010AirLaw&ATCProcedureslastminutepreparation& · PDF fileDuring an IFR flight in VMC in...

010 Air Law & ATC Procedures last minute preparation & articles.

http://www.funPresent.com aviation portal & ATPL theory & resource forum. [Airlaw & ATC Procedures]

Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a controlzone when ceiling is less than: 1500 feet or visibility is less than 5 km

Quote:Below this minima special VFR clearance is required. With special VFR clearance, aircraft mayland or take-off at an aerodrome within a control zone providing the prevailing visibility is morethan 1500m according to ICAO or 3000m according to JAA/EASA.

An aircraft flying above the sea between 4500 feet MSL and 9000 feet MSL outside controlledairspace under VFR, must remain on principle at least: 1500 m horizontally, 1000 feet verticallyfrom clouds; 5 km visibility

Quote:VFR Minima: http://www.funpresent.com/atpl/viewtopic.php?f=2&t=59

In order to operate under visual flight rules above FL 100 in uncontrolled airspace these mustbe: 8 km visibility, 1000 ft. vertical and 1500 m horizontal separation from clouds

What is the minimum flight altitude permitted over towns and settlements and populatedareas?1000 ft. (300m) above the highest obstacle within 600m of the aircraft position

When not flying over high terrain or mountainous areas and where no minimum flight altitudehas been established, flights in accordance with IFR shall be flown at a level which is at least: 1000 ftabove the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft

Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft abovethe highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight: at least2000 feet within 8 km of the estimated position

If a pilot wishes to cancel an IFR flight plan and proceed under VFR in VMC, he must inform ATCand include the phrase:

Cancelling IFR flight plan Cancelling my IFR flight Cancelling my flight Cancel my IFR flight plan

Filing of Flight Plan:

For a controlled airspace - File 1 hour prior to departure - In case there is a a delay of more than 30mins, a new or amended flight plan is to be filed.

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For an uncontrolled airspace - File 30 min prior to departure - In case there is a delay of more than1 hour, a new or amended flight plan is to be filed.

If filed in flight - 10 minutes before the aircraft is estimated to reach the intended point of entry intoa control area or advisory area or the point of crossing an airway or advisory route.

For a flight that is subject to flow management, the submission time for the ATC flight plan is: 3hours

Repetitive Flight Plan: IFR flights operated regularly on the same day of consecutive weeks, on atleast 10 occasions or every day over a period of at least ten consecutive days.

In Item 8 of flight plan: Y = First IFR Then VFR, Z = First VFR Then IFR.

Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flights within advisory airspace, but not electing to use the airtraffic advisory service: Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan and notify changes madethereto to the ATS unit providing that service

If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 16) of a flight planform: write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information ALTN/followed bythe name of the airport

During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communicationfailure. You will: Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC

If a communication failure is experienced on an IFR flight in IMC, the pilot shall: proceed to thenavigation aid serving the destination aerodrome and commence descent at the expectedapproach time or, if no expected approach time has been received, as close as possible tothe estimated time of arrival resulting from the current flight plan

Which is the content of section 2 of Air-Report (AIREP)? Estimated time of arrival (ETA),endurance

Minimum height for “Transition Altitude" over an airfield shall be: 3000 feet or 1,000 ft AGL

First usable level in IFR must provide a 500 ft margin above: 3000 ft. AMSL or 1000 ft. AGL




What is the appropriate IFR flight level for a magnetic track of 125o?

FL 280 FL 290 FL 350 FL 310

Quote:Don’t assume RVSM unless it is specified in the question. In non-RVSM, after 290 the separationis 2000 feet. Since track is 125 (b/w 000-179) 280 is not a possibility. Starting from 290 nexthigher levels will be 330, 370, 410. This rules out 310 and 350.

