASB – EASC – CASD – KAS

Ref: all

Ans: C

20668. In the directional gyro the detection system of the local vertical feeds:

A – a torque motor on the sensitive axisB – a nozzle integral with the outer gimbal ringC – a levelling erection torque motorD – two torque motors arranged horizontally

Ref: all

Ans: C

20673. Maintaining CAS and flight level constant, a fall in ambient temperature results in:

A – lower TAS because air density increasesB – lower TAS because air density decreasesC – higher TAS because air density increasesD – higher TAS because air density decreases

Ref: all

Ans: A

20679. Parallax error is:

A – a reading errorB - due to temperature effectC – due to pressure effectD – due to the effect of aircraft accelerations

Ref: all

Ans: A

20682. TAS can be obtained from the following data:

A – CAS and pressure altitudeB – EAS and pressure altitudeC – CAS and density altitudeD – EAS and density altitude

Ref: all

Ans: D

20685. The altimeter indicates true altitude:

A – when the temperature on the ground is +15oC with a lapse rate of 2oC per 1000 feet, and correct QNH is setB – in ISA conditions onlyC – when the temperature on the ground is +15oC with a lapse rate of 2oC per 1000 feet, and correct QFE is setD – when pressure at mean sea level is 10135.25 hPa, with a ground temperature of +15oC and a density equal to 1,225 kg/m3

Ref: all

Ans: B

20686. The altimeter is supplied with:

A – static pressureB – dynamic pressureC – total pressureD – differential pressure

Ref: all

Ans: A

20687. The altimeter of your aircraft indicates 10,000 ft with a subscale-setting of 1013.25 mb. OAT is +5oC. The pressure altitude of the aircraft is:

A – 697 hPaB – 10400 ftC – 9600 ftD – 10000 ft

Ref: all

Ans: D

20688. The altimeter of your aircraft indicates 11000 ft with a subscale-setting of 1013.25 mb QNH is 1023 hPa. OAT is +3oC. The pressure altitude of the aircraft is:

A – 10250 ftB – 11740 ftC – 11000 ftD – 670 hPa

Ref: all

Ans: C

20689. The altimeter of your aircraft indicates 12000 ft with a subscale-setting of 1013.25 mb. QNH is 999 hPa. The pressure altitude of the aircraft is:

A – 644 hPaB – 11580 ftC – 12420 ftD – 12000 ft

Ref: all

Ans: D

20690. The altimeter of your aircraft indicates 15000 ft with a subscale-setting of 1013.25 mb. OAT is -21oC. The pressure altitude of the aircraft is:

A – 15000 ftB – 14640 ftC – 15360 ftD – 572 hPa

Ref: all

Ans: A

20691. The altimeter of your aircraft indicates 16000 ft with a subscale-setting of 1013.25 mb. QNH is 993 hPa. OAT is -3oC. The pressure altitude of the aircraft is:

A – 16000 ftB – 14200 ftC – 17700 ftD – 548 hPa

Ref: all

Ans: A

20692. The altimeter of your aircraft indicates 17000 ft with a subscale-setting of 1013.25 mb. QNH is 1031 hPa. The pressure altitude of the aircraft is:

A – 17540 ftB – 17000 ftC – 16460 ftD – 527 hPa

Ref: all

Ans: B

20704. The compressibility correction to CAS to give EAS:

1) may be positive2) is always negative3) depends on Mach number only4) depends on pressure altitude only


A – 2, 3B – 2, 4C – 1, 3D – 1, 4

Ref: all

Ans: A

20753. The indicated Mach number is independent from:

A – total pressureB – dynamic pressureC – static pressureD – temperature

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: D

20758. The input data of an ADC are:

1) OAT2) TAT3) Static pressure4) Total pressure


A – 1, 2, 3, 4B – 2, 3, 4C – 1, 3, 4D – 1, 2, 4


Ans: B

20762. The Mach number is proportional to the ratio:(Note: ‘a’ indicates the local speed of sound)

A – EAS/aB – CAS/aC – TAS/aD – IAS/a

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: C

20765. The maximum TAS is obtained at:

A – the maximum flight levelB – the flight level at which simultaneously CAS = VMO and M = MMOC – all the flight level(s) where CAS = VMOD – all the flight level(s) where M = MMO

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: B

20775. The parameter that determines the relationship between EAS and TAS is:

A – Mach numberB – pressure altitudeC – OATD – density altitude

Ref: all

Ans: D

20777. The position error of the static vent on which the altimeter is connected varies substantially with the:

A – deformation of the aneroid capsuleB – Mach number of the aircraftC – flight time at high altitudeD – static temperature

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: B

20779. The pressure capsule of an airspeed indicator is sensitive to the difference:

A – (Total Pressure – Dynamic Pressure), called Static PressureB – (Dynamic Pressure – Static Pressure), called Total PressureC – (Total Pressure – Static Pressure), called Dynamic PressureD – (Dynamic Pressure – Total Pressure), called Static Pressure

Ref: all

Ans: C

20785. The QNH is by definition the value of the:

A – atmospheric pressure at the sea level of the location for which it is givenB – altimeter setting so that the altimeter, on the apron of the aerodrome for

which it is given, reads the elevationC – altimeter setting so that the altimeter, on the apron of the aerodrome for which it is given, reads zeroD – atmospheric pressure at the level of the ground over-flown by the aircraft

Ref: all

Ans: B

20801. The total pressure probe (pitot tube) comprises a mast which moves its port to a distance from the aircraft skin in order:

A – to locate it outside the boundary layerB – not to disturb the aerodynamic flow around the aircraftC – it is protected from icingD – it is easily accessible during maintenance checks

Ref: all

Ans: A

20815. True Air Speed (TAS) is equal to Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) only if:

A – P = 1013.25 hPa, OAT = 15oC and TAS < 200 ktB – P = 1013.25 hPa and OAT = 273oKC – P = 1013.25 hPa, OAT = 15oC and TAS >200 ktD – P = 1013.25 hPa and OAT = 15oC

Ref: all

Ans: D

20816. True Air Speed (TAS) is obtained from Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) by correcting for the following errors:

1) instrument2) compressibility3) position4) density


A – 2, 4B – 2C – 4D – 1, 2, 3, 4

Ref: all

Ans: A

20817. True Air Speed (TAS) is obtained from Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) by correcting for:

A – instrument errorB – compressibility errorC – density errorD – position and instrument errors

Ref: all

Ans: C

20818. True Air Speed (TAS) is obtained from Indicated Air Speed (IAS) by correcting for the following errors:

1) instrument2) position3) compressibility4) density


A – 3, 4B – 1, 2, 3, 4C – 1, 2D – 1, 3, 4

Ref: all

Ans: B

20819. True Air Speed (TAS) is:

A – Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) corrected for compressibility errorB – Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) corrected for density errorC – Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) corrected for density errorD – Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) corrected for compressibility error

Ref: all

Ans: B


A – Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) corrected for density error onlyB – Calibrated Air Speed (CAS corrected for compressibility and density errorsC – Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) corrected for compressibility error onlyD – Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) corrected for compressibility and density errors

Ref: all

Ans: B


A – Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) corrected for instrument, compressibility and density errorsB – Indicated Air Speed (IAS) corrected for compressibility and density errors onlyC – Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) corrected for instrument, position, compressibility and density errorsD – Indicated Air Speed (IAS) corrected for instrument, position, compressibility and density errors

Ref: all

Ans: D

20822. When climbing at a constant CAS in a standard atmosphere:

A – TAS decreasesB – TAS increasesC – TAS remains constantD – TAS first decreases, then remains constant above the tropopause

Ref: all

Ans: B

20823. When climbing at a constant CAS in a standard atmosphere:

1) TAS decreases2) TAS increases3) Mach number increases4) Mach number decreases


A – 1, 4B – 2, 4C – 1, 3D – 2, 3

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: D

20824. When climbing at a constant CAS throughout an isothermal layer, the Mach number:

A – decreases if OAT is lower than the standard temperatureB – decreasesC – remains constantD – increases

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: D

20825. When climbing at a constant CAS:

A – Mach number decreasesB – Mach number increasesC – Mach number remains constantD – the difference between surrounding conditions and ISA must be known to deduce the Mach number variation

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: B

20826. When climbing at a constant CAS:

A – EAS decreasesB – EAS increasesC – EAS remains constantD – EAS does not depend on altitude

Ref: all

Ans: A

20827. When climbing at a constant Mach number through an isothermal layer, the CAS:

A – decreases if OAT is lower than the standard temperature, increases if higherB – increasesC – remains constantD – decreases

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: D

20828. When climbing at a constant Mach number:

A – CAS decreasesB – CAS increasesC – CAS remains constantD – difference between surrounding conditions and ISA must be known to deduce the CAS variation

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: A

20829. When descending at a constant CAS in a standard atmosphere:

1) TAS increases2) TAS decreases3) Mach number increases4) Mach number decreases


A – 2, 4B – 2, 3C – 1, 3D – 1, 4

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: A

20830. When descending at a constant CAS through out an isothermal layer, the Mach number:

A – increases if OAT is lower than the standard temperature, decreases if higherB – increasesC – remains constantD – decreases

Ref: AIR; atpl

Ans: D

20831. When descending at a constant CAS:

A – Mach number decreasesB – Mach number increasesC – Mach number remains constantD – the difference between surrounding conditions and ISA must be known to deduce the Mach number variation

Ref: AIR; atpl

Ans: A

20832. When descending at a constant CAS:

A – EAS increasesB – EAS decreasesC – EAS remains constantD – EAS does not depend on altitude

Ref: all

Ans: A

20833. When descending at a constant Mach number:

A – the difference between surrounding conditions and ISA must be known to deduce the CAS variationB – CAS decreasesC – CAS remains constantD – CAS increases

Ref: AIR; atpl

Ans: D

20834. When flying in cold air (colder than standard atmosphere), indicated altitude is:

A – lower than the true altitudeB – the same as the true altitudeC – higher than the true altitudeD – equal to the standard altitude

Ref: all

Ans: C

20835. When flying in cold air (colder than standard atmosphere), the altimeter will:

A – show the actual height above the sea levelB – underestimateC – overestimateD – show the actual height above ground

Ref: all

Ans: C

20836. When flying in warm air (warmer than standard atmosphere), indicated altitude is:

A – higher than the true altitudeB – the same as the true altitudeC – lower than the true altitudeD – equal to the standard altitude

Ref: all

Ans: C

20841. Which of the following instruments are connected to the pitot-static system?

1) altimeter2) air operated directional gyro3) vertical speed indicator4) airspeed indicator


A – 1, 3B – 1, 3, 4C – 1, 2, 3, 4D – 1, 2, 4

Ref: all

Ans: B

20845. With constant weight and configuration, an aircraft always takes off at the same:

A – indicated airspeedB – ground speedC – true airspeedD – equivalent airspeed

Ref: AIR; all

Ans: D

20846. With EAS and density altitude, we can deduce:

A – CAS and TASB – CASC – TASD – IAS

Ref: all

Ans: C

20847. With EAS and pressure altitude, we can deduce:

A – TASB – CASC – CAS and TASD – IAS

Ref: all

Ans: B

24470. A vibrator may be fitted to an altimeter to overcome:

A – frictionB – hysteresisC – lagD – pressure error

Ref: all

Ans: A

24471. The machmeter consists of:

A – an airspeed indicator with mach scaleB – an airspeed indicator with an altimeter capsuleC – an altimeter corrected for densityD – a VSI and altimeter combind

Ref: AIR; atpl

Ans: B

24472. CAS is IAS corrected for:

A – position and instrument errorB – instrument, pressure and density errorC – relative density onlyD – compressibility

Ref: all

Ans: A

24474. QNH is:

A – the airfield barometric pressureB – the setting that will give zero indication on the airfieldC – the equivalent sea level pressure at the airfieldD – the setting that will indicate airfield height

Ref: all

Ans: C

24475. The vertical reference of a data generation unit is:

A – horizontal axis with 1 degree of freedomB – vertical axis with 1 degree of freedomC – horizontal axis with 2 degrees of freedomD – vertical axis with 2 degrees of freedom


Ans: D

24479. An Air Data Computer (ADC) obtains altitude from:

A – outside air temperatureB – barometric data from static sourceC – time elapsed for signal to travel to and return from the earthD – difference between absolute and dynamic pressure


Ans: B

24480. What formula gives the total temperature (TT) from the static temperature (TS):

A – TT = TS (1 + 0.2 M^2)B – TT = TS (1 + 0.2 Kr M^2)C – TT = TS / (1 + 0.2 Kr M^2)D – TT = TS (1 – 0.2 M^2)

Ref: AIR; atpl

Ans: B

24482. What is VMO calculated from:

A – CASB – TASC – COASD – EAS

Ref: all

Ans: D

24485. Descending from FL390 at maximum ground speed, what will the pilot be limited by:

A – VMO initially then MMO at a specified altitudeB – MMO initially then VMO at a specified altitudeC – VNE initially then MMO at a specified altitudeD – VNO initially then VNE at a specified altitude

Ref: AIR; atpl

Ans: B

24486. At constant weight, regardless of altitude, an aircraft always lifts off at a constant:

A – EASB – TASC – ground speedD – CAS

Ref: AIR; all

Ans: D

24487. VFE is the maximum speed at which:

A – the flaps can be operatedB – the flaps may be extended in the take-off configurationC – the flaps may be extended in the landing configurationD – the flaps may be extended in a specified configuration

Ref: all

Ans: D

24488. The white arc on the ASI indicates:

A – VS1 at the lower end and VLE at the upper endB – VS0 at the lower end and VLE at the upper endC – VS0 at the lower end and VFE at the upper endD – VS1 at the lower end and VFE at the upper end

Ref: all

Ans: C

24490. An ASI circuit consists of pressure sensors. The Pitot Probe measures:

A – total pressure & static pressureB – dynamic pressureC – static pressureD – total pressure

Ref: all

Ans: D

24491. Mach number is defined as the ratio of:

A – IAS to Local Speed of SoundB – TAS to Local Speed of SoundC – CAS to Local Speed of SoundD – EAS to Local Speed of Sound

Ref: AIR; atpl

Ans: B

24492. If a pitot source is blocked in an ASI, and the drain hole is blocked, but the static source is open, what will happen?

A – ASI reading goes to zeroB – ASI under readsC – ASI over readsD – ASI behaves like an altimeter

Ref: all

Ans: D

24497. What are the inputs to the ADC?

1) OAT2) Dynamic pressure3) TAT4) Static pressure5) Electric power6) Pitot pressure7) AOA

A – 1, 2, 5 & 6B – all 7C – 3, 4 & 6D – 3, 4, 5, 6 & 7


Ans: D

24499. VNO is the maximum speed which:

A – the pitot can fully deflect the controlsB – should only be exceeded in still air and with cautionC – should never be exceededD – must not be exceeded for flap/gear extension

Ref: all

Ans: B

24500. If while level at FL 270, at a constant CAS, temperature falls, what happens to the Mach Number?

A – decreasesB – increasesC – remains constantD – increases depending on whether temperature > ISA or < ISA

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: C

24501. If the static vent becomes blocked on an unpressurised aircraft, what could you do?

A – open the windowB – break the VSI glassC – compute altitude mathematicallyD – select standby pitot source

Ref: all

Ans: B

24503. What is density altitude:

A – altitude in the standard atmosphere at which the prevailing density is equal to the density in the standard atmosphereB – pressure altitude corrected for prevailing tempC – temperature altitudeD – pressure corrected

Ref: all

Ans: A

24505. Aircraft is travelling at 100 kts ground speed on a 3o glide slope. What is the rate of descent?

A – 500 ft/minB – 300 ft/minC – 250 ft/minD – 600 ft/min

Ref: all

Ans: A

24506. If the pitot tube is leaking (and the pitot drain is blocked) in a non-pressurised A/C, the ASI will:

A – under-readB – over-readC – over-read in the climb, under-read in the descentD – under-read in the climb, over-read in the descent

Ref: all

Ans: A

24510. At sea level ISA, TAS:

A – equals CASB – is greater than CASC – is less than CAS

Ref: all

Ans: A

24512. What will the altimeter read if the layers beneath the aircraft are all colder than standard?

A – Read lower than the real altitudeB – Read higher than the real altitudeC – Read the correct altitudeD – Readings will fluctuate

Ref: all

Ans: B

24513. The indications of a machmeter are independent of:

A – Temperature (OAT)B – Static pressureC – Differential static and dynamic pressureD – Dynamic pressure

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: A

24516. What is the speed of sound at sea level ISA?

A – 644 ktsB – 661 ktsC – 1059 ktsD – 583 kts

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: B

24517. What is the speed of sound at 25,000 ft and -28oC?


Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: D

24518. What is the speed of sound at 30,000 ft and -40oC?


Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: B

24519. If a constant CAS is maintained in a climb, what happens to the mach number?

A – Remains constantB – IncreasesC – Decreases

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: B

24521. If a pitot tube and drains are blocked at altitude by icing, during a descent the ASI will:

A – read constant airspeedB – under readC – over readD – show zero

Ref: all

Ans: B

24523. Total Air Temp is always ___ than Static Air Temp and the difference varies with ___

A – warmer / altitudeB – colder / altitudeC – warmer / CASD – colder / CAS

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: C

24525. What are the upper and lower limits of the yellow arc on an ASI?

A – Lower limit VLO and upper limit VNEB – Lower limit VLE and upper limit VNEC – Lower limit VNO and upper limit VNED – Lower limit VLO and upper limit VLE

Ref: all

Ans: C

24526. What does the blue line on an ASI of a twin propeller engined aircraft indicate?

A – VYSEB – VNOC – VFED – VMCA

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: A

24530. Mach number is defined as:

A – the ratio of pitot pressure to dynamic pressureB – the ratio of static pressure to dynamic pressureC – the ratio of dynamic pressure to static pressureD – the ratio of static pressure to pitot pressure

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: C

24531. You are flying at a constant FL 290 and constant Mach number. The total temperature increases by 5oC. The CAS will:

A – remain approximately constantB – increase by 10 ktsC – decrease by 10 ktsD – increase or decrease depending on whether you are above or below ISA

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: A

24533. What is SAT?

A – Relative temperature measured in KB – Differential temperature measured in KC – Relative temperature measured in oCD – Ambient temperature measured in oC

Ref: all

Ans: D

24534. If an aircraft climbs, at constant mach No. in ISA conditions what happens to the TAS and the CAS?

A – TAS increases and CAS increasesB – TAS remains constant and CAS decreasesC – TAS decreases and CAS increasesD – TAS decreases and CAS decreases

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: D

24535. What happens when the static pressure supply, to an altimeter, becomes blocked during a descent?

A – reduces to zeroB – over readsC – under readsD – indicates altitude at which blockage occurred

Ref: all

Ans: D

24538. What happens when the static pressure supply, to an altimeter, becomes blocked during a descent?

A – reduces to zeroB – over readsC – under readsD – indicates altitude at which blockage occurred

Ref: all

Ans: A

24540. VLO is defined as:

A – the maximum speed at which to fly with the landing gear retractedB – the maximum speed at which the landing gear may be retracted o extendedC – the maximum speed at which to fly with the landing gear extendedD – the minimum speed at which to fly with the landing gear extended

Ref: all

Ans: B

24541. VNE is defined as:

A – the speed which must not be exceeded in still air, or without cautionB – the speed above which the landing gear may not be extendedC – the speed which must never be exceededD – the maximum speed for normal flap extension to be selected

Ref: all

Ans: C

24544. If an aircraft is descending at constant mach number, and the total air temperature remains constant, what happens to the CAS?

A – remains constantB – decreasesC – increasesD – increases if the temperature is below standard, and decreases if the temperature is above standard

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: C

24546. A machmeter measures the ratio of:

A – pitot pressure to static pressureB – (pitot pressure minus static pressure) to static pressureC – pitot pressure times static pressureD – pitot pressure to (static pressure times pitot pressure)

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: B

24550. The green arc on the ASI is used to identify which speed range?

A – VSO to VNOB – VS1 to VFEC – VS1 to VNOD – VS1 to VLO

Ref: all

Ans: C

24551. Pressure altitude may be defined as:

A – the lowest forecast regional pressureB – pressure measured in the standard atmosphereC – altitude indicated with QFE set on the altimeterD – altitude indicated with QNH set on the altimeter

Ref: all

Ans: B

24552. What is the effect on an altimeter reading if variations in static pressure occur near to the pressure source?

A – a change in hysteresis errorB – a change in the instrument errorC – a change in the position errorD – a change in the compressibility error

Ref: all

Ans: C

24791. During a descent at constant CAS and total temperature, the mach no:

A – increasesB – remains constantC – increases if SAT is greater than standard temperature and decreases if it is lowerD – decreases

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: D

24792. The single most significant item which makes a servo altimeter more accurate is:

A – electromagnetic pick-offB – logarithmic scaleC – temperature compensated springD – multiple pointers

Ref: all

Ans: A

24800. Mach number is determined from:(PT = total pressure, PS = static pressure)

A – (PT + PS) x PTB – (PT – PS) x PTC – (PT x PS) x PTD – (PT – PS) / PS

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: D

24806. During a descent at a constant mach number, there is an increase of total temperature by 5o. What effect does this have on CAS?

A – Remains almost constantB – Increases if SAT is more than standard and decreases if SAT is less than standardC – Increases by 10 ktsD – Decreases by 10 kts

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: C

24807. VNO is defined as:

A – maximum structural cruising speedB – never exceed speedC – manoeuvring speedD – maximum operating speed

Ref: all

Ans: A

24812. An aircraft is flying at constant indicated altitude over a cold airmass. The altimeter reading will be:

A – greater than the real altitudeB – standard altitudeC – same as the real altitudeD – less than the real altitude

Ref: all

Ans: A

24814. From where does the air data computer (ADC) obtain aircraft altitude?

A – OAT probeB – dynamic – absolute ambient pressureC – absolute barometric sensor on aircraft fuselage

Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl

Ans: C

24819. What is indicated on the ASI when the static vent blocks during a descent?

A – under readsB – reads correctlyC – over readsD – reads zero

Ref: all

Ans: C

24823. If you maintain the same CAS and Altitude FL 270, and the temperature increases, what happens to the Mach No?

A – increases at an exponential rateB – decreases at an exponential rateC – remains the sameD – increases

Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl

Ans: C

24824. If CAS is kept constant, what happens to the Mach No?

A – as the altitude increases the mach No will increaseB – as the altitude increases the mach no will decreaseC – as the temperature increases the mach No will increaseD – as the temperature decreases the mach No will decrease

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: A

24828. When descending from FL 290 to FL 150 at maximum speed, the limitations which apply are:

A – VMOB – VMO then MMOC – MMO then VMOD – MMO

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: C

24832. What is the principle of operation of a VSI?

A – differential pressure across a capsuleB – total pressure in a capsuleC – static pressure in a capsuleD – dynamic pressure in a capsule

Ref: all

Ans: A

24845. A VMO/MMO alarm system on an airline aircraft is fitted with an aneroid capsule which is:

A – subjected to static pressure and an anemometer subjected to dynamic pressureB – subjected to dynamic pressure and an anemometer subjected to static pressureC – subjected to static pressure and an anemometer subjected to static pressureD – subjected to dynamic pressure and an anemometer subjected to dynamic pressure

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: A

25230. An aeroplane is in a steady climb. The auto throttle maintains a constant Mach number. If the total temperature remains constant, the calibrated airspeed:

A – decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature, increases if higherB – remains constantC – decreasesD – increases

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: C

25267. The Machmeter is subject to:

A – Position/Instrument errorB – Density errorC – Density and Temperature errorD – Temperature error

Ref: AIR; atpl

Ans: A

25270. At a constant CAS what happens to the Mach No. if the temperature increases?

A – It increasesB – It decreasesC – It increases relative to ISAD – It stays the same

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: D

25276. In an altimeter, what pressure is fed to the capsule and the case?

A – Static / DynamicB – Static / StaticC – Static / VacuumD – Vacuum / Static

Ref: all

Ans: D

25277. At 35000 feet the OAT is -40oC. What is the Local Speed of Sound?


Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: A

25278. The speed at which sound is transported through the air is dependant on:

A – DensityB – PressureC – Density and TemperatureD – Temperature

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: D

25280. What does the green arc on an ASI indicate?

A – Vs1 – VneB – Vs1 – VloC – Vs1 – VnoD – Vso – Vno

Ref: all

Ans: C

022-01-02 Gyroscopic Instruments

2701. In the building principle of a gyroscope, the best efficiency is obtained through the concentration of the mass:

A – on the periphery and with a high rotation speedB – close to the axis and with a high rotation speedC – on the periphery and with a low rotation speedD – close to the axis and with a low rotation speed

Ref: all

Ans: A

2702. Concerning the directional gyro indicator, the latitude at which the apparent wander is equal to 0 is:

A – the equatorB – latitude 30o

C – latitude 45o

D – the North pole

Ref: all

Ans: A

2703. The heading information originating from the gyro-magnetic compass flux valve is sent to the:

A – error detectorB – erector systemC – heading indicatorD – amplifier

Ref: all

Ans: A

2704. A gravity erector system is used to correct the errors on:

A – an artificial horizonB – a directional gyroC – a turn indicatorD – a gyro-magnetic compass

Ref: all

Ans: A

2705. A turn indicator is an instrument which indicates rate of turn. Rate of turn depends upon:

1) bank angle2) aeroplane speed3) aeroplane weight

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

A – 2 and 3B – 1, 2 and 3C – 1 and 2D – 1 and 3

Ref: all

Ans: C

5441. A failed RMI rose is locked on 090o and the ADF pointer indicates 225o. The relative bearing to the station is:

A – 135o

B – Impossible to read, due to failure RMIC – 315o

D – 225o

Ref: all

Ans: A

5442. An aircraft is flying at a 120 kt true airspeed (VV), in order to achieve a rate 1 turn, the pilot will have to bank the aircraft at an angle of:

A – 30o

B – 12o

C – 36o

D – 18o

Ref: all

Ans: A

5449. On the ground, during a right turn, the turn indicator indicates:

A – needle to the right, ball to leftB – needle to the right, ball to rightC – needle in the middle, ball to rightD – needle in the middle, ball to left

Ref: all

Ans: A

5450. An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis is:(Note: the degree(s) of freedom of a gyro does not take into account its rotor spin axis)

A – an artificial horizonB – a directional gyroC – a turn indicatorD – a fluxgate compass

Ref: all

Ans: B

5451. A laser gyro consists of:

A – a gyro with 2 degrees of freedomB – 2 electrodes (anodes + cathodes)C – a laser generating two light wavesD – two moving cavities provided with mirrors

Ref: all

Ans: C

5453. The flux valve in a RIMC:

A – is supplied with AC currentB – is fed with DC currentC – is made of hard-iron magnetic steelD – has its own self exciter unit

Ref: all

Ans: A

5455. When an aircraft has turned 270 degrees with a constant altitude and bank, the pilot observes the following on a classic artificial horizon:

A – too much nose up and bank to lowB – too much nose up and bank correctC – turn too much nose up and bank to highD – altitude and bank are correct

Ref: all

Ans: C

5458. If the needle and the ball of a Turn & Slip indicator both show right, what does it indicate:

A – turn to left & too much bankB – too much nose up and bank correctC – too much nose up and bank to highD – turn to right and too little bank

Ref: all

Ans: B

5463. What is the Schuler period?

A – 21 minutesB – 84 minutesC – 1 oscillation in azimuthD – 63 minutes

Ref: all

Ans: B

5474. The gyro-magnetic compass torque motor:

A – causes the directional gyro unit to precessB – causes the heading indicator to precessC – feeds the error detector systemD – is fed by the flux valve

Ref: all

Ans: A

5475. The input signal of the amplifier of the gyro-magnetic compass resetting device originates from the:

A – directional gyro erection deviceB – flux valveC – directional gyro unitD – error detector

Ref: all

Ans: D

5484. A DGI has:

A – one degree of freedom & a horizontal spin axisB – two degrees of freedom & a vertical spin axisC – two degrees of freedom & a horizontal spin axisD – one degree of freedom & a vertical spin axis

Ref: all

Ans: C

5486. What is the Schuler period?

A – 48 minutesB – 84 secondsC – 48 secondsD – 84 minutes


Ans: D

5492. The torque motor of a gyro stabilised magnetic compass:

A – preceses the directional gyroB – takes its input from the flux valveC – moves the heading pointerD – moves the Selsyn stator

Ref: all

Ans: A

5495. The directional gyro axis no longer spins about the local vertical when it is located:

A – on the North poleB – in the latitude 30o

C – in the latitude 45o

D – on the equator

Ref: all

Ans: D

5503. In a right turn while taxiing, the correct indications on a Turn & Slip Indicator are:

A – Needle left, ball rightB – Needle left, ball leftC – Needle right, ball rightD – Needle right, ball left

Ref: all

Ans: D

5506. During an acceleration phase at constant altitude, the resetting principle of the artificial horizon results in the horizon bar indicating a:

A – constant attitudeB – nose-down attitudeC – nose-up attitudeD – nose-down followed by a nose-up attitude

Ref: all

Ans: C

5526. On the ground, during a left turn, the turn indicator indicates:

A – needle in the middle, ball to the leftB – needle to the left, ball to the leftC – needle in the middle, ball to the rightD – needle to the left, ball to the right

Ref: all

Ans: D

5537. The rigidity of a gyro is improved by:

A – increasing RPM and concentrating the mass on the periphery of the rotorB – increasing RPM and concentrating the mass at the hub of the rotorC – decreasing RPM and concentrating the mass on the periphery of the rotorD – decreasing RPM and concentrating the mass at the hub of the rotor

Ref: all

Ans: A

5542. The maximum drift error sensed by an uncompensated DGI will be:

A – 15o per hourB – 30o per hourC – 45o per hourD – 60o per hour

Ref: all

Ans: A

5555. A Stand-by-horizon or emergency attitude indicator:

A – Is automatically connected to the primary vertical gyro if the alternator failsB – Contains its own separate gyroC – Is fully independent of external energy resources in an emergency situationD – Only works of there is a complete electrical failure

Ref: all

Ans: B

5568. A gyro-magnetic compass or heading reference unit is an assembly which always consists of:

1) a directional gyro2) a vertical axis gyro3) an earth’s magnetic field detector4) an azimuth control5) a synchronising control


A – 2, 5B – 2, 3, 5C – 1, 4D – 1, 3, 5

Ref: all

Ans: D

5573. When, in flight, the needle and ball of a needle-and-ball indicator are on the left, the aircraft is:

A – turning left with not enough bankB – turning left with too much bankC – turning right with too much bankD – turning right with not enough bank

Ref: all

Ans: B

5580. The rate-of-turn is the:

A – yaw rate in a turnB – change-of-heading rate of the aircraftC – aircraft speed in a turnD – pitch rate in a turn

Ref: all

Ans: B

5586. A standby artificial horizon must have the following properties:

1) a remote gyro2) its own power supply3) only to be used in emergency4) its own gyro5) one for each certified pilot

A – all the aboveB – 1, 3, 5C – 2, 3, 4D – 2, 4

Ref: all

Ans: D

5593. On a turn and slip indicator, needle to the left and ball to the right indicates:

A – turn to the right, not enough bankB – turn to the left, too much bankC – turn to the left, not enough bankD – turn to the right, too much bank

Ref: all

Ans: C

5594. The heading read on the dial of a directional gyro is subject to errors, one of which is due to the movement of the aircraft. This error….

A – is at its greatest value when the aircraft follows a meridional trackB – is, in spite of this, insignificant and may be neglectedC – is dependent on the ground speed of the aircraft, its true track and the average latitude of the flightD – shows itself by an apparent rotation of the horizontal axis of the gyroscope which seems to turn at 15o per hour to the right in the northern hemisphere

Ref: all

Ans: C

5599. The indications on a directional gyroscope or gyrocompass are subject to errors, due to:

1) rotation of Earth2) aeroplane motion on Earth3) lateral and transversal aeroplane bank angles4) north change5) mechanical defects

Choose the combination with true statements only:

A – 1, 2, 3, 5B – 3, 4, 5C – 1, 2, 4, 5D – 2, 3, 5

Ref: all

Ans: A

5600. In a DGI what error is caused by the gyro movement relative to the earth?

A – earth rateB – transport wanderC – real wanderD – latitude error

Ref: all

Ans: B

5607. The gimbal error of the directional gyro is due to the effect of:

A – the aircraft’s track over the earthB – an apparent weight and an apparent verticalC – too slow precession on the horizontal gimbal ringD – a bank or pitch attitude of the aircraft

Ref: all

Ans: D

5628. In a turn at a constant angle of bank, the turn indicator reading is:

A – independent to the aircraft true airspeedB – proportional to the aircraft true airspeedC – inversely proportional to the aircraft true airspeedD – proportional to the aircraft weight

Ref: all

Ans: C

5643. The characteristics of the directional gyro (DG) used in a gyro stabilised compass system are:

A – two degrees of freedom, whose horizontal axis corresponding to the reference direction is maintained in the horizontal plane by an automatic erecting systemB – two degrees of freedom, whose axis aligned with the vertical to the location is maintained in this direction by an erecting systemC – one degree of freedom, whose horizontal axis is maintained in the horizontal plane by an automatic erecting systemD – one degree of freedom, whose vertical axis, aligned with the real vertical to the location is maintained in this direction by an automatic erecting system

Ref: all

Ans: A

5646. In a left turn while taxiing, the correct indications are:

A – Needle left, ball rightB – Needle left, ball leftC – needle right, ball rightD – Needle right, ball left

Ref: all

Ans: A

5652. Compared with a conventional gyro, a laser gyro:

A – has a longer life cycleB – consumes a lot of powerC – is influenced by temperatureD – has a fairly long starting cycle

Ref: all

Ans: A

5655. The heading reference unit of a three-axis data generator is equipped with a gyro with:

A – 2 degrees of freedom and vertical spin axisB – 2 degrees of freedom and horizontal spin axisC – 1 degree of freedom and horizontal spin axisD – 1 degree of freedom and vertical spin axis

Ref: all

Ans: B

5657. A turn indicator is built around a gyroscope with:(Note: the degree(s) of freedom of a gyro does not take into account its rotor spin axis)

A – 1 degree of freedomB – 0 degree of freedomC – 2 degrees of freedomD – 3 degrees of freedom

Ref: all

Ans: A

5663. Following 180o stabilised turn with a constant attitude and bank, the artificial horizon indicates:

A – too high pitch-up and too low bankingB – too high pitch-up and correct bankingC – attitude and banking correctD – too high pitch up and too high banking

Ref: all

Ans: A

5665. For an aircraft flying a true track of 360o between the 005oS and 005oN parallels, the precession error of the directional gyro due to apparent drift is equal to:

A – 0o/hourB - +5o/hourC - -5o/hourD – depends only on the aircraft’s ground speed

Ref: all

Ans: A

5666. The pendulum type detector system of the directional gyro feeds:

A – a torque motor on the sensitive axisB – a nozzle integral with the outer gimbal ringC – a levelling erection torque motorD – 2 torque motors arranged horizontally

Ref: all

Ans: C

5669. In a Gyro magnetic compass the flux gate transmits information to the:

A – heading indicatorB – amplifierC – error detectorD – erecting system

Ref: all

Ans: C

5674. The properties of a Turn Indicator are:

1) One degree of freedom2) Two degrees of freedom3) Two springs connected to the aircraft frame4) Spin axis in the longitudinal plane5) Spin axis parallel to the yaw axis6) Spin axis in the lateral plane

A – 1, 6B – 2, 5C – 1, 4D – 2, 6

Ref: all

Ans: A

5682. A flux valve senses the changes in orientation of the horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field.

1) the flux valve is made of a pair of soft iron bars2) the primary coils are fed A.C voltage (usually 487.5 Hz)3) the information can be used by a “flux gate” compass or a directional gyro4) the flux gate valve casing is dependent on the aircraft three inertial axis5) the accuracy on the value of the magnetic field indication is less than 0.5%

Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?

A – 1, 4 5B – 1, 3, 4, 5C – 3, 5D – 2, 3, 5

Ref: all

Ans: D

5684. Among the flight control instruments, the artificial horizon plays an essential part. It uses a gyroscope with:(Note: in this question, the degrees of freedom of a gyro are determined by the number of gimbal rings it comprises)

A – one degree of freedom, whose vertical axis oriented in the direction of the real vertical to the location is maintained in this direction by an automatic erecting systemB – two degrees of freedom whose horizontal axis corresponding to a reference direction is maintained in a horizontal plane by an automatic erecting systemC – one degree of freedom, whose horizontal axis is maintained in a horizontal plane by an automatic erecting systemD – two degrees of freedom, whose axis is oriented and continuously maintained to local vertical by an automatic erecting system

Ref: all

Ans: D

5689. A gravity erector system corrects errors on a:

A – DGIB – artificial horizonC – turn indicatorD – RIMC

Ref: all

Ans: B

5696. When an aircraft has turned 360 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the pilot observes the following on a classic artificial horizon:

A – too much nose-up and bank too highB – too much nose-up and bank too lowC – too much nose-up and bank correctD – attitude and bank correct

Ref: all

Ans: D

5706. An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 1 degree of freedom and a horizontal spin axis is a:

Note: the degree(s) of freedom of a gyro does not take into account its rotor spin axis:

A – gyromagnetic compassB – turn indicatorC – fluxgate compassD – directional gyro

Ref: all

Ans: B

5709. A 2 axis gyro measuring vertical changes will have:

A – one degree of freedom vertical axisB – two degrees of freedom vertical axisC – one degree of freedom horizontal axisD – two degrees of freedom horizontal axis

Ref: all

Ans: B

5716. A directional gyro is:

1) a gyroscope free around two axis2) a gyroscope free around one axis3) capable of self-orientation around an earth-tied direction4) incapable of self-orientation around an earth-tied direction

The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:

A – 1 – 4B – 2 – 4C – 2 – 3D – 1 – 3

Ref: all

Ans: A

5723. When, in flight, the needle and ball of a needle-and-ball indicator are on the right, the aircraft is:

A – turning left with too much bankB – turning right with not enough bankC – turning right with too much bankD – turning left with not enough bank

Ref: all

Ans: C

5726. The indication of the directional gyro as an on-board instrument are valid only for a short period of time. The causes of this inaccuracy are:

1) The earth’s rotation2) The longitudinal acceleration3) The aircraft’s motion over the surface of the earth4) The mechanical defects of the gyro5) The gyro’s weight6) The gimbal mount of the gyro rings


A – 2, 5, 6B – 1, 3, 4C – 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6D – 1, 3, 4, 6

Ref: all

Ans: D

5728. In a left turn, the ball of the turn co-ordinator is out to the right what corrective action is required?

A – more right rudderB – more right bankC – more left bankD – more left rudder

Ref: all

Ans: C

5736. When an aircraft has turned 90 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the pilot observes the following on a classic artificial horizon:

A – too much nose-up and bank correctB – attitude and bank correctC – too much nose-up and bank too lowD – too much nose-up and bank too high

Ref: all

Ans: C

5739. Where is the earth rate wander and the transport wander of a gyro equal to zero?

A – North PoleB – EquatorC – 45oND – 45oS

Ref: all

Ans: B

5741. What is the maximum drift of a gyro, due to earth rate?

A – 90o per hourB – 180o per hourC – 15o per hourD – 5o per hour

Ref: all

Ans: C

5746. In a turn at constant angle of bank, the rate of turn is:

A – independent of weight and proportional to TASB – dependent on weight and inversely proportional to TASC – independent of weight and inversely proportional to TASD – dependant on weight and proportional to TAS

Ref: all

Ans: C

5748. While inertial platform system is operating on board an aircraft, it is necessary to use a device with the following characteristics, in order to keep the vertical line with a pendulous system:

A – with damping and a period of about 84 minutesB – with damping and a period of about 84 secondsC – without damping and a period of about 84 minutesD – without damping and a period of about 84 seconds


Ans: A

5751. The turn rate indicator uses a gyroscope:

1) with one degree of freedom2) with two degrees of freedom3) the frame of which is supported by two return springs4) the spinning wheel axis of which is parallel to the pitch axis5) the spinning wheel axis of which is parallel to the yawing axis6) the spinning wheel axis of which is horizontal


A – 1 and 6B – 1 and 3C – 2 and 3D – 2, 3 and 6

Ref: all

Ans: B

5754. Heading information given by a gyro platform, is given by a gyro at:

A – 3 degrees-of-freedom in the vertical axisB – 3 degrees-of-freedom in the horizontal axisC – 2 degrees-of-freedom in the vertical axisD – 2 degrees-of-freedom in the horizontal axis


Ans: D

5764. Among the systematic errors of the “directional gyro”, the error due to the earth rotation make the north reference turn in the horizontal plane. At a mean latitude of 45oN, this reference turns by…

A – 7.5o/hour to the rightB – 7.5o/hour to the leftC – 10.5o/hour to the rightD – 15o/hour to the right

Ref: all

Ans: C

5770. When, in flight, the needle of a needle-and-ball indicator is on the right and the ball on the left, the aircraft is:

A – turning left with not enough bankB – turning left with too much bankC – turning right with not enough bankD – turning right with too much bank

Ref: all

Ans: C

5775. A slaved directional gyro derives its directional signal from:

A – a direct reading magnetic compassB – the flux valveC – the flight directorD – the air-data-computer

Ref: all

Ans: B

5784. At a low bank angle, the measurement of rate-of-turn actually consists in measuring the:

A – pitch rate of the aircraftB – roll rate of the aircraftC – angular velocity of the aircraftD – yaw rate of the aircraft

Ref: all

Ans: D

5797. In a Turn Indicator, the measurement of rate of turn consists for:

A – low bank angle, in measuring the roll rateB – low bank angle, in measuring the yaw rateC – high bank angle, in measuring the yaw rateD – high bank angle, in measuring the roll rate

Ref: all

Ans: B

12024. In order to align a strap-down inertial unit, it is required to insert the local geographical co-ordinates. This is necessary to:

A – Position the computing trihedron with reference to earthB – Check operation of laser gyrosC – Determine magnetic or true headingD – Re-erect laser gyros


Ans: A

12028. The basic properties of a gyroscope are:

1) The gyros weight2) The rigidity in space3) The inertia4) The high RPM5) The precession


A – 3, 4B – 2, 5C – 2, 3, 5D – 1, 3, 5

Ref: all

Ans: B

12030. Under normal operating conditions, when an aircraft is in a banked turn, the rate-of-turn indicator is a valuable gyroscopic flight control instrument. When it is associated with an attitude indicator it indicates:

1) the angular velocity of the aircraft about the yaw axis2) the bank of the aircraft3) the direction of the aircraft turn4) the angular velocity of the aircraft about the real vertical


A – 3, 4B – 2, 4C – 1, 3D – 1, 2

Ref: all

Ans: C

12031. The directional gyro axis spins about the local vertical by 15o/hour

A – in the latitude 30o

B – in the latitude 45o

C – on the equatorD – on the North pole

Ref: all

Ans: D

12033. The vertical reference unit of a three-axis data generator is equipped with a gyro with:

A – 1 degree of freedom and horizontal spin axisB – 1 degree of freedom and vertical spin axisC – 2 degrees of freedom and horizontal spin axisD – 2 degrees of freedom and vertical spin axis


Ans: D

12042. The maximum directional gyro error due to the earth rotation is:

A – 180o/hourB – 5o/hourC – 15o/hourD – 90o/hour

Ref: all

Ans: C

12049. (Refer to figure 022-08)The diagram representing a left turn with insufficient rudder is:

A – 2B – 3C – 4D – 1

Ref: all

Ans: C

20173. (Refer to figure 022-41)The diagram shows three gyro assemblies: A, B and C. Among these gyros:- one is a roll gyro (noted 1)- one is a pitch gyro (noted 2)- one is a yaw gyro (noted 3)The correct matching of gyros and assemblies is:

A – 1C, 2B, 3AB – 1B, 2A, 3CC – 1A, 2B, 3CD – 1B, 2C, 3A

Ref: all

Ans: D

20500. (Refer to figure 022-40)The diagram which shows a 40o left bank and 15o nose down attitude is number:

A – 3B – 2C – 1D – 4

Ref: all

Ans: C

20503. A directional gyro consists of a:

(Note – the degree(s) of freedom of a gyro does not take into account its rotor spin axis)

A – 1 degree-of-freedom horizontal axis gyroB – 2 degrees-of-freedom vertical axis gyroC – 2 degrees-of-freedom horizontal axis gyroD – 1 degree-of-freedom vertical axis gyro

Ref: all

Ans: C

20504. A directional gyro is corrected for an apparent drift due to the earth’s rotation at latitude 30oS. During a flight at latitude 60oN, a drift rate of 15.5o/h to the right is observed. The apparent wander due to change of aircraft position is:

A – 2.5o/h to the leftB – 2.5o/h to the rightC – 5o/h to the rightD – 5o/h to the left

Ref: all

Ans: D

20508. A free gyro has its rotor axis horizontal and is aligned with the geographic meridian. If this stationary free gyro is situated at latitude 60oN, the apparent drift rate according to the earthbound observer is:

A – 13o/h to the leftB – 13o/h to the rightC – 7.5o/h to the rightD – 7.5o/h to the left

Ref: all

Ans: B

20512. A rate gyro is used in a:

1) directional gyro indicator2) turn co-ordinator3) artificial horizon


A – 2B – 1, 2, 3C – 1D – 1, 2

Ref: all

Ans: A

20525. After the initial 90 degrees of a turn at constant pitch and bank, a classic artificial horizon indicates:

A – too much nose-up and too much bankB – pitch and bank correctC – too much nose-up and bank correctD – too much nose-up and too little bank

Ref: all

Ans: D

20559. Compared with a conventional gyro, a laser gyro:

A – is much more cumbersomeB – is influenced by temperatureC – consumes much more powerD – consumes a lot of power

Ref: all

Ans: A

20579. Due to the rotation of the earth, the apparent drift of a horizontal free gyroscope at a latitude of 30oN is:

A – 15o per hour to the leftB – 7.5o per hour to the right C – 2o per hour to the rightD – 11o per hour to the left

Ref: all

Ans: B

20580. Due to the rotation of the earth, the apparent drift of a horizontal free gyroscope at a latitude of 30oS is:

A – 7.5o per hour to the leftB – 15o per hour to the rightC – 2o per hour to the leftD – 11o per hour to the right

Ref: all

Ans: A

20581. Due to the rotation of the earth, the apparent drift of a horizontal free gyroscope at a latitude of 45oN is:

A – 2o per hour to the rightB – 15o per hour to the leftC – 11o per hour to the rightD – 7.5o per hour to the left

Ref: all

Ans: C

20589. During a deceleration phase at constant attitude, the control system of an air driven artificial horizon results in the horizon bar indicating a:

A – nose up attitudeB – nose down attitudeC – constant attitudeD – nose up followed by a nose down attitude

Ref: all

Ans: B

20613. For an aircraft flying a true track of 360o between the 5oS and 5oN parallels, the precession error of the directional gyro due to apparent drift is equal to:

A - +5o/hourB – approximately 0o/hourC - -5o/hourD – 15o/hour

Ref: all

Ans: B

20649. In a directional gyro, gimballing errors are due to:

A – the aircraft’s movement over the earthB – an apparent weight and an apparent verticalC – the vertical component of the earth’s magnetic fieldD – a banked attitude

Ref: all

Ans: D

20659. In a turn at a constant angle of bank, the turn indicator reading is:

A – inversely proportional to the aircraft true airspeedB – proportional to the aircraft true airspeedC – independent to the aircraft true airspeedD – proportional to the aircraft weight

Ref: all

Ans: A

20660. In an inertial navigation system (INS), should the platform be displaced from the horizontal, it would oscillate with a period, called Schuler period, of about:

A – 8.4 minutesB – 64 secondsC – 84 secondsD – 84 minutes


Ans: D

20662. In order to align an inertial reference system (IRS), it is required to insert the local geographical co-ordinates. This enables the IRS to:

A – compare the latitude it finds with that entered by the operatorB – compare the longitude it finds with that entered by the operatorC – find the northD – initialise the FMS flight plan


Ans: A

20678. One of the errors inherent in a ring laser gyroscope occurs at low input rotation rates tending towards zero when a phenomenon known as ‘lock-in’ is experienced. What is the name of the technique, effected by means of a piezo-electric motor, that is used

A – ditherB – cavity rotationC – zero dropD – beam lock

Ref: all

Ans: A

20684. The alignment sequence of an inertial reference system (IRS) consists of:

1) search for the local vertical2) search for the true north3) comparison between the longitude find and the one entered by the operator4) comparison between the latitude find and the one entered by the operator


A – 1, 2, 4B – 1, 2, 3C – 1, 3D – 2, 3


Ans: A

20695. The apparent wander of a directional gyro is 15o/h:

A – At the north poleB – At the latitude 30o

C – At the latitude 45o

D – At the equator

Ref: all

Ans: A

20696. The artificial horizon uses a gyroscope with:(Note: the degree(s) of freedom of a gyro does not take into account its rotor spin axis)

A – two degrees of freedom, and its rotor spin axis is continuously maintained to local vertical by an automatic erecting systemB – two degrees of freedom, and its rotor spin axis is continuously maintained in the horizontal plane by an automatic erecting systemC – one degree of freedom, and its rotor spin axis is continuously maintained in the horizontal plane by an automatic erecting systemD – one degree of freedom, and its rotor spin axis is continuously maintained to local vertical by an automatic erecting system

Ref: all

Ans: A

20705. (Refer to figure 022-41)The attached diagram shows three gyro assemblies: A, B and C. Among these gyros:

- one is a roll gyro (noted 1)- one is a pitch gyro (noted 2)- one is a yaw gyro (noted 3)

The correct matching of gyros and assemblies is:

A – 1C, 2B, 3AB – 1B, 2C, 3AC – 1B, 2A, 3CD – 1A, 2B, 3C

Ref: all

Ans: B

20709. The elements which take part in the local vertical alignment of an inertial strap-down unit are:

A – the accelerometersB – the accelerometers and gyroscopesC – the flow inductorsD – the gyroscopes


Ans: A

20749. The gyroscope of a turn indicator has:(Note: the degree(s) of freedom of a gyro does not take into account its rotor spin axis)

A – 2 degrees of freedomB – 0 degree of freedomC – 1 degree of freedomD – 3 degrees of freedom

Ref: all

Ans: C

20750. The gyroscope used in an attitude indicator has a spin axis which is:

A – horizontal, perpendicular to the yaw axisB – horizontal, perpendicular to the longitudinal axisC – horizontal, parallel to the longitudinal axisD – vertical

Ref: all

Ans: D

20754. The indication of the directional gyro is valid only for a limited period of time. The causes of this inaccuracy are:

1) rotation of the earth2) longitudinal accelerations3) aircraft’s moving over the surface of the earth4) vertical component


A – 1, 3, 4B – 1, 3C – 1, 2, 3D – 1, 2, 4

Ref: all

Ans: B

20755. The indications on a directional gyroscope are subject to errors. The most significant are:

1) apparent wander due to earth rotation2) apparent wander due to change of aircraft position3) gimballing errors4) north change5) mechanical defect


A – 1, 2, 3, 5B – 3, 4, 5C – 1, 2, 4, 5D – 2, 3, 5

Ref: all

Ans: A

20756. The inertia of a gyroscope is greater when:

A – its rotation speed is lower and the mass of the spinning wheel is located further from the axis of rotationB – its rotation speed is higher and the mass of the spinning wheel is closer to the axis of rotationC – its rotation speed is higher and the mass of the spinning wheel is located further from the axis of rotationD – its rotation speed is lower and the mass of the spinning wheel is closer to the axis of rotation

Ref: all

Ans: C

20766. The mode selector of an inertial unit comprises the OFF – STBY – ALIGN NAV – ATT positions:

1) on “STBY” the unit aligns on the local geographic trihedron2) the “ATT” position is used in automatic landing (mode LAND)3) on “NAV” the co-ordinates of the present position are entered4) on “ALIGN” the unit aligns on the local geographic trihedron5) on “ALIGN” current position is updated upon the aircraft alignment on the

runway


A – 2, 5B – 4C – 1, 3, 5D – 1, 2, 4


Ans: B

20780. The principle of a laser gyro is based on:

A – a gyroscope associated with a laser compensating for apparent wander due to the rotation of the earthB – frequency difference between two laser beams rotating in opposite directionC – a gyroscope associated with a laser compensating for gimballing errorsD – two rotating cavities provided with mirrors

Ref: all

Ans: B

20781. The properties of a gyroscope are:

1) rigidity in space2) rigidity on earth3) precession4) Schuler oscillations


A – 1, 4B – 2, 3C – 1, 3D – 2, 4

Ref: all

Ans: C

20789. The rate of turn given by the rate of turn indicator is valid:

A – for all airspeedsB – for the airspeed range defined during the calibration of the instrumentC – with flaps retracted onlyD – for the cruising speed

Ref: all

Ans: B

20790. The rate of turn indicator uses a gyroscope:

1) the spinning wheel axis of which is parallel to the yawing axis2) the spinning wheel axis of which is parallel to the pitch axis3) the spinning wheel axis of which is parallel to the roll axis4) with one degree of freedom5) with two degrees of freedom


A – 2, 4B – 3, 4C – 1, 5D – 3, 5

Ref: all

Ans: A

20795. The spin axis of the turn indicator gyro is aligned along the:

A – longitudinal axis of the aircraftB – lateral axis of the aircraftC – vertical axis of the aircraftD – longitudinal axis of flight

Ref: all

Ans: B

20848. Without any external action, the axis of a free gyroscope is fixed with reference to:

A – the apparent verticalB – the earthC – the aircraftD – space

Ref: all

Ans: D

20862. (For this question use annex 022-37)The diagram representing a left turn with insufficient rudder is:

A – 1B – 2 C – 3D – 4

Ref: all

Ans: D

20863. (For this question use annex 022-37)The diagram representing a left turn with excessive rudder is:

A – 1B – 2C – 3D – 4

Ref: all

Ans: B

24469. The properties of a gyro are:

1) mass2) rigidity3) inertia4) precession5) rotational speed

A – 1, 2 & 3B – 2 & 4C – 2 & 3D – 1 & 3

Ref: all

Ans: B

24478. The errors of a DGI are:

1) earth rate2) transport wander3) banking when pitched up4) annual movement of poles5) mechanical problems

A – 2, 3 & 5B – 3, 4 & 5C – 1, 2, 3 & 5D – all 5

Ref: all

Ans: C

24481. The Inertial Strap-down Unit of an IRS is programmed with co-ordinates during alignment in order to:

A – establish the trihedron with reference to the earthB – establish true or magnetic headingC – check the function of the laser gyrosD – compensate for aircraft movement


Ans: A

24493. The Turn Indicator is a useful gyroscopic instrument. When used in association with an attitude indicator will show:

1) angular velocity about the yaw axis2) direction of turn3) angular velocity about true vertical axis4) speed of turn

A – 1 & 3B – 2 & 3C – 3 & 4D – 1 & 2

Ref: all

Ans: D

24494. When turning through 90o at constant attitude and bank, a classic Artificial Horizon indicates:

A – nose up and correct angle of bankB – attitude and bank angle are correctC – nose up and bank angle too lowD – nose up and bank angle too high

Ref: all

Ans: C

24495. The factors which will affect a Turn Indicator are:

1) angle of bank2) aircraft speed3) aircraft weight

A – all 3B – 1 & 2C – 1 & 3D – 2 & 3

Ref: all

Ans: B

24496. To obtain heading information from a Gyro Stabilised platform, the gyros should have:

A – 1 degree of freedom and a horizontal axisB – 1 degree of freedom and a vertical axisC – 2 degrees of freedom and a horizontal axisD – 2 degrees of freedom and a vertical axis


Ans: C

24504. Aircraft is travelling at 120 kts, what angle of bank would be required for a rate one turn?

A – 30o

B – 12o

C – 18o

D – 35o

Ref: all

Ans: C

24508. Using a classic Artificial Horizon, the A/C performs a right turn through 270 degrees at a constant angle of bank and rate of turn. The indication is:

A – Nose up, too much bankB – Nose up, not enough bankC – Nose up, wings levelD – Bank and pitch correct