Cruising Levels: http://www.funpresent.com/atpl/viewtopic.php?f=2&t=64

The vertical position of an aircraft is expressed in altitude when:

The aircraft is below the transition altitude The aircraft is below the transition level The aircraft is at or below the transition altitude The aircraft is at or below the transition level

Signals area of an aerodrome is only used for VFR operations.ATC Light and Ground Signals: http://www.funpresent.com/atpl/viewtopic.php?f=2&t=65

A Rescue Unit is: A unit composed of trained personnel and provided with equipmentsuitable for the expeditious conduct of SAR

Search and Rescue services within the territory of ICAO contracting states are provided: on a 24hour basis

The units responsible for promoting efficient organization of search and rescue serviceare: Rescue co-ordination center and rescue sub-centers

When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert phasesis the responsibility of the: operational air traffic control centers

Life Jackets requirement on overwater flights: When away from the shore by more than 50NM.






Life Rafts requirement on overwater flights: Distance equal to 120 minutes at cruising speed(normal (not) single engine) or 400 nautical miles, whichever is the less.

An operator shall not operate an aero plane certificated to JAR25, across an area in which searchand rescue would be especially difficult, without survival equipment if it flies away from an areasuitable for making an emergency landing at a distance greater than: 90 minutes at cruisingspeed

When you are intercepting a distress signal and/or message, you shall: record the position ofthe craft in distress if given; if possible take a bearing of the transmission inform theappropriate RCC or ASS and¿ while awaiting instructions proceed at your discretion towardsthe position given in the transmission

Color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survivalequipment:

Red: Medical supplies and first aid equipment.

Blue: Food and water.

Yellow: Blankets and protective clothing.

Black: Miscellaneous equipment such as stoves, axes, compasses, cooking utensils etc.

Search and Rescue Signals: http://www.funpresent.com/atpl/viewtopic.php?f=2&t=47

An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radiocommunication with the intercepting aircraft or with the appropriate intercept control unit, by makinga general call on the frequency 121.5 MHz If no contact has been established and if practicablerepeat this call on the frequency 243 MHz

NOZ (Normal Operating Zone) is an Airspace of defined dimensions extending to either sideof an ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track center line

The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, tobring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-inapproach is:

Visual approach Visual maneuvering (circling)





A visual approach is: An instrument approach where the pilot has the option to continuethe approach visually, providing that he has the necessary visual criteria

A precision approach is a direct instrument approach

using at least one source of bearing information and one source of elevation or distance information using bearing, elevation and distance information using bearing, elevation and distance information, providing the pilot uses a flight director or anautopilot certified to a height below 200 ft carried out by a crew of at least two pilots trained with a specific working method

A precision Approach Procedure is defined as:

An approach using bearing, elevation and distance information An approach with a crew of at least 2 pilots trained for such operations An instrument approach procedure utilizing azimuth and glide path information provided byan ILS or a PAR An approach using bearing, elevation and, optionally, distance information

A revised EAT will be transmitted when it differs from that previously transmitted by: 5 minutesor more

STAR = Standard Instrument Arrival (exact opposite of SID which is Standard InstrumentDeparture)

During a non-precision approach, the maximum interception angle to the initial segment trackis: 120 degrees (90 for precision approach).

A maneuver in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in theopposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designatedtrack is called a: Procedure turn

The period of validity for take-off slots assigned by CEU (flow control center): is 15 minutes

When should the QNH be communicated to aircraft prior to take-off?

When taxi clearance is given When the ATC clearance is delivered When start clearance is given When takeoff clearance is given




The tolerance value used to determine that mode C derived level information displayed to thecontroller is accurate shall be: +/- 300 ft.

An aircraft in climb or descent in considered to have crossed a level when the SSR mode Cderived level information indicates that it has passed this level in the required direction by:

300 ft. +/- 300 ft. More than 300 ft.

5th Freedom of the Air is: The right to carry revenue traffic between any points of landingon flights between 3 or more treaty partner nations (B to C to D)

Quote:Assume "B to be Base Nation"

.