Ref: all

Ans: A

24515. An artificial horizon has:

A – 1 degree of freedom and a horizontal axisB – 2 degrees of freedom and a horizontal axisC – 1 degree of freedom and a vertical axisD – 2 degrees of freedom and a vertical axis

Ref: all

Ans: D

24522. What is the purpose of the latitude nut in a DGI?

A – to correct for latitude errorB – to correct for transport wanderC – to correct for earth rateD – to correct for coriolis error

Ref: all

Ans: C

24524. At a low bank angle, the measurement of rate-of-turn actually consists in measuring the:

A – roll rateB – rate of yawC – angular velocity about the vertical axisD – rate of pitch

Ref: all

Ans: B

24528. An aircraft is flying a true track of 369o from 5o south to 5o north. What is the change in apparent wander rate?

A – 0o per hourB - +5o per hourC - -5o per hourD – Depends upon groundspeed

Ref: all

Ans: A

24543. In a gyro magnetic compass, where does the torque motor get its information from?

A – the flux gateB – error detectorC – the rotor gimbalD – amplifier

Ref: all

Ans: D

24545. What are the advantages of a laser gyro compared to a conventional gyro?

A – has a longer cycle lifeB – takes longer to set up/spin upC – uses more powerD – takes longer to align

Ref: all

Ans: A

24797. Which of the following gyro instruments has one degree of freedom?

A – artificial horizonB – turn indicatorC – directional gyroD – slaved gyro compass

Ref: all

Ans: B

24820. The error in a Directional Gyro due to the earth’s rotation, at a mean latitude of 45oN will cause the spin axis to move by:

A – 10.6o clockwiseB – 10.6o anti-clockwiseC – 7.6o clockwiseD – 7.6o anti-clockwise

Ref: all

Ans: A

24821. What are the components of a Ring Laser Gyro?

A – mirrors and 2 cavitiesB – 2 anodes and 2 cathodesC – 2 beams of laser lightD – horizontal gyro axis and 1 degree of freedom


Ans: C

24822. Where on the earth’s surface is the earth rate drift of a DGI equal to 15.04o per hour?

A – 15o

B – 30o

C – 0o

D – 90o

Ref: all

Ans: D

24825. The pendulous type correction detector fitted to the DGI provides:

A – torque on the sensitive axisB – two torque motors on the horizontal axisC – pendulous internal nozzle on the outer gimbalD – one torque motor

Ref: all

Ans: A

24831. A direction gyro is corrected for accurate directional information using:

A – air data computerB – direct reading magnetic compassC – flight directorD – flux valve

Ref: all

Ans: B

24838. An aircraft is flying a true track of 360o from 5o south to 5o north. What is the average apparent wander rate?

A – 0o per hourB - +5o per hourC - -5o per hourD – depends upon groundspeed

Ref: all

Ans: A

24843. A directional gyro is valid only for a short period of time. The causes of this inaccuracy are:

1) earth rotation2) longitudinal accelerations3) A/C motion over the earth4) mechanical defects5) gyro mass


A – 1, 3 & 5B – 1, 3 & 4C – 1, 2 & 3D – all of the above

Ref: all

Ans: B

25273. How can you increase the rigidity of a gyroscope?

A – Concentrate the mass near the spin axis at a high RPMB – Concentrate the mass at the periphery at a high RPMC – Concentrate the mass near the spin axis at a low RPMD – Concentrate the mass at the periphery at a low RPM

Ref: all

Ans: B

25293. What is the period of a Schuler Loop oscillation?

A – 48 secondsB – 48 minsC – 84 minsD – 84 seconds

Ref: all

Ans: C

25296. Aircraft turns through 360o at constant bank and pitch angle. The Artificial Horizon shows:

A – The correct indicationB – Pitch up too little bankC – Pitch up too much bankD – Pitch up correct bank

Ref: all

Ans: A

25297. On the ground in a left turn a turn-indicator will show:

A – Needle straight/Ball leftB – Needle straight/Ball rightC – Needle left/Ball leftD – Needle left/Ball right

Ref: all

Ans: D

022-01-03 Magnetic Compass

2707. During deceleration following a landing in a southerly direction, a magnetic compass made for the northern hemisphere indicates:

A – an apparent turn to the westB – no apparent turn only on northern latitudesC – no apparent turnD – an apparent turn to the east

Ref: all

Ans: C

5443. A pilot wishes to turn left on to a southerly heading with 20o bank at a latitude of 20o North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn on an approximate heading of:

A – 190o

B – 200o

C – 170o

D – 160o

Ref: all

Ans: D

5448. In the northern hemisphere during deceleration following a landing in an Easterly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate:

A – an apparent turn to the SouthB – an apparent turn to the NorthC – a constant headingD – a heading fluctuating about 090o

Ref: all

Ans: A

5452. In the Northern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in a Westerly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate:

A – a heading fluctuating about 270o

B – an apparent turn to the NorthC – no apparent turnD – an apparent turn to the South

Ref: all

Ans: D

5472. During deceleration following a landing in a Southerly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate:

A – no apparent turnB – an apparent turn to the EastC – an apparent turn to the westD – a heading fluctuating about 180o

Ref: all

Ans: A

5476. Among the errors of a magnetic compass, are errors:

A – of parallax, due to oscillations of the compass roseB – due to cross-wind gusts particularly on westerly or easterly headingsC – due to Schuler type oscillationsD – in North seeking, due to bank angle and magnetic heading

Ref: all

Ans: D

5478. A pilot wishes to turn right on to a northerly heading with 20o bank at a latitude of 40o North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn on to an approximate heading of:

A – 030o

B – 350o

C – 330o

D – 010o

Ref: all

Ans: C

5496. If an aircraft, fitted with a DRMC, takes off on a westerly heading, in the northern hemisphere, the DRMC will indicate:

A – a turn to the northB – oscillates about westC – no turnD – a turn to south

Ref: all

Ans: A

5500. When turning on to a northerly heading the rose of a magnetic compass tends to “undershoot” when turning onto a southerly heading it tends to “overshoot”.

1) these compass indications are less reliable in the northern hemisphere than in the southern hemisphere

2) these compass oscillations following a lateral gust are not identical if the aircraft is heading north or south

3) this behaviour is due to the mechanical construction of the compass4) this behaviour is a symptom of a badly swung compass

The correct statements are:

A – 2, 3 and 4B – 1, 2 and 4C – 2 and 3D – 1 and 3

Ref: all

Ans: C

5525. During deceleration following a landing in a northerly direction, a magnetic compass made for the southern hemisphere indicates:

A – no apparent turnB – an apparent turn to the EastC – an apparent turn to the WestD – a heading fluctuating about 360o

Ref: all

Ans: A

5527. In a steep turn, the northerly turning error on a magnetic compass on the northern hemisphere is:

A – none on a 270o heading in a left turnB – equal to 180o on a 090o heading in a right turnC – none on a 090o heading in a right turnD – equal to 180o on a 270o heading in a right turn

Ref: all

Ans: B

5553. A compass swing is used to:

A – align compass north with magnetic northB – align compass north with true northC – align magnetic north with true northD – get true north and lubber line aligned

Ref: all

Ans: A

5561. An aircraft is taking off on a runway heading 045o, in still air, with a compass having 0o deviation. The runway is on an agonic line. What will the compass read if you are in the northern hemisphere?

A – compass moves to less than 045o

B – compass moves to more than 045o

C – compass stays on 045o if wings are kept levelD – compass remains on 045o

Ref: all

Ans: A

5595. In the southern hemisphere during deceleration following a landing in an Easterly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate:

A – a heading fluctuating about 090o

B – an apparent turn to the SouthC – no apparent turnD – an apparent turn to the North

Ref: all

Ans: D

5597. A pilot wishes to turn left on to a northerly heading with a 10o bank at a latitude of 50o North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn on an approximate heading of:

A – 355o

B – 030o

C – 330o

D – 015o

Ref: all

Ans: B

5605. The magnetic heading can be derived from the true heading by means of a:

A – map showing the isoclinic linesB – map showing the isogonal linesC – deviation correction curveD – compass swinging curve

Ref: all

Ans: B

5609. The purpose of a compass swing is to attempt to coincide the indications of:

A – compass north and true northB – compass north and magnetic northC – true north and magnetic northD – compass swinging curve

Ref: all

Ans: B

5621. The purpose of compass swinging is to determine the deviation of a magnetic compass:

A – on a given headingB – on any headingC – at any latitudeD – at a given latitude

Ref: all

Ans: B

5641. The quadrantal deviation of a magnetic compass is corrected by using:

A – magnetized needlesB – hard iron piecesC – pairs of permanent magnetsD – soft iron pieces

Ref: all

Ans: D

5667. The quadrantal deviation of the magnetic compass is due to the action of:

A – the hard iron ices and the soft iron pieces influenced by the hard iron piecesB – the soft iron pieces influenced by the geomagnetic fieldC – the hard iron pieces influenced by the geomagnetic fieldD – the hard iron pieces influenced by the mild iron pieces

Ref: all

Ans: B

5688. The compass heading can be derived from the magnetic heading by reference to a:

A – map showing the isogonic linesB – map showing the isoclinic linesC – deviation correction curveD – compass swinging curve

Ref: all

Ans: D

5692. Magnetic compass swinging is carried out to reduce as much as possible:

A – variationB – deviationC – regulationD – acceleration

Ref: all

Ans: B

5694. An aircraft is fitted with a direct reading magnetic compass. Upon landing in a northerly direction the compass will indicate:

A – no changeB – an oscillation to its North alignmentC – a turn towards EastD – a turn towards West

Ref: all

Ans: A

5711. A pilot wishes to turn right on to a southerly heading with 20o bank at a latitude of 20o North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn on an approximate heading of:

A – 170o

B – 150o

C – 200o

D – 180o

Ref: all

Ans: C

5738. The fields affecting a magnetic compass originate from:

1) magnetic masses2) ferrous metal masses3) non-ferrous metal masses4) electrical currents


A – 1, 2, 3B – 1, 2, 4C – 1, 2, 3, 4D – 1, 3, 4

Ref: all

Ans: B

5742. Which of the following will effect a direct reading compass?

1) ferrous metals2) non-ferrous metals3) electrical equipment

A – 1 onlyB – 1, 3C – 1, 2D – all 3

Ref: all

Ans: B

12032. In the Southern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in a Westerly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate:

A – no apparent turnB – a heading fluctuating about 270o

C – an apparent turn to the NorthD – an apparent turn to the South

Ref: all

Ans: C

12044. An aircraft takes off on a runway with an alignment of 45o. The isogonic line on the area chart indicates 0o. The compass deviation is 0o. On a take-off with zero wind the northerly turning error:

A – will be nullB – is such that the compass will indicate a value noticeably below 045o

C – is such that the compass will indicate a value noticeably above 045o

D – will be null if the wings are kept level

Ref: all

Ans: B

20506. A flux valve detects the horizontal of the earth’s magnetic field

1) the flux valve is made of a pair of soft iron bars2) the information can be used by a “flux gate” compass or a directional gyro3) the flux gate valve signal comes from the error detector4) the accuracy on the value of the magnetic field indication is less than 0.5%

Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?

A – 2, 4B – 1, 2, 4C – 1, 4D – 1, 2

Ref: all

Ans: A

20510. A gyromagnetic compass is a system which always consists of:

1) a horizontal axis gyro2) a vertical axis gyro3) an earth’s magnetic field detector4) an erection mechanism to maintain the gyro axis horizontal5) a torque motor to maintain the gyro’s rotor axis within its horizontal


A – 2, 3, 5B – 1, 4C – 1, 3, 4, 5D – 2, 3

Ref: all

Ans: C

20524. About a magnetic compass:

A – errors of parallax are due to the oscillation of the compass roseB – acceleration errors are due to the angle of dipC – acceleration errors are due to Schuler oscillationsD – turning error is due to the vertical component of the earth’s magnetic field

Ref: all

Ans: D

20532. An aircraft takes-off on a runway with an alignment of 045o, the compass is made for the northern hemisphere. During rolling take-off, the compass indicates:

A – 045o

B – a value below 045o

C – a value above 045o in the southern hemisphereD – a value above 045o in the northern hemisphere

Ref: all

Ans: B

20562. Concerning the direct reading magnetic compass, the turning error:

A – does not depend on the magnetic latitudeB – decreases with the magnetic latitudeC – increases with the magnetic latitudeD – decreases with the magnetic longitude

Ref: all

Ans: C

20672. Magnetic compass errors are:

A – parallax errors due to compass rose oscillationsB – due to the lateral gusts which occur when the aircraft is heading eastward or westwardC – due to Schuler oscillationsD – due to north change, depending on the bank angle and magnetic heading

Ref: all

Ans: D

20703. The compass heading can be derived from the magnetic heading by reference to a:

A – magnetic variation correction cardB – map showing the isoclinic linesC – compass deviation cardD – map showing the isogonic lines

Ref: all

Ans: C

20706. The direct indicating compass is no more reliable when approaching:

1) the magnetic poles2) the magnetic equator with a east or west heading3) the magnetic equator with a north or south heading


A – 1, 2B – 1, 2, 3C – 1D – 1, 3

Ref: all

Ans: c

20802. The turning errors of a direct reading magnetic compass are:

A – maximum at the magnetic equatorB – maximum at the magnetic polesC – minimum at a latitude of 45oD – minimum at the magnetic poles

Ref: all

Ans: B

24473. The main cause of error in a DRMC is:

A – parallax in the roseB – turningC – magnetic deviationD – latitude

Ref: all

Ans: B

24476. A factor giving an error on a direct indicating compass would be:

A – crosswinds – particularly on east/west headingsB – parallax due to oscillations of the compass roseC – acceleration on east/west headingsD – turning through east/west headings

Ref: all

Ans: C

24509. True heading can be converted into magnetic heading using a compass and:

A – a map with isogonal linesB – a map with isoclinal linesC – a deviation cardD – a deviation curve

Ref: all

Ans: A

24527. An aircraft fitted with a DRMC is landing in a southerly direction, in the Southern Hemisphere. What indications will be seen on the DRMC?

A – turn to eastB – no apparent turnC – turn to west

Ref: all

Ans: B

24532. An aircraft turns from south-west to south-east when situated at 45oN what heading should you roll out on if using a DRMC?

A – 130o

B – 115o

C – 140o

D – 155o

Ref: all

Ans: B

24553. What is the value of the angle of magnetic dip at the south pole?

A – 0o

B – 45o

C – 90o

D – 60o

Ref: all

Ans: C

24815. An aircraft is accelerating to take-off in northern hemisphere on a runway with a QDM of 045o. Which way does the DRMC move?

A – less than 45o

B – more than 45o

C – correct if wings are levelD – correct

Ref: all

Ans: A

24816. In a northern hemisphere, when turning right onto north, through 90o, what heading on your DIC should you roll out on?

A – 020o

B – 360o

C – 340o

D – 320o

Ref: all

Ans: C

24833. In a Remote Indicating Compass, what component feeds the Amplifier?

A – gyro precession signalB – flux valveC – annunciatorD – error detector

Ref: all

Ans: D

24834. An aircraft turns right, through 90o, onto North, at 48N, using a direct indicating compass. The aircraft is turning at rate 2. What heading should the aircraft roll out on?

A – 010o

B – 030o

C – 330o

D – 350o

Ref: all

Ans: C

24841. You commence a rate 2 turn from south-east to south-west, in the Northern Hemisphere. On what heading do you stop the turn?

A – 215o

B – 255o

C – 225o

D – 205o

Ref: all

Ans: B

25284. An aircraft lands on a southerly direction in the northern hemisphere. The DI will:

A – Oscillate about 180 degreesB – Does not changeC – IncreasesD – Decreases

Ref: all

Ans: B

25288. An aircraft turns from SW to SE in the northern hemisphere. Using a direct reading compass, when should the pilot stop the turn?

A – 140o

B – 115o

C – 130o

D – 155o

Ref: all

Ans: B

022-01-04 Radio Altimeter

5464. The aircraft radio equipment which emits on a frequency of 4400 MHz is the:

A – primary radarB – high altitude radio altimeterC – weather radarD – radio altimeter

Ref: all

Ans: D

5535. The data supplied by a radio altimeter:

A – concerns only the decision heightB – indicates the distance between the ground and the aircraftC – is used only by the radio altimeter indicatorD – is used by the automatic pilot in the altitude hold mode

Ref: all

Ans: B

5543. In low altitude radio altimeters, the height measurement (above the ground) is based upon:

A – a triangular amplitude modulation wave, for which modulation phase shift between transmitted and received waves after ground reflection is measuredB – a pulse transmission, for which time between transmission and reception is measured on a circular scanning screenC – a wave transmission, for which the frequency shift by DOPPLER effect after ground reflection is measuredD – a frequency modulation wave, for which the frequency variation between the transmitted wave and the received wave after ground reflection is measured

Ref: all

Ans: D

5613. A radio altimeter can be defined as a:

A – self contained on board aid used to measure the true height of the aircraftB – ground radio aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraftC – ground radio aid used to measure the true height of the aircraftD – self contained on board aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft

Ref: all

Ans: A

5645. Modern low altitude radio altimeters emit waves in the following frequency band:

A – HF (High Frequency)B – VLF (Very Low Frequency)C – SHF (Super High Frequency)D – UHF (Ultra High Frequency)

Ref: all

Ans: C

5661. The operation of the radio altimeter of a modern aircraft is based on:

A – amplitude modulation of the carrier waveB – frequency modulation of the carrier waveC – pulse modulation of the carrier waveD – a combination of frequency modulation and pulse modulation

Ref: all

Ans: B

5672. During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter the value of 650 ft. This is an indication of the true:

A – height of the aircraft with regard to the ground at any timeB – height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at any timeC – height of the aircraft with regard to the runwayD – altitude of the aircraft

Ref: all

Ans: B

5712. A radio altimeter is:

A – ground based and measures true altitudeB – ground based and measures true heightC – aircraft based and measures true altitudeD – aircraft based and measures true height

Ref: all

Ans: D

5735. In low altitude radio altimeters, the reading is zero when main landing gear wheels are on the ground. For this, it is necessary to:

A – change the display scale in short final, in order to have a precise readoutB – place the antennas on the bottom of the aeroplaneC – account for signal processing time in the unit and apply a correction factor to the readingD – compensate residual altitude due to antennas height above the ground and coaxial cables length

Ref: all

Ans: C

5744. For most radio altimeters, when a system error occurs during approach the…

A – DH lamp flashes red and the audio signal soundsB – Height indication is removedC – DH lamp flashes redD – Audio warning signal sounds

Ref: all

Ans: B

5785. The low-altitude radio altimeters used in precision approaches:

1) operate in the 1540-1660 MHz range2) are of the pulsed type3) are of the frequency modulation type4) have an operating range of 0 to 5000 ft5) have a precision of +/- 2 feet between 0 and 500 ft

The combination of the correct statements is:

A – 1, 3, 4, 5B – 3, 5C – 1, 2, 4, 5D – 1, 3, 5

Ref: all

Ans: B

5799. The operating frequency range of a low altitude radio altimeter is:

A – 420 MHz to 440 MHzB – 460 MHz to 480 MHzC – 4200 MHz to 4400 MHzD – 4.6 GHz to 4.8 GHz

Ref: all

Ans: C

11207. A radio signal has a frequency of 3 GHz. Its wave length is:

A – 100 cmB – 1.0 cmC – 10 cmD – 1.0 m

Ref: all

Ans: C

20178. The operating frequency range of a low altitude radio altimeter is:

A – 2700 MHz to 2900 MHzB – 5 GHzC – 4200 MHz to 4400 MHzD – 5400 MHz or 9400 MHz

Ref: all

Ans: C

20511. A radio altimeter uses:

A – four antennas: two for the transmission and two for the receptionB – two antennas: one for the transmission and another for the receptionC – two antennas: both of them for simultaneous transmission and receptionD – a single antenna for simultaneous transmission and reception

Ref: all

Ans: B

20761. The Low Altitude Radio Altimeter uses the following wavelengths:

A – myriametricB – centimetricC – decimetricD – metric

Ref: all

Ans: B

20786. The radio altimeter is required to indicate zero height AGL as the main wheels touch down on the runway. For this reason, it is necessary to:

A – have a specific radio altimeter dedicated to automatic landingB – adjust the gross height according to the aircraft instantaneous pitchC – change the display scale in short final, in order to have a precise readoutD – compensate for residual height and cable length

Ref: all

Ans: D

20787. The radio altimeter:

1) operates in the 1600-1660 KHz range2) operates in the 4200-4400 MHz range3) measures a frequency difference4) measures an amplitude difference


A – 1 and 4B – 2 and 4C – 1 and 3D – 2 and 3

Ref: all

Ans: D

20788. The range of a low altitude radio altimeter is:

A – 500 ftB – 2500 ftC – greater than 10000 ftD – 10000 ft

Ref: all

Ans: B

24803. If the radio altimeter fails:

A – height information disappearsB – aural warning is givenC – radio alt flag, red lamp, and aural warning are givenD – radio alt flag and red lamp activate

Ref: all

Ans: A

24817. What does a radio altimeter, for an aircraft in the landing configuration, measure?

A – height of aircraft wheels above the groundB – height of the aircraft above the groundC – altitude of the aircraftD – altitude of the aircraft wheels

Ref: all

Ans: A

24818. What principle does the radio altimeter work on?

A – pulse modulationB – amplitude modulationC – pulse modulation and carrier waveD – frequency modulation and carrier wave

Ref: all

Ans: D

24829. What aircraft system uses a frequency of 4400 MHz?

A – SSRB – radio altimeterC – weather radarD – ATC radar

Ref: all

Ans: B

24830. A low altitude Radio Altimeter, used in precision approaches, has the following characteristics:

1) 1540 MHz to 1660 MHz range2) pulse transmissions3) frequency modulation4) height range between 0 and 5000 ft5) an accuracy of +/- 2 ft between 0 and 500 ftA – 1, 4, 5B – 3, 4C – 3, 5D – 2, 3, 5

Ref: all

Ans: C

24836. What is the normal operating range of a low altitude Radio Altimeter?

A – 0 to 5000 ftB – 0 to 2500 ftC – 0 to 10000 ftD – 0 to 7500 ft

Ref: all

Ans: B

24837. What is a radio altimeter used for?

A – to determine aircraft height above mean sea levelB – to determine aircraft height above ground levelC – to determine pressure altitudeD – to determine aircraft altitude

Ref: all

Ans: B

24851. A typical radio altimeter wave length and frequency band is:

A – 0.1895 m UHFB – 6.9 cm SHFC – 3.41 m UHFD – 7.1 m EHF

Ref: all

Ans: B

022-01-05 Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS)

5509. The Primary Flight Display (PFD) displays information dedicated to:

A – weather situationB – pilotingC – engines and alarmsD – systems

Ref: all

Ans: B

5511. Regarding Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS):

1) the Navigation Display (ND) displays Flight Director Bars2) the altimeter setting is displayed on the PFD (Primary Flight Display)3) the PFD is the main flying instrument4) the FMA (Flight Mode Annunciator) is part of the ND


A – 1, 2B – 3, 4C – 1, 4D – 2, 3

Ref: all

Ans: D

5520. (Refer to figure 022-13)The next waypoint to be overflown is ___ and the estimated ___ is ___

A – TIC, time of departure, 01:44B – TIC, time of arrival, 15:08C – VLM, time of departure, 01:44D – VLM, time of arrival, 15:08

Ref: all

Ans: D

5601. (Refer to figure 022-05)Which mode is selected on the following Navigation Display (EHSI)?

A – Expanded VOR modeB – Full VOR modeC – Plan modeD – Expanded ADF mode

Ref: all

Ans: A

5620. (Refer to figure 022-12)The green symbol of a circle with T/D appears on the EHSI display. It represents:

A – the actual top-of-descentB – the FMC calculated top-of-climbC – an en-route waypointD – the FMC calculated top-of-descent

Ref: all

Ans: D


A – Expanded VOR modeB – Expanded ILS modeC – Full VOR modeD – Map mode

Ref: all

Ans: C

5710. The Decision height (DH) warning light comes on when an aircraft:

A – passes over the outer markerB – descends below a pre-set radio altitudeC – descends below a pre-set barometric altitudeD – passes over the ILS inner marker

Ref: all

Ans: B

5954. The Head Up Display (HUD) is a device allowing the pilot, while still looking outside, to have:

A – a monitoring only during CAT III precision approachesB – a flying and flight path control aidC – a synthetic view of the instrument procedureD – a monitoring of engine data

Ref: all

Ans: C

12038. In order to know in which mode the auto-throttles are engaged, the crew will check the:

A – ND (Navigation Display)B – TCC (Thrust Control Computer)C – throttle positionD – PFD (Primary Flight Display)

Ref: all

Ans: D

12046. (Refer to figure 022-06)The diagram which shows a 40o right bank and 15o nose down attitude is:

A – 1B – 2C – 3D – 4

Ref: all

Ans: D

12050. (Refer to figure 022-03)An aircraft is under guidance mode following a VOR radial. From the ADI and

HSI information represented in the attached diagram, it is possible to deduce that the aircraft is:

A – located to the left side of the selected radialB – located to the right side of the selected radialC – experiencing a left side windD – experiencing a right side wind

Ref: all

Ans: C

12051. (Refer to figure 022-03)From the ADI and HSI information represented in the attached diagram, it is possible to deduce that the aircraft is:

A – following a radial 240o from OKL VORB – following a radial 229o from OKL VORC – flying towards OKL VORD – flying below its selected command speed, which is 220 kts

Ref: all

Ans: A

12053. (Refer to figure 022-13)The T/C is a ___ and it will be reached at approximately ___

A – FMC calculated top of climb: 5 NM from present positionB – actual top of climb: 15:08 ZULUC – FMC waypo0int: 15:08 ZULUD – TCAS traffic: 10 NM from present position

Ref: all

Ans: A

12054. (Refer to figure 022-12)The white arrow in the lower-left corner indicates:

A – after passing BODAL, waypoint in 8 minutes the next heading will be 305o

B – current wind of 305o/8 kts is being experiencedC – active waypoint (BODAL) is located on radial 305o and 8 NM from a VOR tuned in the active NAV receiverD – active waypoint (T/D) is located on radial 305o and 8 NM from a VOR tuned in the active NAV receiver

Ref: all

Ans: B

12055. (Refer to figure 022-15)What is the current active waypoint?

A – ILBB – VIWC – TICD – TRA

Ref: all

Ans: B

12056. (Refer to figure 022-19)What is the meaning of the white circle with (INTC) next to it?

A – denotes an active waypoint on your flight planB – indicates a location where you will intercept radial 150o to FRE VOR and track it inboundC – TCAS indication – you are being intercepted by a military aircraftD – indicates a location of an intersection airway – a mandatory reporting point

Ref: all

Ans: B

12057. (Refer to figure 022-20)On what heading is the aircraft currently flying?

A – 109o

B – 115o

C – 120o

D – 125o

Ref: all

Ans: D

12058. (Refer to figure 022-20)What value is selected by the heading selector (heading bug)?

A – 109o

B – 115o

C – 120o

D – 125o

Ref: all

Ans: C

12059. (Refer to figure 022-20)On what track is the aircraft currently flying?

A – 109o

B – 115o

C – 120o

D – 125o

Ref: all

Ans: B


A – Map modeB – Centre map modeC – Plan modeD – Centre plan mode

Ref: all

Ans: B


A – Full VOR modeB – Expanded VOR modeC – Full NAV modeD – Expanded NAV mode

Ref: all

Ans: D


A – Full ADF modeB – Expanded VOR modeC – Full NAV modeD – Expanded NAV mode

Ref: all

Ans: C


A – Map modeB – Centre map modeC – Plan modeD – Full NAV mode

Ref: all

Ans: C

12522. (Refer to figure 022-21)Refer to the attached Navigation Display (EHSI). What is the current active waypoint?

A – AMLONB – ANC10C – ILBD – TRA

Ref: all

Ans: B

24859. What colour is used to display command information on the EHSI?

A – WhiteB – GreenC – CyanD – Magenta

Ref: all

Ans: D

24860. On which of the following modes can weather information be displayed?

A – Map – Expanded ILS – Expanded VORB – Map – FULL ILS – Full VORC – Map – Plan – Expanded VORD – Plan – Expanded ILS – Expanded VOR

Ref: all

Ans: A

24861. (Refer to figure 022-20)With reference to the EHSI display, the instantaneous track of the aircraft is:

A – 109o

B – 115o

C – 120o

D – 125o

Ref: all

Ans: B

022-01-06 Flight Management System (FMS)

5482. An IRS is aligned in order to:

A – calculate the computed trihedron with respect to the earthB – establish true and magnetic northC – establish position relative to true north and magnetic northD – establish magnetic north


Ans: A

5549. A rate integrating gyro is used in which of the following:

1) inertial attitude unit2) autopilot system3) stabiliser servo mechanism system4) inertial navigation unit5) rate of turn indicator

A – 1, 2, 3, 4, 5B – 1, 4C – 2, 3, 5D – 2, 3, 4


Ans: B

5560. All the last generation aircraft use flight control systems. The Flight Management System (FMS) is the most advanced system; it can be defined as a:

A – global 3-D Flight Management SystemB – management system optimised in the vertical planeC – management system optimised in the horizontal planeD – global 2-D Flight Management System


Ans: A

5563. What are the inputs to the FMS?

1) Radio Aids2) Engine Parameters3) Air Data4) Route Data5) Terminal Data6) Operating Data

A – 1, 2, 4, 5B – 2, 3, 4, 5C – 1, 2, 3, 6D – All of the above


Ans: D

20507. A FMS with only a multiple DME sensor operating shall have a position error, 95% probability, in a non precision approach equal to less than:

A – 0.3 NMB – 0.06 NMC – 1 NMD – 0.5 NM


Ans: A

20560. Components of the FMS (Flight Management System) are:

1) CDU (Control and Display Unit)2) Database3) FMC (Flight Management Computer)4) Electronic check-lists5) GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) mode controller


A – 1, 2, 4, 5B – 1, 2, 3C – 1, 3D – 1, 3, 4


Ans: B

20567. Concerning the FMS (Flight Management System), entering a cost index of zero results in:

A – maximum cruising airspeedB – maximum range airspeedC – minimum range airspeedD – minimum airspeed


Ans: B

20568. Concerning the FMS (Flight Management System), entering a cost index of zero:

A – results in maximum trip fuelB – results in minimum trip fuelC – does not influence fuel consumptionD – modifies only cruising airspeed


Ans: B

20569. Concerning the FMS (Flight Management System), entering a high cost index results in:

A – high airspeed and high fuel tripB – maximum range airspeedC – minimum trip fuelD – minimum airspeed


Ans: A

20570. Concerning the FMS (Flight Management System), the cost index is determined by dividing:

A – aircraft cruise speed by fuel costB – fuel cost by aircraft operating costC – aircraft operating cost by fuel costD – fuel cost by aircraft cruise speed


Ans: C

20571. Concerning the FMS (Flight Mangement System), the parameters used to work out the vertical flight profile are:

1) gross weight2) cost index3) fuel quantity4) oxygen quantity available for flight crew5) minimum safe en route altitude


A – 1, 3, 5B – 1, 2, 3, 5C – 1, 2, 3D – 3, 4, 5


Ans: C

20611. For a FMS designed with the lateral navigation (LNAV) capability coupled to the autopilot, the FMS lateral command output is:

A – a calibrated airspeed (CAS) and a cross track distance (XTK)B – a longitudinal acceleration and a roll rateC – a lateral accelerationD – a roll angle or a heading target


Ans: D

20612. For a FMS designed with the vertical navigation (VNAV) capability coupled to the autopilot, the FMS vertical command output can be:

1) the angle of attack2) the pitch angle3) the vertical acceleration4) the speed target


A – 1, 4B – 3C – 2, 4D – 1


Ans: C

20614. For most FMS the Fuel prediction function, which computes the remaining fuel along the flight plan, takes into account the following situations:

1) the additional drag resulting in a flight carried out with the landing gear extended

2) the additional drag resulting in a flight carried out with one engine inoperative

3) the programmed wind direction and speed for the entire remainder of the flight

4) the current wind direction and speed


A – 1, 4, 3B – 4C – 3D – 1, 3


Ans: B



2) the current wind direction and speed3) the additional drag resulting in a flight carried out with one engine

inoperative4) the programmed wind direction and speed for the entire remainder of the

flight


A – 1, 3B – 2C – 2, 4D – 3


Ans: B



2) the current wind direction and speed3) the additional drag resulting in a flight carried out with one engine

inoperative4) the programmed wind direction and speed for the entire remainder of the

flight


A – 1, 4B – 1, 3C – 2D – 1


Ans: C

20681. Some of the FMS have a navigation mode called Dead Reckoning mode (DR), computing airspeed, heading, wind data ground speed and time. This mode is:

A – an operating mode used to intercept radials To or From a flight plan waypointB – a back up navigation mode to compute a FMS position when the other navigation sensors are no longer operatingC – a navigation mode used to monitor the FMS positionD – the normal navigation mode for FMS which do not use Inertial Navigation Systems (INS) to compute the aircraft position


Ans: B

20707. The duration of a FMS navigation database loaded before expiring is:

A – 15 daysB – 28 daysC – 2 monthsD – 3 months


Ans: B

20721. The FMS cross track (XTK) is:

A – the angular distance error, to the left or right from the desired track (DTK) to the aircraft track (TK)B – the abeam distance error, to the left or right from the desired flight plan leg to the aircraft positionC – the distance error between the FMS computed position and the IRS computed positionD – the distance error between the FMS computed position and the GPS computed position


Ans: B

20722. The FMS Flight Plan, Navigation, Progress or Leg page generally displays the ollowing parameters relative to the flight plan legs or waypoints:1) FMS position2) Time prediction3) Track4) DistanceThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:

A – 1, 3, 4B – 1, 2, 3C – 2, 3, 4D – 1, 2, 4


Ans: C

20723. The FMS Flight Plan, Navigation, Progress or Leg page generally displays the ollowing parameters relative to the flight plan legs or waypoints:1) remaining fuel prediction2) aircraft position3) distance4) time predictionThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1, 3, 4B – 1, 2, 3C – 2, 3, 4D – 2, 4


Ans: A

20724. The FMS Flight Plan, Navigation, Progress or Leg page generally displays the following parameters relative to the flight plan legs or waypoints:1) time prediction2) distance3) magnetic variation4) altitude constraint or predictionThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1, 2, 3B – 1, 2, 4C – 1, 3, 4D – 2, 3, 4


Ans: B

20725. The FMS Flight Plan, Navigation, Progress or Leg page generally displays the following parameters relative to the flight plan legs or waypoints:1) track2) magnetic variation3) waypoint elevation4) time predictionThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1, 4B – 1, 3C – 3, 4D – 1, 2, 4


Ans: A

20726. The FMS Flight Plan, Navigation, Progress or Leg page generally displays the following parameters relative to the flight plan legs or waypoints:1) distance2) time prediction3) waypoint elevation4) trackThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1, 2, 3B – 2, 3, 4C – 1, 3, 4D – 1, 2, 4


Ans: D

20727. The FMS is approved to provide guidance for the following approaches:

A – non-precision and precision approachesB – non-precision approaches and ILS CAT 1 precision approaches onlyC – non-precision approachesD – precision approaches limited to CAT II


Ans: C

20728. The FMS is approved to provide guidance for the following approaches:1) RNAV2) ILS3) MLS4) VOR, NDBThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:

A – 1, 2, 4B – 2, 3C – 1, 4D – 1, 3, 4


Ans: C

20729. The FMS is approved to provide guidance for the following approaches:1) RNAV2) PAR3) VOR/DME, VOR4) MLSThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:

A – 1, 3, 4B – 2, 4C – 1, 3D – 1, 2


Ans: C

20730. The FMS is approved for Localiser approaches:

A – if the DMEs only are used as navigation sensorsB – if the GPS only is used as navigation sensorC – if the GPS and DMEs only are used as combined navigation sensorsD – if the Localiser signals are used by the FMS


Ans: d

20731. The FMS lateral offset function consists in:

A – creating a new waypoint using a reference flight plan waypoint and a distance from this waypoint along the flight plan legsB – displaying the lateral cross track deviation (XTK) of the aircraft according to the active flight plan legC – flying along the flight plan legs with a constant right or left offset manually entered on the FMS CDUD – flying a FMS selected lateral pattern used for search and rescue operations


Ans: C

20732. The FMS navigation database includes the following data:1) airports2) obstacles3) navaids4) airways5) terrain cellsThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:

A – 1, 2, 3B – 1, 3, 4C – 2, 5D – 1, 3, 4, 5


Ans: B

20733. The FMS navigation database includes the following data:1) airports2) take off speeds3) navaids4) terrain cells5) runwaysThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:

A – 1, 3, 5B – 1, 2, 3C – 3, 4, 5D – 1, 2, 5


Ans: A

20734. The FMS navigation database includes the following data:1) obstacles 2) navaids3) SID, STAR and approaches procedures4) Waypoints5) AirwaysThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:

A – 1, 2, 3, 4, 5B – 2, 3, 4, 5C – 1, 2, 4D – 1, 3, 5


Ans: B

20735. The FMS navigation database includes the following data:1) obstacles2) waypoints3) SID, STAR4) terrain cells5) magnetic variationThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:

A – 1, 3, 5B – 1, 2, 3C – 2, 3, 5D – 1, 2, 4


Ans: C

20736. The FMS navigation database processing should include the following check(s):

A – at the end of the FMS formatting phase of all of the data collected and assembledB – at the reception of each supplier’s data and after the assembly of those data collectedC – at each phase of the process, from the reception of each supplier’s data to the distribution and loading of the formatted databaseD – at the loading phase into the FMS, the check is performed by the FMS


Ans: c

20737. The FMS Overfly function consists in:

A – manually selecting a flight plan to fly over each of the waypoints at the transitions along the routeB – manually selecting a flight plan waypoint to fly over when sequencing it instead of flying by at the transitionC – selecting the secondary flight plan making it active to fly over the legsD – manually selecting a flight plan waypoint to hold over for a selected time


Ans: B

20738. The FMS provides the following functions:1) aircraft position computation2) traffic alerts3) lateral flight plan management4) fuel managementThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:

A – 4B – 1, 2, 3C – 1, 3, 4D – 1, 3


Ans: D

20739. The FMS provides the following functions:1) fuel management2) lateral flight plan management3) de icing management4) aircraft position computationThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:

A – 1, 2, 3B – 1, 2, 4C – 2, 3D – 3, 4


Ans: B

20740. The FMS provides the following functions:1) lateral and vertical flight plan management2) de icing management3) aircraft position computation4) terrain awareness and warningThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:

A – 4B – 1, 2, 3C – 1, 3, 4D – 1, 3


Ans: D

20741. The FMS provides the following functions:1) radio tuning2) fuel management3) lateral flight plan management4) traffic alertsThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:

A – 3, 4B – 1, 2, 3C – 2, 3, 4D – 1, 2, 4


Ans: B

20742. The FMS provides the following functions:1) vertical flight plan management2) fuel management3) lateral flight plan management4) terrain awareness and warningThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:

A – 1, 2, 4B – 1, 2, 3C – 2, 3, 4D – 1, 3, 4


Ans: B

20743. The FMS Required Time of Arrival (RTA) function can provide:

A – a time prediction at the active to waypoint complying with the wind computationB – a time slot computed for the arrival time at destination, using the current aircraft speed and speed constraints along the flight planC – a speed target to satisfy a time constraint entered at a flight plan waypointD – a time prediction at the flight plan waypoints based on the current speed and speed constraints along the flight plan


Ans: C

20744. The FMS vertical navigation management is generally performed based on:

A – a mix of baro and GPS altitudesB – The GPS altitude computed by the GPS receiverC – the baro altitude input from the air data systemD – the geometric altitude input from the Terrain Awareness and Warning System (TAWS)


Ans: C

20745. The Fuel management performed by most FMS along the flight plan is considered as:

A – a function which helps the crew to estimate the remaining Fuel quantity along the flight plan but should not be considered as an accurate and reliable meanB – an accurate function which can be considered as the prime mean to determine the remaining Fuel quantity along the flight planC – an accurate and very reliable function providing that the Fuel on board quantity has been properly initialised by the crew before start upD – the prime mean to manage the Fuel consumption along the flight


Ans: A

20767. The most common sensors interfacing a FMS to compute the aircraft position along the flight plan are:

1) DME2) GPS3) LOCALISER4) NDBThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:

A – 2, 3B – 1, 2, 3C – 1, 2D – 1, 3, 4


Ans: C

20768. The most common sensors interfacing a FMS to compute the aircraft position along the flight plan are:1) GPS2) NDB3) DME4) LOCALISERThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:

A – 1, 2, 3B – 1, 3C – 2, 3D – 1, 4


Ans: B

20769. The most common sensors interfacing a FMS to compute the aircraft position along the flight plan are:1) IRS2) DME3) NDB4) GPSThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:

A – 1, 2, 3, 4B – 1, 2, 4C – 2, 3, 4D – 1, 3


Ans: B

20770. The most common sensors interfacing a FMS to compute the aircraft position along the flight plan are:1) MLS2) GPS3) VOR4) IRSThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:

A – 1, 2B – 2, 3, 4C – 1, 2, 4D – 1, 4


Ans: B

20783. The purpose of the FMS temperature compensation function is:

A – to provide compensated altitudes for temperature different from ISA along the vertical approach profileB – to provide compensated temperatures at the waypoints along the vertical approach profileC – to provide the destination airport air temperatureD – to provide the destination airport or runway elevation


Ans: A

20791. The role of the FMS (Flight Management System) is to aid the flight crew with:1) immediate actions in case of emergency procedure2) navigation3) in-flight performance optimisation4) electronic check-listsThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 3, 4B – 2, 3, 4C – 2, 3D – 1, 2


Ans: C

20792. The role of the FMS (Flight Management System) is to:1) aid the crew with navigation2) shut down the engine in case of a malfunction3) automatically avoid conflicting traffic when autopilot engaged4) reduce crew workload5) aid fuel efficiencyThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 2, 3, 4, 5B – 1, 4, 5C – 1, 2, 3D – 1, 3, 4


Ans: B

20840. When two waypoints are entered on the FMS flight plan page, a track between the two fixes is computed and can be displayed on the Navigation map display (ND). This leg created is:

A – two great circle arcs joined by a straight segmentB – a rhumb-lineC – a great circle arcD – two rhumb-lines joined by a straight segment


Ans: C

24855. In an aircraft equipped with a twin inertial system, the FMC displayed position:

A – would be the same as the primary inertial system positionB – would coincide with the mean inertial positionC – would be half-way between the mean inertial position and the radio fix positionD – would be between the mean inertial position and radio fix position


Ans: D

24856. An FMC auto-tunes DMEs for fixing purposes and would normally decode and display the Morse Identifier. What happens when a decode cannot be achieved?

A – Alternative DMEs are selected by the system for fixing purposesB – A warning is displayed on the CDUC – Suitable identifier codes are retrieved from FMC memory and displayed in amberD – The frequency would be displayed instead of the identifier


Ans: D

24857. Assuming an FMC is operating in LNAV and VNAV and a waypoint is reached beyond which no further waypoints are defined:

A – the aircraft would return to the previous waypointB – A warning is displayed on the CDUC – Suitable identifier codes are retrieved from FMC memory and displayed in amberD – the EHSI would blank momentarily to alert the crew


Ans: B

24858. The cost index option on the CDU is:

A – a fixed numerical value input into the database by the ground crew every 28 daysB – a fixed numerical value specific to an aircraft type to ensure fuel economyC – a fixed numerical value that informs the FMC that maximum economy cruise is requiredD – a variable numerical value input into the FMC which then calculates either max economy or shorter sector times

Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: all

Ans: D

022-02 AUTOMATIC FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEMS

022-02-01 Flight Director

2710. The flight director indicates the:

A – path permitting reaching a selected radial over a minimum distanceB – path permitting reaching a selected radial in minimum timeC – optimum path at the moment it is entered to reach a selected radialD – optimum instantaneous path to reach selected radial

Ref: all

Ans: D

5750. (Refer to figure 022-01)After having programmed your flight director, you see that the indications of your ADI (Attitude Director Indicator) are as represented in the diagram of the figure. On this instrument, the command bars indicate that you must bank your airplane to the left and:

A – decrease the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the symbolic airplaneB – increase the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the symbolic airplaneC – decrease the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the horizonD – increase the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the horizon

Ref: all

Ans: A

5808. On a modern aircraft, the flight director modes are displayed on the:

A – upper strip of the ND (Navigation Display)B – upper strip of the PFD (Primary Flight Display)C – upper strip of the ECAM (Electronic Centralised A/C Management)D – control panel of the flight director only

Ref: all

Ans: B

5810. The position of a Flight Director command bars:

A – repeats the ADI and HSI informationB – indicates the manoeuvres to execute, to achieve or maintain a flight situationC – enables the measurement of deviation from a given positionD – only displays information relating to radio-electric deviation

Ref: all

Ans: B

5856. For capturing and keeping a pre-selected magnetic heading, the flight director computer takes into account:1) track deviation2) rate of track closure3) rate of change of track closure4) wind velocity given by the inertial reference unit


A – 1, 3, 4B – 1, 2, 4C – 2, 3, 4D – 1, 2, 3

Ref: all

Ans: D

5868. Mode “Localiser ARM” active on Flight Director means:

A – Localiser ALARM making localiser approach not authorisedB – System is armed for localiser approach and coupling will occur upon capturing centre lineC – Coupling has occurred and system provides control data to capture the centre lineD – Localiser is armed and coupling will occur when flag warning disappears

Ref: all

Ans: B

5873. Where are the flight director modes displayed?

A – PFDB – NDC – EICAMD – FD control panel

Ref: all

Ans: A

5903. Flight Director Information supplied by an FD computer is presented in the form of command bars on the following instrument:

A – BDHI Bearing Distance Heading IndicatorB – ADI Attitude Display IndicatorC – RMI Radio Magnetic IndicatorD – HSI Horizontal Situation Indicator

Ref: all

Ans: B

5907. The essential components of a flight director are:1) a computer2) an automatic pilot3) an auto throttle4) command barsThe combination of correct statements is:

A – 1, 2B – 1, 4C – 2, 4D – 2, 3

Ref: all

Ans: B

5915. The aim of the flight director is to provide information to the pilot:

A – allowing him to return to a desired path according to a 45o intercept angleB – about this position with regard to a radio electric axisC – allowing him to return to a desired path in an optimal wayD – allowing him to return to a desired path according to a 30o intercept angle

Ref: all

Ans: C

5925. On which instrument are the flight director bars normally present?

A – primary EICASB – ADIC – NDD – EHSI

Ref: all

Ans: B

5934. The command bars of a flight director are generally represented on an:

A – RMIB – ADIC – ILSD – HSI

Ref: all

Ans: B

5935. An aircraft flies steadily on a heading 270o. The flight director is engaged in the heading select mode (HDG SEL), heading 270o selected. If a new heading 360o is selected, the vertical trend bar:

A – deviates to the right and will be centred as soon as you roll the aircraft to the bank angle calculated by the flight directorB – deviates to the right and remains in that position until the aircraft has reached heading 360o

C – disappears, the new heading selection has deactivated the HDG modeD – deviates to its right stop as long as the aeroplane is more than 10o off the new selected heading

Ref: all

Ans: A

5938. The “heading hold” mode is selected on the flight director (FD) with a course to steer of 180o. Your aircraft holds a heading of 160o. The vertical bar of the FD:

A – is centred if the aircraft is on optimum path to join heading 180o

B – is centred if the aircraft has a starboard drift of 20o

C – is centred if the aircraft has a port drift of 20o

D – cannot be centred

Ref: all

Ans: A

5941. The auto-pilot is in heading select mode, and the aircraft is flying on a heading of 270 deg. If you change heading to 360 deg. the flight director:

A – roll command bar goes full deflection right and then does not move until the aircraft heading is within 30 degrees of the selected headingB – roll command bar moves to right and centres when AFDS angle of bank to intercept has been achievedC – heading command bar will disappear and the heading hold will disengageD – roll command bar moves to the right and then progressively returns to the centre as the deviation from the selected heading reduces

Ref: all

Ans: B

12047. (Refer to figure 022-07)After having programmed your flight director, you see that the flight director indications are as represented in the diagram. This indicates that you must:

A – increase the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the leftB – increase the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the rightC – decreases the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the leftD – decrease the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the right

Ref: all

Ans: A

12048. (Refer to figure 022-02)After having programmed your flight director, you see that the indications of your ADI (Attitude Director Indicator) are as represented in diagram. On this instrument, the command bars indicate that you must bank your airplane to the left and:

A – increase the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the symbolic airplaneB – decrease the flight attitude until the command bar recentre on the symbolic airplaneC – increase the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the symbolic horizonD – decrease the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the symbolic horizon

Ref: all

Ans: A

20174. (Refer to figure 022-39)Four scenarios of VOR axis interception are represented in the appended annex. The one corresponding to the optimal interception path calculated by a flight director is number:

A – 3B – 2C – 1D – 4

Ref: all

Ans: B

20176. (Refer to figure 022-38)After having programmed your flight director, you see that the indications of your ADI (Attitude Director Indicator) are as represented in diagram Number 1 of the appended annex. On this instrument, the command bars indicate that you must:

A – increase the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the left until the command bars recentre on the symbolic aeroplaneB – increase the flight attitude and bank your aeroplane in the right until the command bars recentre on the symbolic aeroplaneC – decrease the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the left until the command bars recentre on the symbolic aeroplaneD – decrease the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the right until the command bars recentre on the symbolic aeroplane

Ref: all

Ans: A

20558. Command bars of the flight director may be present on the:

1) HSI2) EICAS3) CDU4) ADI

The combination containing all of the correct statements is:

A – 4 onlyB – 1 and 4 only C – 1 and 3 onlyD – 1 only

Ref: all

Ans: A

20573. Considering a flight director of the “command bars” type:

A – the horizontal bar may be associated with the roll channelB – the vertical bar is associated with the pitch channelC – the horizontal bar is associated with the roll channelD – the vertical bar is associated with the roll channel

Ref: all

Ans: D

20574. Considering a flight director of the “command bars” type:

A – the horizontal bar is associated with the pitch channelB – the horizontal bar is associated with the roll channelC – the vertical bar is associated with the pitch channelD – the vertical bar may be associated with the pitch channel

Ref: all

Ans: A

20575. Considering a flight director of the “command bars” type:1) the vertical bar is always associated with the roll channel2) the vertical bar may be associated with the pitch channel3) the horizontal bar may be associated with the roll channel4) the horizontal bar is associated with the pitch channelThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1, 2, 3, 4B – 1, 2, 4C – 1, 3, 4D – 1, 4

Ref: all

Ans: D

20594. During a final approach, if the flight director system is engaged in the G/S mode (holding of ILS Glide Slope), the position of the horizontal command bar

indicates:

A – the pitch attitude of the aircraftB – the position of the aircraft relative to the ILS Glide SlopeC – the instantaneous deviation between the aircraft position and the IOLS Glide SlopeD – the correction on the pitch to be applied to join and follow the ILS Glide Slope

Ref: all

Ans: D

20595. During a final approach, the flight director system is engaged in the G/S mode (holding of ILS Glide Slope). The position of the horizontal command bar indicates:1) the position of the aircraft relative to the ILS Glide Slope2) the correction on the pitch to be applied to join and follow the ILS Glide

Slope3) the instantaneous deviation between the aircraft position and the ILS Glide

SlopeThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1B – 2C – 1, 2D – 1, 3

Ref: all

Ans: B

20596. During a final approach, the flight director system is engaged in the LOC mode (holding of Localiser axis). The position of the vertical command bar indicates:

A – the roll attitude of the aircraftB – the position of the aircraft relative to the Localiser axisC – the instantaneous deviation between the aircraft position and the Localiser axisD – the correction on the bank to be applied to join and follow the Localiser axis

Ref: all

Ans: D

20597. During a final approach, the flight director system is engaged in the LOC mode (localiser axis holding). The position of the vertical command bar indicates:1) the position of the aircraft relative to the localiser axis2) the roll attitude of the aircraft3) the correction on the bank to be applied to join and follow the Localiser axisThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1, 3B – 1D – 1, 2D – 3

Ref: all

Ans: D

20607. Flying manually during a final approach, the flight director system is engaged in the G/S mode (holding of ILS Glide Slope). If the aircraft is above the ILS Glide Slope, the horizontal command bar:

A – cannot be centredB – may be centred if the pilot is correcting to come back on to the ILS Glide SlopeC – is automatically centred since the G/S mode is engagedD – will be centred only when establish on the ILS Glide Slope

Ref: all

Ans: B

20608. Flying manually during a final approach, the flight director system is engaged in the G/S mode (holding of ILS Glide Slope). If the aircraft is below the ILS Glide Slope, the horizontal command bar:

A – deviates downward, whatever the attitude of the aircraft isB – is automatically centred since the G/S mode is engagedC – deviates upward, whatever the attitude of the aircraft isD – may be centred if the pilot is correcting to come back on the ILS Glide Slope

Ref: all

Ans: D

20609. Flying manually during a final approach, the flight director system is engaged in the LOC mode (holding of localiser axis). If the aircraft is left of the Localiser axis, the vertical command bar:

A – is automatically centred since the LOC mode is engagedB – may be centred if the pilot is correcting to come back on the Localiser axisC – deviates to the left, whatever the attitude of the aircraft isD – deviates to the right, whatever the attitude of the aircraft is

Ref: all

Ans: B

20610. Flying manually during a final approach, the flight director system is engaged in the LOC mode (holding of localiser axis). If the aircraft is right of the Localiser axis, the vertical command bar:

A – cannot be centredB – may be centred if the pilot is correcting to come back on the Localiser axisC – is automatically centred since the LOC mode is engagedD – will be centred only when establish on the Localiser axis

Ref: all

Ans: B

20701. The command bars of a flight director:

A – are displayed only if the autopilot is engagedB – may be displayed when flying manuallyC – are always displayed when the autopilot is engagedD – are always displayed during take-off

Ref: all

Ans: B

20702. The command bars of a flight director:

A – may be displayed when flying manually or with the autopilot engagedB – are displayed only when flying manuallyC – are displayed only when the autopilot is engagedD – are always displayed during take-off

Ref: all

Ans: A

20713. The flight director is engaged in the heading select mode (HDG SEL), heading 180o selected. When heading is 160o the vertical bar of the FD:

A – cannot be centredB – is centred if the aircraft has a 20o left driftC – is centred if the aircraft has a 20o right driftD – is centred if the bank angle of the aircraft is equal to the bank angle computed by the flight director calculator

Ref: all

Ans: D

20714. The flight director provides information for the pilot:

A – to remain within the flight envelopeB – to join a desired path with the optimum attitudeC – to join a desired track with a 45o intercept angleD – to join a desired track with a constant bank angle of 25o

Ref: all

Ans: B

20751. The horizontal command bar of a flight director:

A – gives information about the direction and the amplitude of the corrections to be applied on the pitch of the aircraftB – repeats the position information given by the ILS in the horizontal planeC – repeats the position information given by the ILS in the vertical planeD – gives information only about the direction of the corrections to be applied on the pitch of the aircraft

Ref: all

Ans: A

20752. The horizontal command bar of a flight director:1) repeats the position information given by the ILS in the horizontal plane2) repeats the position information given by the ILS in the vertical plane3) gives information about the direction and the amplitude of the corrections to

be applied on the pitch of the aircraft4) gives information only about the direction of the connections to be applied

on the pitch of the aircraftThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 2, 3B – 2C – 3D – 1, 4

Ref: all

Ans: C

20773. The output data of the flight director computer are:

A – two channels, pitch and yawB – two channels, pitch and rollC – three channels, pitch, roll and yawD – three channels, pitch, roll and side slipping

Ref: all

Ans: B

20776. The parameters taken into account by the flight director computer in the altitude hold mode (ALT HOLD) are:1) altitude deviation2) engine rpm3) ground speed4) pitch attitudeThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1B – 1, 2C – 1, 4D – 1, 3