6th Freedom of the Air is: A combination of Freedoms 3 and 4. Revenue traffic is flownbetween two treaty partner nations (C to A) through carrier’s base nation (B)

Quote:Freedoms of Air and Cabotage: http://www.funpresent.com/atpl/viewtopic.php?f=2&t=8

International Conventions: http://www.funpresent.com/atpl/viewtopic.php?f=2&t=7

ATS Route Designators: http://www.funpresent.com/atpl/viewtopic.php?f=2&t=57

Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed: by states on the basis of regionalair navigation agreements

Change-over points should be limited to route segments of 60 NM or more

The width of an advisory route is: 10 NM

Alerting Service: http://www.funpresent.com/atpl/viewtopic.php?f=2&t=41








A TMA is: a CTA established to cover several major air traffic routes around one or moremajor aerodromes (a Control area will not be lower than 700 ft agl)

For an aerodrome to be considered controlled: The aerodrome shall be provided with aControl Tower (and not specifically located somewhere)

Lateral limits of a CTR: 5 NM in the direction of the approach

Aircraft Airworthiness: http://www.funpresent.com/atpl/viewtopic.php?f=2&t=7

Airspace Classes: http://www.funpresent.com/atpl/viewtopic.php?f=2&t=63

Radar and Wake Turbulence SeparationMinima: http://www.funpresent.com/atpl/viewtopic.php?f=2&t=14

The following applies for aircraft equipped with ACAS:

A) the ACAS capability of an aircraft will normally not be known to ATC controllers B) Separation minima may be reduced by ATC between aircraft equipped with ACAS C) As the ACAS capability of an aircraft is known to ATC, pilots may be required to maintain their ownseparation in cruise D) The ATS procedures to be applied to aircraft with ACAS shall be identical to thoseapplicable to non-ACAS equipped aircraft

Controlling authority for a CTA is an ACC

Air Traffic Service Unit means:

Flight Information Centers and Air Services reporting offices Air Traffic Control units and Flight Information Centers Air Traffic Control units and Air Services reporting offices Air Traffic Control units, Flight Information Centers or Air Services reporting offices

Which of the following statements concerning FIS is false:

FIS will include information concerning weather conditions reported or forecast at departure, FIS will include information concerning collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspaceclasses B, C, D, E, F and G







FIS will include information concerning on unmanned free balloons FIS will include information concerning changes in the serviceability of navigation aids

Which of the following phenomena would cause a SIGMET to be transmitted to aircraft flying atsubsonic cruising levels?

Cumulus-nimbus cloud, volcanic ash or severe icing Active thunderstorms, moderate or severe turbulence or heavy hail Severe line squalls, heavy hail or severe icing Marked mountain wave or hail

Quote:It is for severe cases, so just select the option that has the maximum number of the word"severe" in it (or rule out the moderate cases)

Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS message shall be theresponsibility of:

the meteorological office serving the aerodrome (s) the air traffic services both air traffic services and the meteorological office the unit as prescribed the states

Voice ATIS broadcasts are:

Updated every hour and half hour regardless of change in content Continuous and repetitive Provided on the voice channel of ILS All of the above are correct

ATIS messages are updated at least:

when significant changes occur every 60 minutes except when important changes occur every 60 minutes every 30 minutes

When should ATIS broadcasts be updated?

On a scheduled basis and when QNH, runway etc change. Every hour and half hour At 15 minutes past and 45 minutes past the hour At hourly intervals if any information has changed




When are ATIS broadcasts updated?

Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below those for VFR; otherwise hourly Only when weather conditions change enough to require a change in the active runway or instrumentapproach in use Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value

Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be achieved if a radar blip is observed within acertain distance from the end of the runway. Identification has to be achieved within: 1 NM

Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority the radar controller should notifythe no radar controller when an aircraft making a radar approach is approximately:

8 NM 10 NM 5 NM 6 NM

The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust the speed where the aircraft haspassed: 4 NM from the threshold on final approach

Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to make minorspeed adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall never be more than: 20 knots and not within 5NM of threshold

During radar-control, a radar-controller shall issue a missed-approach instruction, in case thetower controller has not issued a landing-clearance at the moment the aircraft is: 2 NM from touch-down