Ref: all

Ans: C

20778. The position of a Flight Director command bars:

A – only displays information relating to radio-electric deviationB – repeats the ADI and HSI informationC – enables the measurement of deviation from a given positionD – indicates the manoeuvres to execute, to achieve or maintain a flight situation

Ref: all

Ans: D

20784. The purpose(s) of the flight director system is (are) to:1) give the position of the aircraft according to radio electric axis2) give the position of the aircraft according to waypoints3) to aid the pilot when flying manuallyThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1, 3B – 1, 2, 3C – 3D – 2, 3

Ref: all

Ans: C

20804. The vertical command bar of a flight director:

A – repeats the position information given by the EHSIB – gives information about the direction and the amplitude of the corrections to be applied on the bank of the aircraftC – repeats the position information given by the VORD – gives information only about the direction of the corrections to be applied on the bank of the aircraft

Ref: all

Ans: B

20805. The vertical command bar of a flight director:

A – repeats the position information given by the ILS in the vertical planeB – repeats the position information given by the ILS in the horizontal planeC – gives information about the direction and the amplitude of the corrections to be applied on the bank of the aircraftD – gives information only about the direction of the corrections to be applied on the bank of the aircraft

Ref: all

Ans: C

20806. The vertical command bar of a flight director:1) repeats the position information given by the EHSI2) repeats the position information given by the VOR3) gives information about the direction and the amplitude of the corrections to

be appliedThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 2, 3B – 1, 2, 3C – 1, 3D – 3

Ref: all

Ans: D

20807. The vertical command bar of a flight director:1) repeats the position information given by the ILS in the horizontal plane2) repeats the position information given by the ILS in the vertical plane3) gives information about the direction and the amplitude of the corrections to

be appliedThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1B – 3C – 2, 3D – 1, 3

Ref: all

Ans: B

20811. To allow the coupling of a dual channel flight director:

A – only one autopilot channel must be selected ONB – both autopilot channels must be selected ONC – both VHF Comms channels must be serviceableD – both VHF NAV channels must be serviceable

Ref: all

Ans: B

20864. (Refer to figure 022-38)After having programmed your flight director, you see that the indications of your ADI (Attitude Director Indicator) are as represented in diagram number 1. On this instrument, the command bars indicate that you must bank your airplane to the left and:

A – increase the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the symbolic horizonB – increase the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the symbolic airplaneC – decrease the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the symbolic airplaneD – decrease the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the symbolic horizon

Ref: all

Ans: B

24862. (Refer to figure 022-06)The FD command bars on the ADI (Illustration number 2) indicate that:

A – the pilot should raise the aircraft nose and roll to the rightB – the pilot should lower the aircraft nose and roll to the leftC – the pilot should raise the aircraft nose and roll to the leftD – the pilot should lower the aircraft nose and roll to the right

Ref: all

Ans: A

24863. (Refer to figure 022-01)The ADI presentation shows that the aircraft is (VSI reading zero):

A – pitched upB – pitched downC – in straight and level flightD – pitched down and rolled to the left

Ref: all

Ans: C

24866. Flight Director operation:

A – is available in both manual and automatic flightB – is available in automatic flight onlyC – is available in manual flight onlyD – requires at least two functioning autopilot channels

Ref: all

Ans: A

24867. Flight Director operation is selected by:

A – engaging an autopilot channelB – moving both the Captain’s and the First Officer’s Flight Director switch to ONC – moving either the Captain’s or the First Officer’s Flight Director switch to OND – disengaging all auto pilot channels

Ref: all

Ans: C

25232. If you have selected a heading of 180o and are flying aircraft on heading of 160o to intercept the correct course, the ADI vertical FD bar will be centred:

A – only if aircraft is subject to 20o port driftB – only if aircraft is subject to 20o starboard driftC – cannot be centralisedD – will only be central when flying correct attitude to intercept desired heading

Ref: all

Ans: D

25246. When turning into a desired radial, FD bars indicate:

A – 45o angle of bankB – 30o angle of bankC – 15o angle of bankD – correct attitude to intercept radial

Ref: all

Ans: D

25374. The Flight Director horizontal and vertical bars are up and left of aircraft symbol on the ADI, these indications are directing the pilot to:

A – Increase pitch angle, turn leftB – Decrease pitch angle, turn leftC – Increase pitch angle, turn rightD – Decrease pitch angle, turn right

Ref: all

Ans: A

022-02-02 Autopilot2712. An autopilot system:

A – must provide at least aircraft guidance functionsB – must provide at least aircraft stabilisation functionsC – may provide automatic take off functionsD – must provide automatic take off functions

Ref: all

Ans: B

5806. An automatic pilot is a system which can ensure the functions of:

A – piloting onlyB – piloting and guidance of an aircraft in both the horizontal and vertical planesC – navigationD – piloting from take-off to landing without any action from human pilot

Ref: all

Ans: B

5809. In a closed loop system a device in which a small input operates a large output in a strictly proportional manner is called:

A – amplifierB – auto-pilotC – servomotorD – servomechanism

Ref: all

Ans: D

5813. During a CAT 2 approach, what is providing the height information to the auto-pilot?

A – Capsule stackB – Radio altimeterC – Captain’s barometric altimeterD – Central Air Data Computer

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: B

5814. In an auto-pilot system, A/C flight path modes include which of the following:1) Pitch attitude holding2) Horizontal wing holding3) VOR axis holding4) Inertial heading holding5) ASI & Mach hold.6) Yaw damper

A – 1, 2, 4B – 1, 2, 5C – 2, 4, 6D – 3, 4, 5

Ref: all

Ans: D

5818. During an automatic landing, from a height of about 50 ft the:

A – LOC and glide slope modes are disconnected and the airplane carries on its descent until landingB – auto pilot maintains an angle of attack depending on the radio altimeter heightC – glide slope mode is disconnected and the airplane continues its descent until landingD – auto pilot maintains a vertical speed depending on the radio altimeter height

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: D

5822. On an auto pilot coupled approach, GO AROUND mode is engaged:

A – if the aircraft reaches the decision height selected on the radio altimeter at a higher speed than the one selectedB – by the pilot selecting G.A. mode on the thrust computer control panelC – automatically in case of an auto pilot or flight director alarmD – by the pilot pushing a button located on the throttles

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: D

5823. The control law of a transport airplane auto pilot control channel may be defined as the relationship between the:

A – crew inputs to the computer and the detector responses (returned to the airplane)B – computer input deviation data and the output control deflection signalsC – computer input deviation data and the signals received by the servo- actuatorsD – input and output signals at the amplifier level respectively control deviation data and control deflection signals

Ref: all

Ans: B

5824. The command functions of an autopilot include, among others, the holding of:1) vertical speed2) altitude3) attitude4) bank5) headingThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:

A – 1, 2, 5B – 1, 2, 3, 5C – 3, 5D – 2, 3, 4

Ref: all

Ans: A

5826. An automatic landing system necessitating that the landing be continued manually in the case of a system failure during an automatic approach is called FAIL:

A – OPERATIONALB – REDUNDANTC – SAFED – PASSIVE

Ref: all

Ans: D

5828. In automatic landing mode, when the two auto pilots are used, the system is considered:

A – “fail operational” or without failure effect with function always ensuredB – “fail soft” or with minimized failure effectC – “fail passive” or without failure effect but with disconnectionD – “fail hard” or with failure effect and disconnection

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: A

5829. When an automatic landing I interrupted by a go-around:1) the auto throttle reacts immediately upon the pilot action on the TO/GA (Take-off/Go-around) switch in order to recover the maximum thrust2) the auto pilot monitors the climb and the rotation of the airplane3) the auto pilot retracts the landing gear and reduces the flap deflection in order to reduce the drag4) the pilot performs the climb and the rotation of the airplane5) the pilot retracts the landing gear and reduces the flap deflection in order to reduce the drag


A – 1, 2 and 5B – 1, 4 and 5C – 1, 3 and 4D – 1, 2 and 3

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: A

5830. In an auto flight system, modes for stabilising the A/C include which of the following:1) Yaw damper2) Pitch attitude holding3) VOR axis holding4) ASI & Mach hold.5) Horizontal wing holding6) Altitude holding

A – 1, 2, 4B – 1, 2, 5C – 1, 5, 6D – 2, 4, 6

Ref: all

Ans: B

5837. Among the following functions of an auto pilot, those related to the airplane guidance are:

1) pitch attitude holding2) horizontal wing holding3) indicated airspeed or Mach number holding4) altitude holding5) VOR axis holding6) Yaw damping


A – 1, 2 and 6B – 3, 4 and 5C – 1, 2, 3 and 6D – 1, 3, 4 and 5

Ref: all

Ans: B

5839. When only one auto pilot is used for climbing, cruising and approach, the system is considered:

A – “fail passive” or without failure effect but with disconnectionB – “fail soft” or with minimised failure effectC – “fail survival” or without failure effect with function always ensuredD – “fail safe” with failure effect without disconnection

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: B

5840. Among the following functions of an auto pilot, those related to the airplane stabilisation are:1) pitch attitude holding2) horizontal wing holding3) displayed heading or inertial track holding4) indicated airspeed or Mach number holding5) yaw damping6) VOR axis holdingThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 2, 4 and 5B – 1, 2, 3 and 6C – 3, 4, 5 and 6D – 1 and 2

Ref: allAns: D

5847. At 50 feet agl during an auto-land, what happens to the glide slope signal?

A – is used until the nose landing gear touches the groundB – is disconnectedC – is factored for rangeD – is used to flare the aircraft

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: B

5848. When air aircraft, operating in the VOR coupled mode, approaches the CONE OF CONFUSION over a VOR station, the roll channel of the auto pilot:

A – temporarily switches over to the heading modeB – is damped by a trim input signal from the lateral trim systemC – remains always coupled to the selected VOR radialD – is temporarily disconnected

Ref: all

Ans: A

5849. In an auto pilot slaved powered control circuit, the system which ensures synchronisation:

A – is inhibited when the automatic pilot is engagedB – intervenes only when the automatic pilot has been engagedC – prevents uncommanded surface deflection when the automatic pilot is disengagedD – can itself, when it fails, prevent the automatic pilot from being engaged

Ref: all

Ans: D

5851. The auto pilot is engaged with no modes selected. What is the auto pilot providing:

A – wing levellingB – altitude holdC – attitude hold with auto trimD – LNAV and VNAV

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: C

5853. In a transport airplane, an auto pilot comprises, in addition to the mode display devices, the following fundamental elements:

1) Airflow valve2) Sensors3) Comparators4) Computers5) Amplifiers6) Servo-actuators


A – 2, 3, 4, 5B – 2, 3, 4, 5, 6C – 1, 3, 4, 6D – 1, 2, 6

Ref: all

Ans: B

5854. When operating with the auto pilot in ALT hold mode what happens if the Captain’s barometric altimeter pressure setting is increased:

A – ALT hold disengagesB – NothingC – The aeroplane will climbD – The aeroplane will descend

Ref: all

Ans: B

5855. If a Go-Around is initiated from an auto land reproach:

1) the auto throttle selects GA power as soon as the TOGA switch is pressed2) the auto pilot carries out the climb3) the auto pilot retracts flap and landing gear to reduce drag4) the pilot carries out the procedure5) the pilot cleans up (retracts flaps and raises gear)

A – 1, 2 & 4B – 1, 2 & 5C – 1, 4 & 5D – 1, 2 & 3

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: B

5857. When the altitude acquisition mode is engaged on a jet transport airplane equipped with auto pilot (AP) and auto throttle (ATS) systems the:

A – true airspeed (TAS) is maintained constant by the auto pilot by means of elevatorB – indicated airspeed (IAS) is maintained constant by the auto pilot by means of elevatorC – true airspeed (TAS) is maintained constant by the auto throttle systemD – indicated airspeed (IAS) is maintained constant by the auto throttle system

Ref: all

Ans: B

5859. A pilot engages the control wheel steering (CWS) of a conventional autopilot and carries out a manoeuvre in roll. When the control wheel is released, the auto pilot will:

A – restore the flight attitude and the rate of turn selected on the auto pilot control display unitB – roll wings level and maintain the heading obtained at that momentC – maintain the track and the flight attitude obtained at that momentD – maintain the flight attitude obtained at that moment

Ref: all

Ans: D

5860. An autopilot is selected “ON” in mode “altitude hold”, the pilot alters the barometric pressure set on the sub-scale of his altimeter the:

A – aircraft will remain at the same altitude, the auto pilot takes its pressure information from the static source

B – aircraft will remain at the same altitude, the auto pilot takes its pressure information from the altimeter corrected to standard pressure 1013.25 hPaC – aircraft will climb or descend in the sense of the change, the auto pilot takes its pressure information from the altimeterD – mode altitude hold will disengage

Ref: all

Ans: A

5862. What are the auto pilot minimum requirements in order to fly single pilot operations in IFR conditions or at night?

A – Two axis auto pilot with altitude hold and heading holdB – Two axis auto pilot with altitude hold, heading hold, VOR tracking and Alt acquireC – Single axis auto pilot with Altitude hold onlyD – Single axis auto pilot with Heading select and VS

Ref: all

Ans: A

5863. An automatic landing system which can keep on operating without deterioration of its performances following the failure of one of the auto pilots is called:

A – Fail REDUNDANTB – Fail PASSIVEC – Fail SAFED – Fail OPERATIONAL

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: D

5864. In automatic landing mode, in case of failure of one of the two auto pilots, the system is considered:

A – “fail passive” or without failure effect but with disconnectionB – “fail survival” or without failure effect with function always ensuredC – “fail hard” or without failure effect and disconnectionD – “fail soft” with minimised failure effect

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: A

5866. Auto land “flare” is initiated at:

A – 1500 ftB – 330 ftC – 50 ftD – 5 ft

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: C

5867. A landing will be considered to be performed in the SEMI-AUTOMATIC mode when:

1) the auto pilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the decision height is reached then is disengaged automatically

2) the auto throttle maintains a constant speed until the decision height is reached then is disengaged automatically

3) the auto pilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the flare4) the auto throttle decreases the thrust when the height is approximately 30 ft5) the flare and the ground roll are performed automatically


A – 1 and 4B – 3, 4 and 5C – 1 and 2D – 2, 3 and 5

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: C

5870. During a fully automatic landing, the auto pilot:

A – and the auto throttle control the approach at least until the flareB – and the auto throttle control the approach at least until the roll outC – and the auto throttle control the approach at least until decision heightD – controls the approach (at least) until the flare, the pilot controls the power

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: B

5874. In heading select the auto pilot delivers roll commands to the controls to bank the aircraft:

1) proportional to TAS, but not beyond a specified maximum2) set bank of 27 degrees3) set bank of 15 degrees4) proportional to the deviation from the selected heading

A – 1, 2B – 2, 3C – 3, 4D – 4, 1

Ref: all

Ans: D

5875. A semi-automatic landing system disconnects itself automatically:

A – at the decision heightB – at approximately 100 ftC – on groundD – when going around

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: B

5876. The control law in a fly-by-wire system is a relationship between:

A – how the pilot’s control demands are translated into control surface movementsB – input and output at the amplifier level respectively control the deviation dataC – computer input deviation data and flap position modificationD – the versine signal between the ailerons and elevators

Ref: all

Ans: A

5877. The auto pilot basic modes include, among other things, the following functions:

1) pitch attitude hold2) pressure altitude hold3) horizontal wing hold4) heading hold


A – 1, 2, 3, 4B – 1, 3C – 1, 2, 3D – 1, 4

Ref: all

Ans: B

5881. What are the most basic functions of auto stabilisation?

1) maintain pitch attitude2) maintain wings level3) altitude hold4) heading hold5) speed hold

A – 1 & 5B – 1 & 2C – 1, 2 & 3D – 1, 2, 3 & 4

Ref: all

Ans: B

5884. The interception of a localiser beam by the auto pilot takes place:

A – according to an interception versus radio deviation lawB – at a constant magnetic courseC – at a constant headingD – according to an interception versus range and angular

Ref: all

Ans: C

5886. In a selected axis capture mode, the autopilot gives a bank attitude input:

A – of a fixed value equal to 20oB – of a fixed value equal to 27oC – proportional to the deviation between the selected heading and the current heading but not exceeding a given valueD – proportional to the aircraft true airspeed but not exceeding a given value

Ref: all

Ans: C

5889. A pilot has to carry out a single pilot IFR flight on a light twin aircraft for cargo transport. The purpose of the automatic pilot should be at least to hold:

A – heading and altitudeB – headingC – altitudeD – heading and altitude, and to have a radio axis tracing function

Ref: all

Ans: A

5890. What is the purpose of the synchronisation in an auto pilot.

1) prevents snatch on disengagement2) prevents snatch on engagement3) cancels rudder control inputs4) may not allow the auto pilot to engage if unserviceable

A – 1, 2B – 1, 3C – 2, 4D – 3, 4

Ref: all

Ans: C

5896. If only a single A/P is used to climb, cruise and approach; following a failure of an inner loop component:

A – it is fail passive with redundancyB – it is fail operational and will not be disconnectedC – it is fail soft and will not disconnectD – it is fail safe and will disconnect

Ref: all

Ans: D

5897. Landing shall be considered as having been carried out automatically when the auto pilot and the auto throttle of an aircraft are disengaged by flight crew:

A – during the flareB – during ground rollC – at the decision heightD – at the outer marker

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: B

5899. During a Category II automatic approach, the height information is supplied by the:

A – altimeterB – GPS (Global Positioning System)C – encoding altimeterD – radio altimeter

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: D

5901. Regarding auto pilot and auto throttle:

1) A/P holds IAS/MACH when climbing in LVL CHG and A/T controls thrust2) A/P holds altitude in cruise with ALT HOLD, A/T controls IAS/Mach No.3) A/P holds pitch in descent in V/S mode, A/T controls thrust4) A/P holds altitude in climb and A/T holds Mach No.

A – 1 & 2B – 3 & 4C – 1, 2 & 3D – 2, 3 & 4

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: C

5902. A landing will be considered to be performed in the AUTOMATIC mode when:

1) the auto pilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the decision height is reached then is disengaged automatically

2) the auto throttle maintains a constant speed until the decision height is reached then is disengaged automatically

3) the auto pilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the flare4) the auto throttle decreases the thrust when the height is approximately 30 ft5) the flare and the ground roll are performed automatically


A – 1 and 4B – 1 and 2C – 2, 3 and 5D – 3, 4 and 5

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: D

5904. The Altitude Alert System:

A – Engages auto pilot Auto Trim at selected altitudeB – Illuminates a light when selected altitude is attainedC – is annunciated by light and/or sound when airplane is approaching selected altitudeD – Disengages auto pilot Auto Trim at selected altitude

Ref: all

Ans: C

5905. An auto land system which can continue to automatically land the aircraft after a single failure is called:

A – Fail passiveB – Fail SoftC – Fail SafeD – Fail active

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: D

5906. The synchronisation of the auto pilot control channel system:

1) enables the prevention of jerks during disengagement2) enables the cancellation of rudder control signals3) enables the prevention of jerks during engagement4) functions in the heading, navigation, approach modes


A – 2, 3B – 2, 4C – 1, 4D – 3, 4

Ref: all

Ans: D

5909. When is an auto land procedure complete?

A – At the inner markerB – At the beginning of the ground rollC – At decision heightD – At the flare

Ref: all

Ans: B

5911. What is the wavelength of an ILS signal?

A – CentimetricB – HectometricC – MetricD – Decimetric

Ref: all

Ans: C

5912. The functions of an autopilot (basic modes) consist of:

A – monitoring the movement of the airplane centre of gravityB – stabilising and monitoring the movement around the airplane centre of gravityC – guiding the airplane pathD – stabilising and monitoring the movement around the airplane aerodynamic centre

Ref: all

Ans: B

5913. The computers of the electrical flight controls system comply with programs defined by attitude control laws such as:

1) on the longitudinal axis, the law may combine the load factor and the changes in the pitch rate as control data sources

2) the trimming is automatic and ensures neutral stability3) the protections apply to pitch and bank attitudes depending on the speed4) these laws do not apply to the whole flight envelope


A – 1, 2, 3, 4B – 2, 3C – 1, 2, 3D – 1, 3, 4

Ref: all

Ans: C

5921. An auto pilot system whereby if one A/P fails cannot carry out an auto land is called fail …

A – passiveB – safeC – operationalD – redundant

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: A

5922. An auto pilot capable of altitude hold and heading hold is a minimum requirement for:

A – Single pilot operation in VMC and IMCB – Single pilot operation under IFR and at nightC – Aircraft over 5700 kgD – Dual pilot operation (in IFR)

Ref: all

Ans: B

5927. An auto pilot capable of holding at least altitude and heading mode is compulsory:

A – on airplanes over 5.7 tB – on multi pilot airplanesC – for VFR and IFR flights with only one pilotD – for IFR or night flights with only one pilot

Ref: all

Ans: D

5929. LOC ARMED lights up on the annunciator, this means:

A – localiser beam capturedB – localiser armed and awaiting captureC – localiser alarm is onD – ILS is captured

Ref: all

Ans: B

5930. If the auto pilot is selected to VOR mode, what happens if the aircraft flies over the cone of confusion?

A – Temporarily follows current heading until exiting the cone of confusionB – VOR disengages and Heading hold engagesC – The pilot must select an alternate roll modeD – The pilot manually flies the aircraft following flight director roll commands

Ref: all

Ans: A

5940. An automatic landing is carried out when the automatic pilot:

A – and the auto throttle ensure a correct final approach, at least up to flare out while the human pilot controls the powerB – ensures a correct final approach, at least up to ground roll while the human pilot controls the powerC – and the auto throttle ensure a correct final approach at least up to flare outD – and the auto throttle ensure a correct final approach at least up to ground roll

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: D

5944. When using the auto pilot, the function of the pitch channel automatic trim is to:

1) cancel the hinge moment of the elevator2) ease as much as possible the load of the servo-actuator3) restore to the pilot a correctly trimmed airplane during the auto pilot

disengagement


A – 1 and 2B – 3C – 1 and 3D – 1, 2 and 3

Ref: all

Ans: D

5945. What does the auto pilot pitch/rotate around?

A – Centre of gravityB – Manoeuvre pointC – Centre of pressureD – Neutral point

Ref: all

Ans: A

5946. The correction of the control surface deflection made by the automatic pilot calculator in order to stabilise the longitudinal attitude will be all the more significant as the:1) difference between the reference attitude and the instantaneous attitude is

high2) rate of change of the difference between the reference attitude and the

instantaneous attitude is high3) temperature is low4) pressure altitude is highThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1, 2B – 1, 2, 3, 4C – 1, 2, 3D – 2, 3, 4

Ref: all

Ans: A

5948. The auto pilot disconnects (or the auto land is completed) at:

A – 100 ftB – decision heightC – flareD – roll out

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: D

5950. What happens at 50 ft whilst carrying out an auto landing?

A – Glide slope and localiser disconnect and aircraft continues to landB – Radio altimeter controls the rate of descentC – Radio altimeter controls the angle of attackD – Glide slope disconnects and aircraft continues descent

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: D

5955. When being engaged, and without selecting a particular mode, an automatic pilot enables:

A – aeroplane stabilisation with attitude hold or maintaining vertical speed and possibly automatic trimB – a constant speed on track, wings horizontalC – all aeroplane piloting and guidance functions except maintaining radio- navigation course linesD – aeroplane piloting and guidance functions

Ref: all

Ans: A

5956. The correction of the control surface deflection made by the auto pilot calculator in order to keep a given altitude will be all the more significant when the:1) difference between the attitude necessary to keep the given or reference

altitude and the instantaneous attitude is high2) variation speed of the difference between the attitude necessary to maintain

the altitude and the instantaneous attitude is high3) difference between the altitude of reference and the instantaneous altitude is

high4) variation speed of the difference between the reference altitude and the

instantaneous altitude is highThe combination regrouping the correct statements is:

A – 1, 2, 3 and 4B – 1, 2 and 3C – 2 and 3D – 2, 3 and 4

Ref: all

Ans: A

5958. In the automatic trim control system of an autopilot, automatic trimming is normally effected about the:

A – roll and yaw axes onlyB – pitch axis onlyC – pitch, roll and yaw axesD – pitch and roll axes only

Ref: all

Ans: B

5959. The engagement of an auto pilot is not possible when:

1) there is a fault in the electrical power supply2) the controlled turn knob is not set to centre off3) there is a synchronisation fault in the pitch channel4) there is a fault in the attitude reference unit


A – 1, 3 and 4B – 1 and 3C – 1, 2, 3, 4D – 1 and 4

Ref: all

Ans: C

5961. From a flight mechanics point of view, the “guidance” functions of a transport airplane auto pilot consist in:

A – monitoring the movements of the centre of gravity in the three dimensions of space (path)B – stabilising and monitoring the movements around the aerodynamic centreC – stabilising and monitoring the movements around the centre of gravityD – monitoring the movements of the aerodynamic centre in the three dimensions of space (path)

Ref: all

Ans: A

5969. A landing is performed automatically when the auto pilot and auto throttle ensure good performance from the final approach:

A – until the flareB – during the landing roll and sometimes until the aircraft comes to a complete stopC – until reaching decision heightD – until reaching 100 ft height at which point the auto pilot is automatically disconnected

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: B

6008. A landing is considered to be Automatic when:1) Auto pilot flies the ILS to Decision Height, and then disengages2) Auto throttle maintains speed until Decision Height and then disengages3) Auto throttle disengages thrust at 50 ft4) Auto pilot flies the approach and landing5) Auto pilot flares the aeroplane to touch downA – 2, 3 & 5B – 1 & 2C – 4 & 5D – 1 & 4

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: C

20172. (Refer to figure 022-42)The block diagram of an auto pilot is shown in the annex. For each control channel (pitch, roll and yaw) the piloting law is the relationship between the deflection of the control surface commanded by the computer (BETA c) and the:

A – real deflection of the control surface (BETA control surface feedback)B – offset EPSILON at the computer inputC – pilot command ED – aircraft response S

Ref: all

Ans: B

20179. A closed loop control system in which a small power input controls a much larger power output in a strictly proportionate manner is known as:

A – an autopilotB – a feedback control circuitC – a servo-mechanismD – an amplifier

Ref: all

Ans: C

20526. Among the following functions of an auto pilot, those related to the aeroplane stabilisation are:1) pitch attitude holding2) indicated airspeed or Mach number holding3) horizontal wing holding4) displayed heading or inertial track holding5) VOR axis trackingThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1, 3B – 1, 3, 4C – 1, 2, 4D – 1, 3, 4, 5

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: A

20540. An automatic ILS approach can be flown only:

A – within a range of levels of turbulence and no limit for crosswindsB – within a range of crosswinds and no limit for turbulenceC – within a range of crosswinds and levels of turbulenceD – without limits for crosswind or turbulence

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: C

20582. During a category III automatic approach, the position signals in the vertical plane under 200 ft are based on:

A – a radio altimeterB – an altimeter set to the QFEC – an altimeter set to the QNHD – an altimeter set to 1013 hPa

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: A

20598. During an automatic landing, between 50 ft AGL and touch down, the auto pilot maintains:

A – a constant flight path angle with reference to the groundB – a vertical speed depending on the GPS heightC – a constant vertical speedD – a vertical speed depending on the radio altimeter height

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: D

20646. If, in the event of a failure, the approach, flare and landing can be completed by the remaining part of the automatic system, such an automatic landing system is considered as:

A – fail operationalB – fail passiveC – fail softD – fail hard

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: A

20647. If, in the event of a failure, there is no significant out-of-trim condition or deviation of flight path or attitude but the landing is not completed automatically, such an automatic landing system is considered as:

A – fail operationalB – fail passiveC – fail safeD – fail redundant

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: B

20674. On a modern transport category aeroplane, the engagement of the automatic pilot is checked on the display of:

A – the ND (Navigation Display) of the pilot in commandB – the ND (Navigation Display)C – the ECAM (Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitoring) left screenD – the PFD (Primary Flight Display)

Ref: all

Ans: D

20683. The “airspeed hold” mode can be engaged and maintained during:

A – turns onlyB – climbs and descents onlyC – climbs, descents, and power changes onlyD – climbs, descents, turns and power changes

Ref: all

Ans: D

20757. The initiation of an automatic go-around can be:

A – at Vy +/- 5 kt onlyB – with no limit of approach airspeedsC – at 70 kt +/- 5 kt onlyD – in a range of approach airspeeds

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: D

20794. The sequence of the automatic landing comprises several phases (from final approach to touch down) actuated by:

A – the distance left before the touch down zoneB – the altimeter set to the QNHC – the radio altimeterD – the DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) of the ILS (Instrument Landing System)

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: C

24865. The AFDS will automatically disengage from the LNAV mode if:

A – LVL CHG mode is selectedB – the pre-programmed route is alteredC – a new desired altitude is selectedD – HDG SEL is selected

Ref: all

Ans: D

24869. A two axis autopilot system normally provides control about the aircraft’s:

A – pitch and roll axesB – pitch and yaw axesC – roll and yaw axesD – longitudinal and normal axes

Ref: all

Ans: A

24870. An inner loop control system is one in which:

A – auto stabilisation is provided about a single axisB – all three axes of movement in flight are sensed and the appropriate actuator is selectedC – only roll control can be achievedD – a torque limiter controls the aircraft in pitch

Ref: all

Ans: A

25231. If the Radio Altimeter fails during an auto land approach:

A – the DH flashesB – An audio alert soundsC – The DH flashes and an audio alert soundsD – The RA stops showing the height

Ref: all

Ans: D

25233. When flying level in the cruise the ___ holds height and the ___ holds the speed:

A – Autopilot, AutopilotB – Auto-throttle, Auto-throttleC – Auto-throttle, AutopilotD – Autopilot, Auto-throttle

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: D

25234. At what height during a semi-automatic landing is the auto pilot disengaged?

A – 100 ftB – 45 ftC – Decision heightD – 14 ft

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: C

25237. What is the most basic function of an auto pilot?

A – altitude holdB – heading holdC – wing levellerD – altitude and heading hold

Ref: all

Ans: C

25238. During a semi-automatic landing:

A – the A/P is disengaged at DH having followed the ILSB – the A/T flies airspeed down to approximately 30 ft and automatically disengagesC – the A/P flies the approach and flare and roll-outD – the A/T flies approach speed and disengages automatically at DH

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: A

25240. TO/GA is engaged:

A – automatically at GS captureB – automatically when an autopilot failsC – by the pilot pressing a button on or near the throttles D – by the pilot selecting flare

Ref: all

Ans: C

25245. The auto synchronisation system does which of the following?1) prevents snatching on engagement2) prevents snatching on disengagement3) cancels rudder input4) works in climb, cruise and descent

A – 1, 2B – 2, 3C – 1, 4D – 3, 4

Ref: all

Ans: C

25247. If a pilot was to carry out a roll manoeuvre, on release of the control column with the auto pilot in CWS mode, what does the auto pilot do?

A – Roll wing level and maintain heading onlyB – Maintain attitude onlyC – Maintain track and attitude onlyD – Roll wing level and maintain MCP selected roll

Ref: all

Ans: B

25248. On crossing the cone of confusion of a VOR when in VOR mode of the auto pilot what will happen to the roll channel?

A – Always coupled to the selected VOR radialB – Temporarily disconnectedC – Damped by a trim input from the lateral trim systemD – Temporarily switches to heading mode

Ref: all

Ans: D

25295. When must a 2 axis auto pilot be fitted in the aircraft?

A – VFR or IFR single pilotB – Multi-pilot aircraftC – IFR or Night Single PilotD – Aircraft over 5.7 tonnes

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: C

25373. If a Go-Around is initiated from an auto pilot coupled approach:

1) the auto throttle selects GA power as soon as the TOGA switch is pressed2) the auto pilot carries out the climb3) the auto pilot retracts flap and landing gear to reduce drag4) the pilot carries out the procedure5) the pilot cleans up (retracts flaps and raises gear)

A – 1, 2 & 4B – 1, 2 & 5C – 1, 4 & 5D – 1, 2 & 3

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: C

25378. During the Altitude Acquisition mode:

A – The A/P maintains IAS using elevator controlB – The A/T maintains TAS using powerC – The A/T maintains IAS using powerD – The A/P maintains TAS using elevator control

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: A

022-02-03 Flight Envelope Protection

No questions in this sub-chapter

022-02-04 Yaw Damper

5817. The yaw damper indicator supplies the pilot with information regarding the:

A – yaw damper action only on the groundB – rudder displacement by the rudder pedalsC – yaw damper action on the rudderD – rudder position

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: C

5832. The yaw damper, which suppresses Dutch roll:

A – controls the rudder, with Mach Number as the input signalB – controls the ailerons, with Mach Number as the input signalC – controls the rudder, with the angular rate about the vertical axis as the input signalD – controls the ailerons, with the angular rate about the vertical axis as the input signal

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: C

20808. The yaw damper affects:

A – ailerons onlyB – all control surfaces in a co-ordinated wayC – ailerons and rudderD – rudder only

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: D

20809. The yaw damper system controls:

A – the ailerons, with Mach number as the input signalB – the rudder, with the angular rate about the yaw axis as the input signalC – the rudder, with Mach number as the input signalD – the ailerons, with the angular rate about the yaw axis as the input signal

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: B

20810. The Yaw Damper system:1) counters any wrong pilot action on the rudder pedals2) counters dutch roll3) is active only when autopilot is engagedThe combination regrouping all the correct statements are:

A – 1, 2B – 1, 2, 3C – 2D – 2, 3

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: C

25236. In a yaw damper:

A – ailerons are moved in proportion to Mach No.B – ailerons are moved in proportion to rate of angular velocityC – rudder is moved in proportion to Mach No.D – rudder is moved in proportion to rate of angular velocity

Ref: AIR: all

Ans: D

022-02-05 Automatic Pitch Trim

2714. The automatic pitch trim:1) ensures the aeroplane is properly trimmed when the auto pilot is engaged2) permits the elevator to always be in neutral position with respect to

horizontal stabiliser3) ensures the aeroplane is properly trimmed when the auto pilot is disengagedThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 2, 3B – 1, 3C – 1, 2, 3D – 1, 2

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: A

5811. Which one of the following statements is true with regard to the operation of a Mach trim system:

A – It only operates above a pre-determined Mach numberB – It operates to counteract the larger than normal forward movements of the wing centre of pressure at high subsonic airspeedsC – it only operates when the autopilot is engagedD – it operates over the full aircraft speed range

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: A

5816. The automatic trim is a component of the auto pilot pitch channel. Its function is to:

A – transfer a stabilised aeroplane to the pilot during auto pilot disengagementB – reset the altitude, after engaging (the auto pilot)C – set the attitude to an instantaneous value before engaging the auto pilotD – automatically disengage the auto pilot in the case of an excessive pitch up

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: A

5885. The purpose of Auto Trim function in auto pilot is to:

A – control elevator trim tab in order to relieve elevator loadB – help Auto Pilot compensate for crosswind influenceC – tell the pilot when elevator trimming is requiredD – trim throttles to obtain smooth engine power variation

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: A

5893. The purpose of an airplane automatic trim system is to trim out the hinge moment of the:

A – elevator and rudderB – elevator, rudder and aileronsC – elevatorD – rudder

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: C

5942. When the auto pilot is engaged; the role of the automatic trim is to:

A – relieve the pressure on the control column and return the aircraft in-trim at A.P. disconnectB – relieve the A.P. servo motor and return the aircraft in-trim at A.P. disconnectC – react to altitude changes in Altitude Hold modeD – synchronise the longitudinal loop

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: B

5947. Mach Trim is a device to compensate for:

A – weight reduction resulting from fuel consumption during the cruiseB – the effects of fuel transfer between the main tanks and the tank located in the horizontal tailC – the effects of temperature variation during a climb or descent at constant MachD – backing of the aerodynamic centre at high Mach numbers by moving the elevator to nose up

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: D

5953. The purpose of the automatic trim is to:1) reduce to zero the hinge moment of the entire control surface in order to

relieve the load on the servo-actuator2) ensure the aeroplane is properly trimmed when the auto pilot is disengaged3) maintain the same stability/manoeuvrability trade off within the whole flight

envelopeThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1 and 2B – 1, 2, 3C – 1 and 3D – 2 and 3

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: B

20763. The Mach trim system allows to:

A – search for the ideal C.G location by transferring the fuel into the horizontal stabiliserB – trim the pitch-up tendency at a high Mach numberC – increase the longitudinal static stability of the aircraft by changing the horizontal stabiliser according to the Mach numberD – interlock the operation of the stick shaker at the oncoming of the high speed stall

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: C

25239. Auto-trim is fitted to an auto pilot:

A – To provide control about lateral axisB – To prevent snatching on disengaging A/PC – To prevent snatching on engaging A/PD – To correct for Mach tuck

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: B

25241. The function of auto trim is:

A – to synchronise the longitudinal loopB – to relieve forces on the auto pilot servo motor prior to hand overC – to react to altitude changes in ALT HOLD modeD – to relieve forces on the control column before hand over

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: D

25242. The Mach Trim system:

A – compensates for the rearward movement of the CP due to shockwave formationB – compensates for the forward movement of the CP due to shockwave formationC – controls the aircraft in rollD – is operational at low subsonic speeds

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: A

25244. What does the Mach trim system use to prevent “Mach Tuck”?

A – elevatorB – elevator/rudderC – rudderD – elevator/aileron/rudder

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: A

022-02-06 Thrust Computation

5888. The two main sources of information used to calculate turbo jet thrust are the:

A – fan rotation speed (or N1) or the total pressure at the high pressure compressor outletB – high pressure turbine rotation speed or the EPF (Engine Pressure Ratio)C – fan rotation speed (or N1) or the EPR (Engine Pressure Ratio)D – fan rotation speed (or N1) or the total pressure at the low pressure turbine outlet

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: C

20529. An aircraft is equipped with an auto pilot and an auto throttle. When the altitude hold mode (ALT HOLD) is active:

A – the indicated airspeed (IAS) is maintained constant by the auto pilot by means of elevatorB – the true airspeed (TAS) is maintained constant by the auto pilot by means of elevatorC – the true airspeed (TAS) is maintained constant by the auto throttle systemD – the indicated airspeed (IAS) is maintained constant by the auto throttle system

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: D

25243. What are the functions of FADEC?1) engine limitation protection2) automatic engine starting sequence3) manual engine starting sequence4) power management

A – 1, 2B – 4 onlyC – 1, 4D – 1, 2, 3, 4

Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl

Ans: D

022-02-07 Auto Thrust

2715. An aeroplane is in a steady climb. The auto throttle maintains a constant Mach number. If the total temperature remains constant, the calibrated airspeed:

A – increasesB – decreasesC – decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature, increases if higherD – remains constant

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: B

2716. The purpose of Auto Throttle is:

A – to deactivate manual throttles and transfer engine control to Auto PilotB – to synchronise engines to avoid “yawing”C – to maintain constant engine power or airplane speedD – automatic shut down of one engine at too high temperature

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: C

5819. Auto throttle engaged mode can be checked by the pilot, using:

A – primary flight displayB – thrust control computerC – position of throttlesD – navigation display

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: A

5827. The auto throttle is set to climb at a constant mach number. If the temperature does not change, what happens to the CAS?

A – IncreasesB – DecreasesC – Increases, but only if the outside air temperature decreasesD – Stays the same

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: B

5836. An aeroplane is in steady climb. The auto throttle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the total temperature remains constant, the Mach number:

A – increasesB – decreasesC – remains constant D – decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: A

5845. The automatic power control system (auto throttle) of a transport airplane has the following mode(s):1) capture an holding of speeds2) capture and holding of Mach number3) capture and holding of flight angle or attack4) capture and holding of N1 or EPR (Engine Power Ratio)5) capture and holding of flight pathsThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1, 2, 3, 5B – 1, 2, 4C – 2, 4D – 1, 4, 5

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: B

5852. Auto throttle can hold which of the following:1) IAS2) Mach No3) Altitude4) N1/EPR5) VOR capture6) Vertical profile

A – 1, 2, 3B – 1, 2, 4C – 1, 2, 6D – 1, 3, 5

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: B

5858. Auto throttle can hold1) speed2) flight path3) altitude4) Mach5) EPR/N16) Attitude

A – 1, 2, 6B – 1, 4, 5C – 1, 2, 3, 4D – 3, 4, 5

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: B

5871. An airplane is in steady descent. The auto throttle maintains a constant Mach number. If the total temperature remains constant, the calibrated airspeed:

A – increasesB – decreasesC – remains constantD – decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature, increases if above

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: A

5898. An aeroplane is in steady cruise at flight level 270. The auto throttle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed, if the total temperature increases, the Mach number:

A – decreasesB – increasesC – remains constantD – decreases if the outside temperature is higher than the standard temperature, increases if lower

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: C

5900. An airplane is in steady cruise at flight level 290. The auto throttle maintains a constant Mach number. If the total temperature increases, the calibrated airspeed:

A – increasesB – remains constantC – decreasesD – increases if the static temperature is higher than the standard temperature, decreases if lower

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: B

5914. The auto throttle system is:1) able to catch and maintain the N1 RPM2) able to catch and maintain the N2 RPM3) able to catch and maintain an airplane indicated airspeed (IAS)4) always engaged automatically at the same time as the autopilotThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1 and 3B – 2 and 3C – 1, 3 and 4D – 1 and 4

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: A

5919. At the missed approach point the TOGA switch on the throttles is depressed. Which of the following statements are correct for an auto land approach?1) Pilot selects maximum power2) Auto throttle selects GA power3) Aircraft automatically cleans up4) Auto pilot flies the GA manoeuvre5) Pilot flies the GA manoeuvre

A – 2, 5B – 1, 5C – 1, 4D – 2, 4

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: D

5923. An aeroplane is in steady cruise at flight level 270. The auto throttle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the total temperature decreases, the

Mach number:

A – increases if the outside temperature is higher than the standard temperature, decreases if lowerB – increasesC – decreasesD – remains constant

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: D

5924. The calibrated airspeed (CAS) or Mach holding mode is carried out by:1) the autopilot pitch channel in the climb mode at a constant calibrated

airspeed (CAS) or Mach number2) the auto throttles in the climb mode at a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS)

or Mach Number3) the autopilot pitch channel in the altitude or glide path holding mode4) the auto throttles in the altitude or glide path holding modeThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1 and 3B – 2 and 4C – 1 and 4D – 2 and 3

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: C

5926. Where can the pilot look to see the auto throttle engaged mode?

A – PFDB – overhead panelC – throttle control panelD – EICAS

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: A

5943. An aeroplane is in steady descent. The auto throttle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the total temperature remains constant, the Mach number.

A – increasesB – decreasesC – remains constantD – increases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature, decreases if higher

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: B

5949. An airplane is in steady cruise at flight level 290. The auto throttle maintains a constant Mach number. If the total temperature decreases, the calibrated airspeed:

A – decreases if the outside temperature is lower than the standard temperature, increases if higherB – increasesC – decreasesD – remains constant

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: D

5063. In order to know in which mode the auto throttles are engaged, the crew will check the:

A – SFD (secondary flight display)B – PFD (primary flight display)C – TMD (thrust mode display)D – MCP (mode control panel)

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: B

20600. During the ground run take-off phase, the auto-throttles allow to:

A – hold IASB – hold N1C – maintain V2 under 1,500 ftD – hold and maintain the Mach number

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: B

20699. The auto throttles enables to hold:1) a true airspeed2) a Mach number3) an indicated airspeed4) a N1 thrustThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1, 2, 3B – 1, 2, 3, 4C – 2, 3, 4D – 1, 2, 4

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: C

25235. Where can the pilot look to see the thrust limit mode?

A – PFDB – Overhead panelC – Throttle control panelD – Primary EICAS

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: D

022-03 WARNING AND RECORDING EQUIPMENT

022-03-01 Warning general5974. Alarms are standardised and follow a code of colours. Those requiring action

but not immediately, are signalled by the colour:

A – redB – amberC – greenD – flashing red

Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl: HELI: atpl, cpl

Ans: B

20563. Concerning the flight warning system (FWS), advisory messages may be:

A – any colour except amberB – redC – any colour except greenD – any colour except red, and preferably not amber


Ans: D

20564. Concerning the flight warning system (FWS), caution messages:

A – are the highest priority alert messagesB – are the next highest priority alert messages after warning messagesC – are inhibited by advisory messagesD – indicate that immediate recognition and corrective or compensatory action by the crew is required


Ans: B

20565. Concerning the flight warning system (FWS), if aural signals are provided, the signal for:

A – an advisory should always take priority over that for a cautionB – a caution should always take priority over that for a warningC – a warning should always take priority over that for a cautionD – an advisory should always take priority over that for a warning


Ans: C20566. Concerning the flight warning system (FWS), warning messages:

A – are next highest priority alert messages after warning messagesB – are highest priority alert messagesC – are inhibited by caution messagesD – indicate the subsequent crew action may be required


Ans: B

20629. If crew awareness is required and subsequent crew action may be required, the flight warning system (FWS) generates:

A – an advisory messageB – a warning messageC – a caution messageD – a call message


Ans: A

20630. If immediate crew awareness is required and subsequent crew action will be required, the flight warning system (FWS) generates:

A – an urgency messageB – a warning messageC – an advisory messageD – a caution message


Ans: D

20631. If immediate recognition and corrective or compensatory action by the crew is required, the flight warning system (FWS) generates:

A – a caution messageB – a warning messageC – an advisory messageD – a distress message


Ans: B

20642. If warning, caution, or advisory lights are installed in the cockpit, they must, unless otherwise approved by the Authority, be amber for:

A – warning lightsB – caution lightsC – advisory lightsD – other urgency messages


Ans: B

20643. If warning, caution, or advisory lights are installed in the cockpit, they must, unless otherwise approved by the Authority, be green, for:

A – safe operation lightsB – warning lightsC – caution lightsD – advisory lights


Ans: A

20644. If warning, caution, or advisory lights are installed in the cockpit, they must, unless otherwise approved by the Authority, be red for:

A – advisory lightsB – caution lightsC – warning lightsD – other distress messages


Ans: C

20670. Lights indicating a hazard which may require immediate corrective action must be:

A – redB – amberC – yellowD – magenta


Ans: A

20671. Lights indicating the possible need for future corrective action must be:

A – redB – amberC – red and white stripedD – magenta


Ans: B

20715. The flight warning system (FWS) generates a caution message if:

A – crew awareness is required and corrective or compensatory action by the crew is immediately requiredB – immediate recognition and corrective or compensatory action by the crew is requiredC – crew awareness is required and subsequent crew action may be requiredD – immediate crew awareness is required and subsequent crew action will be required


Ans: D

20716. The flight warning system (FWS) generates a caution message if:

A – immediate crew awareness is required and subsequent crew action will be requiredB – immediate recognition and corrective or compensatory action by the crew is requiredC – crew awareness is required and subsequent crew action may be requiredD – immediate crew awareness is required and corrective or compensatory action by the crew may be required


Ans: B

20717. The flight warning system (FWS) generates an advisory message if:

A – immediate crew awareness is required and subsequent crew action will be requiredB – immediate recognition and corrective or compensatory action by the crew is requiredC – crew awareness is required and subsequent crew action may be requiredD – crew awareness is required and corrective or compensatory action by the crew is required


Ans: C

20718. The flight warning system (FWS):1) draws the attention of the crew to the existence of an abnormal condition2) gives indications to the crew to identify an abnormal condition3) transmits automatically to ATC urgency messages4) can not generate a false warning5) prioritises warnings over alertsThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 2, 4, 5B – 1, 2, 4C – 1, 4D – 1, 2, 5


Ans: D

20719. The flight warning system (FWS):

1) increases the situation awareness of the crew2) transmits automatically to ATC distress messages3) gives suitable indications to the crew of the action necessary to avoid

impending danger4) prioritises warnings over alerts5) prioritises alerts over warnings


A – 1, 3, 4B – 1, 3, 5C – 2, 3, 4, 5D – 1, 4, 5


Ans: A

022-03-02 Altitude Alert System

5982. A transport airplane has to be equipped with an altitude warning device. This system will warn the crew about:1) getting close to the pre-selected altitude, during both climb and descent2) getting close to the pre-selected altitude, during climb only3) the loss of altitude during take-off or missed approach4) a wrong landing configuration5) a variation higher or lower than a pre-selected altitudeThe combination regrouping the correct statements is:

A – 2B – 3, 4C – 1, 5D – 1, 3, 4

Ref: AIR: atpl: HELI: atpl, cpl

Ans: C

5984. An altitude alerting system must be capable of alerting the pilot about:1) Approaching selected altitude2) Excessive deviation from selected altitude3) Excessive vertical speed4) Excessive terrain closure5) Abnormal gear/flap combinationA – 1, 2B – 1, 2, 3, 4C – 1, 2, 3, 4, 5D – 1, 2, 3


Ans: A

6037. An “altitude warning system” must at least warn the crew:1) when approaching the pre-selected altitude2) when the airplane is approaching the ground too fast3) in case of a given deviation above or below the pre-selected altitude (at least

by an aural warning)4) in case of excessive vertical speed5) when approaching the ground with the gear retractedThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 2, 4, 5B – 1, 2, 3, 4, 5C – 1, 3D – 1, 3, 4


Ans: C

6050. The purpose of the altitude alert system is to generate a visual and aural warning to the pilot when the:

A – airplane altitude differs from a selected altitudeB – airplane altitude is equal to the decision altitudeC – proximity to the ground becomes dangerousD – altimeter setting differs from the standard setting above the transition altitude


Ans: A

20693. The altitude alerting system:

A – alerts the flight crew upon approaching a pre-selected altitudeB – generates a signal once the aircraft is steady at the pre-selected altitudeC – alerts the flight crew in case of ground proximityD – alerts the flight crew in case of an auto pilot disengagement


Ans: A

20746. The functions of the altitude alerting system is to alert the flight crew:1) upon approaching a pre-selected altitude2) upon approaching a pre-selected altitude, during climb only3) of a loss of altitude during take-off or missed approach4) of an excessive vertical speed5) of an excessive deviation from selected altitudeThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 3, 4B – 2, 5C – 1, 5D – 1, 3, 4


Ans: C

022-03-03 Ground Proximity Warning System

5975. A ground proximity warning system (GPWS), when mandatorily installed on board an aircraft, must in all cases generate:

A – a sound and visual alarmB – a sound alarm or a visual alarmC – at least one sound alarm to which a visual alarm can be addedD – a visual alarm to which a sound alarm can be


Ans: C

5980. The inputs to the GPS (Ground Proximity Warning System), are:1) Air Data Computer (Mach number and Vertical Speed)2) Radio Altimeter3) NAV/ILS (Glide Slope)4) NAV/VOR5) Flap (position)6) Angle of Attack7) Landing Gear (position)The combination of correct statement is:

A – 1, 2, 3, 5, 7B – 2, 3, 4, 5, 7C – 1, 2, 5, 6, 7D – 1, 3, 5, 6, 7


Ans: A

5985. If the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) activates, and alerts the pilot with an aural warning “DON’T SINK” (two times), it is because:

A – during take-off or missed approach manoeuvre, the aircraft has started to lose altitudeB – the aircraft experiences an unexpected proximity to the terrain, with landing gear retractedC – at too low altitude, the aircraft has an excessive rate of descentD – the aircraft experiences an unexpected proximity to terrain, without landing flap selected


Ans: A

5990. The Ground Proximity Warning System 9GPWS) is a system working according to a height span ranging from:

A – the ground to 1000 ftB – 50 ft to 2500 ftC – 30 ft to 5000 ftD – the ground to 500 ft


Ans: B

5994. The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) is active for a height range from:

A – 0 ft to 2500 ft measured by the radio altimeterB – 50 ft to 2500 ft measured by the radio altimeterC – 0 ft to 5000 ft measured by the radio altimeterD – 50 ft to 5000 ft measured by the radio altimeter


Ans: B

5997. The GPWS calculator receives the following signals:1) vertical speed2) radio altimeter height3) pressure altitude4) glide path deviation5) gear and flaps position6) angle of attackThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 2, 3, 4, 6B – 1, 3, 4, 5, 6C – 1, 2, 5, 6D – 1, 2, 4, 5


Ans: D

5999. Which of the following are valid GPWS modes?1) Excessive sink rate2) Altitude loss after T/O or go-around3) Excessive Glideslope deviation4) High climb rate5) Flaps in incorrect position6) High altitude descent7) Stall warning

A – All 7B – 1, 2, 3, 5C – 1, 2, 3D – 1, 3, 5, 7


Ans: B

6023. The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) generates the following sound signal or signals when the aircraft is sinking after a take-off or a go-around:

A – DON’T SINK always followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL UPB – WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP repetitive onlyC – DON’T SINK repetitive onlyD – DON’T SINK followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP if the sink rate overshoots a second level


Ans: C

6025. The requirement to carry a GPWS (Ground proximity Warning System) concerns aeroplanes which are, depending on their age, weight and passenger capacity:1) turbo prop powered2) piston powered3) jet poweredThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 3B – 1C – 1, 2, 3D – 1, 3


Ans: D

6035. The GPWS calculator is able to operate in the following modes:1) excessive descent rate2) excessive rate of terrain closure3) excessive angle of attack4) too high descent attitude5) loss of altitude after take-off6) abnormal gear/flaps configuration7) excessive glide path deviationThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1, 2, 5, 6, 7B – 1, 2, 4, 6, 7C – 3, 4, 5, 6D – 2, 3, 5, 7


Ans: A

6043. The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) releases a warning in the following cases:1) excessive rate of descent2) excessive ground proximity rate3) loss of altitude after take-off or go-around4) abnormal gear/flaps configuration5) excessive deviation under the glide path6) abnormal air brakes configurationThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6B – 2, 4, 5, 6C – 1, 2, 3, 4, 5D – 3, 4, 5, 6


Ans: C

6049. If an aircraft is flying (with flaps and landing gear retracted) in proximity to terrain and its GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) get activated, because it is detecting that the aeroplane has an excessive rate of descent, the system provides the following aural warning signals:

A - … DON’T SINK, DON’T SINK ,,,B - … SINK RATE, SINK RATE… followed by … WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP … (twice0C - … TERRAIN, TERRAIN … followed by …WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP … (twice)D - … TOO LOW, TERRAIN … (twice) followed by … TOO LOW GEAR … (twice)


Ans: B

6057. A Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) generates automatically a distinct warning to the flight crew with aural and/or light warning signals in the

case of:1) an excessive rate of descent with respect to terrain2) a dangerous proximity to the ground3) a loss of altitude following take-off or go-around4) an abnormal flight attitude5) an abnormal landing configuration6) an abnormal deviation below ILS glide slopeThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1, 2 and 4B – 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5C – 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6D – 3, 4, 5 and 6


Ans: C

6074. The operation of the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) is governed by laws taking the aircraft height into account as well as:1) the descent rate2) the climb rate3) the aircraft configuration4) the selected engine rpmThe combination of correct statements is:

A – 1, 3B – 1, 2, 3C – 1, 3, 4D – 1, 2, 4


Ans: A

20747. The GPWS CPU (Central Processing Unit) is able to detect:1) excessive descent rate2) excessive rate of terrain closure3) excessive angle of attack4) too high descent attitude5) loss of altitude after take-off6) abnormal gear/flaps configuration7) excessive bank angleThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 2, 3, 5, 7B – 1, 2, 4, 6, 7C – 3, 4, 5, 6D – 1, 2, 5, 6, 7


Ans: D

20748. The GPWS warns the crew in case of:1) an altitude at a lower level than the one shown in the flight plan entered in

the FMS2) a dangerous ground proximity3) a loss of altitude during take-off or missed approach 4) a wrong landing configuration5) excessive glide path deviationThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 2, 3, 4, 5B – 2C – 1, 3, 4D – 2, 5


Ans: A

20760. The inputs to the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) are:1) Air Data Computer – (Mach Number and Vertical Speed)2) Radio Altimeter3) NAV/ILS (Glide Slope)4) NAV/VOR5) Flap (position)6) Weight of the aircraft7) Landing Gear (position)The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 2, 5, 6B – 1, 2, 3, 5, 7C – 2, 4, 5, 6D – 1, 4, 7


Ans: B

20837. When required, the ground proximity warning system (GPWS) must automatically provide distinctive warning to the flight crew of:1) impeding stall2) excessive sink rate3) altitude loss after take-off or go-around4) incorrect landing configuration5) excessive rate of terrain closure6) excessive bank angleThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1, 4, 5, 6B – 2, 3, 4, 5, 6C – 1, 2, 4, 5D – 3, 5, 6


Ans: B

022-03-04 Traffic Collision Avoidance System TCAS II

2718. TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) uses for its operation:

A – both the replies from the transponders of other aircraft and the ground based radar echoesB – the echoes of collision avoidance radar system especially installed on

boardC – the echoes from the ground air traffic control radar systemD – the replies from the transponders of other aircraft


Ans: D

2719. On the display of a TCAS 2 (Traffic alert and Collision Avoidance System), the traffic being the cause of a resolution advisory (RA) is represented by:

A – a white or cyan empty lozengeB – a red full squareC – an amber solid circleD – a white or cyan solid lozenge


Ans: B

5978. In the event of a conflict, the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) will give information such as:

A – climb/descentB – turn left/turn rightC – too low terrainD – glide slope


Ans: A

5991. (Refer to figure 022-17)On the following display, the ___ is indicated by a red square

A – RA intruderB – TA intruderC – proximate trafficD – other traffic


Ans: A5992. What is the correct response to a TCAS II RA?