An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to consider executing a missed approachif the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for any significant interval during the: Last 2 NM ofthe approach

Where a Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) is not available, radar identification may beachieved by one of the following procedures: To instruct the pilot to execute one or morechanges of 30° or more

One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control serviceis: To conduct PRA and SRA




When a surveillance radar approach is to be continued to the threshold of the runwaytransmission should not be interrupted for intervals of more than five seconds while the aircraft iswithin a distance of: 4 NM from the touch down

Except otherwise established by the appropriate ATS authority a Surveillance Radar Approach(SRA) shall be terminated at a distance from the touch down of: 2 NM

The surveillance radar approach shall be terminated at a distance of 2 NM from the touchdownexcept when, as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, the accuracy of the radar equipmentpermits to be continued to a prescribed point less than 2 NM from the touchdown. In this casedistance and level information shall be given at each: 0.5 NM

How close to the boundary of a radar vectoring area can an aircraft be vectored by the radarcontroller? Half the radar separation distance or 2.5 NM whichever is greater

A TIMED APPROACH PROCEDURE may be utilized as necessary in order to expedite theapproaches of a number of arriving aircraft. This will be obtained by requesting aircraft to:

To pass a specified point To pass the specified point inbound at the previously notified time To apply a step down descent between aircraft in the approach sequence To maintain a specified speed during the approach procedure

Significant changes in the mean surface wind velocity will be transmitted to an aircraft on finalapproach. Which of the following statements indicate the correct figures for these significant changes:Head wind 10 kt, Tail wind 2 kt, Crosswind 5 kt.

When using parallel runway operations and vectoring aircraft for an ILS approach, how far inadvance of intercepting the glide slope should an aircraft be established on the localizer? 2 nm

Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that a non-transgression zone (NTZ) of at least: 610 m is established between extended runway centerlines and as is depicted on the radar display

The NTZ extends from the threshold of the nearer runway to the point at which 1000 ftvertical separation is reduced between aircraft.

Which of the following statements regarding aerodrome control service is correct?




An aircraft entering the traffic circuit without permission of ATC, will be cleared to land ifthis is desirable The aerodrome control service is a service provided for the purpose of preventing collisions Suspension of VFR operations cannot be initiated by the aerodrome controller ATC permission is required for entering the apron with a vehicle

If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome will report field in sight, aclearance for visual approach may be given under certain conditions:

Continued approach will be according to VFR The air traffic controller will provide separation to other controlled traffic

For visual approaches, the following shall apply:

A) A visual approach may only be requested when the report ceiling is at or above the initial approachaltitude/level B) When so requested by a pilot, ATC is obliged to clear the aircraft for a visual approach C) When cleared for a visual approach, the pilot has to maintain own separation to other aerodrometraffic D) Separation has to be provided by ATC between an aircraft cleared for a visual approachand other arriving and departing aircraft

B and C B only A and D D only

Which statement regarding approach control service is correct? If it is anticipated that anaircraft has to hold for 30 minutes or more, an Expected Approach Time will be transmittedby the most expeditious means to the aircraft

A landing aircraft is not normally permitted to cross the beginning of the runway on its finalapproach until the preceding departing aircraft has: Become airborne and crossed the end of therunway threshold

ATCUs should advise aircraft operators or their designated representatives when anticipateddelays due to traffic condition are likely to be substantial and in any event when they are expected toexceed: 30 minutes

Approach Control has the following duties:

Inform aircraft if the approach delay is greater than 30 minutes Inform aircraft before departure if the delay is greater than 45 minutes




During the final approach which of the following information will be transmitted to the pilotwithout delay?

i) The sudden occurrence of hazards ii) Significant variations in the current surface wind expressed in terms of minimum andmaximum values iv) Changes in the operational status of the required visual or non-visual aids

iii) Significant changes in runway and taxiway surface conditions (Taxiway surface conditions is theodd one out)

Clearances will contain which of the items specified below:

Aircraft identification, clearance limit, route of flight, level of flight Aircraft identification, clearance limit, initial heading of flight, level of flight Aircraft identification, route of flight, level of flight or changes of levels if required Aircraft identification, clearance limit, track and headings of the route of flight, level of flight

Quote:rule out headings

What does a clearance for IMMEDIATE TAKE OFF mean?