A – Immediately follow the climb or descent commandsB – Request permission to manoeuvre from ATCC – Follow ATC instructions as these override TCAS RA’sD – Turn 90o and immediately follow the climb or descent commands


Ans: A

5993. (Refer to figure 022-16)Regarding the RA on the following EADI, the intruder is:

A – there is no RA at this timeB – below your aircraft and descending at 1100 feet per minute or moreC – 1100 ft above your aircraft and climbing at 500 feet per minute or moreD – 300 feet above your aircraft and descending at 500 ft/min or more


Ans: D

6003. The TCAS II data display devices can be in the form of:1) a specific dedicated screen2) a screen combined with the weather radar3) a variometer represented on a liquid crystal screen which allows the display

of Traffic Advisory (TA) and Resolution Advisory (RA)4) an EFIS (Electronic Flight Instrument System) screenThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1, 2 and 3B – 1, 2, 3 and 4C – 3 and 4D – 1 and 3


Ans: B

6006. A “TCAS II” (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides:

A – the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre within both the vertical and horizontal planesB – a simply intruding airplane proximity warningC – the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre within the vertical plane onlyD – the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre within the horizontal plane only


Ans: C

6011. A “close traffic advisory” is displayed on the display device of the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by:

A – a blue or white empty lozengeB – an orange full circleC – a blue or white full lozengeD – a red full square


Ans: B

6012. (Refer to figure 022-14)The relative altitude of the TA intruder is ___ and the TA intruder is __

A – 1100 ft above your airplane, climbing at a vertical speed of at least 1000 ft/minB – 500 ft below your airplane, descending at a vertical speed of at least 500 ft/minC – 1100 ft above your airplane, climbing at a vertical speed of at least 500 ft/minD – above your airplane, climbing at a vertical speed of 1100 ft/min


Ans: C

6020. A resolution advisory is represented on the display system of the TCAS 2 by a:

A – blue or white full lozengeB – blue or white empty lozengeC – red full circleD – red full square


Ans: D

6024. The TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides:1) traffic information (TA: Traffic Advisory)2) horizontal resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)3) vertical resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)4) ground proximity warningThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1, 2, 3, 4B – 1, 2C – 1, 2, 3D – 1, 3


Ans: D

6027. (Refer to figure 022-16)On the following display, the ___ is indicated by a white empty diamond.

A – RA intruderB – other intruderC – TA intruderD – proximate intruder


Ans: B

6033. When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a transponder without altitude reporting capability, the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) issues a:

A – “traffic advisory” and vertical “resolution advisory”B – “traffic advisory” onlyC – “ traffic advisory” and horizontal “resolution advisory”D – “traffic advisory”, vertical and horizontal “resolution advisory”


Ans: B

6034. The TCAS 1 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides:1) traffic information2) horizontal resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)3) Vertical resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)4) Ground proximity warningThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1B – 1, 2C – 1, 2, 3D – 1, 2, 3, 4


Ans: A

6044. An “intruding traffic advisory” is represented on the display system of the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by displaying:

A – a red full squareB – a blue or white empty lozengeC – a blue or white full lozengeD – a yellow full circle


Ans: D

6051. (Refer to figure 022-18)On the following display, the ___ is indicated by a white filled diamond

A – RA intruderB – TA intruderC – other intruderD – proximate intruder


Ans: D

6055. The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) computer receives information:1) about the pressure altitude through the mode S transponder2) from the radio-altimeter3) specific to the airplane configuration4) from the inertial unitsThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1, 2, 3, 4B – 1, 2, 3C – 1, 2, 4D – 1, 2


Ans: B

6060. When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a serviceable mode C transponder, the TCAS II (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) generates a:

A – “traffic advisory” and horizontal “resolution advisory”B – “traffic advisory” and vertical “resolution advisory”C – “traffic advisory” onlyD – “traffic advisory”, vertical and horizontal “resolution advisory”


Ans: B

6061. (Refer to figure 022-14)On the following display, the ___ is indicated by a yellow circle

A – RA intruderB – TA intruderC – proximate intruderD – other intruder


Ans: B

6068. The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) is a proximity alarm system which detects a “traffic” when the conflicting traffic is equipped with a:

A – SELCAL systemB – serviceable weather radarC – serviceable SSR transponderD – DME system


Ans: C

6073. The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) gives avoidance resolutions:

A – only in the horizontal planeB – in horizontal and vertical planesC – only in the vertical planeD – based on speed control


Ans: C

6078. Concerning the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System):

A – In one of the system modes, the warning: “TOO LOW TERRAIN” is generatedB – In one of the system modes, the warning: “PULL UP” is generatedC – No protection is available against aircraft not equipped with a serviceable SSR transponderD – Resolution Advisory (RA) must not be followed without obtaining a clearance from ATC


Ans: C

6080. On a TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) the preventive “resolution advisory” (RA) is a “resolution advisory”:

A – asking the pilot to modify the heading of his aircraftB – asking the pilot to modify the speed of his aircraftC – asking the pilot to modify effectively the vertical speed of his aircraftD – that advises the pilot to avoid certain deviations from the current vertical rate but does not require any change to be made to that rate


Ans: D

6081. The principle of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems) is based on the use of:

A – FMS (Flight Management System)B – transponders fitted in the aircraftC – air traffic control radar systemsD – airborne weather radar system


Ans: B

6083. On a TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System), a corrective “resolution advisory” (RA) is a “resolution advisory”:

A – which does not require any action from the pilot but on the contrary asks him not to modify his current vertical speed rateB – asking the pilot to modify the heading of his aircraftC – asking the pilot to modify the speed of his aircraftD – asking the pilot to modify effectively the vertical speed of his aircraft


Ans: D

12034. The use of TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) for avoiding an aircraft in flight is now general. TCAS uses for its operation:

A – both the replies from the transponders of other aircraft and the ground based radar echoesB – the replies from the transponders of other aircraftC – the echoes from the ground air traffic control radar systemD – the echoes of collision avoidance radar system especially installed on board


Ans: B

20518. A TCAS II generates a resolution advisory (RA) when:

A – the intruder becomes “other traffic”B – a potential collision threat existsC – the intruder becomes “proximate traffic”D – a serious collision threat exists


Ans: D

20519. A TCAS II generates a traffic advisory (TA) when:

A – the intruder becomes “other traffic”B – a potential collision threat existsC – the intruder becomes a “proximate traffic”D – a serious collision threat exists


Ans: D

20572. Concerning the TCAS II:1) Neither advisory nor traffic display is provided for aircraft that do not have

an operating transponder2) TCAS 2 operation is independent of ground based air traffic control3) TCAS 2 operates on the secondary radar principleThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1, 2B – 1, 2, 3C – 1, 3D – 2, 3


Ans: B

20669. In the event of a conflict, the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision alert and Avoidance System) presents warnings to the crew such as:

A – “Too low terrain”B – “Turn left” or “Turn right”C – “Climb” or “Descent”D – “Glide Slope”


Ans: C

20675. On a TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System), a preventative resolution advisory:

A – asks the pilot to modify effectively the vertical speed of his aircraftB – advises the pilot to keep the vertical speed within given limitsC – asks the pilot to modify the heading of his aircraftD – asks the pilot to modify the speed of his aircraft


Ans: B

20676. On the display of a TCAS 2 (Traffic alert and Collision Avoidance System), a traffic advisory (TA) is represented by:

A – an amber solid circleB – a white or cyan empty lozengeC – a white or cyan solid lozengeD – an amber solid circle


Ans: A

20677. On the display of a TCAS II (Traffic alert and Collision Avoidance System), a proximate traffic is represented by:

A – a red full squareB – a white or cyan empty lozengeC – a white or cyan solid lozengeD – an amber solid circle


Ans: C

20764. The main function(s) of a TCAS is to:1) alert the crew to ground proximity2) alert the crew to possible conflicting traffic3) provide terrain alerting and display4) automatically resolve conflict when auto pilot engagedThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 2B – 2, 4C – 1, 3D – 1, 2, 3, 4


Ans: A

20799. The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) computer receives information:1) about the aeroplane true airspeed2) about the aeroplane configuration3) about the pressure altitude through the mode C transponder4) from the radio altimeterThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1, 2, 3B – 2, 3, 4C – 1, 2, 4D – 1, 3, 4


Ans: B

20800. The TCAS II has inputs from the radio altimeter in order to:

A – determine the relative height of the intruderB – stop the TCAS operation below 2500 AGLC – gradually inhibit the resolution advisories (RAs) when getting closer to the groundD – to alert the crew from a dangerous proximity of the ground


Ans: C

20803. The upper antenna of the TCAS II is:

A – omni directional because it is merged with the transponder antennaB – directional because it is merged with the transponder antennaC – omni directional to improve the surveillance of intrudersD – directional to improve the surveillance of intruders


Ans: D

20839. When the TCAS 2 (Traffic alert and Collision Avoidance System) generates a Resolution Advisory (RA), the associated intruder appears on TCAS display as a :

A – solid amber circleB – solid red squareC – solid red circleD – solid amber square


Ans: B

20849. Your aircraft and an intruding aircraft both are TCAS (Traffic alert and Collision Avoidance System) equipped. Your TCAS determines the bearing of the intruding aircraft by:

A – comparing the GPS positions of the two aircraftB – using the bearing function of the on-board weather radarC – using a specific directional antennaD – measuring the time lapse between the transmission of an interrogation signal and the reception of a reply signal


Ans: C

20850. Your aircraft and an intruding aircraft both are TCAS 2 (Traffic alert and Collision Avoidance System) equipped. Your TCAS determines the range of the intruding aircraft by:

A – measuring the time lapse between the transmission of an interrogation signal and the reception of a reply signal from the ground stationB – measuring the time lapse between the transmission of an interrogation signal and the reception of a reply signal from the transponder of the intruderC – using the range function of the on-board weather radarD – comparing the GPS positions of the two aircraft


Ans: B

20851. Your aircraft and an intruding aircraft both are TCAS II equipped. If the transponder of the intruder is switched off or unserviceable:

A – the intruding aircraft is invisible to your TCAS equipmentB – the intruding aircraft remains visible to your TCAS equipment, but only TAs (traffic advisories) can be generatedC – the intruding aircraft remains visible to your TCAS equipment, but only RAs (resolution advisories) can be generatedD – the information available to your TCAS equipment is two dimensional only


Ans: A

20852. Your aircraft and an intruding traffic are both TCAS II equipped. Your TCAS can generate:

A – traffic advisories co-ordinated with the ATC instructionsB – co-ordinated traffic advisoriesC – resolution advisories co-ordinated with the ATC instructionsD – co-ordinated and complementary resolution advisories


Ans: D

20853. Your aircraft and an intruding traffic are both TCAS II equipped. Your TCAS:

A – can generate co-ordinated resolution advisoriesB – can generate co-ordinated resolution advisories by interrogating the radar ground stationC – can generate co-ordinated resolution advisories by activating the on-board radar systemD – cannot generate co-ordinated resolution advisories


Ans: A

20854. Your aircraft and an intruding traffic are both TCAS II equipped. The information available to your TCAS equipment is:

A – two dimensional only: avoidance manoeuvres between both aircraft cannot be co-ordinatedB – three dimensional: avoidance manoeuvres between both aircraft cannot be co-ordinatedC – two dimensional: your TCAS can generate both TAs (Traffic Advisories) and RAs (Resolution Advisories)D – three dimensional: your TCAS can generate both TAs (Traffic Advisories) and RAs (Resolution Advisories)


Ans: D

20855. Your aircraft and an intruding traffic both are TCAS II equipped. Your TCAS determines the relative height of the intruding aircraft by:

A – comparing the altitudes of the two aircraftB – using the range function of the on board weather radarC – by interrogating the ATC ground stationD – comparing the GPS heights of the two aircraft


Ans: A

20856. Your aircraft is TCAS II equipped. To be able to generate a resolution advisory (RA), the intruder must be at least equipped with:

A – a transponder mode SB – a TCAS IIC – a transponder mode AD – a transponder mode C


Ans: D

20857. Your aircraft is TCAS II equipped. To be able to generate a traffic advisory (TA), the intruder must be at least equipped with:

A – a transponder mode SB – a TCAS IIC – a transponder mode CD – a transponder mode A


Ans: D

20858. Your aircraft is TCAS II equipped; an intruding traffic only has a mode A transponder.The information available to your TCAS equipment is:

A – two dimensional only: your TCAS cannot generate RAs (Resolution Advisories)B – two dimensional only: your TCAS cannot generate TAs (Traffic Advisories)C – three dimensional: your TCAS can generate both TAs (Traffic Advisories) and RAs (Resolution Advisories)D – three dimensional; your TCAS cannot generate TAs (Traffic Advisories)


Ans: A

20859. Your aircraft is TCAS II equipped; an intruding traffic only has a mode C transponder. The information available to your TCAS equipment is:

A – three dimensional; your TCAS cannot generate RAs (Resolution Advisories)B – three dimensional; your TCAS can generate both TAs (Traffic Advisories)

and RAs (Resolution Advisories)C – two dimensional only; your TCAS cannot generate TAs (Traffic Advisories)D – two dimensional only; your TCAS cannot generate RAs (Resolution Advisories)


Ans: B

25291. TCAS interprets intruders with no Mode C information as:

A – TA onlyB – RA in the horizontal axisC – RA in the vertical axisD – RA in the horizontal and vertical axis


Ans: A

25376. On a TCAS II a RA traffic is shown as:

A – Hollow white or cyan diamondB – Solid red squareC – Solid white or cyan diamondD – Red solid circle


Ans: B

25377. Which is a valid TCAS command?

A – VERTICAL SPEED, VERTICAL SPEEDB – LEFT, LEFTC – RIGHT, RIGHTD – DESCEND, DESCEND


Ans: D

022-03-05 Overspeed Warning

12026. A VMO-MMO warning device consists of an alarm connected to:

A – a barometric aneroid capsule and an airspeed sensor subjected to dynamic pressureB – a barometric aneroid capsule and an airspeed sensor subjected to static pressureC – a barometric aneroid capsule subjected to static pressure and an airspeed sensor subjected to a dynamic pressureD – a barometric aneroid capsule subjected to dynamic pressure and an airspeed sensor subjected to a static pressure

Ref: AIR: atpl

Ans: C

20759. The input(s) of a VMO/MMO warning system is (are):

A – static pressure onlyB – static pressure and total pressureC – static pressure and aircraft configurationD – static pressure and SAT


Ans: A

20838. When the flight warning system (FWS) identifies an overspeed condition (airspeed exceeding VMO/MMO), it generates:

A – a call messageB – a caution messageC – an advisory messageD – a warning message


Ans: D

022-03-06 Stall Warning System

5996. The calculator combined with the stick shaker system of a modern transport airplane receives information about the:1) angle of attack2) engine R.P.M.3) configuration4) pitch and bank attitude5) side slipThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1, 2, 3 and 4B – 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5C – 1 and 5D – 1 and 3

Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl

Ans: D

6019. The main input data to the Stall Warning Annunciator System are:1) Mach Meter Indication2) Angle of Attack3) Indicate Airspeed (IAS)4) Aircraft configuration (Flaps/Slats)The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1, 2, 3 and 4B – 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5C – 1 and 5D – 1 and 3

Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl

Ans: A

6022. A stall warning system is based on a measure of:

A – attitudeB – airspeedC – aerodynamic incidenceD – groundspeed

Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl

Ans: C

6032. The angle of attack transmitters placed laterally on the forward part of the fuselage supply an electrical signal indicating:1) the angular position of a wind vane2) a differential pressure in a probe, depending on the variation of the angle of

attack3) a differential pressure in a probe, depending on the variation of the speedThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 2, 3B – 1, 2, 3C – 1, 2D – 1, 3

Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl

Ans: C

6040. The stick shaker calculator receives the following informations:1) mass of the airplane2) angle of attack3) wing flap deflection4) position of the landing gear5) total air temperature6) pressure altitudeThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 2, 3, 5B – 2, 3C – 1, 2, 3, 4D – 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl

Ans: B

6059. The oncoming stall of a large transport airplane appears in the form of:

A – control stick vibrations simulating natural buffetingB – an orange light on the warning displayC – a natural buffeting which occurs prior to the simulated buffetingD – a bell type warning

Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl

Ans: A

6067. In some configurations, modern aircraft do not respect the regulatory margins between stall and natural buffet. The warning system supplies the corresponding alarm. The required margin related to the stall speed is:

A – 7%B – 5%C – 10%D – 3%

Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl

Ans: A

6077. The stall warning system of a large transport airplane includes:1) an angle of attack sensor2) a computer3) a transmitter originating from the anemometer4) an independent pitot probe5) a transmitter of the flap/slat position indicating systemThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1, 2, 4, 5B – 1, 2, 5C – 2, 3, 4D – 1, 3, 4, 5

Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl

Ans: B

6084. The angle of attack transmitter provides an electric signal varying with:1) the angular position of a wind vane2) the deviation between the airplane flight attitude and the path calculated by

the inertial unit3) a probe differential pressure depending on the variation of the angle of

attackThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1 onlyB – 1 and 2C – 1 and 3D – 2 and 3

Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl

Ans: C

12039. The stall warning system receives information about the:1) airplane angle of attack2) airplane speed3) airplane bank angle4) airplane configuration5) load factor on the airplaneThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1, 2, 3, 4, 5B – 2, 3, 4, 5C – 1, 3, 5D – 1, 4

Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl

Ans: D

20517. A stall warning system is based on measuring the:

A – attitudeB – TASC – angle of attackD – groundspeed

Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl

Ans: C

20539. An angle of attack sensor may consist of:1) an inertial system computing the difference between flight path and flight

attitude2) a conical slotted probe which positions itself to determine the angle of attack3) a vane detector which positionsThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1, 3B – 1, 2, 3C – 1, 2D – 2, 3

Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl

Ans: D

20661. In case of impending stall, the flight warning system (FWS) generates:

A – a warning messageB – a caution messageC – an advisory messageD – an urgency message

Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl

Ans: A

20694. The angle of attack transmitter placed laterally on the forward part of the fuselage supplies an electrical signal which can indicate the angular position of:1) a specific slaved pitot probe2) a vane detector3) a conical slotted probeThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1, 3B – 1, 2, 3C – 1, 2D – 2, 3

Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl

Ans: D

022-03-07 Flight Data Recorder

6007. The flight data recorder must start data recording automatically:

A – before the airplane is able to move by under its own powerB – when taking-offC – when the landing gear is retractedD – when lining up


Ans: A

6028. The flight data recorder must automatically stop data recording when the:

A – main gear shock strut compresses when touching the runwayB – airplane cannot any longer move by its own powerC – landing gear is extended and lockedD – airplane clears the runway


Ans: B

6039. Except for airplanes under 5.7t airworthiness certificate of which is subsequent to 31 March 1998, a flight data recording system must be able to store the recorded data for a minimum of the last:

A – 25 hoursB – 10 hoursC – 30 minutesD – 60 minutes


Ans: A

6041. In accordance with (ICAO) Annex 6 part 1, the flight data recorder is to be located in the aircraft:

A – as near to the landing gear as practicableB – as far forward as practicableC – as far to the rear as practicableD – at the right or left wing tip


Ans: C

6079. Flight recorder duration must be such that flight data, cockpit voice and sound warnings may respectively be recorded during at least:

A – 20 hours for flight data, 15 minutes for cockpit voices and warning hornsB – 48 hours for flight data, 60 minutes for cockpit voices and warning hornsC – 25 hours for flight data, 30 minutes for cockpit voices and warning hornsD – 24 hours for flight data, 60 minutes for cockpit voices and warnings horns


Ans: C

022-03-08 Cockpit Voice Recorder

5977. A cockpit voice recorder (CVR) will record:

1) the information exchanged by the cabin crew2) the conversations between the crew members and voice communications

transmitted from or received on the flight deck by radio3) the announcements made via the public address even if it has not been

selected4) the conversations and alarms audible in the cockpit5) the captain conversations only


A – 1, 5B – 3, 4C – 1, 2D – 2, 4


Ans: D

6001. According to the JAR-OPS regulations, the Cockpit Voice Recorder of a 50 seat multi-engined aircraft having been granted the airworthiness certificate after 1st

April 1998 will record:1) the radio telephonic communications transmitted or received by the cockpit

crew2) the audio environment of the cockpit3) the cabin attendants communications in the cabin via the interphone4) the flight crew members communications in the cockpit via the interphone5) the flight crew members communications in the cockpit via the public

address system6) the audio signals identifying the navigation or approach aidsThe combination regrouping the correct statements is:

A – 1, 2, 4, 5, 6B – 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6C – 1D – 1, 3, 4, 5


Ans: A

6016. According to the JAR-OPS regulations, the Cockpit Voice Recorder of a 50 seat multi-engined aircraft, having been granted an airworthiness certificate after 1st April 1998, shall start recording:

A – From the first radio contact with Air Traffic Control until radio shutdown after the flightB – Automatically when the wheels leave the ground until the moment when the wheels touch the ground againC – Automatically prior to the aircraft moving under its own power until flight completion when the aircraft is no longer able to move under its own powerD – When the pilot selects the “CVR: ON” during engine start until the pilot selects the “CVR”: OFF” during the engine shut down


Ans: C

6070. The voice recorder records on four different channels the following information:1) aural warnings2) radio communications3) conversations between the crew members through the cockpit interphone4) announcements to the passengersThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1, 3B – 1, 2, 3, 4C – 1, 4D – 1, 2, 3


Ans: B

6075. The CVR (Cockpit Voice Recorder) includes:1) a microphone2) a recorder in compliance with the shock and fire resistance standards3) an independent battery4) a flight data recorderThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1, 2, 3B – 1, 3C – 1, 2D – 1, 2, 4


Ans: C

20175. The flight data recorders must preserve the conversation and aural warnings of the last:

A – 48 hours of operationB – 30 minutes of operationC – 25 hours of operationD – flight


Ans: B

20650. In a free turbine powered helicopter with an indicator showing both rotor and free turbine speeds, the higher red line on the indicator shows the maximum

A – continuous rotor speedB – rotor speedC – rotor speed under powerD – transitional rotor speed under power

Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl

Ans: B

022-03-09 Rotors and engine over-underspeed warning

20651. In a free turbine powered helicopter with an indicator showing both rotor and free turbine speeds, the lower red line on the indicator shows the minimum:

A – transitional rotor speed under powerB – continuous rotor speedC – rotor speed under powerD – rotor speed


Ans: D

20652. In a free turbine powered helicopter, an overspeed of the free turbine:

A – may cause catastrophic mechanical failureB – causes the red “overspeed” light to illuminateC – will have serious consequences for the integrity of the main rotorD – has no consequence, because the overspeeds under one second are authorised


Ans: A

20653. In a free turbine powered helicopter, in the event of a free turbine overspeed:

A – the fuel supply of the corresponding engine is cut off, causing engine shutdownB – the amber “overspeed” light illuminatesC – the red “overspeed” light illuminatesD – nothing happens as an overspeed of under one second duration is authorised


Ans: A

20654. In a free turbine powered helicopter, the overspeed detector is used to sense:

A – a badly adjusted fuel control unitB – a rotor speed overshoot due to inappropriate operationC – an engine start with main rotor blades removedD – shearing of the drive shaft between the free turbine and the main gear box


Ans: D

20657. In a single engine helicopter with a free turbine, an overspeed of the free turbine:

A – requires entry into auto rotationB – activates the rotor overspeed audible warningC – activates the red “overspeed” warningD – requires the pilot “to land as soon as possible”


Ans: A

022-04 POWERPLANT AND SYSTEM MONITORING INSTRUMENTS

022-04-01 Pressure Gauge

5752. The “Bourdon tube” is used to measure:

A – temperatureB – fuel flowC – vibrationsD – pressure


Ans: D

6090. The engine pressure ratio (EPR) is computed by:

A – dividing turbine discharge pressure by compressor inlet pressureB – dividing compressor discharge pressure by turbine discharge pressureC – multiplying compressor discharge pressure by turbine inlet pressureD – multiplying compressor inlet pressure by turbine discharge pressure


Ans: A

6109. The pressure probe used to measure the pressure of a low pressure fuel pump is:

A – a Bourdon tubeB – a bellows sensorC – an aneroid capsuleD – a differential capsule


Ans: C

6117. The probe used to measure the air intake pressure of a gas turbine engined powerplant is:

A – an aneroid capsuleB – a differential capsuleC – a Bourdon tubeD – a bellows sensor


Ans: A

6151. Different pressure sensors are used according to the intensity of the pressure measured (low, medium or high). Classify the following sensors by order of increasing pressure for which they are suitable:1) bellows type2) Bourdon tube type3) Aneroid capsule type

A – 3, 1, 2B – 1, 2, 3C – 3, 2, 1D – 2, 1, 3


Ans: A

6167. A “Bourdon Tube” is used in:

A – vibration detectorsB – pressure sensorsC – smoke detectorsD – turbine temperature probes


Ans: B

6176. Among the following engine instruments, the one operating with an aneroid pressure diaphragm is the:

A – oil pressure gaugeB – manifold pressure gaugeC – fuel pressure gaugeD – oil thermometer


Ans: B

6183. If a manifold pressure gauge consistently registers atmospheric pressure, the cause is probably:

A – ice in induction systemB – too high float levelC – fuel of to low volatilityD – leak in pressure gauge line


Ans: D

6193. A manifold pressure gauge of a piston engine measures:

A – fuel pressure leaving the carburettorB – vacuum in the carburettorC – absolute pressure in intake system near the inlet valveD – absolute air pressure entering the carburettor


Ans: C

20710. The engine instrument utilising an aneroid pressure diaphragm is the:

A – fuel pressure gaugeB – oil pressure gaugeC – manifold pressure gaugeD – oil temperature gauge


Ans: C

20711. The Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is computed by:

A – multiplying compressor discharge pressure by turbine inlet pressureB – dividing compressor discharge pressure by turbine discharge pressureC – multiplying compressor inlet pressure by turbine discharge pressureD – dividing turbine discharge pressure by compressor inlet pressure


Ans: D

20712. The EPR (Engine Pressure Ratio) is:

A – the ratio of the turbine outlet total pressure to the compressor inlet total pressureB – the ratio of the turbine outlet total pressure to the ambient total pressureC – the difference between the compressor inlet total pressure and the turbine outlet total pressureD – the ratio of the compressor outlet total pressure to the compressor inlet total pressure


Ans: A

20793. The sensor(s) feeding the EPR-indicator is (are):

A – tachometer located on the shaft of the N1 compressorB – temperature probes, one located upstream from the compressor inlet, and another downstream from the turbine outletC – tachometer located on the shaft of the N2 compressorD – pressure probes, one located upstream from the compressor inlet, and the other downstream from the turbine outlet