Have all the appropriate checks complete before entering the runway The subsequent taxi and take off shall be completed in one continuous movement

A controlled flight is: Any flight which is subject to an ATC clearance

The accuracy of measurement of the depth of slush on a runway is to: 0.3 cm

A runway would not be reported as FLOODED unless:

significant patches of standing water are visible extensive standing water is visible

If a runway is reported as damp, the braking action may be assumed to be:

excellent acceptable

Dry snow is snow which:




will fall apart again if compacted by hand will form a snowball if compacted by hand

Braking Action: http://www.funpresent.com/atpl/viewtopic.php?f=2&t=52

Questions on AIP Sections GEN, ENR and AD:

3 Questions on AD

Q.1. Fuel available at an aerodrome will be published in: AIP-AD

Q.2. Detailed description of meteorological information provided at the aerodrome and an indication ofwhich meteorological office is responsible, is in the following part of the AIP: AD

Q.3. In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to refueling facilities andlimitations on refueling services? AD

4 Questions on ENR

Q.1. Which part is AIP Part 2? ENR

Q.2. A detailed description of lower ATS routes can be found in part ___ section ___ of the AIP. 2,ENR3

Q.3. In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to prohibited, restricted anddangerous areas? ENR

Q.4. The information’s on holding, approach and departure procedures, are found in the following partof the AIP: ENR

Rest All on GEN.

For a choice between GEN1 and GEN2 go for GEN1. For a choice between 1, AIRAC and 2, AIRACgo for2, AIRAC.

Aeronautical Information Service (AIS): http://www.funpresent.com/atpl/viewforum.php?f=3

Annex 7 (Aircraft Nationality and Registration Marks) contains: Standards only (norecommended practices)

According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of lettersand numbers and shall be that assigned by: the state of registry or common mark registeringauthority



http://www.funpresent.com/atpl/viewforum.php?f=3



The common mark shall be selected from the series of symbols include in the radio call signsallocated: to the International Civil Aviation Organization by the InternationalTelecommunication Union

The assignment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be madeby: the International Civil Aviation Organization

Which of the following is not found on the Certificate of Registration: The category of aircraft

According to Annex 7 certain combinations of letters are not to be used. These include:

SOS = Distress

PAN = Urgency

XXX = Urgency

QUG = I am ditching

TTT = Safety (a third level of emergency communication alert now only used in maritime operations)

When letters are used for the registration mark, combinations shall not be used which might beconfused with the: five letter combinations used in the international code of signals

How high are the markings on the horizontal surfaces of an aero plane? 50 cm.

The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfacesof heavier than air aircraft shall be: at least 30 centimeters.

How is taxiway holding position marked?

One or three different line arrangements painted across the taxiway Occulting yellow guard lights A red marker board either side of the taxiway A red light stop bar

Approach Lighting: http://www.funpresent.com/atpl/viewtopic.php?f=2&t=36

Runway / Taxiway Lighting and





Markings: http://www.funpresent.com/atpl/viewtopic.php?f=2&t=53

During the climb-out phase of a flight the pilot-in-command becomes incapacitated. The co-pilottakes over control of the aircraft and decides that he will return for landing. What action has to betaken after landing?

This is a serious incident. The crew must follow the procedure relevant to an incident. This is an accident. The crew must follow the procedure relevant to an accident.

Which of the following according to ICAO Annex 13, shall be entitled to appoint an accreditedrepresentative to participate in the investigation?

any State which, on request, provides information, facilities or experts to the Stateconducting the investigation State conducting the investigation and State of design and manufacturing State conducting the investigation, State of aircraft registry and operator's State

The conducting of an accident investigation may be delegated, in whole or in part, to:

The State of the Operator The State of Registry The State of Manufacture The State of Registry or the State of the Operator

The accident investigation preliminary report shall be submitted to appropriate States and to theICAO, in:

English The language of the investigating State One of the working languages of ICAO

Passenger A has passed through security and meets passenger B who has not been throughsecurity. What should be the subsequent procedure?

Passenger A to pass through security again Both passengers to pass through security Passenger B to pass through security Both passengers and their luggage to pass through security

If mixing or contact between passengers subjected to security control and other persons notsubjected to security control takes place:

All the passengers and their check-in luggage need to be security checked again All the passengers and their hand baggage need to be re-screened before boarding theaircraft





Only passengers in the specific area where the mixing took place need to be re-screened beforeboarding the aircraft The operator is to be informed and the decision to re-screen taken by the Commander of the flight

Contracting states are required to have procedures in place for the safety of passengers and crewof aircraft subjected to unlawful interference. The procedures are to be applied:

Throughout the time the aircraft is within the airspace and territory of the state Until their journey can be continued Until the aircraft has landed safely at the specifically designated aerodrome As C, but to include the taxiing and parking of the aircraft at the designated isolated parking area onthat aerodrome

The movement area of an airfield, the adjacent lands and buildings or the parts of them withcontrolled access is called:

Terminal Aeronautical part

If an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizure has landed on its territory, each Contractingstate shall:

a) Let the aircraft depart if it is necessary to protect human life b) Deliver food and water but turn down requests for fuel c) Detain the aircraft on ground d) A and C

An aircraft shall not carry munitions of war: unless the written permission of the Authorityand the operator is obtained

Each contracting state shall establish measures to ensure that the aircraft operator is informedwhen passengers are obliged to travel because they have been the subject of judicial or administrativeproceedings in order that appropriate security measures can be taken.

The aircraft operator and the pilot in command are only to be informed when any passenger is thesubject of judicial proceedings. The above question statement is incomplete. The pilot in command and the aircraft operatorare to be informed These measures are of the discretion of the contracting state Correct




Annex 17 to the ICAO convention assigns responsibility to member states to implement:

measures and human and material resources to safeguard international civil aviation measures to safeguard international civil aviation measures and human and material resources to safeguard civil aviation human and material resources to safeguard international civil aviation

Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with the administration to beresponsible for the development, implementation and maintenance of a national aviation securityprogramme. This programme should apply:

only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights and domestic flights only to all international civil transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights to all international civil air transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage ofcargo and yet to domestic flights at the discretion of each member state

Each State, according to ICAO Annex 17, shall ensure the establishment of a securityprogramme:

that is common for all airports within State only for administrative staff of airport for every airline operating in the State at each airport

Annex 17 states that each State is responsible for establishing national aviation securityprogramme at:

all international airports all international and commercial airports at each aerodrome all aerial locations within the FIR

A State shall provide assistance to an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizure. Thisassistance includes:

provision of navigation aids, air traffic services and permission to land provision of navigation aids, air traffic services, permission to land and catering for passengers provision of navigation aids, air traffic services, permission to land and refueling

Instrument Procedures: http://www.funpresent.com/atpl/viewforum.php?f=3

A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound trackand the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track is a (tracks are not reciprocal but this


http://www.funpresent.com/atpl/viewforum.php?f=3



fact is not mentioned in this question):

Procedure turn Base turn Reversal procedure Race track

What is the correct name for a turn from the outbound to the inbound section of an approach?

a procedure turn a reverse procedure turn a racetrack a base leg turn

Quote:Since the question does not mention if the tracks are reciprocal or not, the answer can be either"procedure turn" or a "base turn" and not a "base leg turn" (if thats what the examiner is tryingto look for considering the question to be complete and correct).

Medical and licensing: http://www.funpresent.com/atpl/viewtopic.php?f=2&t=9



010AirLaw&ATCProcedureslastminutepreparation& · PDF fileDuring an IFR flight in VMC in...

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