Ans: D

20812. To be as accurate as possible, an anemometer must be calibrated according to the following formula:

A – Bernoulli, considering the air as an uncompressible fluidB – Bernoulli, taking into account the air compressibilityC – Saint-Venant, considering the air as an uncompressible fluidD – Saint-Venant, taking into account the air compressibility


Ans: D

022-04-02 Temperature Gauge

2721. Total Air Temperature (TAT) is:

A – higher or equal to Static Air Temperature (SAT), depending on altitude and SATB – lower than Static Air Temperature (SAT), depending on altitude and SATC – higher or equal to Static Air Temperature (SAT), depending on mach number and SATD – lower than Static Air Temperature (SAT), depending on mach number and SAT

Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl

Ans: C

6087. A thermocouple can be made of:

A – a single wire coilB – two metal conductors of the same nature fixed together at two pointsC – a three wire coilD – two metal conductors of different nature fixed together at two points


Ans: D

6098. The total air temperature (TAT) is always:

A – lower than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the Calibrated Air Speed (CAS)B – higher than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the Calibrated Air Speed (CAS)C – higher than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the altitudeD – lower than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the altitude


Ans: B

6103. The temperature measured by the CHT (Cylinder Head Temperature) probe is the:

A – temperature of the exhaust gasesB – average temperature within the whole set of cylindersC – temperature within the hottest cylinder, depending on its position in the engine blockD – temperature of the carburettor to be monitored when the outside air temperature is between -5oC and 10oC


Ans: C

6123. To permit turbine exit temperatures to be measured, gas turbines are equipped with thermometers which work on the following principle:

A – bi-metallic stripB – thermocoupleC – liquid expansionD – gas pressure


Ans: B

6124. The static air temperature (SAT) is:

A – a relative temperature expressed in degrees CelsiusB – a differential temperature expressed in degrees KelvinC – an absolute temperature expressed in degrees CelsiusD – a relative temperature expressed in degrees Kelvin


Ans: C

6126. A millivoltmeter measuring the electromotive force between the “hot junction” and the “cold junction” of a thermocouple can be directly graduated in temperature values provided that the temperature of the:

A – hot junction is maintained constantB – cold junction is maintained constantC – cold junction is maintained at 15oCD – hot junction is maintaind at 15oC


Ans: B

6128. The main advantage of a ratiometer type temperature indicator is that it:

A – carries out an independent measurement of the supply voltageB – can operate without an electrical power supplyC – is very accurateD – is very simple


Ans: A

6131. The measurement of the turbine temperature or of the EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) is carried out at the:

A – high pressure chamber intakeB – combustion chamber outletC – combustion chamber intakeD – high pressure turbine outlet


Ans: D

6132. The red pointer which is normally on the red line on the EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicates:

A – shows the limit value not to be exceededB – moves when the corresponding value is exceeded and remains positioned at the maximum value that has been reachedC – allows the display of the parameter value to be adopted during take-offD – shows the vibration level of the engine under consideration


Ans: B

6138. Given:

M = the Mach numberTs = the static temperatureTt = the total temperature

A – Ts = Tt x (1+0.2 x M^2)B – Ts = Tt / (1+0.2 x M^2)C – Ts = Tt x (0.2 x M^2)D – Ts = Tt / (0.2 M^2)

Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl

Ans: B

6141. The yellow sector of the temperature gauge corresponds to:

A – a frequent operating rangeB – a normal operating rangeC – an exceptional operating rangeD – a forbidden operating range


Ans: C

6146. The airplane outside air temperature “probe” measures the:

A – “total” air temperature minus compressibility effects in order t obtain the static temperatureB – “static” air temperature minus kinetic heating effects in order to obtain the total temperatureC – “total” air temperature minus kinetic heating effects in order to obtain the static temperatureD – “static” air temperature minus compressibility effects in order to obtain the total temperature


Ans: C

6148. A thermocouple type thermometer consists of:

A – two metal conductors of the same type connected at two pointsB – two metal conductors of different type connected at one pointC – a Wheatstone bridge conncted to a voltage indicatorD – a single-wire metal winding


Ans: B

6150. The white sector of the arc of a temperature gauge corresponds to:

A – a forbidden operating rangeB – a normal operating rangeC – an exceptional operating rangeD – a special operating range


Ans: D

6171. The sensors used to measure the exhaust gas temperature on an airplane equipped with turbojets are:

A – based on metallic parts whose expansion/contraction is measuredB – thermocouplesC – based on metallic conductors whose resistance increases linearly with temperatureD – capacitors whose capacity varies proportionally with temperature


Ans: B

6179. In order to measure temperature the cylinder head temperature (CHT) gauge utilises a:

A – bourdon tubeB – wheatstone bridge circuitC – ratiometer circuitD – thermocouple consisting of two dissimilar metals


Ans: D

6180. The electromotive force of a thermocouple is not modified if one or several intermediate metals are inserted in the circuit provided that:

A – these metals are not the same as those constituting the thermocoupleB – contact points are maintained at equal temperature between these different metalsC – these metals are maintained at a temperature higher than that of the cold sourceD – these metals are maintained at a temperature lower than that of the cold source


Ans: B

12041. In transport category airplanes, the temperatures are generally measured with:1) resistance thermometers2) thermocouple thermometers3) reactance thermometers4) capacitance thermometers5) mercury thermometersThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1, 3, 4, 5B – 1, 2, 5C – 2, 3D – 1, 2


Ans: D

20520. A temperature sensor has a recovery factor oif 0.95. The temperature measured is equal to:

A – 95% of the static air temperature (SAT)B – ram air temperature (RAT) + 95% of the ram riseC – static air temperature (SAT) + 95% of the ram riseD – 95% of the ram air temperature (RAT)

Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl

Ans: C

20521. A thermocouple type temperature sensing is composed of:

A – two identical metals joined together at both ends (called hot and cold junctions)B – two identical metals joined together at one end (called hot junction or measure junction)C – two dissimilar metals joined together at one end (called hot junction or measure junction)D – a single-wire metal winding


Ans: C

20531. An aircraft is flying at flight level FL 180 and Mach number 0.36. Its onboard thermometer reads TAT= 5oC. Considering that the probe recovery co-efficient is 0.84, the present weather conditions compared with the standard atmosphere are:

A – Standard + 10oCB – Standard + 20oCC – StandardC – Standard + 30oC

Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl

Ans: A

20601. Electrical requirements for an alumel/chromel indicating system are

A – 3 phase AC for sensor plus 26 VAC for gauge lightingB – 3 phase AC for sensor plus 28 VDC for gaugingC – power for gauge lighting onlyD – 28 VDC for sensor plus power for gauge lighting


Ans: C

20771. The most common system used to monitor turbine gas exhaust temperatue is the:

A – hot and cold junction, alumel/chromel systemB – flame switchC – fixed junction mercurial oxide/chromium systemD – hot junction Tungsten/copper system


Ans: A

20813. To permit turbine exit temperatures to be measured, gas turbines are equipped with thermometers which work on the following principle:

A – bi-metallic stripB – thermocoupleC – liquid expansionD – gas pressure


Ans: B

24520. The TAT probe measures TAT by:

A – TAT = SAT + kinetic heatingB – TAT = SAT – heating due to compressibilityC – TAT = SAT – kinetic heatingD – TAT = SAT + heating due to compressibility

Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl

Ans: D

25254. A ratiometer:

A – Can measure independently supply voltageB – Is very accurateC – Does not require a power supplyD – None of the above


Ans: B

022-04-03 RPM Indicator

6093. The advantages of an electriocal induction tachometer are:1) The display is not sensitive to line resistance2) The measurement is independent of aircraft power supply3) The measurement is independent of temperature variations4) The option to use without restriction several indicators connected in parallel

to a single transmitterThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1, 2 and 4B – 2, 3 and 4C – 1, 2, 3 and 4D – 1, 3 and 4


Ans: A

6095. The signal supplied by a transmitter fitted with a 3-phase AC generator, connected to RPM indicator, is:

A – an AC voltage varying with the RPM; the indicator rectifies the signal via a diode bridge and isprovided with a voltmeterB – a DC voltage varying with the RPM; the indicator is a plain voltmeter with a rev/min. scaleC – an AC voltage, the frequency of which varies with the RPM; the indicator converts the signal into square pulses which are then countedD – a three-phase voltage, the frequency of which varies with the RPM; the indicator is provided with a motor which drives a magnetic tachometer


Ans: D

6101. The transmitter of RPM indicator may consist of:1) a magnetic sensor supplying an induced AC voltage2) a DC generator supplying a DC voltage3) a single-phase AC generator supplying an AC voltage4) a three-phase AC generator supplying a three phase voltageThe combination of correct statements is:

A – 2, 3, 4B – 1, 2, 3, 4C – 1, 4D – 1, 2, 3


Ans: B

6111. The RPM indicator (or tachometer) of a piston engine can include a small red arc within the arc normally used (green arc). In the RPM range corresponding to this small red arc the:

A – rating is the minimum usable in cruiseB – rating is the maximum possible in continuous modeC – propeller generates vibration, continuous rating is forbiddenD – propeller efficiency is minimum at this rating


Ans: C

6114. The advantages of a D.C. generator tachometer are:1) easy transmission of the information2) independence of the information relative to the airborne electrical power

supply3) freedom from any spurious current due to the commutatorThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1, 3B – 1, 2, 3C – 2, 3D – 1, 2


Ans: D

6125. The disadvantages of a single phase A.C. generator tachometer are:1) the presence of spurious signals due to a D.C. generator commutator2) the importance of line resistance on the information value3) the influence of temperature on the tachometer informationThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1, 2B – 1, 2, 3C – 2D – 1, 3


Ans: C

6145. The disadvantage of an electronic RPM indicator is the:

A – necessity of providing a power supply sourceB – generation of spurious signals at the commutatorC – influence of temperature on the indicationD – high influence of line resistance on the indication


Ans: A

6153. The electronic tachometer sensor is composed of:

A – the rotor of a three phase A.C. generatorB – a circular magnet with four polesC – the rotor of a single phase A.C. generatorD – a notched wheel rotating in front of an electro-magnet


Ans: D

6161. On an aeroplane equipped with a constant speed propeller, the RPM indicator enables:

A – selection of engine RPMB – control of powerC – control of the propeller regulator and the display of properller RPMD – on a twin-engine aeroplane, automatic engine synchronisation


Ans: C

6169. In a 3-phase synchronous motor type tachometer indicator:1) the transmitter is a direct current generator2) the voltage is proportional to the transmitter drive speed3) the frequency is proportional to the transmitter drive speed4) the speed indicating element is a galvanometer5) the speed indicating element is an asynchronous motor driving a magnetic

tachometerThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1, 4B – 1, 2C – 2, 5D – 3, 5


Ans: D

6172. A synchroscope is used on aircraft to:

A – set several engines to the same speedB – reduce the vibration of each engineC – reduce the RPM of each engineD – achieve optimum control of on-board voltages


Ans: A

6174. The advantages of single phase A.C. generator tachometer are:1) the suppression of spurious signals due to a D.C. generator commutator2) the importance of line resistance on the information value3) the independence of the information in eltion to the airborne electrical

power supply4) the ease of transmission of the informationThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 2, 4B – 1, 2, 3, 4C – 2, 3, 4D – 1, 3


Ans: D

12036. The signal supplied by a transmitter fitted with a magnetic sensor, connected to an RPM indicator is:

A – a three phase voltage frequency varies with the RPM; the indicator is provided with a motor which drives a magnetic tachometerB – a DC voltage varying with the RPM;the indicator I a simple voltmeter with a rev/min. scaleC – an AC voltage varying with the RPM; the indicator rectifies the signal via a diode bridge and is provided with a voltmeterD – an AC voltage, the frequency of which varies with the RPM; the indicator converts the signal into square pulses which are then counted


Ans: D

12040. The operting principle of the INDUCTION type of tachometer is to measure the:

A – electromotive force (EMF) produced by a dynamo or an alternatorB – frequency of the electric impulse created by a notched wheel rotating in a magnetic fieldC – magnetic field produced by a dynamo or an alternatorD – rotation speed of an asynchronous motor energised by an alternator


Ans: D

20618. Gas turbine engine rotational speed (RPM) is usually sensed using either:

A – a 28 VDC tachomter generator or an AC phonic wheelB – a single phase AC tachometer generator or an AC phonic wheel systemC – a 3 phase AC tachometer generator or an AC phonic wheel systemD – a 28 VDC tachometer generator or a DC phonic wheel


Ans: C

20625. Helicopter gas turbine compressor speed (N1 or Ng) is displayed in the cockpit as:

A – an analogue readout, or a percentage RPM, or as a function of maximum power, or as a computed value of percentage RPMB – a percentage RPM onlyC – an analogue readout onlyD – either an analogue or percentage RPM only


Ans: A

20655. In a free turbine powered helicopter, the term “phonic wheel” indicates a wheel:

A – which detects angular speed using soundB – which delivers an aural signal at a certain angular speedC – using a magnetic sensor to measure the angular speedD – which delivers a signal detectable by radio or telemetry


Ans: C

022-04-04 Consumption Gauge

6122. The operating principle of Flowmeters, or “unit flow meters”, themost commonly used at the present time, is to measure across their system the:

A – volume and viscosity of the fuelB – pressure and temperature of the fuelC – volumetric mass and di-electric resistance of the fuelD – quantity of fuel movement


Ans: D

6133. A paddle wheel placed in the fuel circuit of a gas turbine engine initially measures:

A – mass flow by a tally of the impulsesB – volumetric flow by a tally of the impulsesC – volumetric flow by measure of a voltage proportional to the rotational speedD – mass flow by measure of a voltage proportional to the rotational speed


Ans: B

6137. When compared with the volumetric fuel flowmeter, the mass fuel flometer takes into account the fuel:

A – temperatureB – densityC – pressureD – dielectrical constant


Ans: B

022-04-05 Fuel Gauge6091. The indication of a fuel float gauge varies with:

1) aircraft attitude2) accelerations3) atmospheric pressure4) temperatureThe combination of correct statements is:

A – 1, 2, 3, 4B – 1, 2, 4C – 4D – 1, 2


Ans: B

6105. If the tanks of your airplane only contain water, the capacitor gauges indicate:

A – a mass equal to the mass of a same volume of fuelB – the exact mass of water contained in the tanksC – a mass equal to zeroD – a mass of water different from zero, but inaccurate


Ans: D

6115. The float type fuel gauges provide information on:

A – mass whose indication is independent of the temperature of the fuelB – volume whoseindication is independent of the temperature of the fuelC – mass whose indication varies with the temperature of the fuelD – volume whose indication varies with the temperature of the fuel


Ans: D

6118. The capacity fuel gauges provide information:

A – on mass whose indication varies with the temperature of the fuelB – on mass whose indication is independent of the temperature of the fuelC – which is independent of the temperature of the fuelD – which varies with the temperature of the fuel


Ans: B6152. In an average or heavy weight transport airplane, generally, the fuel quantity is

measured by “capacitor” gauges because these give:1) indications partly independent of fuel temperature variations2) indications almost independent of the airplane’s attitude and accelerations3) indications expressed in densityThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 2B – 1, 2, 3C – 1, 2D – 1, 3


Ans: C

6154. The disadvantages of an “electric” fuel (float) gauge are:

1) the design is complex2) the indications are influenced by the airplane attitude variations3) the indications are influenced by the accelerations4) the indication are influenced by temperature variations5) that an alternative current supply is necessary


A – 2, 3, 4, 5B – 1, 2, 3, 4C – 2, 3, 4D – 1


Ans: C

6184. The principle of capacitor gauges is based on:

A – the variation of capacity by volumetric measurement exercised on the sensorB – the current variation in a Wheastone bridgeC – the variation in capacity of a condenser with the nature of the dielectricD – the variation of flow and torque exercised in a supply line


Ans: C

6188. The basic principle used for measuring a quantity of fuel in a transport airplane equipped with “capacitor” gauges is that the:

A – internal resistance of a capacity depends on the nature of the dielectric in which it is immersedB – capacity of a capacitor depends on the nature of the dielectric in which it is immersedC – capacity of a capacitor depends on the distance between its platesD – electromotive force of a capacity depends on the nature of the dielectric in which it is immersed


Ans: B

6189. The principl of capacity gauges is based on the:

A – capacitance variation by the volume measurement carried out on the sensorB – current variation in the Wheatstone bridgeC – capacitance variation of a given capacitor with the type of dielectricD – flow rate and torque variation occurring in a supply line


Ans: C

6195. The quantity of fuel in the tanks is measured by capacitor type contents gauges. The working principle of these sensors is to measure the:

A – di-electric resistivity of the fuelB – height of the fuelC – volume of the fuelD – charge of condensers


Ans: A

6196. The advantages of an “electric” fuel (float) gauge are:1) easy construction2) independence of indications with regard to airplane attitude3) independence of indications with regard to the accelerations4) independence of indications with regard to temperature variations5) independence of indications with regard to vibrations

A – 1, 2, 3, 4, 5B – 2, 3, 4, 5C – 1D – 2, 3, 4


Ans: C

6197. The advantages of an “electric” fuel (float) gauge are:1) easy construction2) independence of indications with regrd to airplane attitude3) independence of indications with regard to the accelerations4) independence of indications with regard to temperature variations5) independence of indications with regard to vibrationsThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1, 2, 4 and 5B – 1, 3, 4 and 5C – 4 and 5D – 1


Ans: D

6200. The gauge indicating the quantity of fuel measured by a capacity gauging system can be graduated directly in weight units because the dielectric constant of fuel is:

A – the same as that of air and varies inversely with densityB – twice that of air and varies inversely with densityC – the same as that of air and varies directly with densityD – twice that of air and varies directly with density


Ans: D

20700. The basic principle of a capacitance fuel gauge system is that the:

A – capacity of a capacitor depends only on the density of the liquid on which it is immersedB – internal resistance of a capacity depends on the nature of the dielectric in which it is immersedC – capacity of a capacitor depends on the nature of the dielectric in which it is immersedD – electromotive force of a capacity depends on the nature of the dielectric in which it is immersed


Ans: C

20708. The electric float gauge:1) gives a mass information2) gives information independent of aircraft’s manoeuvres and attitude changes3) gives information all the more accurate as the tank is full4) is typically a DC powered systemThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1B – 1, 2, 3, 4C – 1, 3, 4D – 4


Ans: D

25375. A fuel mass capacitance system works on the principle of fuel density being:

A – The same as air and inversely proportional to densityB – The same as air and proportional to densityC – Twice as air and inversely proportional to densityD – Twice as air and proportional to density


Ans: D

022-04-06 Torque Meter

6130. Torque can be determined by measuring the:

A – oil pressure at the fixed crown of an epicycloidal reducer of the main engine gearboxB – the amount of light through a gear linked to a transmission shaftC – the frequency of a phonic wheel linked to a transmission shaftD – the frequency difference between two phonic wheels linked to a transmission shaft


Ans: A


A – phase difference between 2 impulse tachometers attached to a transmission shaftB – frequency of an impulse tachometer attached to a transmission shaftC – oil pressure at the fixed crown of an epicycloidal reducer of the main engine gearboxD – quantity of light passing through a rack-wheel attached to a transmission shaft


Ans: C


A – phase difference between 2 impulse tachometers attached to a transmission shaftB – oil pressure at the fixed crown of an epicycloidal reducer of the main engine gearboxC – frequency of an impulse tachometer attached to a transmission shaftD – quantity of light passing through a rack-wheel attached to a transmission shaft


Ans: B

022-04-07 Flight Hour Meter


022-04-08 Vibration Monitoring

6094. A vibration indicator receives a signal from different sensors (accelerometers). It indicates the:

A – vibration amplitude at a given frequencyB – acceleration measured by the sensors, expressed in gC – vibration frequency expressed in HzD – vibration period expressed in seconds

Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl

Ans: A

6194. In an engine vibration monitoring system for a turbo jet any vibration produced by the engine is:

A – amplified and filtered before being fed to the cockpit indicator B – inversely proportional to engine speedC – fed directly to the cockpit indicator without amplification or filteringD – directly proportional to engine speed

Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl

Ans: A

12025. The principle of detection of a vibration monitoring system is based on the use of:

A – 2 accelerometersB – 2 high and low frequency amplifiersC – 2 high and low frequency filtersD – a frequency converter

Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl

Ans: A

20774. The output from an engine vibration transducer is:

A – inversely proportional to engine speedB – always filtered to remoe unwanted frequenciesC – directly proportional to engine speedD – fed directly to the indicator in the cockpit without amplification or filtering


Ans: B

25253. Vibration is indicated in the cockpit as:

A – A direct readingB – A frequencyC – Proportional to the speed of the motorD – Inversely proportional to the speed of the motor

Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl

Ans: A

022-04-09 Remote (signal) Transmission System

20522. A three-phase electrical tachometer consists of:

A – a three phase generator, a synchronous motor and a magnetic tachometerB – three associated dynamosC – a speed probe and a phonic wheelD – three speed probes and a phonic wheel


Ans: A

20772. The operating principle of an “electronic” tachometer is to measure the:

A – electromotive force (EMF) produced by a dynamo or an alternatorB – frequency of the electric impulse created by a notched wheel rotating in a magnetic fieldC – rotation speed of an asynchronous motor energised by an alternatorD – magnetic field produced by a dynamo or an alternator


Ans: B

022-04-10 Electronic Displays (ECAM, EICAS)

6139. In a modern airplane equipped with an ECAM (Electronic centralised aircraft monitor), when a failure occurs in a circuit, the centralised flight management system:1) releases an aural warning2) lights up the appropriate push buttons on the overhead panel3) displays the relevant circuit on the system display 4) processes the failure automaticallyThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 1, 3, 4B – 1, 2, 3C – 3, 4D – 1, 2


Ans: B

20509. A Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) has the following functions:1) flow regulation (fuel, decelerations and accelerations monitoring)2) automatic starting sequence3) transmissions of engine data to the pilot’s instruments4) thrust monitoring5) engine limit protectionThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A – 2, 4, 5B – 1, 2, 3, 4, 5C – 1, 3, 5D – 1, 3, 4, 5


Ans: B

25249. The CRTs of an EICAS system:1) can be interchanged between upper and lower displays2) can be compacted together into one CRT3) are controlled by the EICAS controller situated on the overhead panel4) do not normally show EGT on the primary display5) normally show secondary engine indications on the upper display6) are provided with individual brightness controls

A – 1, 3, 5B – 3, 4, 5C – 1, 2D – 1, 2, 5


Ans: C

25250. In the event of a failure of the ECAM system, the system will be:1) give warnings2) light the appropriate buttons3) bring up the appropriate system page4) carry out the appropriate actions

A – 1, 3B – 1, 2, 3, 4C – 1, 2, 3D – 1, 2, 4


Ans: A

25251. What indications are received of an ECAM failure?

A – Light onlyB – Light and sound signalC – Aural signal onlyD – none of the above


Ans: A

25252. Which of the following are pages of the ECAM secondary display?1) engine2) fire3) trim4) hyd5) wheel6) cruise

A – 1, 4, 5B – 2, 3C – 1, 4, 5, 6D – 1, 3, 4


Ans: A

022-04-11 Chip Detection

20782. The purpoe of magnetic chip detectors is to:

A – increase lubricating oil adhesion to main surfacesB – warning of impending failureC – remove large items of debris from the systemD – perform the function of a micron filter


Ans: B

022-07 HELICOPTER SPECIFIC – AUTOMATIC FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEMS

022-07-01 General Principles

20698. The automatic transition to hover can be engaged:

A – on a three or four axis autopilotB – on a four axis auto pilot onlyC – if both channels of the auto pilots are activeD – after setting the altitude on the radio altimeter

Ref: HELI: all

Ans: B

022-07-02 Components – Operation

20541. An inner loop automatic flight control system (AFCS) is a system which:

A – controls the aircraft about the lateral axis only (PITCH)B – contains one or more high speed actuators which move both the inputs to the swash plate and the pilots’ cyclic controlsC – contains one or more high speed actuators which move the control inputs

to the swash plate but not the pilots’ cyclic controlsD – controls the aircraft about the longitudinal axis only (ROLL)


Ans: C

20542. An outer loop Automatic Flight Control System (AFCS), is a system which:

A – controls the aircraft about the lateral axis only (PITCH)B – contains a parallel actuator which provides control through 100% of the control range and moves the control inputs onlyC – contains a parallel actuator which provides control through 100% of the control range and moves both the control inputs and the cockpit control stickD – controls the aircraft about the longitudinal axis only (ROLL)


Ans: C

20549. Automatic Flight Control System (AFCS) parallel actuator position is:

A – not displayed in the cockpit due to short duration of operationB – displayed in the cockpit as a function of input and output signalsC – passed to the pilot via control stick positionD – displayed to the pilot by movement on the ADI only


Ans: C

20550. Automatic Flight Control System (AFCS) series actuator is:

A – not displayed in the cockpit due to short duration of operationB – displayed in the cockpit as a function of input and output signalsC – displayed to the pilot by movement on the ADI/EADID – passed to the pilot via control stick position


Ans: B

20648. If, with the automatic flight control system (AFCS) engaged, the pilot presses the force trim release button to allow a manual input to the flight controls:

A – the spring units will become ineffectiveB – the pilot must overcome the force of the spring unit to make the inputC – the series actuator will run to damp the pilot’s inputD – artificial feel is produced by the parallel actuators


Ans: A

20656. In a helicopter automatic flight control system (AFCS), artificial feel is usually achieved by the use of:

A – series and/or parallel actuatorsB – bungee cords or rubbersC – a pitot/static dashpot systemD – spring boxes or spring units


Ans: D

20843. Which of the following systems can be used for hover holds:

A – Vertical gyro onlyB – GPSC – Inertial navigation onlyD – Doppler


Ans: D

20844. Which of the following systems can be used for hover holds:

A – integrated lateral airspeedB – integrated longitudinal airspeedC – integrated longitudinal and lateral accelerationD – integrated longitudinal and lateral airspeed


Ans: C

022-07-03 Stability Augmentation System (SAS)

20513. A stability augmentation system (SAS) in a helicopter:

A – assists in dynamic stability onlyB – assists in static stability onlyC – assists in static and dynamic stabilityD – has full control of dynamic stability


Ans: B

20514. A Stability Augmentation System (SAS):

A – always requires an auto pilot systemB – may be a stand alone systemC – is only used for prototype helicoptersD – is only used in heavy lift helicopters


Ans: B


A – provides short term attitude holdB – provides long term attitude holdC – uses rate gyros or vertical reference systemD – uses vertical reference system only


Ans: A


A – functions include altitude and airspeed holdB – is an outer loop systemC – uses vertical reference system to provide a long term attitudeD – is an inner loop system only


Ans: D

20680. Should a defect arise in the stability augmentation system (SAS) during flight:

A – the control stick will move to a pre-set patum causing the pilot to revert to manual controlB – the pilot is not informed unless the second channel fails alsoC – an audio alarm will attract the pilot’s attention to check the AFCS control panelD – the pilot will be advised by an amber warning


Ans: D

20796. The Stability Augmentation System (SAS):

A – increases coupling in lateral/directgional axesB – reduces coupling in all axesC – reduces coupling in longitudinal axes onlyD – reduces coupling in lateral/directional axes only


Ans: B


A – can affect the static stability in lateral/directional axesB – can affect the static stability in longitudinal axesC – can affect the static stability in any axesD – does not affect on the static stability


Ans: D


A – can affect the static stabilityB – has an effect on dynamic stabilityC – can affect the dynamic and the static stabilityD – cannot affect the dynamic and the static stability


Ans: B

022-07-04 Automatic Stability Equipment

20501. An automatic stabilisation equipment uses:

A – rate gyros to provide a long term attitude holdB – vertical reference system information to provide a long term attitude holdC – vertical reference system information to provide a short term attitude holdD – auto pilot information


Ans: B

20860. “Heading hold” is normally:

A – regarded as a basic function of automatic stabilisation equipmentB – regarded as a basic function of a stability augmentation systemC – not regarded as a basic functionD – a function of a stability augmentation system


Ans: A

022-07-05 Fly-by-Wire Enhanced Control Laws


022 – INSTRUMENTATION · 2018-09-20 · 5610. In case of accidental closing of an aircraft’s...

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